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1 What are the three options available to define the engine persistence mode at an

AppSpace level? (Choose three.)


memory
cache
datastore
file
group
exclusive
2 When configuring bwagents, which two options are available for setting the
persistence and the transport provider? (Choose two.)
ActiveSpaces
EMS
DBEMS
TCP
NFS
3 Your company requests that you set up managed fault tolerance for applications
deployed on AppSpace A1.
How should you configure the engine persistence modes and requirements in order
to fulfill the request?
Engine persistence mode must be set to memory, and TIBCO Enterprise Message
Service must be configured to let AppNodes communicate between them.
Engine persistence mode must be set to datastore, and TIBCO ActiveSpaces must
be configured to let AppNodes communicate between them.
Engine persistence mode must be set to group, TIBCO Enterprise Message Service
must be configured to let AppNodes communicate between them, and a database is
required for persistence.
Engine persistence mode must be set to TIBCO ActiveSpaces, TIBCO Enterprise
Message Service must be configured to let AppNodes communicate between them,
and a database is required for persistence.
4 What does degraded state indicate for an AppSpace?

The config file for the AppSpace has incorrect values.


The AppSpace does not have the minimum specified AppNodes.
The AppSpace is opened in an earlier version of TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks.
The domain was moved from local to enterprise mode.
5 You need to define a process that can only be invoked by other processes that
are a part of the same package.
Which modifier should the process have?
public
static
private
protected
6 You need to create a RESTful service in TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks for an
employee resource that has the following fields: ID, FirstName, LastName, Salary.
How should you configure the Resource Service Path for a service that returns the
employee resource by ID?
/employee/[id]
/employee/{id}
/employee/(id)
/employee/id
7 You are developing a process that needs to invoke a SOAP service. During
development, the endpoint that hosts the service is located at
http://development.example.org. During production, the endpoint that hosts the
service is located at http://production.example.org.
How do you ensure that the endpoint you are accessing is configurable?
Use the SetEPR activity in the process and have a module property that references
the endpoint.
Associate an HTTP Client with the transport configuration in the component
bindings, and set the endpoint in the HTTP Client.
Set the endpoint in the advanced section of the Invoke activity, and use a module
property that references the endpoint.

Create a module property called soapServiceEndpoint., and use that to set the
correct endpoint.
8 Which three Shared Resources does this process use? (Choose three.)
JDBC Connection
ODBC Connection
JMS Connection
HTTP Connector
HTTP Client
RESTFul Connector
9 A large data set needs to be passed from a parent to multiple inline child
processes. The variable has to be visible to processes across different modules.
Which variable is correct to use in this situation?
substitution variables
module shared variables
application shared variable
job shared variables
10 Where can a fault handler be attached in a process? (Choose two.)
Service Binding Level
Process Level
Scope Level
Reference Binding Level
Application Module Level
11 Which activity allows you to collect multiple transition flows to resume a single
flow of execution in the process?
Empty activity
Null activity
Exit activity

Scope activity
12 You are using a Mapper activity in your process design.
Which three can be used as inputs in the Mapper Input tab? (Choose three.)
Primitive Datatype
Database Resultset
DTD File
Inline Schema
Complex Datatype
CLOB
13

You are migrating an application, which includes some custom XPath functions.

Which runtime task is needed to make the custom function available?


Include the custom XPath function plug-ins into the Host repository.
Export the XPath function as a zip, and import it through BusinessStudio.
Export the XPath function as a jar, and update the bwagent path.
Include the XPath function plug-ins in your application.
14 While debugging an application inside TIBCO BusinessStudio, when is the job
data visible in the job data view?
after selecting an activity in a job
after selecting an activity in completed jobs only
a Process Definition that implements the operations of the service
after selecting a completed job
after selecting the job data view
2 Correlation data must always be associated with which two process objects?
(Choose two.)
Catch message event
Receive task
Start message event

Send task
Catch signal event
3 Which of the following can be created by importing an XSD?
Business Object Model
Process interface
Database service task
Form
4 Which three actions are classed as 'Non-Destructive Changes' when upgrading a
Case Data Model? (Choose three.)
Change multiplicity lower bounds to a lower value.
Add a new class.
Change multiplicity from 1..1 to 1..*
On an attribute, change a pattern that is applied to the attribute.
Add a mandatory attribute to a class.
On an attribute, make it searchable or not searchable.
5 How can you implement a consistent form experience for a common subset of
data across multiple tasks and forms, while minimizing the number of places where
changes must be made?
Make a form pane read-only.
Use embedded forms.
Copy and paste a form section into other forms.
Use a pageflow.
6 You need to interactively debug a business process application to check the data
values of a local business object data field at key points as you step through the
execution of a process instance.
Which three steps should be followed? (Choose three.)
Add an emulation file to define the data you wish to check.
Add breakpoints to the process.

Set Studio preferences to enable debug mode.


Set up a debug configuration and connect to the pageflow engine.
Set up a debug configuration and connect to the BPM engine.
Configure Test Points to indicate the data you wish to monitor.
7 Which two deployment options are available from TIBCO Business Studio?
(Choose two.)
Zip file
DAA file loaded through ActiveMatrix Administrator
Deployment Wizard
Scripted Deployment
XML file
8 How can you revert an allocated work item to the original distribution pool?
Skip work item.
Re-allocate to world.
Re-offer selected work item.
Allocate work item to pool.
9 When using the Organization Browser, resources can be mapped to which two
entities? (Choose two.)
Participants
Organization Units
Positions
Roles
Groups
10 How is work offered or allocated through instantiations of a dynamic
organization?
Mapping the correct identification process data to the relevant dynamic organization
identifier.
Using an LDAP query in a Performer field.

Using a Performer field that contains the dynamic organization identifier.


Referencing the dynamic organization identifier from RQL.
1 Which two issues can occur when too many operators are used in a message
selector? (Choose two.)
message store overflow
stack overflow
selector truncation
recursive selector evaluation
2 What is the result of a message producer sending messages with the
JMSDeliveryMode set to NON_PERSISTENT?
If authorization is disabled on the server, the server sends a confirmation to the
message producer by default.
If authorization is enabled on the server, the server sends a confirmation to the
message producer by default.
If authorization is disabled on the server, the server sends a confirmation to the
message producer only if the npsend_check_mode is set to temp_dest.
If authorization is disabled on the server, the server sends a confirmation to the
message producer only if the npsend_check_mode is set to auth.
3 Refer to the following scenario when a route is established between two
Enterprise Message Service servers:
routes.conf on Server-A:
[Server-B]
url=tcp://hostA:7022
zone_name=Z1
zone_type=1hop
routes.conf on Server-B is empty.
Which two statements are true in this situation? (Choose two.)
Server-B actively initiates the connection to Server-A.
Server-A actively initiates the connection to Server-B.

The route between Server-A and Server-B can be promoted to active-active.


The route between Server-A and Server-B cannot be promoted to active-active.
4 What is the result of setting the processor_ids property in the tibemsd.conf file?
The affinity for the tibemsd process is set to these processors.
The affinity of the network related threads is set to these processors.
The affinity of the data store related threads is set to these processors.
The affinity of the processing threads is set to these processors.
5 Refer to the following scenario:
create topic > secure
create topic foo.>
grant topic foo.> user=user1 publish
grant topic foo.bar user=user1 subscribe
Which two statements are true about user1? (Choose two.)
user1 can use selectors for topic foo.bar.
user1 can use durables for topic foo.bar.
user1 can publish messages to foo.test.
user1 cannot publish messages to foo.test.
6 Which two statements correctly describe the behavior when a destination
inherits the prefetch property from multiple parent destinations? (Choose two.)
When all parent destinations set the value to none, the child destination uses the
value none.
When all parent destinations set the value to none, the child destination uses the
default value.
When none of the parent destinations sets a non-zero value, the child destination
uses the default value.
When none of the parent destinations sets a non-zero value, the child destination
uses the value none.
7 With multicast feature enabled at server side, which class contains the methods
to disable the multicast feature at client side?

Connection
Session
TibjmsConnectionFactory
ConnectionFactory
8 flow_control in tibemsd.conf is enabled with the following configuration:
setprop queue myQueue
maxmsgs=1000,overflowPolicy=rejectIncoming,flowControl=100MB
Which two statements are true about this configuration? (Choose two.)
When the total size of pending messages exceeds the value of flowControl(100MB),
new messages to myQueue are rejected.
When the number of pending messages exceeds the value of maxmsgs(1000), the
server will generate errors back to the producer.
When the total size of pending messages exceeds the value of flowControl(100MB),
the server will generate errors back to the producer.
When the number of pending messages exceeds the value of maxmsgs(1000), new
messages to myQueue are rejected.
9 What are three situations when a configuration deployment by the Central
Administration server could fail? (Choose three.)
deploying to multiple servers simultaneously
inadequate user permissions to deploy to the server
invalid settings in the new server configuration
failure to lock the server
failure to connect to the server
10 Which two elements enable message tracing on an Enterprise Message Service
server? (Choose two.)
on a consumer
on a destination
on a producer
on a message

10
An Enterprise Message Service server is configured with the following trace
options:
log_trace=DEFAULT,-LIMITS
What will the logs contain?
messages regarding connection errors,destination overflow, route, and no messages
regarding ACL violations
messages regarding ACL, route, connection errors, and no messages regarding
destination limits
messages regarding destination overflow, ACL, connection errors, and no messages
regarding routing limits
messages regarding route, ACL, destination overflow errors, and no messages
regarding connection limits
1 Which TIBCO product must be pre-installed in the same TIBCO_HOME as
ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?
TIBCO Enterprise Message Service
TIBCO Runtime Agent
TIBCO Business Events
TIBCO Business Studio
2 Where is the Domain Utility run when adding a machine to a domain?
on any other machine in the domain
on the machine where the Administrator is installed
on the machine you want to add to the domain
use the Administrator GUI to add the machine
3 Which statement is true about changing the log-level of an engine?
It is changed by restarting the engine with a different -debugLevel argument.
It is changed from the TIBCO Administrator by re-deployment of the engine.
It is changed by modifying the bwengine.xml file, which is periodically re-read by
the engine.
It is changed from the TIBCO Administrator by selecting the appropriate role(s).

4 Which processes are recovered when an ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks engine is


gracefully stopped and restarted?
all processes that have passed a Checkpoint activity but did not complete
all processes that were paged by the engine during their execution
all processes that are marked "persistent" during deployment
all processes that were in progress when the shutdown was initiated
5 To which state is a process instance re-instantiated when using a database to
store process engine information?
the last database update
the last checkpoint
the last received message
the Administrator backup
6 Which two levels of tracing are provided for tracing process resources? (Choose
two.)
BusinessWorks engine input XML and output XML
only Write to Log activities
only Service Agents
any process starters
8 A called sub-process has a Generate Error activity. There are no error transitions
in any of the involved processes.
What happens when the Generate Error activity is executed?
The uncaught exception causes the engine to exit.
The process instance terminates.
The job interface transitions into an error state.
The sub-process restarts processing with its start activity.
9 The Assign activity is used to assign a value to which type of variable?
Global Variable
Instance Variable

Process Variable
Shared Variable
10 Which two types of activities have transactional capabilities in ActiveMatrix
BusinessWorks? (Choose two.)
Java activities
JMS activities
Rendezvous activities
SOAP activities
JDBC activities
11. How are Critical section groups used?
to synchronize process instances across multiple process engines
to ensure activities within the group will execute at least once
to group multiple activities into a higher priority
to create a set of activities with a common error transition
12 Which two transport types are supported by the ActiveEnterprise Adapter
palette? (Choose two.)
JMS Topic transport
HTTP transport
JMS Route transport
Tibrv Reliable transport
Tibrv Network transport
14 Which three items must be supplied when specifying an ActiveMatrix
BusinessWorks Service Resource? (Choose three.)
a WSDL file that defines the interface for the service
fault messages that can be sent by the service
a Process Definition that implements the operations of the service
SOAP headers that you want to pass to the messages of the service

a Context Resource for the incoming request


endpoint bindings of the service
15 When implementing a service, which activity must match the SOAP reply
message schema?
Start activity
Process Starter activity
End activity
Partner Link activity
1 With TIBCO Rendezvous messaging, which protocol does the Rendezvous
daemon (RVD) use to communicate with other RVDs?
SSL
TCP
UDP
HTTP
2 What does Rendezvous Daemon Manager (RVDM) manage?
the behavior of all clients connected to a daemon process
all Rendezvous clients in a network from a centralized location
Rendezvous daemons in a network from a centralized location
connections to the browser administration interface of a daemon process
3

Two Rendezvous applications are publishing messages from Hosts A and B.

Host A: publisher 1: network: ";224.1.1.1,224.1.1.2;224.2.1.1" service 8500


Host B: publisher 2: network: ";224.2.1.1;224.2.1.2" service 8500
Host C: listener: network: ";224.2.1.2;224.2.1.1" service 8500
All applications are using the same subject and all the machines are in the same
subnet. Which statement is correct?
Machine C will not receive any messages.
Machine C will receive messages only from machine A.

Machine C will receive messages only from machine B.


Machine C will receive messages from machines A and B.
4 Which three statements are correct about the Rendezvous distributed queue
(RVCMQ) feature of TIBCO Rendezvous? (Choose three.)
From outside, the group appears to be a single transport object.
Senders can either use reliable or RVCM protocol to send messages.
To orchestrate load balancing, senders are distributed group members.
It is best suited for one-of-n delivery, in order to balance the load across the servers.
5 Which two statements are correct about the Rendezvous fault-tolerant member
parameters? (Choose two.)
Rank determines member weight.
Weight determines member rank.
Rank determines which member is active.
Weight determines which member is active.
6 Which three statements are correct about TIBCO Rendezvous? (Choose three.)
Rendezvous reliable delivery (TRDP) is built on top of the UDP protocol.
RVFT is specifically designed for high-speed network interface cards.
RVDM is built on top of the TCP layer for point-to-point communication.
RVCM is implemented in the API layer for guaranteed message delivery.
Rendezvous distributed queue (RVCMQ) is 1-of-n delivery for load balancing among
cooperating processes.
7

What can a DATALOSS advisory indicate? (Choose three.)

The network is overloaded.


Some hardware component is experiencing intermittent failures.
A Rendezvous daemon (RVD) process is starved for CPU cycles.
The receiving daemon has lost data and the sending daemon should retransmit the
lost data.

8 On a host, you start a tibrvlisten using tibrvlisten -daemon tcp:7500 -service


8500 A.B.
Which two tibrvsend commands on the same host will successfully send "HELLO"
message to tibrvlisten? (Choose two.)
tibrvsend -service 8500 A.B HELLO
tibrvsend -daemon 7500 -service 8500 A.B HELLO
tibrvsend -daemon 8500 -service 8500 A.B HELLO
tibrvsend -daemon 7500 -service 7500 A.B HELLO
9 Which three statements are correct about Rendezvous secure daemon (RVSD)?
(Choose three.)
During RVSD startup, you need to specify the store file, which contains the security
parameters that configure RVSD.
The Rendezvous daemon (RVD) can start either automatically or by explicit
command. In contrast, administrators must start RVSD by explicit command.
The RVSD startup is exactly same as RVD without using any store file. However,
RVSD supports secure transport connections defined through API calls.
The Rendezvous daemon (RVD) can be stopped automatically by configuration after
an interval in which it has no clients. In contrast, RVSD does not stop automatically.
10
Which three statements are correct about Rendezvous Daemon Manager
(RVDM) configurations? (Choose three.)
When administrators modify the configuration in RVDM, the server pushes the new
configuration to all managed daemons.
Each managed daemon receives and installs the updated configuration from RVDM
and confirms receipt to the RVDM server.
All the configurations required for the managed daemons are saved in local
configuration files on the host where the managed daemon is running.
If there are pre-RV8.x release Rendezvous daemons running in the same network as
RVDM, then RVDM is prevented from starting successfully.
When an inactive managed daemon becomes active again, the server ensures that
the daemon receives and confirms the configuration update.
11 What are two documented options available for Rendezvous log file rotation?
(Choose two.)

-log-min-size parameter
-log-max-size parameter
-log-min-rotations parameter
-log-max-rotations parameter
12 Which three field names are found on the Outbound Packet Total on the Service
Information page of the Rendezvous daemon (RVD) HTTP Administrator interface?
(Choose three.)
lost MC
bad pkts
lost PTP
shed MC
missed MC
suppressed MC
14 Which three Rendezvous tools are available to check connectivity between two
machines after Rendezvous has been installed? (Choose three.)
Rvtest
rvperf
rvsend
rvtrace
rvlisten
tibrvsend
tibrvlisten
1 Which two statements are true about the Block Data Visibility Data Pattern?
(Choose two.)
It is able to define data elements, which are accessible by each of the components
of the corresponding sub-process.
It is specific to a process instance or case. They can be accessed by all components
of the process during the execution of the case.

It exists in the external operating environment, able to be accessed by components


of processes during execution.
It can be defined by tasks, which are accessible only within the context of individual
execution instances of that task.
2 Which action occurs when a user cancels out of a Pageflow process?
An audit trail entry is created to record the fact that the Pageflow was cancelled.
The Pageflow exits and any data that the user had entered is lost.
The current state at the point at which the Pageflow was cancelled is saved so that
it can be resumed later.
The Pageflow is saved to the work list so that the user can access it later.
3 Which two statements are true about forms? (Choose two.)
One form can be called from more than one User task.
One form cannot be called from more than one User task.
If a User task does not have a form or Pageflow linked to it, then it will create a
default form at deployment.
If a User task does not have a form or Pageflow linked to it, then it will indicate an
error at deployment.
4 Which three statements are true about deploying ActiveMatrix BPM applications
to an ActiveMatrix BPM server node? (Choose three.)
If a new project references an artifact contained in another project, the referenced
project must be deployed first for the new project to deploy successfully.
Users can verify whether their deployment was successful by using the
Administrator Explorer View, expanding the Application node.
If a project references an Organization Model but not a Business Object Model, the
deployment will fail.
A project or a previously exported DAA file can be deployed by dragging it to the
deployment server and dropping it.
If a new project references an artifact contained in another project, the new project
will always deploy but will not run until the referenced project is deployed.
Before a deployment server can be created, users must make sure they can log into
Workspace and start process instances.

5 Which two statements are true about process versions? (Choose two.)
Only major and minor versions numbers can be changed.
The qualifier can be hardcoded.
The qualifier is a date / time stamp format.
The major.minor.micro versions can be changed.
6 A business process splits from a single path into five parallel branches and later
joins into a single path. The business requirement states that two of the parallel
branches must be completed before the single path that follows the join can
progress. When the remaining parallel paths complete, they are discarded.
Which Workflow Pattern should be employed to meet this requirement?
Cancelling Partial Join
Structured Partial Join
Structured Synchronizing Merge
Multi-Merge
Structured Discriminator
7 Which statement is true about the Organization Modeler?
It produces an organization chart of your enterprise's organization structure.
It identifies named individuals within your enterprise's organization structure.
It is used to map resources from an LDAP directory to your enterprise's organization
structure.
It allows you to maintain an abstract model of your enterprise's organization
structure.
8 Using the TIBCO General Interface and Google Web Toolkit Preview tabs in TIBCO
Business Studio, how are forms tested?
by displaying the forms as they will appear at runtime allowing the designer to input
data to see how the form behaves
by displaying the code that is generated by the forms functionality and can be
stepped through with the debugger

by connecting to the ActiveMatrix BPM server node so that the Workspace and
Openspace client interfaces can be used from within TIBCO Business Studio to
debug the forms
by deploying the forms to the ActiveMatrix BPM server node in order to execute and
test them
9 What are three requirements when using Emulation to test business processes?
(Choose three.)
an Emulation file
a BPM node in a running state
a debug breakpoint file
a deployed business process
10 What must be done before deleting a BPM application from an application
environment?
delete the Application Template from the Software Management section
unmap the BPM application from the nodes in the Distribution section for the DAA
undeploy the BPM application from the environment to which it is deployed
update the BPM application to be marked for undeployment and deletion
11 A Pageflow process is used to collect information and then start a BPM process.
The Pageflow process contains a Service task, which updates an external database.
The Pageflow is deployed as a Business Service. A user selects to run this Business
Service. However, the user cancels the operation after the Service task runs, before
the Pageflow completes.
Which two statements are true about the Pageflow? (Choose two.)
It is cancelled and BPM retains no history of the interaction.
It is cancelled and the external database update is rolled back.
It is cancelled and the external database update is not rolled back.
It is cancelled and BPM retains an Event Log tracking the Pageflow.
12 When filtering on text attributes, what would "s*s" return?
only text of three characters beginning or ending with upper or lower case "s"
anything beginning with "s" and ending with "s"

anything beginning and ending with upper or lower case "s"


only text of three characters beginning with "s" and ending with "s"
13

Which two are Iteration Patterns? (Choose two.)

Arbitrary Cycles
Structured Loop
Interleaved Routing
Multi-Choice
1 Which two statements are true about local channel destinations? (Choose two.)
Local channel destinations may use preprocessors.
Local channel destinations must have a default event.
Local channel destinations do not have a default event.
Sending an event to a local destination is equivalent to asserting it to the working
memory.
2 An event was defined with Time to Live equal to 10 minutes. An instance of that
event arrived from a JMS destination configured with
EXPLICIT_CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE mode and was consumed in the preprocessor.
When will the JMS message corresponding to this event be acknowledged?
after 10 minutes
immediately after the Event.consumeEvent call
after the preprocessor finishes
during the post RTC phase
3 Which three resources allow breakpoints in TIBCO BusinessEvents Debugger?
(Choose three.)
rule actions section
preprocessor body
channel destination
rule function body
rule conditions section

4 What is the effect of using the Agent.<AgentClassName>.checkDuplicates


property at the agent class level?
applies to all <AgentClassName> agents in the cluster
applies to any <AgentClassName> agents deployed in the specified Processing Unit
applies to any <AgentClassName> agents used in any Processing Unit
applies to any <AgentClassName> agents in the project
5 When will a conflict resolution cycle begin?
when an external action causes changes to the RETE network
when a rule action agenda is built or refreshed
when a rule action is executed (or the agenda is empty)
when a run to completion cycle has ended
6 Which two statements are true about TIBCO BusinessEvents agents? (Choose
two.)
Multiple Inference agents can be run in a single Processing Unit.
Inference agents and Cache agents can co-exist in a Processing Unit.
A Processing Unit containing a Cache agent acts as a cache server.
A rule in one Processing Unit cannot trigger a rule in a different Processing Unit.
7 Which two statements are true about a site topology file? (Choose two.)
It contains deployment information, mapping Processing Units to machines.
It contains deployment information, such as JVM parameters and thread settings.
It can only be edited in TIBCO BusinessEvents Studio.
It can be edited in TIBCO BusinessEvents Studio or a Text Editor.
8 Event A and Event B are in scope. Event A has property ZZ and Event B has
property YY. Both properties belong to the same data type. Using Decision Manager,
you drag property ZZ to a condition column. For a new rule, you specify a value of
b.YY in its cell.
What is the intended action?
to compare the value of property ZZ with the value of property YY

to set the property YY to the value of ZZ


to set the property of ZZ to the value of YY
to overwrite the property ZZ with property YY
9 Which two methods are used to create and update metrics in TIBCO
BusinessEvents Views? (Choose two.)
compute() function
create() and update() functions
XSLT mapper
XPath mapper
10 Which two statements are true about transitions in a State Model? (Choose
two.)
When a transition crosses the boundary of one or more nested states, the entry or
exit actions of those states are executed.
When a transition crosses the boundary of one or more nested states, only exit
actions of those states are executed./li>
Composite states can optionally use boundary transitions but Concurrent states
must use them./li>
Concurrent states can optionally use boundary transitions but Composite states
must use them.
1 Which statement is true about installing TIBCO MDM in a clustered environment?
CIM instances in the cluster must run on the same JVM version.
Load-balancer is required when CIM instances must be clustered.
Load balancer is always required to handle HTTP requests to multiple application
servers.
Each application server can run on a different JVM version.
2 Which two must you specify when using a datapool as the delivery entity when
configuring synchronization profile? (Choose two.)
repository listing
output map

delivery mechanism
zip file storage location
input map
3 Which two Record permissions should be denied to prohibit a user from adding
new records? (Choose two.)
Copy
Modify
Create
Compare
Full Control
4 Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?
SendProtocolMessage
HandleMessaging
ProcessServiceMessage
Send
5 What are three special transitions for the purpose of processing exceptions?
(Choose three.)
Format
Timeout
Error
Cancel
Condition
6 Which two statements are true about workitems? (Choose two.)
All approval workitems must be ASYNCHR in execution mode.
Another workitem must be created for users who have already had a workitem in a
particular event.
The number of workitems that need to be completed can be configured in the
workflow.

The default action of the ManageWorkitem activity is to CLOSE a workitem.


7 Which action is used to pass rulebase changes to other records?
clone
replicate
refresh
propagate
8 What is used to group a set of related attributes together in a repository?
output maps
attribute groups
input maps
classification schemes
9 Copy metadata allows you to export or import which four objects? (Choose four.)
Output Map
Relatonship Definition
Synchronization Format
BusinessProcess Rules
Repository
10 What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all
repositories?
Event Search
Text Search
Subset Rules
Record Search
11 When a Record Add workitem is rejected and sent for correction, which
Business Process Rule must be set to create a new workitem?
Record Edit Approval
New Record Introduction Edit

Data Custodian
Conflict Resolution
12 What are two accurate descriptions of a record that has conflict? (Choose two.)
A record has three versions and the same attribute in all versions has the same
value in only two of the versions.
A record has two versions and the same attribute in one version has a null/empty
value and the attribute in the other version has a value.
A record has three versions and the same attribute in all versions has different
values.
A record has two versions and the same attribute in both versions has different
values.
QUESTION NO: 1
The workflow activities that support parallel processing can be tuned for
performance. This can be achieved by configuring a parameter for the activity
RecordPerAsyncCall. What is the default value for this parameter?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Which TIBCO CIM utility is used to apply a hot fix?
A. tibcoUtil
B. hotfixUtil
C. migrateUtil
D. customUtil
E. tibcoCIMUtil
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3

The following sample section of a rulebase will result in the displaying of which
alerts on the
UI?
A. Warning Only
B. Information Only
C. Severe Error Only
D. No alerts will be presented
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
To enable text search continuous indexing, the Text Indexing Enabled property is set
to which option?
A. Online
B. Offline
C. Discrete
D. Continuous
E. User Enabled
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
Which three statements are true about context variables for a rulebase? (Choose
three.)
A. The SESSION object requires explicit declaration in the rulebase.
B. Previous confirmed and unconfirmed version records can be accessed.
C. Attribute access can be restricted to certain roles using context variables.
D. RECORD_ACTION is a special variable and can be directly used for operation.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 6
Which two statements are true about Subflow and SpawnWorkflow activities?
(Choose two.)

A. Both Subflows and SpawnWorkflows can be nested.


B. Subflows can be nested, but SpawnWorkflows can not.
C. Both execution modes are supported by both activities.
D. SpawnWorkflow is ASYNCHR and Subflow is SYNCHR. E. Subflow is ASYNCHR and
SpawnWorkflow is SYNCHR.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 7
Which two configurable settings are related to workflow in TIBCO CIM Configurator?
(Choose two.)
A. Workflow Cache Size
B. Workflow Timeout Value
C. Workflow Restart Attempts
D. Workflow Manager Directory
E. Workflow File Extension Default
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 8
Which three statements are true about the catalogs when used for extracting the
data from a repository? (Choose three.)
A. You can choose which attributes are to be extracted.
B. You can choose which record status should be included.
C. You can choose subset rules defined on a different master catalog.
D. You can choose any rulebase if there are any transformation rules to be applied.
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 9
What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?
A. Text Search
B. Event Search

C. Subset Rules
D. Record Search
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 10
Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?
A. Send
B. HandleMessaging
C. SendProtocolMessage
D. ProcessServiceMessage
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
You delete the log files in the MQ_COMMON_DIR/Work directory. What is affected?
A. Elink log
B. Event log
C. Record History
D. Repository History
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions
and actions for

Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)


A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a
web service query?
A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE
B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE

C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE


D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE
E. No parameters settings are required
F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web
services? (Choose six.)
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process

Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G
QUESTION NO: 16
Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page?
(Choose two.)
A. Date Format
B. Default Repository
C. Activate Delegation
D. Activate Auto-Approval
E. Default Catalog Format
F. Activate Out-Of-Office Notification
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 17
Which three are supported command types for the MasterCatalogRecord web
services? (Choose three.)
A. Add
B. Copy
C. Query
D. Modify
E. Compare
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 1
The following is the declaration of secure daemon in Rendezvous C API: tibrv_status
tibrvSecureDaemon_SetUserCertWithKey( const char* userCertWithKey, const char*
password); Which two statements are correct about this function? (Choose two.)
A. The password parameter is used to decrypt the private key.
B. The password parameter is used for the password for this user.
C. The userCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private
key. The text of this certificate must be in PEM encoding.

D. The userCertWithKey parameter is used to register user certificate with a private


key. The text of this certificate may be in PEM or PK12 encoding.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement is correct about Rendezvous fault-tolerant groups (RVFTs)?
A. RVFT is an election protocol that tells an application when it is active or inactive.
B. RVFT can only be utilized for message producers, not for message consumers.
C. For reliable consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport
automatically disables subscriptions if the fault-tolerant group member becomes
inactive.
D. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport
automatically confirms messages if the fault-tolerant group member becomes
inactive.
E. For certified consumers bound to an RVFT transport, the RVFT transport
automatically cancels the certified agreement if the fault-tolerant group member
becomes inactive.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which advisory message does a Rendezvous fault-tolerant member present when
other group members use parameters that do not match its corresponding
parameters?
A. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_MISMATCH.group
B. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.PARAM_COLLISION.group
C. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_UNAVAILABLE.group
D. _RV.ERROR.RVFT.MEMBER_PARAM_MISMATCH.group
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Which three activities can be configured through the Rendezvous routing daemon
(RVRD) HTTP interface to be routinely output to the RVRD log file? (Choose three.)
A. Subject Data: to log all messages that this routing daemon forwards to its
neighbors or receives from its neighbors

B. Connections: to log connection activity whenever this routing daemon establishes


or closes a connection to a neighbor
C. Client: to log RVRD local client connection activity whenever a client application
establishes or closes a connection to the routing daemon
D. Subject interest: to log all subscription requests (notification of listening) that this
routing daemon sends to its neighbors or receives from its neighbors
E. Remote: to log RVRD remote client connection activity whenever a remote client
application establishes or closes a connection to the routing daemon
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 5
Which two situations can trigger the presentation of a SCHEDULER.OVERFLOW
advisory? (Choose two.)
A. Scheduler has set a task backlog limit.
B. Scheduler has not set a task backlog limit.
C. Scheduler is accepting new tasks, but discarding old ones on a FIFO basis.
D. The Scheduler backlog limit has been reached and new tasks are being
discarded.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 6
With TIBCO Rendezvous messaging, which networking protocol does the client
application use to connect to the Rendezvous daemon (RVD)?
A. SSL
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Which two statement are correct about certified delivery confirmation? (Choose
two.)

A. Explicit confirmation of message delivery by the listening program is the default


behavior.
B. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.CONFIRM advisory.
C. Automatic confirmation of message delivery upon return from the callback
function is the default behavior.
D. When confirmation reaches the certified listener, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.CONFIRM advisory.
E. When confirmation reaches the certified sender, the transport presents a
DELIVERY.COMPLETE advisory.
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 8
When programming a TIBCO Rendezvous fault-tolerant application, it is a
documented best practice to associate fault-tolerant member events with
A. a low-priority queue
B. a high-priority queue
C. a system event queue
D. the default event queue
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
You plan to test a network to ensure that it meets the following requirements:
100,000 point-to- point messages to be published by a single source in batch mode
with ten messages per batch with an interval gap of 10 milliseconds. What is the
correct rvperfm command to start a test run?
A. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 10
-batch 10
B. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -inbox -messages 100000 -interval 0.01
-batch 10
C. rvperfm -service 7500 -daemon 7500 -subject PTP -messages 100000 -interval 10
-batch 10

D. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _INBOX -messages 100000


-interval 10 -batch
10
E. rvperfm -service 7501 -daemon 7500 -subject _PTP -messages 100000 -interval
0.01 -batch
10
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
tibrvlisten is started with the following settings: -network ";224.2.2.2;224.6.6.6"
"mytest" tibrvsend is started with the following settings: -network
";224.6.6.6;224.2.2.2" "mytest". "message #1" What is the expected result?
A. The listener receives "message #1" only when run on a different host than the
sender.
B. The listener does not receive "message #1" when run on a different host than the
sender.
C. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender run on
the same host.
D. The listener will receive the message only if both the listener and sender
connect remotely to the same daemon.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 12
Your back-end processing supports multi-threading and you plan to leverage this
capability in the context of a Rendezvous distributed queue (RVCMQ) subscriber by
running five concurrent threads. Which statement is correct?
A. RVCMQ scales by multiple program instances (horizontally), not by multithreading (vertically).
B. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the
scheduler configuration (the scheduler tasks parameter must be set to 5 or greater).
C. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as specified by the
worker tasks parameter (the worker tasks parameter of each queue member must
be equal to or greater than 5).

D. Each distributed queue member receives as many messages as it dispatches


(nothing needs to be done from a RVCMQ standpoint as it is a matter of the multithreaded message dispatching).
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
A publisher application uses a transport with UDP port number 8600 and multicast
group 239.1.1.1. Which two sets of transport parameters enable a subscriber
application to receive messages from the publisher? (Choose two.)
A. Service 6800, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
B. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0;239.1.1.1"
C. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.1,239.1.1.0"
D. Service 8600, Network ";239.1.1.0,239.1.1.1;239.1.1.1"
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 14
Which statement is correct about the _RV.INFO.RVCM.DELIVERY.CONFIRM.subject
advisory?
A. A listener sends this advisory to confirm receipt of a certified message.
B. The sender presents this advisory after deleting the message from its ledger.
C. A sender presents this advisory whenever a registered listener confirms receipt of
a certified message.
D. A sender presents this advisory when all registered listeners have either
confirmed delivery of a certified message, or canceled interest in receiving it.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Which two statements are correct about fault-tolerant groups? (Choose two.)
A. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member
weight.
B. Fault-tolerant groups implement a K of N active strategy (K member of a group is
activewhile N-K members are passive).

C. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member


weight, which must be a unique value within the fault-tolerant group.
D. Members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified member
weight. Members with equal weight are ranked by the time they joined the faulttolerant group.
E. The members of a fault-tolerant group are ranked by means of the specified
member weight. Members with equal weight are ranked by non-deterministic means
opaque to programs.
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 1
You are a supervisor of a group of analysts at your company. Your business analysts
do not have sufficient experience to understand the configuration of web services
and integration components. How would you hide the technical implementation
details from your business analysts?
A. use the Window > Show View menu option to disable the technical details
B. select the Enable/Disable Technical Details icon and de-select the Technical
Details option
C. use the Diagram > Enable/Disable Technical Details menu option to disable
technical details
D. select the Enable/Disable Business Studio Capabilities icon and de-select the
Solution Design option
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a valid TIBCO iProcess script file function call to delete a file?
A. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE(C:\Temp\myfile.txt)
B. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE("C:\Temp\myfile.txt")
C. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE(C:\\Temp\\myfile.txt)
D. IPEFileUtil.FILEDELETE("C:\\Temp\\myfile.txt")
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3

While modeling a Service Task, and configuring it to use TIBCO BusinessWorks, the
user needs to ensure that the endpoint name matches the JMS destination that was
created in TIBCO iProcess Engine, renaming the System Participant if necessary.
Which two options support this? (Choose two.)
A. Use local
B. Use JMS
C. Use BW
D. Use remote
E. Use LiveLink
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 4
When configuring a Database Service Task, what is the only valid option for the
TIBCO iProcess Engine for the Operation?
A. Alter
B. Select
C. Delete
D. Update
E. Stored Procedure
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 5
You want to prioritize work items in a queue so that users process high-priority work
items first. These items should appear at the top of the list. How is this
accomplished?
A. sort the Work Item List by priority ascending
B. sort the Work Item List by priority descending
C. select the Sort By Priority flag in the View menu
D. display the Priority column in the iProcess Workspace (Browser) Client
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6

What are two valid advanced properties on the process level? (Choose two.)
A. Ignore Case Suspend
B. Enable Case Prediction
C. Priority Value Expression
D. Ignore Blank Addressees
E. Use Deadline For Task Duration
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 8
Which key combination is used to display Content Assist for a function used in a
script?
A. Ctrl + C
B. Ctrl + F1
C. Ctrl + Space
D. Ctrl + Alt + Space
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
What is the default Button Type property value of the Submit button on a TIBCO
Business Studio Form?
A. apply
B. close
C. submit
D. primary
E. peripheral
F. associative
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
Which two statements are true about Task scripts? (Choose two.)

A. Task Close Scripts will affect central case data.


B. Task Submit Scripts will affect central case data.
C. Task Close Scripts can be used to remove tasks from queues.
D. Task Open Scripts can be used to pre-load values into data fields prior to a task
being opened.
E. Task Open Scripts can be used to manipulate field data prior to the task being
delivered to a queue.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 11
What are four TIBCO Business Studio basic data types? (Choose four.)
A. Float
B. Date
C. Long
D. Boolean
E. Date Time
F. Integer Number
Answer: B,D,E,F
QUESTION NO: 12
A connection to a TIBCO iProcess Engine deployment server has failed with a
connection error. What should be verified in order to solve the problem? (Choose
two.)
A. The web server is running
B. The destination server is running.
C. The Hawk Agent service is running.
D. The connecting user is a domain administrator.
E. The username and password in the destination properties match an iProcess user
credential.
Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 14
During the testing of a process through the TIBCO iProcess Workspace (Browser)
Client, you notice that some data fields are not being populated in the TIBCO
iProcess Engine. Which two steps can be used to debug the form? (Choose two.)
A. ensure that the data fields' types are supported by the iProcess engine
B. use the form preview to test if all the parameters are being posted by the form
C. ensure that the fields are configured to be an output type under the data model
of the form
D. ensure that all the form fields are mapped correctly on the field properties page
of the form
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which type of data field corresponds to a dynamically addressed participant?
A. String
B. Boolean
C. Performer
D. Participant
E. Integer Number
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 1
A deployed TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks process archive contains missioncritical processes. If the process fails, it should be restarted. If it fails a second time,
or more, an operator needs to be notified by email so they can evaluate the
situation and take appropriate action. Which three Custom Event components must
be configured to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Send Email
B. Generate Alert
C. Execute Hawk Method
D. Event Type = First Failure

E. Event Type = Second Failure


F. Event Type = Subsequent Failure
Answer: A,D,F
QUESTION NO: 2
Which file is used to specify custom engine properties and enable the display of
those properties on the Advanced tab of the deployment configuration in TIBCO
Administrator?
A. BW_HOME\bin\bwengine.tra
B. BW_HOME\bin\bwengine.xml
C. BW_HOME\lib\com\tibco\deployment\bwengine.tra
D. BW_HOME\lib\com\tibco\deployment\bwengine.xml
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
Domain D1 contains two machines, M1 and M2, and is configured to use TIBCO
Rendezvous as the messaging transport.
M1 will host:
the Primary Domain Server PDS1
one TIBCO Hawk Agent HA1
one TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks Engine BWE1
M2 will host:
one TIBCO ActiveMatrix Adapter for Database ADB2
one TIBCO Hawk Agent HA2
one TIBCO EMS Server
Which two communication scenarios are valid? (Choose two.)
A. PDS1 communicating with HA1 using EMS
B. BWE1 communicating with ADB2 using EMS
C. HA1 communicating with ADB2 using TIBCO Rendezvous

D. PDS1 communicating with HA2 using TIBCO Rendezvous


Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which three are valid archives in TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks? (Choose
three.)
A. Hawk Archive
B. Event Archive
C. Adapter Archive
D. Process Archive
E. Enterprise Archive
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 5
Your TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks process starts by receiving a JMS queue
message using the JMS Queue Receiver activity. The message body consists of
name/value pairs. Which Message Type should be selected?
A. Map
B. Object
C. Simple
D. XML Text
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
You are designing a TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks process that makes use of a
subprocess to execute an update operation in a legacy system. The legacy
operation usually takes two seconds to finish. In total, you are making three updates
by using three sequential Call Process activities. It takes at least six seconds for
each ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks job to finish. You are looking for improvement
strategies to reduce the execution time for your process. You can improve the
throughput of this process by calling the subprocess three times in an iteration
group with the ____________
A. Group Action set to Transaction

B. Spawn Process option checked


C. Group Action set to Critical Section
D. Call Dynamic Process option checked
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
Two machines, M1 and M2, belong to the same domain. A TIBCO ActiveMatrix
BusinessWorks engine is deployed on M1, and a TIBCO Adapter is deployed on M2.
The TIBCO Administrator server is hosted on M1. What is the most likely reason for
the TIBCO Adapter status being "Unknown" and the ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks
engine status being "OK" in the TIBCO Administrator console?
A. The TIBCO Adapter is down.
B. On M2, the TIBCO Hawk Agent is down.
C. On M1, the TIBCO Hawk Agent is down.
D. The TIBCO Administrator server is down.
E. The domain's messaging transport is down.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
In a mapping, you want to copy a node from the input tree without any of the
children this node might have. Which statement should you use to accomplish this?
A. Copy
B. Copy of
C. Copy All Except
D. Copy Contents of
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Which two resources must be configured to invoke an external Web service using
Service Palette activities? (Choose two.)
A. Get Context
B. Invoke Partner

C. SOAP Request Reply


D. Partner Link Configuration
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 10
Your company is about to implement a new integration project with a Human
Resources application that deals with sensitive information. All interactions with this
information must be secured. Your security team has determined that Transport
Layer Security (TLS) will meet the privacy requirements for securing the JMS
transport between integration endpoints. Which two components are required to
implement TLS within your TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks project? (Choose
two.)
A. Trusted Certificates Folder
B. JNDI-based JMS connection
C. identity resource with Type = Identity File
D. identity resource with Type = Username/Password
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 11
Which two input parameters are mandatory for the BuildEAR Utility? (Choose two.)
A. the output directory for the EAR file
B. the location of the Global Variables file
C. the location of the TIBCO Designer project
D. the project path of the Enterprise Archive Resource
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 12
Your company is supporting an integration project between two home-grown
database applications running on Microsoft and Oracle databases. These
applications support 24/7 operations. For the integration project, you are using
TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks and the TIBCO ActiveMatrix ActiveDatabase
Adapter. The project includes: ?Several ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks processes
contained in two process archives (PAR1 and PAR2) ?One ActiveMatrix
ActiveDatabase Adapter for each respective database, each contained in a separate

adapter archive (AARM and AARO) Given two servers (A and B), what is the correct
domain architecture?
A. Server A: primary TIBCO Administrator, secondary PAR1, secondary AARM, Master
AARO, Master PAR2
Server B: secondary PAR1, Master AARM, secondary AARO, secondary PAR2,
secondary
TIBCO Administrator
B. Server A: primary TIBCO Administrator, secondary PAR1, secondary AARM, Master
AARO, Master PAR2
Server B: Master PAR1, Master AARM, secondary AARM, secondary PAR2, secondary
TIBCO Administrator
C. Server A: primary TIBCO Administrator, secondary PAR1, secondary AARM, Master
AARO, Master PAR2
Server B: Master PAR1, Master AARM, secondary AARO, secondary PAR2, primary
TIBCO Administrator

D. Server A: primary TIBCO Administrator, secondary PAR1, secondary AARM,


Master
AARO, Master PAR2
Server B: Master PAR1, Master AARM, secondary AARO, secondary PAR2, secondary
TIBCO Administrator
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
You want a process definition that will call one of three available subprocesses (SP1,
SP2, and SP3), depending on the data being received by its starter. Which three
actions must be taken to achieve this? (Choose three.)
A. define a template and use it to implement SP1, SP2, and SP3
B. have SP1, SP2, and SP3 use the same input, output, and error schemas
C. set one of the three subprocesses as the process name in the Call Process
activity

D. use a Call Dynamic Process activity and select SP1, SP2, and SP3 as the
alternatives
E. set an XPATH expression in the Call Process activity to determine at run-time the
name of the subprocess to call
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 14
Which two statements are true about importing an XSD file using the Schema
Importer Tool from the TIBCO Designer menu? (Choose two.)
A. The tool cannot resolve references to other resources within the imported
resources.
B. The tool stores imported resources in a temporary holding area called Location
resources.
C. The tool automatically imports any referenced resources along with the specified
resource.
D. The tool does not automatically import any referenced resources along with the
specified resource.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 15
Which three statements are true about debugging a process using the TIBCO
Designer Tester Utility? (Choose three.)
A. Step Into and Step Out of a subprocess can be used.
B. The process definition can be changed while debugging.
C. The current process instance can be paused during testing.
D. Input data can be supplied via an xml file to the process starter.
E. Breakpoint can be set in the process definition before the Start activity.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 16
Which two statements are true about enabling the Hawk Microagent for a TIBCO
ActiveMatrix
BusinessWorks process engine in its respective property file? (Choose two.)

A. You must always change the Hawk.Service, Hawk.Network, and Hawk.Daemon


properties.
B. Only instrumentation that does not require memory and processor overhead can
be enabled.
C. You can enable instrumentation for a specific process definition with the
Instrumentation.processName property.
D. You change the Hawk.Service, Hawk.Network, and Hawk.Daemon properties only
if these parameters are non-default.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 17
Your corporate SOA infrastructure must invoke several notification services. You are
able to use the Receive Partner Notification activity of the Service Palette to
accomplish this. What is the correct messaging configuration to use for these
services?
A. SOAP over JMS
B. SOAP over HTTP
C. JMS Topic Publisher
D. Rendezvous Publisher
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 1
What are two functions of a TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks Critical Section
Group? (Choose two.)
A. controls concurrent accesses to shared resources
B. escalates the execution priority of the grouped activities
C. isolates resource-intensive activities for performance tuning
D. synchronizes process instances so that only one executes the grouped activities
at a time
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 2

As a TIBCO recommended best practice, what is the preferred method for indicating
backwards- compatible changes to a service?
A. update the point release number in the WSDL filename
B. update the major release number in the WSDL filename
C. update the point release number in the WSDL namespace name
D. update the major release number in the WSDL namespace name
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Fine-grained services are best suited for user interactions
B. Coarse-grained services are best suited for system-to-system interactions
C. Fine-grained services are suitable for both user and system-to-system
interactions
D. Coarse-grained services are suitable for both user and system-to-system
interactions
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two of the following should be considered when specifying a service? (Choose
two.)
A. The rate at which the service will be invoked
B. The platform on which the service will be deployed
C. The information passed as parameters to the service
D. The platform from which the service will be accessed
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 5
What is the primary purpose of a service specification?
A. to ensure that the service appropriately utilizes other services
B. to ensure that the resulting service is suitable for its intended uses

C. to ensure that the design of the service follows established best practices
D. to ensure that the service can be built within the given cost and schedule
guidelines
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following is the most appropriate structure for naming service
operations?
A. <IndustryName>.<ServiceName>.<OperationName>
B. <CompanyName>.<LineOfBusiness>.<FunctionalArea>.<OperatonName>
C. <CompanyName>.<DivisionName>.<ApplicationName>.<OperationName>
D.<IndustryName>.<CompanyName>.<LineOfBusiness>.<ApplicationName>.<Op
erationName>
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
What are three characteristics of service virtualization? (Choose three.)
A. The service provider can be one of several providers.
B. The application decides which service implementation to use.
C. It decouples the service transport from its business implementation.
D. It allows the service to be load balanced and fault tolerant in a transparent
manner to service consumers.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 8
Service X is available 80% of the time, and Service Y is available 90% of the time.
Service Z calls Services X and Y. What is the highest expected availability for Service
Z?
A. 72%
B. 80%
C. 8%
D. 90%

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
When creating a TIBCO ActiveMatrix environment to support the deployment of SOA
solutions by multiple business units, which two components are optional? (Choose
two.)
A. a database
B. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Policy Manager
C. TIBCO Enterprise Message Service
D. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Lifecycle Governance Framework
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 10
A global trading firm is kick-starting its SOA initiative with a pilot project
implementing an enterprise trading platform. The platform requires integrating
multiple frontend .NET applications at its New York business unit (with its own data
center) with multiple Java-based backend applications developed/managed by its
Hong Kong business unit (with its own data center). The SOA Competency Center
team is working with the Enterprise Architecture team to decide how to deploy the
TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Grid to best enable the implementation. What would be
a recommended approach to setting up ActiveMatrix Service Grid for the firm?
A. The information provided is insufficient to determine a solution.
B. set up one ActiveMatrix cluster at each site, and use standard SOAP/HTTPS or
SOAP/JMS to integrate the two sites
C. since most clients are based in the U.S., use the TIBCO ActiveMatrix cluster at the
U.S. site to set up a single worldwide ActiveMatrix Service
Grid, with environments spanning the U.S. and Hong Kong sites
D. since most backend systems are in Hong Kong, use the TIBCO ActiveMatrix
cluster at the Hong Kong site to set up a single worldwide
ActiveMatrix Service Grid, with environments spanning the U.S. and Hong Kong
sites
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11

What are two characteristics of a service? (Choose two.)


A. A service provides a set of operations that can be used in multiple contexts.
B. Services use WSIL, an XML format for defining the IP address and port of a
service.
C. Services use WSDL, an XSD format for describing network services as a set of
endpoints.
D. The operation interfaces of a service isolate the consumer from the
implementation details of the service provider.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 12
When is it appropriate to use a compensating transaction?
A. when one of the participants is incapable of performing a compensating
transaction and that participant is last in the transaction
B. when one of the participants is incapable of performing a compensating
transaction and that participant is first in the transaction
C. when multiple participants are each incapable of performing a compensating
transaction and each participant is not separated by any stateless activities
D. when multiple participants are each incapable of performing a compensating
transaction and each participant is separated by at least one stateless activity
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13
A bank built a DebitAccount Service and a CreditAccount Service, both exposed as
standard Web Services (SOAP/HTTPS) in the enterprise. The bank now wants to build
a FundTransfer Service that debits an input amount from one account and credits it
to another account. The FundTransfer Service must be able to throw and handle all
errors as SOAP Faults. Which two TIBCO ActiveMatrix products are capable of
enabling the implementation of this FundTransfer Service? (Choose two.)
A. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Grid
B. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Policy Manager
C. TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks
D. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Performance Manager

Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
Which three artifact types are default options when requesting service consumption
in the TIBCO ActiveMatrix Lifecycle Governance Framework? (Choose three.)
A. the operations to be consumed
B. the application consuming the service
C. the organizational unit of the provider of the service
D. the organizational unit of the consumer of the service Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 15
In modeling Common Business Objects and Data Models, a flexible and extensible
XML Schema representation is a must. What are three recommended approaches in
XML Schema design to enable a flexible SOA implementation? (Choose three.)
A. use choices
B. use type extensions
C. use substitution groups
D. use one global namespace
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements are true about JMS local transactions? (Choose two.)
A. Closing a transacted session commits its transaction.
B. Session interface provides commit and rollback methods.
C. Consumed messages are acknowledged upon session.commit.
D. Consumed messages are recovered and redelivered upon session.commit.
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 2
What action is taken when the command purge all queues foo.* is sent on the TIBCO
EMS Administrator
Tool?

A. All messages in all queues are deleted.


B. All messages present in the queue called foo.* are deleted.
C. All user-created queues whose names match the pattern foo.* are deleted.
D. All messages present in all the queues whose names matched the pattern foo.*
are deleted.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
A TIBCO EMS Server has the following configuration in the stores.conf and
queues.conf files:
stores.conf
[filestore-1] type=file file=filestore1.db mode=async
[filestore-2] type=file file=filestore2.db mode=sync queues.conf > store=filestore-1
queue1 store=filestore-2 Message swapping is enabled.
What happens when NON_PERSISTENT messages are published on queue1?
A. All the published messages are stored in filestore-2.
B. All the published messages are stored in filestore-1.
C. Messages are moved to filestore-1 when the server reaches certain memory
limits.
D. Messages are moved to filestore-2 when the server reaches certain memory
limits.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
What are two allowed connection factory types with TIBCO EMS?
A. both
B. xaboth
C. generic
D. xageneric
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 6
Which two sets of commands successfully create a queue connection factory called
fact with the URL
pointing to localhost:7222 on the TIBCO EMS Server? (Choose two.)
A. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://7222
setprop factory fact url
B. create factory fact queue url=tcp://7222
C. create factory queue fact
setprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost7222
D. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222
E. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222
setprop factory fact url
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 7
Which two statements are true about access control and bridges? (Choose two.)
A. A bridge automatically has permission to send to its target destination(s).
B. Message producers must have access to a destination to send messages to that
destination.
C. ACLs must be added to the bridges.conf file if the access control is enabled for
any bridged destination.
D. A message producer sending messages to a bridged destination must also have
access to the target destination(s) defined on the bridge.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 8

Given the configuration in the acl.conf file: TOPIC=topic.sample1 USER=Bob


PERM=subscribe TOPIC=topic.* Group=engineering PERM=publish,subscribe Which
statement is true if Bob is a member of the engineering group?
A. Bob can only subscribe to topic.sample1.
B. Bob can publish and subscribe to only topic.sample1.
C. Bob can publish and subscribe to both topic.sample1 and topic.sample2.
D. Bob can publish to only topic.sample2 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1
and topic.sample2.
E. Bob can publish to only topic.sample1 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1
and topic.sample2. Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Server R defines a global queue named Q1. R is also the owner of Q1. Servers P and
S define routed queues Q1@R. The servers P, R, and S are connected by routes.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. When a message is sent from server P to queue Q1, P forwards the message to
the home queue on server R.
B. Messages are available to local and remote consumers even before the message
reaches the home queue.
C. If Server P or the route connection from P to R fails, a consumer application of
server P will not be able to receive messages from Q1 until the
servers resume communication.
D. When a message is sent from server S to Q1 and the route is not connected, the
message is not delivered, and the client application receives
the exception DESTINATION_NOT_AVAILABLE.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 10
Given the following set of values: ?sess is a Session object ?dest is a Destination
object ?nolocal is a boolean variable What is the correct way to create a message
consumer with a selector?
A. String selector = " JMSCorrelationID=3";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);

B. String selector = " JMSCorrelationID='3'";


MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);
C. String selector = " JMSCorrelationID='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, nolocal, selector);
D. String selector = " 'JMSCorrelationID'='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, selector, nolocal);
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
What are two valid TIBCO EMS Administrator Tool commands? (Choose two.)
A. set server ft=enabled
B. set server routing=enabled
C. set server authorization=enabled
D. set server detailed_statistics=NONE
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 12
The mismatched bandwidth between a message producer and consumer can be
solved by setting which property in the TIBCO EMS configuration?
A. multicast
B. flow_control
C. msg_swapping
D. max_msg_memory
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13
Which two statements are true about a fault-tolerant configuration of TIBCO EMS
where the primary server heartbeat has stopped? (Choose two.)
A. The backup server waits for its activation interval.
B. The backup server tries to retrieve the information from shared storage.

C. The backup server assumes control if the ft_weight parameter is equal to 1.


D. If ft_activation = ft_heartbeat x 5, the backup server becomes the primary server.
E. The server_timeout_server_connection parameter is used by the backup server
before attempting a switchover.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 14
A TIBCO EMS Server (mystore) has the following configuration in the stores.conf and
queues.conf files: stores.conf [mystore] type=file file=mystore.db mode=sync
[mystore] type=dbstore
dbstore_driver_url=jdbc:sqlserver://sqlsrv_1:3415;databaseName=sysmeta
dbstore_driver_username=admin dbstore_driver_password=admin123 queues.conf
queue1 store=mystore Which statement is true when PERSISTENT messages are
published to queue1?
A. The server decides at runtime which store to use.
B. The server picks the mystore of file type because it was configured first.
C. The server fails to start because there are two stores configured with the same
name.
D. The server picks the mystore of database type because that overrides the
previously configured filestore.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
Which two mappings of JMS header fields to TIBCO Rendezvous data types are
correct? (Choose two.)
A. JMSType to TIBRVMSG_U8
B. JMSTimestamp to TIBRVMSG_U64
C. JMSDeliveryMode to TIBRVMSG_U8
D. JMSRedelivered to TIBRVMSG_STRING
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 1
Which TIBCO product must be installed before ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?

A. TIBCO EMS
B. TIBCO ActiveMatrix Adapter for Database
C. TIBCO Runtime Agent
D. TIBCO FTL
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
A TIBCO Administrator domain is needed to meet the following requirements: A
BusinessWorks process must be deployed that receives input from an EMS topic and
publishes data to an EMS queue. The topic and queue names must contain a token
used for migrating between testing and production environments. The system
administrator must be able to purge the topic and queue from within the TIBCO
Administrator. Which two actions should be taken to meet these requirements?
(Choose two.)

A. use the Designer to change the BusinessWorks domain when migrating between
environmentsbr/>
B. create queues and topics as failsafe
C. use the Domain Utility to add the EMS server to the domain
D. configure the topic and queue as global
E. use a BusinessWorks global variable for migrating between environments
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 3
What are two requirements for deleting a domain? (Choose two.)
A. stop any LDAP server used by the domain
B. undeploy all deployed applications
C. delete all administrators associated with the domain
D. use TIBCO Domain Utility to delete all secondary servers
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which two actions must be taken when the transport parameters for a TIBCO
Administrator domain are changed? (Choose two.)
A. restart Domain Hawk Agents on each machine in the domain
B. rebuild the EAR file with the new transport parameters
C. redeploy all applications deployed in the domain
D. restart the Administrator Server and any secondary servers
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 5
In which two filesystem locations is domain information stored? (Choose two.)
A. $TIBCO_HOME\repository
B. $TIBCO_HOME\administrator\domain
C. $TIBCO_HOME\tra\domain
D. $TIBCO_HOME\domain
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 6
What should you use to add a third-party database driver to TIBCO Runtime Agent?
A. TIBCO Configuration Tool
B. traDBConfig
C. Domain Utility
D. TIBCO Administrator GUI
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
What is the default HTTP server implementation in ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?
A. JBOSS
B. IIS
C. TOMCAT

D. Pramati
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
Which two actions should be performed if the JVM crashes when the installer starts?
(Choose two.)
A. verify network access to sun.java.com
B. verify that the javahome directory contains bin/java.exe or bin/java
C. run the installer with parameter -update JVM
D. run the installer using another JVM version
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 9
Which two TIBCO products must be installed to manage ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks
resources? (Choose two.)
A. TIBCO Runtime Agent
B. TIBCO Repository Adapter
C. TIBCO Administrator
D. TIBCO Enterprise Message Service
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 10
Which two files represent the installation registry? (Choose two.)
A. install.xmi
B. TIBCOInstallationHistory.xml<systemName>
C. vpd.properties.tibco.<systemName>
D. machine.xmi
E. vpd.properties
F. TIBCOInstallationProperties.xml
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 11
Which three options are available when starting TIBCO Designer? (Choose three.)
A. Test Current Project
B. New Empty Project
C. Deploy Project
D. Delete Project
E. New Project From Template
Answer: B,D,E
QUESTION NO: 12
In TIBCO Designer, which menu is used to add an activity to an ActiveMatrix
BusinessWorks process?
A. Edit menu
B. Tools menu
C. Resources menu
D. Project menu
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
In which format does TIBCO Designer store project trusted certificates?
A. PKCS12
B. PKCS7
C. KeyStore
D. PEM
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 14
With which two sources can TIBCO Designer create web services? (Choose two.)
A. Process Definition
B. HTTP Receiver

C. JMS Queue Subscriber


D. WSDL
E. SOAP RetrieveResource
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 15
What does the Load Full Project option in TIBCO Designer do?
A. loads and validates the entire project in memory
B. loads only the referenced parts of the project in memory
C. loads the entire project in memory without validation
D. loads only the referenced parts of the project in memory
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
What can be modified from the TIBCO Designer Startup Panel Administration tab?
A. domain membership
B. user directory
C. deployment target machine
D. transition line mode
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which three activities can have transitions out to other activities? (Choose three.)
A. Rethrow
B. Catch
C. Generate Error
D. Set Shared Variable
E. Inspector
Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 20
A JMS Local Transaction Group has: two JMS Queue Sender activities configured with
a JMS Shared Connection1 one JMS Topic Publisher activities configured with JMS
Shared Connection2 one Wait For JMS Queue Message activity How many
transactions will be created for a single job for this transaction group?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 21
The Accumulate Output feature for loops accumulates the output for which
activities?
A. the last executed activity in the loop
B. any map activity in the loop
C. a selected activity in the loop
D. all activities in the loop
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Which two encryption types are supported by Policy Palette activities? (Choose two.)
A. 3DES
B. MD5
C. SHA1
D. X.509
E. AES-256
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 27

Which activity is used to expose multiple operations for a SOAP service in


ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?
A. SOAP Event Source
B. Service Resource
C. SOAP HTTP Receiver
D. SOAP Request Reply
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 28
What is required before exposing a process as a web service?
A. create an abstract WSDL
B. use a SOAP Event Sources activity
C. create an HTTP transport shared resource
D. use an HTTP Receiver activity
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 29
Which three resources can be retrieved using the Retrieve Resources activity?
(Choose three.)
A. XSD
B. WSDL
C. MTOM
D. WSIL
E. MIME
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 30
Which two statements are true about using a Service Resource for implementing
web services? (Choose two.)
A. A Service Resource can only be used for a single operation or endpoint.

B. A Service Resource is added automatically to the PAR.


C. A Service Resource must be added manually to the PAR.
D. A Service Resource can be used for multiple operations or endpoints.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 32
You are asked to implement a solution that implements different integration logic,
based on an object-type. For example, depending on the object type, different
external systems and interfaces must be called. The system currently has more
than 50 object types. What is the appropriate design for this problem?
A. a Java activity and implement the solution by means of object-oriented principles
B. the Bind Object-type field in the Dispatch activity
C. a tree-like cascading set of Null activities to implement a nested if-condition
D. the Process Dynamic Override in the Call Process activity
Answer: D