The most common question people ask when I explain that I have translated the Aramaic New Testament,
because I believe the original was written in Aramaic, and that Jesus and the Jewish people spoke Aramaic
as their native language, is: "How similar is the Aramaic to the King James version or other translations?"
The Peshitta Aramaic text is very close to the King James translation. My best estimates over several
chapter comparisons are that the two are in agreement about 93
93-95%
95% of the time. The 5-7%
5
difference,
however, turns out to be very interesting, significant and intriguing distinction
distinctions in the Peshitta.
I am convinced that New Testament scholars have misunderstood Luke's reason for writing his Gospel,
his concept of inspiration and authority of scripture, and by extension, the concept of inspiration
inspira
in
general. This misunderstanding is due primarily to a mistranslation from Aramaic into Greek in verse 3, in
the first word in the verse.
Here I reproduce my translation notes on this passage:
1:2
1:3
* yzxta He appeared is the most natural meaning of Ethkhazay and would refer to the
previous word -atlmd -of the Word.
. Luke is saying that The Lord Yeshua The Messiah had appeared to him and had authorized
and directed his writing of this Gospel. Why would it be received otherwise? If Luke merely thought
thought it good to write,
write why would the
churches have put it on a par with the inspired Gospels, Matthew, Mark and John? He would have been merely rehashing second hand
information and serving warmed up leftovers. That is no recommendation worthy of an inspired Gospel of The New Testament.
Theophila,
, to whom Luke wrote, would have thrown it in the trash if that were Lukes meaning. Verse 2 says the other gospels were
written by eyewitnesses.
Verse three says Luke was also an eyewitness of The Messiah
Messiah. If he were not, then he would be
disqualified to write a gospel. It would seem that Western churches, in their misunderstanding of
Lukes introduction,
on, have allowed scholarship to supplant Divine inspiration as its authority. This
has subtly and slowly supplanted the Spiritual
ual with the intellectual, which Luke the Physician has
come to represent. He was not writing a literary composition here; he was writing from God,
just as every other God inspired writer of scripture wrote: 1Co 2:13 Which things we also
speak; not in the teaching of the words of mans wisdom, but in the teaching of The Spirit;
and we compare spirituals with spirituals. 2Pe
Pe 1:21 For at no time was it by the pleasure
of man, that the prophecy came; but holy men of God spoke, as they were moved by the
Holy Spirit.
Would an inspired writer say, I thought I would write a Gospel account because many others
were writing accounts like those the apostles were writing? That would be the height of
presumption. Would he then suppose that he would improve on the inspired accounts?- It
seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first,
to write unto thee in order, most excellent Theophilus This is the King James translation,
which demonstrates here the presumptive attitude attributed to Luke. This is a very poor
translation of the Greek of verse 3, but all translations get it wrong in the first word of the verse,
which is the most critical: It seemed good. That is because the Greek has the verb edoxen
from dokeo-(to seem). The Aramaic verb Ethkhazay -(He appeared) yzxta could
mean seemed, but its usual meaning is appeared or was seen. This passive form of the
Aramaic yzx- Khaza (to see) occurs 29 times in the Peshitta NT. 18 times Murdock
translates it appeared, 7 times- seen, three times received sight and once (incorrectly, in
my opinion)- seemed.
The Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon has: yzx - xzy Verb
peal_1 ImpArMesop, BibAr, MiddleAr, JLA, Syr, Bab (lit.) to see
__2 BibArDan (metaph. like European langs.) to understand, to
realize
__3 JLAGal, Syr to visit
__4 JLATg to see a vision > xzy#2
__5 ImpArEg +%b_% to be victorious over
__6 Syr %)ayk.anA) xAze) )an~t nap$Ak% how are you?
pael_1 OAPal to see
(h)afel_1 ImpArEgOst, Palestinian, JBA to show
__2 JLAGal %)pyn% to console
[ethpeel_1 OASyr,JLATg,Syr,JBA to be seen
__2 Syr %leh% to be able to see
__3 Palm,JBA to be fit, to be proper (occurs 1 time out of 50?;
Luke 1:3 has the only questionable occurrence- comment is mine)
__4 JLAGal to appear in a vision]
ettafal_1 Syr, JBA to be made visible
LS2 224
The Targum of Jonathan has 21 occurrences of the passive verb Ethkhazay and Ethkhaza
in former and latter Prophets; none has the meaning seemed, or it was fit, proper. It would
appear or seem (pun intended) that the latter meaning is a rare one. In Luke 1:3, it also
contradicts the intention of Luke to employ that meaning.
If I am right about Luke 1:3, Lukes Gospel was probably written after Johns Gospel, since Luke
refers to The Word as He, a Person of Whom the Apostles are eyewitnesses and servants.
He also appeared to Luke. This refers plainly to John 1:1& 14. Luke would probably be the
last of the four Gospels written, not John.
1:4
Verse 4 confirms what I have written for verse three. If Luke were an eyewitness of The LORD
Yeshua and His words and deeds, then he could confirm The Gospel accounts as true; if not, all
the research and talent in the world would be useless toward composing an accurate account of
The Messiah, as the information required exceeds the capacity of man to secure on his own. Only
Divine revelation can provide the Truth of Him Whose Name is The Truth, The Way, The
Life, apart from Whom, no one can approach to The Eternal Father.
With regard to verse 2-"ministers of the Word" in the KJV, the 1560 Geneva Bible has a note which says,"they were
ministers of Christ, who is called the word, or ministers of the Gospel". So the translators of the Geneva Bible
acknowledged that "the word" could be a reference to The Jesus the Messiah.
The above comparison serves to set forth a distinctive and primitive view of New Testament Gospel authorship and
inspiration, according to the Peshitta, as opposed to a more humanist and documentary approach of Gospel authorship as
found in the Greek mss.
The Peshitta narrative supports the view of divine authorship of Luke. The Greek of Luke 1:1-4 supports a scholarship and
document comparison basis for the Gospel of Luke, and by implication, for the other Gospels as well.
"He appeared to me also... that I would write unto you" ; - The Peshitta
"It seemed good to me also... to write unto you" - Greek
2
There is a world of difference between those two accounts of the origin of Luke's Gospel.
But this is not uncommon of Peshitta distinctions in meaning, many of which contain added detail and precision not found
in the Greek texts, and quite a few of which reveal or accentuate clear doctrine which seems to be vague or even lost in the
Greek readings.
There are 433 words in the KJV passage. There are 407 in the Original Aramaic NT in Plain
English.
30 of the words in the latter translation (OANT) represent significant differences in the readings
of the two translations. Those words are in bold type in my translation of the second column. The
KJV represents the Greek New Testament, since it is translated from the traditional Textus
Receptus Greek New Testament, and represents the vast majority of Greek manuscripts for
Luke's Gospel.
30 out of 410 is 7%, so the two texts are in 93% agreement, which is consistent with other
chapter comparisons I have made, as mentioned above. Let's look at some of the differences:
1. The KJV has," all the world should be taxed"; my translation has, " every nation of his
empire would be registered". The Greek word translated "the world" is "oikumenay", which
means, "the inhabited earth". Thayer's Greek English Lexicon has,
" 3625 oikoumenh oikoumene oy-kou-men-ay
feminine participle present passive of 3611 (as noun, by implication of 1093); TDNT-5:157,674;
nf
AV-world 14, earth 1; 15
1) the inhabited earth
1a) the portion of the earth inhabited by the Greeks, in distinction from the lands of the
barbarians
1b) i.q. (same as) the Roman empire, all the subjects of the empire
1c) the whole inhabited earth, the world
1d) the inhabitants of the earth, men
2) the universe, the world "
The Greek leaves far too much leeway of meaning in the language to leave the reader certain of a
precise understanding, and "Roman Empire" is not strictly a translation of the word, but rather
an application or interpretation of it, in the context of the 1st century Roman Empire when the
Greek Gospel of Luke was penned. Consequently, twelve translations of the Greek have, "all
the world"; one has, "all the inhabited earth", and four have, "all the empire" -(English
Majority Text Version), and the NIV has "all the Roman world".
The Peshitta's Aramaic has, "Kulah ama d'eukhdanah"- "all people-nations of his empire". There
is some controversy as to whether Augustus Caesar ever ordered a census of the whole empire,
or simply over the nation of Israel. It is hard to see why he would have restricted a census to
Israel only; actually, it makes no sense whatsoever to hold that view. That would be equivalent
to a census being taken in Hawaii and leaving the other 49 states of the USA out. We may be
confident, however, that there was never a census of the whole inhabited earth under Augustus
Caesar, as the Greek reading suggests. If there was never an empire wide census, however,
then all NT manuscripts have it wrong, in every ancient written language found in NT
manuscripts and versions.
The Peshitta, in verse 5, last word, makes clear that Joseph was registered "there" in Bethlehem.
5
In verse 7, the last clause in the Greek means, "there was no room for them in the inn". The
Peshitta says, " there was no place where they might lodge". No inn is mentioned in the
Peshitta. There may have been one, or there may not have been. All it says is that they had no
place to lodge. Considering that Bethlehem was a very small village (Micah 5:2), it would
seem unlikely that there was an inn for travelers.
Verse 9 reveals a very interesting distinction between the Greek and the Aramaic New Testament,
here and in many other places, and that distinction is this: the Greek NT has no occurrence
of the name of God; it has only titles, such as "Theos"-"God" and "Kurios"-"Lord".
Even with the definite article, both words are titles, not names. This fact ought to be seriously
pondered, even as Mary pondered in her heart what the shepherds told her and Joseph
concerning her son, and remembered their words.
Consider whether the original divine New Testament would have not one
occurrence of the divine name to authenticate it.
The Greek New Testament is held forth as the original, and yet it does not give God's name even
once!
This is a fatal flaw in the Greek NT not to be ignored or dismissed.
And the four and twenty elders and the four beasts fell down and worshipped God that sat on the throne,
saying, Amen; Alleluia.
aywllh Nyma Nyrmaw ayorwk le btyd Nhlal wdgow Nwyx ebraw Nysysq aebraw Nyroe wlpnw Re 19:4 (Peshitta)
Re 19:4 (BYZ) kai epeson oi presbuteroi oi eikosi tessarev kai ta tessara zwa kai prosekunhsan tw yew tw
kayhmenw epi tou yronou legontev amhn allhlouia
Re 19:4
And I heard as it were the voice of a great multitude, and as the voice of many waters, and as the voice of
mighty thunderings, saying, Alleluia: for the Lord God omnipotent reigneth.
lk dyxa ahla ayrm Klmad ljm aywllh Nyrmad antlyx amerd alq Kyaw aaygo aymd alq Kyaw aaygo asnkd Kya
alq temsw Re 19:6 (Peshitta)
Re 19:6 (BYZ) kai hkousa wv fwnhn oclou pollou kai wv fwnhn udatwn pollwn kai wv fwnhn brontwn iscurwn
legontev allhlouia oti ebasileusen kuriov o yeov hmwn o pantokratwr
Re 19:6
kai ai yurai ierousalhm wdav agalliamatov erousin kai pasai ai oikiai authv erousin allhlouia
euloghtov o yeov tou israhl kai euloghtoi euloghsousin to onoma to agion eiv ton aiwna kai eti
Tobit 2 13:18 kai erousin pasai ai rumai authv allhlouia kai ainesousin legontev euloghtov o yeov ov uqwsen
pantav touv aiwnav
Tobit 13:18
The Hebrew word hywllh is "HalleluYah" -("Praise YAH"). In the Aramaic Crawford ms. of
Revelation, it is aywllh (Aramaic transliteration -"HalleluYa"). You can see that the Aramaic
aywllh -"Halleluya" occurs four times in Revelation in the Crawford manuscript.
It is not reading theology into the word to point out that there are over 1300 occurrences of
compound names in the Peshitta OT ending in ay which transliterate a Hebrew compound name
(or a word like Hallelujah) ending in hy -"YAH" - the short form of the Tetragrammaton, and
which contain the Divine Name attached to another word. I cannot find one example among
1300 places where such Hebrew names occur in the Tanak in which the Aramaic transliteration
does not have ay (Yodh-Alap ,"ya")- as the ending in the place of the Hebrew hy (YodhHe,"yh")- . Some examples are Adonijah, Ahijah, Bizjothjah,Elijah, Hilkijah, Urijah,
Abijah, Malchijah, Ishijah, Jehudijah, Antothijah, Ibnijah, Jerijah,
Hodijah,Zidkijah,Irijah,Tobijah.Some of these names occur dozens or scores of times
throughout the OT. In every case, the Peshitta Aramaic text has these names spelled with ay
(Yodh-Alap)- as the ending in the place of the Hebrew hy (Todh-He)- : Elijah is ayla in the
Peshitta; "Elijah" means, "My God is Jehovah"; Ahijah is "ayxa" in the Peshitta. Ahijah means,
"Jehovah is my brother", etc.
It is clear in these and in all the Hebrew names ending with "YAH" that the Aramaic translation
changes the last letter h -"He" to a -"Alap", making the ay- ending in the Aramaic names
equal to the Hebrew Divine name hy . This is not to say that every Aramaic noun ending
with ay signifies YHWH, for that is certainly not the case. It does indicate that every
compound Hebrew name ending with "YAH" -"Yehovah",or ("Jehovah") is transliterated into
Aramaic with a ay (Yod Alap) ending.
Since the Aramaic lexicons generally agree that ayrm -"Marya" is the equivalent for YHWH,
and YHWH is a name, and Aramaic is a Semitic language very like Hebrew, and about as
similar to Hebrew as any two languages can be similar, it is reasonable to expect that ayrm "Marya" is a name, and not only a name, but to be, in Aramaic, the sacred name of The Most
High God, not a mere title like the Greek "Kurios".
If the lexicons are unclear about the etymology of "Marya", perhaps it is due to inattention to
the significance of this singularly important word and comparison to other names like those
listed above.
"Kurios" (Greek for "lord, master, sir") is never defined as "the equivalent of YHWH", as
"Marya" is. Since this name ayrm -"Marya" is a compound name, ending with ay- , like all
the other compound names in Aramaic that transliterate a Hebrew compound name ending
with "YAH", it is very reasonable to interpret the ay- ending in the Aramaic name ayrm "Marya" as "YAH", as in all the 260 such occurrences of names in the Peshitta OT that
transliterate compound names ending with "YAH", and therefore that the name ayrm 7
"Marya" is a combination of "Mar" + "YAH". All the lexicons but one state that "Marya" =
"The Lord" or is the equivalent of "Jehovah" or "The Tetragrammaton". What is the meaning
of "The Lord"? It is plainly significant that the definite article is used. "Marya" is more than
"lord" or "master". "The Lord" is an absolute term, signifying The Supreme Being. "The"
means that there is no other.
"Marya" is never used to identify any other than the Most High God of Heaven and of the
universe. "Marya" must not be confused with the plural of "Mara"- "lord, master", which is
"Maryey"- "lords, masters". This form uses the same consonants as "Marya" and looks
identical in an unpointed text, but is not the same word. This is most likely the form used in
Sinaitic Syriac ms. of John 12:21, and would be translated, "Sirs". If the text actually uses
"Marya"- the singular name, then this is the only example in which the word is used of
anyone but The Eternal I know of. The Siniatic Syriac manuscript is not a very reliable
authority for the Aramaic language, as it contains demonstrably poor Aramaic readings and
grammar in many places.
The best and most voluminous single authority for Aramaic word usage is The Peshitta
Bible, both Old and New Testaments. Nowhere in the Peshitta is "Marya", the singular
masculine name, assigned to anyone but The Eternal Jehovah. Let anyone produce one
supposed example and I will demonstrate otherwise. There is no example in any lexicon or
dictionary of "Marya", the singular masculine name, being used for any individual person but
YHWH. The Peshitta Old Testament contains the Name almost 7000 times. I have translated
90% of the Peshitta TANAK. I have yet to find any example of a being aside from YHWH
addressed or named as "Marya".
ayrm -"Marya" cannot be explained as the mere emphatic form of rm -"Mar". The emphatic
of rm -"Mar" is arm -"Mara". An Aramaic title is not made emphatic by adding ay, but
simply the letter a -Alap, as with all emphatic forms. Thus the ay ending is the Aramaic for
hy -"YAH" in a compound name, ayrm - "Marya" which means, "Lord Jehovah", or
"Jehovah is Lord".
There are too many to list them all, but it is clear that "ayrm" -"Marya" fits the pattern of
Aramaic names transliterated from Hebrew names ending with "YAH", which is the short form
for "Yehovah" or "YHWH", the Name of God. It is also clear that the emphatic form of rm "Mar" (lord, master) is arm, "Mara", not ""ayrm" -"Marya". The emphatic form of a noun is
made by adding an Alap -"a" to the absolute form (e.g. rm), making arm, "Mara" (The
Lord,the Master). The emphatic never requires or involves an additional "Yodh" - y with the Alap
- ay. These facts coupled with the "YAH" ending in Hebrew names stated above make it a virtual
certainty that ayrm, "Marya" is the Sacred Name YHWH transliterated in compound form, using
the absolute form rm, "Mar" for the first part and "ay" -(the Aramaic compound form for "hy" "YAH" for the second part. So the Aramaic compound name ayrm, "Marya" has the meaning,
"Lord YAH", or "Lord Jehovah".
The most significant distinctions in the passage between the Greek and
Aramaic texts are in verse 11:
For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord. KJV
For today, The Savior has been born to you, who is THE LORD JEHOVAH The Messiah, in
the city of David. -my translation of the Peshitta
Not only is Jesus (Yeshua in Aramaic) announced as "The Savior" in the Peshitta, as opposed to
"a savior", but He is announced as "Mar-Yah"- THE LORD JEHOVAH The Messiah. The
Greek seems rather tepid by comparison: "Christ the Lord" is somewhat ambiguous as to the
nature of His Person. One might take the meaning, "The King Messiah" from this, as "Kurios",
even with the definite article, might refer to a human pontentate. (See Ex. 22:15 in LXX.) The
Peshitta is unequivocal in its testimony here: The Messiah is YHWH! And so is He named in
49 other places in the Peshitta NT, and He Himself introduces Himself with the Divine Name"Ena na" (I AM The Eternal), some thirty seven times from Matthew to Revelation.
The next major difference between the Greek and Aramaic texts is in Luke 2:
14The Greek has "good will to men"; the Aramaic word corresponding to "eudokia"- "good will",
is "savra". "Savra" is from a root word, "svar", which has several possible meanings: "to hope",
"announce news", "think", "imagine", "have an opinion","expect". "Savra" is simply the noun
form of the root word, in the emphatic form, so it can have any of the root meanings in noun
form: "imagination, hope, expectation, news, opinion, thought". "Savra" is followed by "tava""good"; "good hope to men" does not really sound right, as all hope is good; I cannot imagine a
bad hope; "good expectation to men" does not make sense. Even Angels cannot give good
expectations to men, and if they could, what good would that be, and what is expectation but
prolonged want and need. The birth of Jehovah Messiah is not something that increases our want
and need. It is the gift of salvation to the world and the supplying of all our need and desire. "The
desire of all nations shall come", wrote Haggai. Here it is being announced from Heaven. The
only definition that makes really good sense here for "savra tava"is "good news", which is
certainly what the Angels were announcing to the world. This is the meaning of the
word,"gospel".
Was this announcement "good news? Hear the Angel's earlier words: "I proclaim to you great
joy which will be to the entire universe". That sounds like good news to me. The good news
brings great joy to the entire universe, for the announcement is the birth of The Savior of the
world, The LORD Jehovah Himself, The Messiah, whose arm is not shortened, that it cannot
save, neither His ear heavy, that it cannot hear". - Isaiah 59:1
Who is this that cometh from Edom, with dyed garments from Bozrah? this that is glorious in his
apparel, travelling in the greatness of his strength? I that speak in righteousness, mighty to
save.- Isaiah 63:1
9
There is no doubt in Jehovah's ability and power to save, not in the heart of those who trust in
Him. And whom did He come to save? Hear the words from the mouth of LORD JEHOVAH
Himself:
"For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost". Mat 18:11
"And whoever hears my words and does not keep them, I am not judging him, for I have come,
not to judge the world, but to give life to the world." - (THE LORD Yeshua) John 12:47
"Now is the judgment of this world; now The Ruler of this world is hurled outside, and when I am lifted
up from the earth, I will draw everyone to myself." He said this that he might show by what death
he would die. - John 12:31-33
Not if, but when:
Please notice in the above verses (John 12:31-33) that the drawing of everyone to Himself occurred
when He was lifted up on the cross. He was speaking of His death on the cross.The Greek text says, "if I
be lifted up"; the Peshitta says, "when I shall be lifted up". There is a big difference between those two
words, "if" & "when". The Peshitta says that He would draw everyone to Himself when He was on the
cross. The Greek does not specify the time of the drawing of all people, leaving it to an almost unlimited
time frame, and a very vague sense of drawing, at least in the minds of some, in the sense of attraction
which may or may not result in actual salvation, depending on the individual.If Jesus drew everyone to
Himself on the cross, no one had any choice in the matter. "If we died with Him, we shall also live with
Him".- 2 Tim. 2:11 The Greek is somewhat vague in its wording of this verse in Timothy also:" If we have
died together, we shall also live together". There is no prepositional phrase, "with him" in the Greek text.
Paul wrote in 2 Cor. 5:14: "For the love of The Messiah compels us to reason this: The One
died in the place of every person; so then every person died with him."- (OANT) The
Greek is less clear: "For the love of Christ compels us, having concluded this: that if One
died for all, then all died".
Paul also wrote: "For we know that our old person was crucified with him, that the body of sin would
be destroyed, that we shall not again serve sin. For whoever is dead has been freed from sin. If therefore
we are dead (have died) with The Messiah, let us believe that we shall live with The Messiah." Romans 6:6-8
Who will stop Him in His wholehearted purpose to save? Who can stop Him?
Or do we make Our Lord envious? Are we stronger than he? - 1 Cor 10:21
The good news is true, whether you or I believe it or not. Our God and Savior has already
accomplished His mission to save the world. It only remains to be revealed and experienced,
and that will also be done.
For if some of them did not believe, did they nullify the faith of God by not believing?
Romans 3:3
10
For we are his creatures who are created in Yeshua The Messiah for good works, those things
which God had from the first prepared that we should walk in them. -Ephesians 2:1-14
The dead cannot choose salvation; the dead cannot believe or obey. "When we were dead... He
gave us life". - Eph. 2:5
"Because we know that a man is not justified by works of The Written Law, but by the faith
of Yeshua The Messiah, we also believe in Yeshua The Messiah, that we should be made
right by the faith of The Messiah, and not by the works of The Written Law, because no one
is made right by the works of The Written Law". -Galatians 2:16
"For I by The Written Law have died to The Written Law that I might live unto God. And I have been
crucified with The Messiah, and from then on I myself have not been living, but The Messiah is living in
me, and this that I now live in the flesh, I live by the faith of The Son of God, he who has loved us and
has given himself for us. I do not reject the grace of God, for if righteousness is by The Written Law, The
Messiah died for nothing". - Gal. 2:19-21
Ro 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every
one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. - KJV
16. For I am not ashamed of The Gospel, because it is the power of God for the life of all who believe in
it, whether of The Judeans first, or of the Aramaeans. - Peshitta (OANT)
1Co 1:18 For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it
is the power of God. -KJV
18. The message of the crucifixion is insanity to the lost, but to those of us who have life it is the power of
God. -
11
1Co 1:24 But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the
wisdom of God. -KJV
24. But to those who are called, Jews and Aramaeans, The Messiah is the power of God and the wisdom
of God. -Peshitta (OANT)
1Co 2:5 That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but in the power of God.
5. That your faith would not be in the wisdom of men, but in the power of God. -Peshitta (OANT)
2Co 6:7 By the word of truth, by the power of God, by the armour of righteousness on the right hand and
on the left, -KJV
7. By the message of the truth, by the power of God, by the armor of righteousness that is on the right and
on the left -Peshitta (OANT)
We are saved by His will, his faith and His power, not our own; a dead man has no will, faith or
power. A sinner is a slave to sin, as Yeshua said:"He who commits sin is a slave to sin". A
slave is not free. The only way he will be made free is if his Master sets him free, or if another
more powerful man binds his master and releases his slave. Our Lord taught His disciples the
latter as the actual case in salvation. (See Matthew 12:22-30 & Acts 26:18 & Col. 1:13.)
Here is a verse you probably have not read if you have never read a good translation of the Peshitta:
"If therefore The Messiah has suffered in your place in the flesh, be you also equipped with the same
mind, for everyone who has died in his body has ceased from all sins".- 1 Peter 4:1
If you think this sounds strange, compare the Greek version: "Therefore, since Christ suffered for
us in the flesh, you also arm yourselves with the same mind, because he who suffered in the
flesh has ceased from sin".
Which is more strange -"He who has suffered in the flesh has ceased from sin", or, "Everyone
who has died in his body has ceased from all sin"?
Can we really believe that any suffering in the flesh makes us sin free? That cannot be true. It
makes no sense whatsoever.
A quick comparison of the two readings in Aramaic may clear up the difficulty here:
Here is the Peshitta Aramaic reading- "who died":
t)md
Here is the Greek reading "who suffered" in Aramaic script:$)xd
Perhaps a Greek translator saw the Peshitta reading (#1) and mistook it as the second word,
which is very similar in appearance.
"And this word is trustworthy, for if we have died with him*, we shall also live with him".
2 Tim 2:11
"The One died for every person, so then every person died with Him". 2 Cor. 5:14
Many will read this treatise and say to themselves, "such universal salvation is
simply too good to be true";
my response is this: Of course it is too good to be true, to the human mind. So is Heaven; so is
eternal life; so is the love of God; so is Jesus. If it did not seem too good to be true, it would be
disqualified as a lie, and could not be the true Gospel of The Living Eternal God, Who
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manifested Himself in time and space by being born in a barn and placed in a feeding trough,
wrapped in swaddling bands. Angels announced him to shepherds in a field as the Eternal
Jehovah, The Messiah and Savior of the world for all people. Of course it is unbelievable.
Does God ever ask us to believe something easy? His message is always too good to be true,
because He is too good to be true. If the God you believe in is less than shocking to the
natural mind and less than impossibly good, powerful and wise, then you have a counterfeit
god. We are required to believe in the impossible, and in an impossibly great and good God,
that we might have life and joy and Heaven. We are also to prove our faith by obeying Him.
There is no life without obedience to our Lord Jesus.
Imagine the effect Jesus' raising of Lazarus had on Mary and Martha, his sisters, and upon Jesus'
disciples, and all who knew Lazarus. He had been dead and buried four days, and wrapped up
like a mummy! Do you not think it struck them as too good to be true? Which of Jesus'
miracles was not too good to be true? If you had witnessed any one of them, do you think you
would have had no problem accepting that He actually changed 180 gallons of water in six 30
gallon water jugs into the finest wine in a moment, or that He really could walk on the sea and
then stop a storm? The disciples were dumbstruck, and said, "What kind of man is this, that
even the wind and the sea obey him"? They were supposed to know who he was, but why
were they always so shocked by his miracles and his words? Did they really believe in him?
Probably not, at least, not most of the time. Peter had his moments when faith would erupt
from him, but it was momentary and sporadic, like a flash in a pan. The next moment he
would be under Satan's power, trying to tempt Jesus to reject God's plan and purpose of
redemption by crucifixion.
But what are his miracles compared to his atonement, in laying down his life-all of it? Was that
not his greatest work, by far? Why should the power and effect of that greatest of all God's
works not stagger us beyond the power of any other of his works to stagger us? Is not the
redemption a far greater and more difficult work for God than even the creation of the
universe? Creation was done by God speaking it into being; redemption was done by the
Creator bleeding, suffering and dying. Creation cost him nothing; he spoke, and it was done.
Redemption cost him everything, Spirit, Soul & Body. He had to give up everything he had
and was, in order to save the world of innumerable bodies, souls and spirits. The Peshitta
version of Ps. 49:8 says "the salvation of their souls is precious; it labors for eternity". That is
never said of the work of creation. Only an infinite power can save the world for eternity.
Creation, as great as it is, is finite, and required less of an expenditure of power than
redemption.
And would not the full disclosure, revelation and declaration of that greatest of all God's mighty
works strike us with such magnified astonishment and incredulity, that anyone who were to
hear its fullness expounded clearly and forcefully, even driven home by The Spirit of Holiness
Himself, would scarcely ever believe that he had even heard or understood the message of it
correctly, because it would strike him as just "TOO GOOD TO BE TRUE!!!".
And that would be the sign that what he heard must be the true Gospel- the Good News of God
and Christ. Anything less would be discredited as "another gospel".
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The measure of the magnitude, extent and success of salvation is proportionate to the measure of
the magnitude, power and wisdom of The Christ and of The Godhead Who are All-in for this
great work of redemption, which redemption has been accomplished in the death, burial and
resurrection of THE ONE LORD GOD- YHWH ELOHIM ECHAD, outside of time- "slain
from before the foundation of the world"-Rev. 13:8 (OANT), and revealed in time and space
and matter in the body and soul of Yeshua The Messiah in Jerusalem, on a cross on Mt.
Moriah, also called Calvary & Golgotha, in A.D. 33 on Passover, 14th Nissan, according to
Ussher's chronology.
That is the gospel as I find it in the Peshitta New Testament. The Greek version of it seems to
have lost something of its original power and glory in translation; not that the gospel is not
found in the Greek, only that the Greek version seems to be a duller blade than the original
Peshitta, as exemplified in some of the verses quoted above, beginning with Luke 1:1-4.
I commend this translation of the Peshitta to the reader, and the reader "to The Father of Our Lord Yeshua
The Messiah, Him from whom every fatherhood is named, that is in Heaven and in Earth, that he would
grant you according to the riches of his glory to be confirmed by power in his Spirit, that in your inner
person, The Messiah may dwell by faith, and in your hearts by love, when your root and your foundation
shall be confirmed, that you can discover with all the holy, what is the height and depth and length and
breadth, and you may know the magnitude of the knowledge of the love of The Messiah and you may be
filled in all the fullness of God.
But to him who is more than almighty to do for us and is greater than what we ask or imagine,
according to his power that is active in us, to him be glory by his church in Yeshua The Messiah to all
generations of the eternity of eternities. Amen."
But this is The Covenant that I shall give to the family of the house of Israel: After those days, says THE
LORD JEHOVAH, I shall put my law in their minds and upon their hearts I shall write it, and I shall be to
them a God, and they shall be to me a people. And a man will not teach a citizen of his city, neither his
brother, and say, 'Know THE LORD JEHOVAH', because they shall all know me, from their little ones
and unto their Elders." Heb. 8
For because God knew beforehand that the nations are made right by faith, he preached The Good News
to Abraham beforehand, as The Holy Scriptures say: "In you shall all the nations be blessed."
"And everybody will see The Life of God." Luke 3:6
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