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APMC BOARD EXAM

INTERNAL MEDICINE
2005
Name________________________________________

Score__________

A. Write the best answer in the space provided before each number.
_____1. Among the viruses associated with causing bronchiectasis, choose the main
ones:
A. Coxsackie virus
B. Arena virus
C. Influenza Virus
D. Parvo virus
_____2. In patients with hospital acquired pneumonia, the following organisms are
commonly found in the ICU except:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Acinetobacter spp.
D. Hemophilus influenzae
_____3. In patients with asbestosis, smoking greatly increases the incidence of
A. Lung Cancer
B. Mesothelioma
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. A and C
_____4. In the treatment of asthma, the following are classified as leukotriene
modifiers except:
A. Montelukast
B. Nedocromil
C. Zileuton
D. Zafirlukast
_____5. In evaluating a possible lesion on chest xray, which of the following
radiologic procedure will give the best information.
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. CT scan with contrast
C. Ultrasound of the thoracic area
D. Radionuclide scanning

APMC Board exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 2


_____6. Pulmonary infections is common among patients with cystic fibrosis, therapy
should be directed against which of the following organisms:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
D. None of the above
_____7. The following are radiologic signs which are found in patients with
pulmonary embolism:
A. Westermarks sign
B. Hamptons sign
C. Pallas sign
D. All of the above
_____8. Aside from lung cancer, the other malignancy (cies) most commonly
associated with pleural effusion are:
A. Breast carcinoma
B. Hepatoma
C. Renal cell cancer
D. Colon cancer
_____9. Key features to describe primary alveolar hypoventilation includes:
A. Chronic Respiratory Acidosis
B. Frequent episodes of central hypopnea
C. Development of daytime somnolence, disturbed sleep and morning headaches
D. All of the above
_____10. What is the most common disease condition in patients waiting for a lung
transplant?
A. COPD
B. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Primary Pulmonary hypertension
_____11. In an alcoholic who comes in the emergency room complaining of
ophthalmoplegia, lateral rectus palsy and ataxia, the differential diagnosis should
include:
A. cerebrovascular accident
B. Korsakoffs psychosis
C. Wernickes disease
D. A and B

APMC Board exam Internal Medicine 2005 -page 3


_____12. In patients with atheroembolic stroke, the treatment most shown to have
benefits included:
A. Heparin
B. Aspirin
C. Dipyridamole
D. A and B
_____13. Current accepted treatment of asymptomatic carotid disease includes:
A. Carotid endarterectomy
B. Conservative management with statins and aspirin
C. Balloon angioplasty with stenting
D. All of the above
_____14. Asking a patient what they ate for breakfast this morning is testing his:
A. Working memory
B. Episodic memory
C. Long term memory
D. Procedural memory
_____15. Alzheimers disease is characterized by the following except:
A. reduction of acetylcholine in the nucleus basalis of Meynert
B. formation of neuritic plaques composed of AL amyloid, proteoglycans
C. Maybe genetic in origin, involving the APP gene mutation in chromosome 21
D. May involve presenilin-1 and presenilin-2 in chromosome 14 and 1 respectively
_____16. Patients with post infectious GN have the following findings:
A. Depressed C3 level
B. Depressed C4 level
C. Elevated ASO titer
D. A and B
_____17. Patients with acute renal failure secondary to gentamicin has the following
findings:
A. oliguric renal failure
B. elevated eosinophil count in the urine
C. presence of dirty brown coarse granular cast in the urine sediments
D. presence of red blood cell cast in the urine
_____18. The correction of hyperkalemia which involves actual excretion of
potassium is achieved by what method?
A. administration of calcium gluconate
B. administration of sodium bicarbonate
C. administration of d50 water plus insulin
D. administration of kayaxelate

APMC Board Internal Medicine page 4


_____19. Kidney biopsy of a patient with membranous glomerulopathy will show:
A. Mesangial deposits
B. Subendothelial deposits
C. Subepithelial deposits
D. IgG linear antibodies
_____20. Patients with kidney transplantation who have received anti-lymphocyte
antibodies (OKT3) are prone to developing what type of infection in the immediate
post transplant period?
A. Hepatitis B infection
B. Hepatitis C infection
C. Cytomegalovirus infection
D. None of the above
_____21. Patients who are undergoing dialysis for the 1st time will experience this
condition due to rapid removal of toxic metabolites:
A. First use syndrome
B. Disequilibrium syndrome
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Recirculation
_____22. Which of the following substances below are potent inhibitors of stone
formation?
A. Uric acid
B. Inorganic pyrophosphate
C. Oxalate
D. None of the above
_____23. A 5 year old male presenting with multiple cysts in the 2 kidneys associated
with hepatic fibrosis is most likely to have:
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. medullary cystic kidney disease
C. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
D. medullary sponge kidney
_____24. Patient was complaining of reducing urine output after he started taking
rifampicin and isoniazid for pulmonary tuberculosis. The lab test shows normal sgpt
but creatinine is 3.5mg/dl (baseline of 1.0mg/dl at start of treatment). Urinalysis shows
eosinophilia with WBC cast. What is the expected etiology of the renal failure?
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Acute Glomerulonephritis
C. Acute Interstitial nephritis
D. Acute Vascular thromobosis

APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 5


_____25. Which of the following post transplant malignancy is/are common?
A. Lung cancer
B. Breast Cancer
C. Colon cancer
D. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
_____26. Which of the following physical findings suggest left ventricular heart
failure?
A. Pulsus paradoxus
B. Pulsus alternans
C. Bisferiens pulse
D. Pulsus tardus
_____27. Which of the following statement is true of right bundle bunch block?
A. Only occur in pathologic conditions, that is in coronary artery disease.
B. May occur in subjects without structural heart conditions
C. May occur in patients with atrial septal defect
D. B and C
_____28. Which of the following imaging procedures is best to detect hibernating
myocardium
A. Thallium 201 stress testing
B. Adenosine stress echo
C. Positron emission tomography with flurodeoxyglucose
D. Technetium 99m nuclear imaging
_____29. In patients with severe knee osteoarthritis and chronic obstructive lung
disease, the best way to test for myocardial ischemia is to do:
A. Adenosine stress echo
B. Dipyridamole stress echo
C. Dobutamine stress echo
D. None of the above
_____30.Which of the following conditions can cause AV nodal dysfunction?
A. Lymes disease
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Digitalis intoxication
D. All of the above

APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 6


____31. A Cardiac Pacemaker is absolutely indicated in the following condition:
A. 3rd degree AV block
B. 2nd degree AV block Mobitz type I
C. 2nd degree AV block Mobitz type II following anteroseptal wall infarction
D. A and C
_____32. The method with the best chance to terminate Wolf-Parkinson-White
syndrome is:
A. Digitalis
B. Verapamil
C. Beta-blocker
D. Catheter ablation
_____33. In a patient with abdominal aortic aneurysm, what diameter of the aortic
aneurysm is surgery absolutely indicated?
A. 4 cm
B. 4.5 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 5.5 cm
_____34. In treating deep vein thrombosis, the following statements are true:
A. Anticoagulation should be continued for 1 to 3 months
B. INR should be maintained between 2.5 to 3.5
C. Low molecular weight heparin should be started first then overlapped with
warfarin
D. all of the above
_____35. In patients about to receive fibrinolytic therapy, what conditions are
contraindicated to its use:
A. Previous administration of streptokinase
B. Recent history of surgical procedure within the last 2 weeks
C. Patient taking anticoagulant with INR >2.0
D. All of the above
_____ 36. In a patient presenting with upper respiratory tract infection, the sudden
onset of chest pain with pericardial friction rub and heart failure is usually due to:
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Herpesviruses
C. Coxsackievirus
D. Measles virus

APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 7


_____37. In patients with suspected dengue hemorrhagic fever, the following should
be done:
A. Infusion of crystalloid or colloid to prevent hemoconcentration
B. Administer steroid to prevent hypotension
C. Blood transfusion if the hematocrit goes below 36%
D. Prophylactic platelet transfusion if platelet count goes below 100,000
_____38. Which of the following viral agent does not cause hemorrhagic fever:
A. Dengue virus
B. Ebola virus
C. Hantavirus
D. HTLV I
_____39. Deeply Invasive Candidiasis is treated best with:
A. IV amphotericin B
B. Oral Fluconazole
C. Itraconazole
D. IV Caspofungin
_____40. The following are zoonotic infections, EXCEPT:
A. Brucellosis
B. Leptospirosis
C. Filariasis
D. Toxoplasmosis
_____41. The following are human infections caused by bacteria located
intracellularly, EXCEPT:
A. Legionella infections
B. Chlamydia infections
C. Salmonella infections
D. Streptococcal infections
_____42. The drug of choice for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is:
A. Carbapenems
B. Oxacillin
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Vancomycin
_____43. Which of the following antibacterial agents does not penetrate cells well
A. Ampicillin
B. Macrolide
C. Metronidazole

D. Quinolones
APMC Board Exam- Internal Medicine 2005 page 8
_____44. Which antimycobacterial agent should be stopped if the patient develops
gouty arthritis
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
_____45. Which vaccine is safe for use in pregnant women:
A. Hepatitis B
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Varicella
_____46. Very distinctive, pruritic small wheals that are surrounded by large areas of
erythema sometimes precipitated by fever or hot baths, are seen in:
A. Cholinergic Urticaria
B. Light urticaria
C. Vibratory angioedema
D. Aquagenic pruritus
_____47. Differential diagnosis of localized hypomelanosis includes:
A. Tinea Versicolor
B. Vitiligo
C. Nevus Depigmentosus
D. All of the above
_____48. Nikolskys sign which is separation of the epidermis is seen in:
A. Pemphigus Vulgaris
B. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
C. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
D. All of the above
_____49. Tissue and blood eosinophilia are prominent features of:
A. Wegeners Granulomatosis
B. Allergic Granulomatosis
C. Polyarteritis Nodosa
D. Lymphomatoid Granulomatosis

APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 9


_____50. A transient, pruritic linear wheal with a flare at a site in which the skin is
briskly stroked with a firm object is known as:
A. Dermatosis
B. Dermographics
C. Dermatography
D. Dermographism
_____51. The following are included in the criteria for the classification of Systemic
Lupus Erythematosus except:
A. Butterfly rash
B. Alopecia
C. Photosensitivity
D. Serositis
_____52. The following are true of systemic sclerosis:
A. Acquired Disease
B. Non-contagious multisystem disease
C. Raynauds phenomenon is the most common symptoms
D. All of the above
_____53. The following are features of Behcets disease except:
A. Multiple oral aphthous ulcers
B. Uveitis
C. Malar rash
D. None of the above
_____54. The following are true of Takayasus arteritis:
A. Chronic vasculitis of the aorta and its branches
B. Most common in young women of Asian descent
C. Biopsy is rarely done because of the vessel size involved
D. All of the above
_____55. Antiphospholipid syndrome:
A. Recurrent arterial or venous thrombosis
B. 2nd & 3rd trimester fetal death
C. (+) lupus anticoagulant
D. all of the above
_____56. Sjogrens syndrome is characterized by the following except:
A. Dry eyes
B . Dry mouth
C. Dry hair
D. none of the above

APMC Board Exam- Internal Medicine 2005 page 10


_____57. The following are tumors commonly associated with dermatomyositis:
A. Melanoma
B. Lung cancer
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Pancreatic cancer
_____58. What is true of Rheumatoid Factor?
A. Can be found in patients with SLE and Sjogrens syndrome
B. Presence of Rheumatoid factor establishes the diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis
C. High titers and low titers of Rheumatoid factor has the same significance
D. All of the above
_____59. Which of the following patients is the LEAST suspicious of SLE:
A. 60 y.o female with fatigue, anorexia, cough, fever, increased ESR
B. 40 y.o female with oral ulcers, rash over cheeks, anemia, thrombocytopenia
increased ESR, arthritis
C. 30 y.o male with anemia, leucopenia, casts in the urine, decreased C3, headache,
pleural effusion
D. 42 y.o female with skin rash, photosensitivity, anemia, fatigue
_____60. HLA B-27 is associated with what condition?
A. Ankylosing Spondylitis
B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
C. Sjogrens syndrome
D. Scleroderma
_____61. The most life threatening side effect of cytotoxic chemotherapy is
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Leucopenia
C. Alopecia
D. Mucositis
_____62. The following are goals of cancer treatment except:
A. To cure or control the disease whenever possible
B. To palliate symptoms in advanced disease
C. To increase over-all survival in terminally ill patients
D. To ensure that minimal functional impairment results from treatment

APMC Board Internal Medicine 2005 page 11


_____63. Telomerase, a protein found at the distal ends of DNA strands, normally fall
off. However, if it does not fall off, one of the following occurs:
A. Production of Immortal cells
B. Diseases of aging
C. Point mutation
D. Spontaneous regression
_____64. What is true of apoptosis
A. Programmed death of cells that lose normal growth regulations
B. Extrinsic pathway is activated by cross-linking members of the tumor necrosis
receptor superfamily
C. Intrinsic pathway is initiated by the release of cytochrome C and second
mitochondrial activator of caspases in response to a variety of noxious stimuli
D. All of the above
_____65. Current principles in antiangiogenic therapy depend on the following
mechanism to halt formation of new blood vessels in tumor growths:
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Anoikis
D. None of the above
_____66. Which of the following treatment may reverse the cytopenia in patients with
advanced Idiopathic myelofibrosis?
A. Hydroxyurea
B. Interferon
C. Splenectomy
D. Plateletpheresis
_____67. The enzyme that promotes myeloid proliferation in chronic myelogenous
leukemia is:
A. thymidine kinase
B. tyrosine kinase
C. leucocyte alkaline phosphatase
D. none of the above
_____68. Fever in neutropenic patients is treated with empiric antibiotics against:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Gram positive aerobes
C. Gram negative aerobes
D. All

APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 12


_____69. The differentiating agent that do not produce DIC and promotes
promyelocytic maturation in AML M3:
A. All-cis retinoic acid
B. All-trans retinoic acid
C. Tretinoin
D. Vitamin A
_____70.Which biochemical abnormality is associated with multiple myeloma?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. None of the above
_____71. In a patient with hepatic cirrhosis, hepatic encephalopathy can be
precipitated by all of the following except:
A. Gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Infection
D. Vomiting
_____72. Which of the following drug used for treating peptic ulcer disease should be
avoided in patients with renal failure
A. Sucralfate
B. Famotidine
C. Aluminum Hydroxide-Magnesium Hydroxide antacid
D. A and C
_____73. What can be said of type A gastric ulcer?
A. Also called autoimmune gastritis
B. Associated with Helicobacter Pylori infection
C. Associated with pernicious anemia
D. A and C
_____74. The most common organism isolated from the ascitic fluid of patients with
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia Coli
D. Bacteroides Fragilis

APMC Board Internal Medicine 2005 page 13


_____75. The most serious pulmonary complication of pancreatitis is:
A. Pleural effusion
B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary embolism
_____76. The following is true of Hepatitis B infection:
A. Accounts for >50% of fulminant hepatitis, a sizable proportion of which is
associated with Hepatitis D infection
B. DNA virus
C. Risk of chronic infection is much greater in adults than in infants
D. A and B
_____77. A 71 y.o. woman with a history of coronary artery disease presents to her
family physician for a routine check up. The physician notices that she has lost 20 lbs
since her last visit 6 months ago. When questioned, she gives a history of intermittent
periumbilical pain that always begins about 30min. after eating and lasts for about 2
hours. She claims that the pain is more after a large meal so she began to eat less out of
fear of the pain. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pancreatitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Small bowel obstruction
D. Intestinal Ischemia
_____78. A 48 y.o. man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency room
vomiting bright red blood. All of the following should be included in the differential
diagnosis except:
A. Ruptured Esophageal varices
B. Esophageal Reflux secondary to a hiatal hernia
C. Boerhaaves syndrome
D. Mallory Weiss Syndrome
_____79. The most common site for ischemic colitis to occur is:
A. Splenic Flexure
B. Cecum
C. Rectum
D. Sigmoid Colon
_____80. All of the factors listed below may play a role in the development of duodenal
ulcer disease except:
A. Tobacco smoking
B. Helicobacter Pylori infection
C. Spicy Food ingestion

D. Genetic Factors
APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 14
_____81. The cell mediated type of response is characterized by:
A. T cell involvement
B. Usually responsible for host defense against virus and fungus
C. Type IV hypersensitivity type of reaction
D. All of the above
_____82. The smallest concentration of antibody in the serum is:
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgM
_____83. The complement system can do all the following except:
A. Activate phagocytes
B. Lyze the target cells
C. Activates chemotaxis
D. inhibits opsonization
_____84. Mast cell degranulation is due to:
A. Crosslinking of 2 IgE antibodies
B. Primary response to antigen
C. antibody production
D. T cell activation
_____85.What is true of systemic mastocytosis:
A. Result of a point mutation
B. +Dariers sign
C. Presence of hepatosplenomegaly
D. all of the above
_____86. The following are true of hyperosmolar nonketotic coma except:
A. serum osmolality more than 320
B. ph 7.4
C. Hyperglycemia
D. serum ketones more than 2:1
_____87. A 28 year old male with mild hypertension had controlled blood pressure, he
suddenly developed hypertensive crisis with an elevated 24 hr urine metanephrines,
what is the most likely cause of his condition
A. Renal Artery Stenosis
B. Cushings syndrome
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. none of the above

APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 -page 15


_____88. The most reliable thyroid function test for diagnosing primary hypothyroidism:
A. Thyrotropin
B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
C. Free T4
D. Thyroid Scan
_____89. Clinical Feature of Conns disease:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Hyponatremia
D. Alternating Hypotension-Hypertension
_____90. If a young female patient is amerorrheic with galactorrhea, complaining of
slight visual problems, the blood test to check is:
A. LH, FSH
B. Prolactin
C. Dopamine
D. Estradiol
_____91. You suspect a patient to have acromegaly. To screen for this problem you
check:
A. IGF 1 level
B. Random Growth Hormone
C. TSH and T4 levels
D. serum ACTH level
_____92. A patient presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Serum sodium is 145 meq/l
with a dilute urine with specific gravity of 1.005. Patient has normal response to water
deprivation without any response to exogenous AVP (vasopressin). The condition is
consistent with:
A. Dipsogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
D. SIADH
_____93. A 45 y.o. male presents with infertility. On examination he was noted to have
small firm testes and gynecomastia. The following statements is true of the above
condition:
A. Most likely due to a secondary cause like pituitary gland trauma
B. Rule out possibility of exogenous estrogen intake
C. basic defect is a chromosomal abnormality= 47 XXY
D. Biochemical tests will reveal: low testosterone and low LH/FSH levels

APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 16


_____94. Clinical manifestations of Growth Hormone Excess includes the following
except:
A. Prognatism
B. Anhydrosis
C. Hypertension
D. Glucose Intolerance
_____95. 32 y.o. female with high blood sugar was examined to have moon facies,
truncal obesity with thin extremities, easy bruisibility and abdominal striae. She has an
excess of which hormone
A. ACTH
B. Growth Hormone
C. Cortisol
D. A and C
_____96. This syndrome is described as an imposter has replaced your relative:
A. Munchausens syndrome
B. Capgras syndrome
C. Delirium Tremens
D. Rogers Syndrome
_____97. The following drugs are used in the treatment of bipolar disorders:
A. Lithium carbonate
B. Valproic Acid
C. Carbamezepine
D. All of the above
_____98. The following is true of schizophrenia:
A. Affected by both genetic and environmental events
B. Drugs which activate dopaminergic activities are used to treat it.
C. There is gradual increase in cortical volume over time
D. None of the above
_____99. In the treatment of general anxiety disorders, what is true:
A. Benzodiazepines can be given for more than 4 weeks without problems
B. Buspirone takes more than 1 week to act but has no abuse potential
C. Over 80% of patients with general anxiety disorders have depression
D. B and C
_____100. Criteria for major depression includes:
A. Loss of energy every day
B. depressed mood daily for at least 1 week
C. Hypersomnia nearly every day

D. A and C
Answer Key:
1. C
2. D
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. D
18. C
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. C
30. D
31. D
32. D
33. D
34. C
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. D
39. A
40. C
41. D
42. D
43. A

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Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 235 page 1505
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 241 page 1545
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 244 page 1562
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 245 page 1567
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 246 page 1571
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 248 page 1577
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 372 page 2563
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 349 page 2375
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 349 page 2377
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 350 page 2394
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 350 page 2398-2399
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 264 page 1681
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 260 page 1645-1647
Washington Manual of Medical Therapeutics 30th Chap. 3 page 58-59
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 264 page 1687
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 263 page 1673
Washington Manual of Medical Therapeutics 30th Chap. 12 page 271
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 268 page 1712
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 265 page 1696
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 260 page 1648
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 263 page 1673
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 209 page 1305
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 210 page 1315
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 211 page 1325
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 211 page 1324
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 213 page 1336
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 213 page 1337
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 214 page 1350-1351
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 231 page 1483
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 232 page 1492
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 228 page 1453-1454
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 175 page 1145
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 180 page 1173
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 180 page 1170
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 187 page 1187
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 155 p988, chap 198 p1243 chap 202 p1260
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 132 p871, chap 160 p1011 chap 121 p824
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 120 page 821
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 118 page 790

44. D
45. A
46. A
47. D
48. D
49. B
50. D
51. B
52. D
53. C
54. D
55. D
56. C
57. A
58. A
59. A
60. A
61. B
62. B
63. A
64. D
65. B
66. C
67. B
68. D
69. C
70. A
71. B
72. D
73. D
74. C
75. B
76. D
77. D
78. B
79. A
80. C
81. D
82. C
83. D
84. A
85. D
86. D
87. D
88. B
89. B

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Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 48 page 299
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 49 page 311
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 306 page 2007
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1951
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 300 page 1962
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 303 pages 1979-1981
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 307 page 2014
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 306 page 2009-2010
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 300 page 1964
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 304 pages 1990-1991
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 369 page 2541
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 301 page 1972
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 300 pages 1962-1963
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 296 page 1937
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 70 pages 479-481
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 70 page 467
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 69 page 454
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 69 page 458-459
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 69 page 462-463
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 95 page 629
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 96 page 637
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 254 page 1611
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 96 page 636
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 98 page 658
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 289 page 1868
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 274 page 1753-1754
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 274 page 1761
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 112 page 750
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 294 page 1898
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 285 pages 1822-1825, 1834
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 279 page 1799
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 273 pages 1745-1746
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 279 pages 1797-1798
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 274 pages 1750-1753
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 297 page 1940, 1946-7
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 295 page 1922
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 295 page 1907, 1913-1915
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1947-1949
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1953
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 323 page 2161
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 322 page 2151
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 320 page 2111
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 321 page 2139

90. B
91. A
92. A
93. C
94. B
95. D
96. B
97. D
98. A
99. D
100. D

MPL:
1. 65%
2. 70%
3. 80%
4. 90%
5. 75%
6. 90%
7. 70%
8. 75%
9. 70%
10. 80%
11. 80%
12. 90%
13. 85%
14. 80%
15. 60%
16. 85%
17. 75%
18. 95%
19. 60%
20. 70%
21. 65%
22. 75%
23. 75%
24. 65%
25. 60%

Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 318 page 2086


Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 318 page 2090
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 319 page 2098-2099
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 328 page 2215
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 318 page 2090
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 321 page 2134
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 350 page 2398
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2556-2557
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2559-2560
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2549-2550
Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2553

26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

80%
60%
65%
60%
60%
50%
50%
50%
55%
75%
70%
95%
85%
90%
65%
60%
100%
80%
65%
85%
70%
70%
65%
70%
70%

51.
52,
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.

85%
65%
75%
75%
90%
65%
60%
60%
85%
85%
80%
70%
60%
40%
40%
50%
65%
90%
60%
65%
75%
45%
70%
85%
60%

76. 60%
77. 40%
78. 65%
79. 70%
80. 75%
81. 40%
82. 50%
83. 60%
84. 50%
85. 40%
86. 55%
87. 60%
88. 75%
89. 70%
90. 65%
91. 65%
92. 50%
93. 75%
94. 65%
95. 80%
96. 65%
97. 80%
98. 60%
99. 65%
100. 65%

Blueprint:
A. Percentage by subject:
1. Pulmonary - 10%
2. Neurology - 5%
3. Nephrology - 10%
4. Cardiology - 10%
5. Infectious Diseases 10%
6. Dermatology - 5%
7. Rheumatology 10%
8. Oncology 5%
9. Hematology 5%
10. Gastroenterology 10%
11. Allergy/Immunology 5%
12. Endocrinology 10%
13. Psychiatry 5%
B. Types of Questions:
1. Recall
- 52 %
2. Analysis
- 42 %
3. Case/Problem Solving - 6 %