Operation and Supply Chain Management

OPERATION AND SUPPLY CHAIN
MANAGEMENT
Part 1
1.
The volume-variety position of an

operation has implications for almost
every aspect of its design activities. In
a low volume, high variety operation
which is the correct combination of
design decisions?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Product/service
standardization low, Location
usually centralised, flow
intermittent
3.
Product/service
can be decentralised, flow
intermittent
1.
Jobbing processes, batch

processes, mass processes,
continuous processes, project
processes
4.
Project processes, jobbing

processes, batch processes,
mass processes, continuous
processes
Service shops are characterised as

which of the following?
2. Some customer contact, a

degree of customisation and
some staff discretion
3. High-contact organisations
where customers spend a
considerable time in the service
process
Product/service
continuous
Batch processes, project

processes, jobbing processes,
mass processes, continuous
processes
3.
1. Many customer transactions,

involving limited contact time
Product/service
standardization high, Location
intermittent
Which is the correct order for

process types starting with low
volume/high variety and moving to
high volume/low variety?
Project processes, batch

processes, mass processes,
jobbing processes, continuous
processes
Answer: d
4. Product orientated with little

customization
Answer: b
2.
2.
Answer: b
4.
In a jobbing process the main order

winning criterion is generally:
1.
Rate of production
2.
Cost
3.
Capacity
4.
Capability
Answer:d
5.
Which is the correct sequence in

order of increasing process flexibility?
1.
Jobbing / batch / project /

continuous / line
2.
Jobbing / batch / project / line

/ continuous
3.
Project / jobbing / batch / line

/ continuous
1.
Dedicated processes
2.
High capacity
3.
4.
5.
The ability to handle high

volumes
Short process times
The ability to handle high
variety
Answer:c
4.
8.
Continuous / line / batch /

jobbing / project
Which of the following is not a

characteristic of a line process?
1.
Operations and equipment

are dedicated to the product
2.
The product or service will

be made to a specific customer
order
3.
Processes are linear and often

continuous but can be stopped
4.
Work is not fixed but moves

through a sequence of
operations
Answer:d
6.
Which of the following statements

would generally be considered as
correct?
1.
2.
Job shops can produce a

larger range of products than
project systems
Job shops normally compete
by offering a lower price than
their competitors
3.
Batch processing produces a

more standard range of
products than continuous flow
processes
4.
Labour costs are higher in a

Job Shop operation than in most
other processes
Answer:b
9.
Which one of the following is

generally considered a characteristic of
a line process?
1.
Products or services are

unique
2.
Work is typically controlled

by one operator who moves the
work to the processes
3.
Customers buy the

organisations capabilities
Answer:d
7.
Characteristics of line or continuous

process types usually include:
4.
Work is not fixed but moves

through a sequence of
operations
2.
Relatively standardized
products
3.
Resources are allocated to

specific products
4.
High resource flexibility
Answer:d
1.
Operations can be classified

according to their volume and variety
of production as well as the degree of
variation and visibility. Which of the
following operations would be
classified as high volume, low variety?
1.
A carpenter
2.
A fast food restaurant
3.
4.
Answer: d
3.
1.
Less capital intensity and

automation
A family doctor
2.
More vertical integration
A front office bank
3.
A line process
4.
Less resource flexibility
Answer:b
1.
In the mass production era there

were 4 types of operations process;
complex project, batch production,
assembly line and ____________?
Answer: a
4.
A major supplier to an auto

manufacturer would most likely adopt
which production and inventory
strategy?
1.
Job shop
2.
Simple project
1.
Make-to-order strategy
3.
Mass process
2.
Postponement strategy
4.
Continuous flow process
3.
Assemble-to-order strategy
4.
Make-to-stock strategy
Answer:d
2.
Low manufacturing volumes

typically dictate the following process
decision.
Which of the following conditions

are generally associated with a job
process?
1.
High product or service

volume
Answer: d
5.
A high-volume manufacturing
process typically means all of the
following EXCEPT:
1.
Greater capital intensity
2.
More customer involvement
3.
Lean production
3.
A line, or continuous, process
4.
Mass customization
4.
Less resource flexibility
Answer: b
6.
Answer: b
9.
A high customer-contact service

process typically indicates all of the
following EXCEPT:
1.
a front-office process
structure
2.
low complexity
3.
diverse work flows
4.
more resource flexibility
The lay out where the equipment,

machinery, plant and people move as
necessary is known as:
1.
Cell layout
2.
Product layout
3.
Fixed-position layout
4.
Process layout
Answer: c
1.
Answer: b
7.
What would be the likely process

characteristics of the typical college
dining hall?
1.
Process layout
2.
Cell layout
1.
Line flows
3.
Product layout
2.
Flexible flows
4.
3.
Considerable process
divergence
Answer: a
1.
4.
Highly customized service
Answer: a
8.
A supermarket is usually positioned

as:
Of the four modes of configuring

value chains and value constellations,
which one is based on production of
goods on a larger scale and volume?
1.
Craft production
2.
Mass production
A self-service cafeteria is usually

positioned as:
1.
Cell layout
2.
Product layout
3.
Process layout
4.
Answer: b
2.
A process with high variety and low

volume is likely to have a:
1.
4.
Allows a wide variety of

products to be manufactured on
the same equipment
Cell layout
Answer: b
2.
5.
3.
4.
Process layout
Which of the following is usually

considered a characteristic of a product
or line layout?
1.
This layout tends to be very

flexible
2.
Transforming resources move

to the work
3.
This layout can easily handle

high variety but low volume
This layout can easily handle
high volume but low variety
Answer: d
4.
Are the most efficient form

of process layout
2.
Involve all the operations on

a product being located
adjacent to each other
3.
Cost more to run than other

types of process layout
4.
Locate transforming
resources entirely for the
convenience of the transformed
resources
Answer: b
6.
4.
1.
Product layout
Answer: b
3.
Cell layouts typically:
Which of the following is not usually

considered a characteristic of a fixed
position layout?
1.
The recipient of the process

or the work being undertaken
remain in the same place
2.
Fixed position layouts are

often used for large or delicate
products or services
3.
Fixed position layouts are

able to offer high flexibility
4.
Transforming resources are

grouped in cells
A product layout:
1.
Is appropriate for low volume

operations
2.
Involves locating the

transforming resources entirely
for the convenience of the
transformed resources
3.
Moves resources to the place

where the operation is to be
carried out
Answer: d
1. Most operations produce a mixture of
both products and services. Which of the
5
following businesses is closet to producing

pure services?
(d) Should we work overtime or put on a

second shift?
(a) A Restaurant
(b) Steel Company
(c) Counsellor/Therapist
(d) IT Company
5. Which of the following is generally

related to service operations?
(a)
Tangible product
(b) Need for flexible capacity

2. Which of the following activities is not a
direct responsibility of operations
management?
(a) developing an operations strategy for the
operation
(b) determining the exact mix of products
& services that customers will want
(c) Separation of production from

consumption
(d)Large amount of inventory
6. A measure of the success of an operation

in converting inputs to outputs is
(a)Efficiency
(c) designing the operations products,

services & processes
(b)Effectiveness
(d) planning & controlling the operation
(c)Quality
(d)Profitability
3. Who developed the use of standardization

in large-scale mass production using a
moving assembly line?
7. The inputs to a transformation process

include all of the following except
(a)
(a)
Frederick Winslow Taylor
Materials
(b) Frank Gilbreth
(b) People
(c) Adam Smith
(c)Assembly
(d) Henry Ford
(d) Information
4. Which of the following is NOT an OM

tactical issue?
8. Which of the following is not generally

considered a competitive priority?
(a)
(a)
How many workers do we need?
Time
(b) Where do we locate the facility or

facilities?
(b)Flexibility
(c) When should we have material

delivered?
(d)Infrastructure
(c)Innovation
9. Operations design choices include all of

the following except
(a)Operating plans and controls
(a) supply chain

(b) logistics
(c) process
(d) quality
(b)Type of processes and alternative designs

(c)Supply chain integration and outsourcing
(d)Inventory
10. Which is not considered to be a major

performance capability for manufacturing
companies?
(a)Flexibility of variety
(b)Quality
16. Inspection & quality control are one &

the same.
(a) True
(b) False
17. Lean management is an approach linked

towards efficient inventory management.
(a) True
(b) False
(c)Capacity
(d)Flexibility of volume
11. What are the two basic types of

production systems?
(a) Automated and manual
(b) Intermittent and Continuous process
(c) Normal and continuous process
(d) Continuous process and batch
12. What type of process would a paper mill

be most likely to use?
(a) Continuous flow
(b) Project
(c) Job shop
(d) Flow shop
13. The term production

(b) process
(c) capacity
(d) logistics
18. __________ production helps to ensure

that the product or service matches the
customers exact needs, as closely as the
firm is able, because it is literally custommade.
(a) Batch
(b)Mass
(c)Job
(
d) Flow
19. Understanding any operations systems

invariably begins with an understanding of
the processes that are integral to the
operations systems.
(a) False
(b) True
20. A bakery is an example of __________.
(a) Job production
(b) Mass production
(c) Flow
production
(d) Batch production
15. Fitness for purpose is a notion used for

_______.
7
21. Volume, variety and flow are the three

aspects which must be considered in the
process of __________.
(a) Operations
(b) Process
design
(c) Product
design
(d) Logistics
22. Customer contact signifies the extent to

which the customer participates in the
preparation & consumption of a service.
(a) False
(b) True
23. When variety increases, the volume of

production for each variation will be less
compared to a mass production system.
Therefore, dedication of manufacturing
resources for each variation may not be
feasible option. A _______ system is
preferable in such cases.
(a) Continuous
(b)Job
(c)Flow
(d) Intermittent
24. The concept of internal customer has

developed out of a need to build quality into
the product rather than inspect the product
for quality.
(a) True
(b) False
25. _________ is an inventory management

& manufacturing strategy that companies
implement to reduce costs, increase
productivity & gain competitive advantage.
(a) Six Sigma
(b) Lean
Management
(c) Poka Yoke

(d) Juran
26. A _________ flow system is

characterized by a streamlined flow of
products in the operating system.
(a) Intermittent
(b)Continuous
(c)Jumbled
(d) None of these
27. Designing operations systems excludes

making choices with respect to the location,
technology, capacity & layout of the system.
(a) True
(b) False
28. Supply chain management integrates

supply & demand management within &
across companies.
(a) True
(b) False
29. Services are _________.

(a) Awesome
(b)Separable
(c)Intangible
(d) Consistent
30. __________ is a method by which the

service delivery process is broken down into
individual elements through step-by-step
mapping of the process.
(a) Service blueprinting
(b)processdesign
c)Productionplanning
d)Operational control
31. For successfully designing the process

applicable in any kind of organization, the
8
important tool used to map the flow of a

process is
__________.
(a) Batch production
(b) Mass
production
(c)Processflow
(d) Process flow charting
32. Higher the quality, greater is the

__________.
(a)loss
(b)profit
c)sale
(d) price
33. Operations management is a narrower

concept as compared to Supply Chain
Management.
(a) False
(b) True
34. _________ is a method by which

management & employees can become
involved in the continuous improvement of
the production of goods & services.
(a) Supply Chain Management
(b) Total Quality Management
(c) Six
Sigma
d) Logistics
35. _________ production process is a type

of continuous & streamlined flow system.
(a) Job
(b)
Shop
(c)Mass
(d) Batch
36. Utmost knowledge of _______ provides

vital clues to the operations manager about
production planning & control issues that
need to be addressed.
(a) Variety
(b)Flow
(c)Volume
(d) Market
37. A _________ is a system of

organisations, people, activities, information
& resources involved in moving a product or
service from supplier to customer.
(a) physical distribution
(b)distribution channel
(c)supplychain
(d) logistics
38. The mass production system in the

discrete manufacturing industry is an
example of continuous & streamlined flow
in the manufacturing system.
(a) True
(b) False
39. Walter Shewhart is listed among the

important people of operations management
because of his contributions to
(a) assembly line production
(b) measuring the productivity in the service
sector
(c) Just-in-time inventory methods
(d) statistical quality control
40. The responsibilities of the operations

manager include
(c) Services tend to have a more inconsistent

product definition than goods.
(a) planning, organizing, staffing, procuring,

and reviewing
(d) Goods tend to have higher customer

interaction than services.
(b) forecasting, designing, planning,

organizing, and controlling
(c) forecasting, designing, operating,
procuring, and reviewing
(d) planning, organizing, staffing, leading,
and controlling
44. Which of the following is not a typical

service attribute?
(a) intangible product
(b) easy to store
(c) customer interaction is high
41. All of the following decisions fall within

the scope of operations management except
for
(d) simultaneous production and

consumption
(a) financial analysis

(b) design of products and processes
45. Which of the following inputs has the

greatest potential to increase productivity?
(c) location of facilities
(a) labor
(d) quality management
(b) globalization
(c) management
42. Current trends in operations

management include all of the following
except
(a) Just-in-time performance
(b) rapid product development
(c) mass customization
(d)mass production
43. Which is not true regarding differences

between goods and services?
(a) Services are generally produced and
consumed simultaneously, tangible goods
are not.
(b) Services tend to be more knowledgebased than products.
(d) capital
46. Which of the following is not true when

explaining why productivity tends to be
lower in the service sector than in the
manufacturing sector?
(a) Service operations are typically capital
intensive.
(b) Services are often difficult to evaluate
for quality.
(c) Services are often an intellectual task
performed by professionals.
(d) Services are difficult to automate.
47. Operations management is applicable

(a) mostly to the service sector
10
(b) to services exclusively

(c) mostly to the manufacturing sector
(d) to manufacturing and service sectors
48. Who among the following is associated

with contributions to quality control in
operations management?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Henry Ford
(c) W. Edwards Deming
(d) Frank Gilbreth
49. Which of the following are the primary

functions of all organizations?
(a) operations, marketing, and human
resources
(b) marketing, human resources, and
finance/accounting
(c) sales, quality control, and operations
(d) marketing, operations, and
finance/accounting
50. Which of the following would not be an

operations function in a fast-food restaurant?
(a) making hamburgers and fries
(b) advertising and promotion
(c) maintaining equipment
(d) designing the layout of the facility
11
DECISION SCIENCE
1. are the choices faced by the decision

maker
Part 1
2. are the problems faced by the

decision maker
1. The field of management science

1. Concentrates on the on the use of
quantitative methods to assists in
decision making
3. are the ways to evaluate the

choices faced by the decision
maker
4. must be unique for the problem
2. Approaches decision making with

techniques based on the scientific
method
3. is another name for decision science
and for operation research
4. each of the above is true
5. In a multi criteria decision problem

1. it is impossible to select a single
decision alternative
2. the decision maker must evaluate
each alternative with respect to
each criterion
2. Identification and definition of a problem

1. Can not be done until alternatives are
proposed
3. successive decisions must be made

over time
2. Is the first step of decision making

3. Is the final step of problem solving
4. Requires consideration of multiple
criteria
3. Decision alternatives
6. The quantitative analysis approach

requires
1. the managers prior experience with
similar problem
2. a relatively uncomplicated problem
1. Should be identified before

decision criteria are established
3. mathematical expressions for the

relationship
2. Are limited to quantitative solutions
3. Are evaluated as a part of the

problem definition stage
4. Are best generated by brain storming
4. Decision Criteria
7. maximization or minimization of the

quantity is the
1. a goal of management science
2. decision for decision analysis
12
3. constraint of operation research

4. objective of linear programming
8. Decision variables
11. A solution that satisfies all the

constraints of the LPP except the non
negativity constraints is called
1. optimal
1. tells how much or how many of

something to produce, invest,
purchase ,hire
2. feasible
2. represent the values of the

constraints
4. semi-feasible
3. infeasible
12. Slack
3. measure the objective function
4. must exist for each constraint
9. Which of the following is the valid
objective function of LPP?
1. is the difference between the left and

right sides of the constraints
2. is the amount by which the left
side of the constraint is smaller
than the right side
1. Maximize 5xy
2. Minimize 4x+3y+3z
3. is the amount by which the left side

of the constraint is larger than the
right side
3. Maximize 3xy+5xy
4. Minimize(x1+x2)/x3
4. exists for each variable in a linear

programming problem
10. Which of the following statement is not

true?
13. To find the optimal solution to the LPP

using the graphical method
1. feasible solution satisfies all the

constraints
1. find the feasible point that is the

farthest away from the region
2. an optimal solution satisfies all the

constraints
2. find the feasible point that is at the

highest location
3. an infeasible solution violates all

constraints
3. find the feasible point that is closest

to the origin
4. a feasible solution point does not

have to lie on the boundary of the
feasible region
4. None of the alternative is correct

14. Which of the following cases does not
require reformulation of the problem in
order to obtain a solution?
13
1. Alternate optimality
2. Problem solving
2. Infeasibility
3. Manufacturing Industry
3. Unboundness
4. Only in service sector
4. Each case requires a reformulation
19. A dummy job is an
15. Whenever all constraints in the LPP are

expressed as equalities, the linear program is
said to be written in
1. Imaginary
2. Real
1. Standard form
3. Rigid
2. Bounded form
4. Cant say
3. Feasible form
20. In transportation problem following are

always transported
4. Alternate form
1. Consignments
16. Problem solving encompasses
2. Goods
1. Identification of problem
3. Demand
2. Identification of problem and the
action to resolve it
3. Identification of problem and
finding of objective function
4. Supply
21. Initial basic solution from VAM IS
1. Least
4. All of above
2. Maximum
17. Long form of LPP is
3. Cant say
1. Linear programming problem
4. None of above
2. Linear Problem parameters
3. Linear programming parameters
4. None of above
18. Assignment model can be applied in
1. Decision making
22. Demand variation occurs because of

change in
1. Customer preference
2. Competitors entry
3. Market condition
14
4. None of above
23. Following represents the aim or goal of
the system
1. Decision variable
2. Objective function
3. Constraints
4. None of above
24. In real life supply & demand
requirement will be rarely
1. Equal
2. Unequal
3. Stable
4. None of above
25. Lpp is widely used
modelling technique
1. Mathematical
2. Statistical
3. Graphical
4. None of above
26. LP Consists of linear objectives
&.
1. Linear variables
2. Linear constraints
3. Linear functions
4. None of above
27. . represents the aim of

the system.
1. Constraints
2. Decision variable
3. Objective functions
4. Cannt say
28. method solve the LPP
in iteration to enhance the value of the
objective function
1. Complex
2. Simplex
3. Corner point
4. Iso profit
29. .is special type of linear
programming
1. Transportation problem
2. Assignment
3. Cannt say
4. Queuing
30. model helps to manager to
take decision
1. Transportation
2. Assignment
3. LPP
4. All above
15
31. is used to collect a set of

experimental data and figure out to graph
35. In a balanced transportation model

where supply equals demand,
1. LPP
1. all constraints are equalities
2. Mathematical model
2. none of the constraints are equalities
3. Corner point model
3. all constraints are inequalities
4. Operation research model
4. none of the constraints are

inequalities
5.
32. Initial basic solution can be obtained by
modified distribution method
36. In a transportation problem, items are

allocated from sources to destinations
1. at a maximum cost
1. True
2. at a minimum cost
2. False
3. at a minimum profit
3. Cannot say
4. at a minimum revenue
4. Data is not sufficient
33. Least cost method is a best method to
find basic solution
37. The assignment model is a special case

of the ________ model.
1. maximum-flow
1. True
2. transportation
2. False
3. shortest-route
3. Cannot say
4. none of the above
4. Data is not sufficient
34. . Method is more accurate
38. An assignment problem is a special form

of transportation problem where all supply
and demand values equal
1. North west corner

1. 0
2. Least cost
2. 1
3. VAM
3. 2
4. None of above
4. 3
16
39. The transportation model relies on

certain assumptions. They include all of the
following except
2. non-linear
3. linear
1. the items must be homogeneous
4. rotating
2. there is only one route being used

between each origin and destination
5. variable
3. the shipping cost per unit is the same
43. Before the analyst of the transportation

model can begin, what data would they need
to collect?
4. the items must be large scale

1. A list of destinations
2. Unit cost to ship
40Which of the following are supply points
that a transportation model can analyze?
3. A list of origins
1. factories
4. All of the above
2. warehouses
5. None of the above
3. departments
44. What does the transportation problem

involve finding:
4. all of the above

1. highest cost-plan
2. lowest cost-plan
41. The basis for the transportation model is
3. closest destinations
1. a way to provide a map for people to
see results
2. a method to arrive at the lowest
total shipping cost
3. so delivery drivers know where to go
4. farthest destinations
5. none if the above
45. Transportation problems be solved
4. a form of accounting
1. manually
5. to provide data for use in other areas
2. with a table
42. The following transportation model is a

programming model:
3. with excel
4. with software packages
1. analytical
17
5. all of the above

46. The objective function of the
transportation model is to
supplies from multiple origins to multiple

destinations that demand the goods is
1. cost-volume analysis
1. reduce shipping costs
2. transportation model analysis
2. decrease shipping distance
3. factor rating analysis
3. maximize costs
4. linear regression analysis
4. minimize costs
5. MODI analysis

47. Goods are not sent from
50. Except to be used to minimized the costs

associated with distributing good,
transportation model can also be used in
1. warehouses
1. production planning
2. factories
2. capacity planning
3. grocery stores
3. transshipment problem
4. department stores
4. comparison of location alternative
5. goods are sent from all of these

locations
5. all of the above

51. Which one of the following is a linear
programming model ?
48. Goods are received at all of the

following except
1. Cost-volume analysis
1. docks
2. Transportation model analysis
2. departments
3. Factor rating analysis
3. factories
4. Linear regression analysis
4. warehouses
5. MODI analysis
5. all of the above

52. Destination points are
49. The method for finding the lowest-cost
plan for distributing stocks of goods or
18
1. points that receive goods from

factories, warehouses, and
departments
a. Cannot be done until alternatives are

proposed
2. points where goods are sent from

factories, warehouses, and
departments
c. Is the final step of problem solving
3. supply points
4. selling points
53. Transportation problems can be solved
manually in a straightforward manner except
for
1. medium problems
2. very small, but time consuming
problems
b. Is the first step of decision making
d. Requires consideration of multiple criteria
3. Decision alternatives
a. Should be identified before decision
criteria are established
b. Are limited to quantitative solutions
c. Are evaluated as a part of the problem
definition stage
d. Are best generated by brain storming
4. Decision Criteria
3. large problems
a. are the choices faced by the decision

maker
4. all of the above
b. are the problems faced by the decision

maker
c. are the ways to evaluate the choices

faced by the decision maker
d. must be unique for the problem

a. Concentrates on the on the use of
quantitative methods to assists in decision
making
b. Approaches decision making with
techniques based on the scientific method
c. is another name for decision science and
for operation research
d. each of the above is true
5. In a multi criteria decision problem

a. it is impossible to select a single decision
alternative
b. the decision maker must evaluate each
alternative with respect to each criterion
c. successive decisions must be made over
time
2. Identification and definition of a problem
19
6. The quantitative analysis approach

requires
a. feasible solution satisfies all the

constraints
a. the managers prior experience with

similar problem
b. an optimal solution satisfies all the

constraints
b. a relatively uncomplicated problem
c. an infeasible solution violates all

constraints
c. mathematical expressions for the

relationship
d. a feasible solution point does not have to

lie on the boundary of the feasible region
7. Maximization or minimization of the

quantity is the
11. A solution that satisfies all the

constraints of the LPP except the nonnegativity constraints is called
a. a goal of management science
a. optimal
b. decision for decision analysis
b. feasible
c. constraint of operation research
c. infeasible
d. objective of linear programming
d. semi-feasible
8. Decision variables
12. Slack
a. tells how much or how many of

something to produce, invest, purchase
,hire
a. is the difference between the left and right

sides of the constraints
b. represent the values of the constraints
b. is the amount by which the left side of

the constraint is smaller than the right
side
c. measure the objective function

d. must exist for each constraint
9. Which of the following is the valid

objective function of LPP?
a. Maximize 5xy
b. Minimize 4x+3y+3z
c. Maximize 3xy+5xy
d. Minimize(x1+x2)/x3
10. Which of the following statement is not

true?
c. is the amount by which the left side of the

constraint is larger than the right side
d. exists for each variable in a linear
programming problem
13. To find the optimal solution to the LPP

using the graphical method
a. find the feasible point that is the farthest
away from the region
b. find the feasible point that is at the
highest location
20
c. find the feasible point that is closest to the

origin
d. None of the alternative is correct
d. None of above
18. Assignment model can be applied in

a. Decision making
14. Which of the following cases does not

require reformulation of the problem in
order to obtain a solution?
b. Problem solving
a. Alternate optimality
d. Only in service sector
c. Manufacturing Industry
b. Infeasibility
c. Unsoundness
19 A dummy job is an
d. Each case requires a reformulation
a. Imaginary
b. Real
15. Whenever all constraints in the LPP are

expressed as equalities, the linear program is
said to be written in
c. Rigid
d. Cant say
a. Standard form
b. Bounded form
c. Feasible form
d. Alternate form
16. Problem solving encompasses

a. Identification of problem
b. Identification of problem and the
action to resolve it
20. In transportation problem following are

always transported
a. Consignments
b. Goods
c. Demand
d. Supply
21. Initial basic solution from VAM IS
c. Identification of problem and finding of

objective function
a. Least
d. All of above
c. Cant say
b. Maximum
d. None of above
17. Long form of LPP is
a. Linear programming problem
b. Linear Problem parameters
22. Demand variation occurs because of

change in
c. Linear programming parameters
a. Customer preference
21
b. Competitors entry
c. Market condition
d. None of above
27. represents the aim of

the system.
a. Constraints
b. Decision variable
23. Following represents the aim or goal of

the system
c. Objective functions
d. Cant say
a. Decision variable
b. Objective function
c. Constraints
28.method solve the LPP

in iteration to enhance the value of the
objective function
d. None of above
a. Complex
b. Simplex
24. In real life supply & demand

requirement will be rarely
a. Equal
c. Corner point
d. none of above
b. Unequal
c. Stable
29.is special type of linear

programming
d. None of above
a. Transportation problem
b. Assignment
25. LPP is widely used

modeling technique
a. Mathematical
c. Cant say
d. Queuing
b. Statistical
c. Graphical
30 model helps to manager to

take decision
d. None of above
a. Transportation
26. LPP Consists of linear objectives

&.
b. Assignment
a. Linear variables
b. Linear constraints
c. LPP
d. All above
c. Linear functions
d. None of above
31is used to collect a set of

experimental data and figure out to graph
a. LPP
22
b. Mathematical model
c. Corner point model
d. Operation research model
36. The assignment model is a special case

of the ________ model.
a. maximum-flow
b. transportation

c. shortest-routed.
d. none of the above
a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say
d. Data is not sufficient
37. The linear programming model for a

transportation problem has constraints for
supply at each ______ and _______ at each
destination.
a. destination / source

find basic solution
b. source / destination
a. True
d. source / demand
b. False
38. An assignment problem is a special form

of transportation problem where all supply
and demand values equal
c. Cannot say
34. In a balanced transportation model

where supply equals demand,
c. demand / source
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
a. all constraints are equalities
d. 3
b. none of the constraints are equalities

c. all constraints are inequalities

d. none of the constraints are inequalities
35. In a transportation problem, items are

allocated from sources to destinations
a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say
a. at a maximum cost
b. at a minimum cost
c. at a minimum profit
d. at minimum revenue

find basic solution
a. True
b. False
23
c. Cannot say
44. A physical model that does not have the

same physical appearance as the object
being modeled is
e. None of above
a. an analog model.
b. an iconic model.
c. a mathematical model.
a. concentrates on the use of quantitative

methods to assist in decision making.
d. a qualitative model.
b. approaches decision making rationally,

with techniques based on the scientific
method.
c. is another name for decision science and
for operations research.
d. each of the above is true.
45.
Management science and
operations research both involve
a. qualitative managerial skills.
b. quantitative approaches to decision
making.
c. operational management skills.
42. Identification and definition of a

problem
d. scientific research as opposed to

applications.
a. cannot be done until alternatives are

proposed.
Q6
b. is the first step of decision making.

c. is the final step of problem solving.
d. requires consideration of multiple criteria.
46. George Dantzig is important in the

history of management science because he
developed
a. the scientific management revolution.
43A8
b. World War II operations research teams.

c. the simplex method for linear
programming.
. The quantitative analysis approach requires
d. powerful digital computers.
a. the managers prior experience with a

similar problem.
b. a relatively uncomplicated problem.
c. mathematical expressions for the
relationships.
4A7
7. A model that uses a system of symbols to
represent a problem is called
a. mathematical.
b. iconic.
c. analog.
24
d. constrained.
a. dual price.
b. surplus variable.
48. Slack
c. reduced cost.
a. is the difference between the left and right

sides of a constraint.
d. upper limit.
b. is the amount by which the left side of a

< constraint is smaller than the right side.
c. is the amount by which the left side of a >
constraint is larger than the right side.
52. The values in the cj - zj , or net

evaluation, row indicate
a. the value of the objective function.
d. exists for each variable in a linear

programming problem.
b. the decrease in value of the objective

function that will result if one unit of the
variable corresponding to the jth column of
the A matrix is brought into the basis.
49.
Which of the following special cases
does not require reformulation of the
problem in order to obtain a solution?
a. alternate optimality
c. the net change in the value of the

objective function that will result if one
unit of the variable corresponding to the jth
column of the A matrix is brought into the
basis.
b. infeasibility
d. the values of the decision variables.
c. unboundedness
d. each case requires a reformulation.
53. In the simplex method, a tableau is

optimal only if all the cj zj values are
50.
a. zero or negative.
The range of feasibility measures
a. the right-hand-side values for which the

objective function value will not change.
b. zero.
b. the right-hand-side values for which the

values of the decision variables will not
change.
d. positive and nonzero.
c. the right-hand-side values for which the

dual prices will not change.
54. For the basic feasible solution to remain

optimal
a. all cj - zj values must remain 0.
51. The amount that the objective function

coefficient of a decision variable would have
to improve before that variable would have a
positive value in the solution is the
c. negative and nonzero.
b. no objective function coefficients are

allowed to change.
c. the value of the objective function must
not change.
25
a. one agent can do parts of several tasks.

55.
The dual variable represents
b. one task can be done by several agents.
a. the marginal value of the constraint
c. each agent is assigned to its own best task.
b. the right-hand-side value of the constraint
d. None of the alternatives is correct.
c. the artificial variable

d. the technical coefficient of the constraint
56. The parts of a network that represent the

origins are
60. Arcs in a transshipment problem

a. must connect every node to a
transshipment node.
b. represent the cost of shipments.
a. the axes
c. indicate the direction of the flow.
b. the flow
d. All of the alternatives are correct.
c. the nodes
d. the arrows
57. The number of units shipped from origin

i to destination j is represented by
a. xij. b. xji.
c. cij. d. cji.
61. To use the Hungarian method, a profitmaximization assignment problem requires

a. converting all profits to opportunity
losses.
b. a dummy agent or task.
c. matrix expansion.
d. finding the maximum number of lines to
cover all the zeros in the reduced matrix.
58. The difference between the

transportation and assignment problems is
that
62. The critical path
a. total supply must equal total demand in

the transportation problem
a. is any path that goes from the starting

node to the completion node.
b. the number of origins must equal the

number of destinations in the transportation
problem
b. is a combination of all paths.
c. each supply and demand value is 1 in

the assignment problem
d. is the longest path.
d. there are many differences between the

transportation and assignment problems
63. When activity times are uncertain,
59. In an assignment problem,
b. calculate the expected time, using (a +

4m + b)/6.
c. is the shortest path.
a. assume they are normally distributed.
26
c. use the most likely time.

d. calculate the expected time, using (a + m
+ b)/3.
64. The critical path is the __________ path

through the network.
a. longest
b. shortest
c. straightest d. none of the above
65. In a CPM/PERT network the critical

path is the
a. lowest path through the network
b. highest path through the network
c. shortest path through the network
d. longest path through the network
66. The transportation model relies on

certain assumptions. They include all of the
following except
a. the items must be homogeneous
b. there is only one route being used
between each origin and destination
c. the shipping cost per unit is the same
d. the items must be large scale
e. none of the above
67. Which of the following are supply points
that a transportation model can analyze?
a. Factories
b. warehouses
c. departments
d. all of the above
68. The basis for the transportation model is
a. a way to provide a map for people to see
results
b. a method to arrive at the lowest total
shipping cost
c. so delivery drivers know where to go
d. a form of accounting
e. to provide data for use in other areas
69. The following transportation model is a
programming model:
a. analytical
b. non-linear
c. linear
d. rotating
e. variable
70. Before the analyst of the transportation
model can begin, what data would they need
to collect?
a. A list of destinations
b. Unit cost to ship
c. A list of origins
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
71. What does the transportation problem
involve finding:
a. highest cost-plan
b. lowest cost-plan
c. closest destinations
d. farthest destinations
e. none if the above
72. Transportation problems be solved
a. manually
b. with a table
c. with excel
d. with software packages
e. all of the above
73. The objective function of the
transportation model is to
a. reduce shipping costs
b. decrease shipping distance
c. maximize costs
d. minimize costs
74. Goods are not sent from
a. warehouses
27
b. factories
c. grocery stores
d. department stores
e. goods are sent from all of these locations
75. Goods are received at all of the
following except
a. docks
b. departments
c. factories
d. warehouses
e. all of the above
76. The method for finding the lowest-cost
plan for distributing stocks of goods or
supplies from multiple origins to multiple
destinations that demand the goods is
a. cost-volume analysis
b. transportation model analysis
c. factor rating analysis
d. linear regression analysis
e. MODI analysis
77. Except to be used to minimized the costs
associated with distributing good,
transportation model can also be used in
a. production planning
b. capacity planning
c. transshipment problem
d. comparison of location alternative
e. all of the above
78. Which one of the following is a linear
programming model ?
a. Cost-volume analysis
b. Transportation model analysis
c. Factor rating analysis
d. linear regression analysis
e. MODI analysis
79. Destination points are
a. points that receive goods from
factories, warehouses, and departments
b. points where goods are sent from
factories, warehouses, and departments
c. supply points
d. selling points
80. Transportation problems can be solved
manually in a straightforward manner except
for
a. medium problems
b. very small, but time consuming problems
c. large problems
d. all of the above
81. The transportation model is a
a. linear model
b. quadratic model
c. model with two variables
d. both a and c
82. The transportation model is used to
determine
a. what type of transportation to use (boat,
truck, train or plane) to transport goods,
while minimizing costs
b. what day of the week goods should be
transportation on to minimize costs
c. how to distribute goods from multiple
origins to multiple destinations to
minimize total shipping costs
d. how to best package goods so that they
wouldn't break while transporting them
83. What assumption is used in the
transportation model?:
a. The items to be shipped are
heterogeneous.
b. Shipping cost per unit is the different
regardless of the number of units shipped.
c. There is more than one route or mode of
transportation being used between each
origin and each destination.
d. The items to be shipped are the same
regardless of their source or destination.
e. None of the above
28
84. Which of the following is needed for a

transportation model?
a. A list of origins and each one's capacity or
supply quantity per period
b. A list of destinations and each one's
demand per period
c. The unit cost of shipping items from each
origin to each destination
d. All of the above
e. Only A and B
85. The transportation model is a linear __
model.
a. Solution
b. Programming
c. Data
d. Shipping
e. Distribution
MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM
1. The department in charge of recording all

financial activity is the __________
department.
a. human resources
b. accounting
c. marketing
d. production
2. Which department actually creates the

finished goods?
a. marketing
b. research
c. human resources
d. production
3. The __________ department handles all

aspects of promotion.
a. research
b. marketing
c. production
d. accounting
4. This management level is responsible for

monitoring the day-to-day events in an
organization and taking any required
corrective action.
a. supervisory
b. middle-managerial
c. stockholder
d. top-managerial
5. This management level deal with control,

planning and decision making.
a. supervisory
c. stockholder
d. top-managerial
6. This management level is concerned with

long-range planning for the organization.
a. supervisory
c. stockholder
d. top-managerial
7. Top managerial-level information flow is

vertical, horizontal, and
29
a. diagonal
b. MIS
b. multidimensional
c. DSS
c. ethereal
d.ESS
d. external
8. This level of management require

summarized information in capsule form to
reveal the overall condition of the business.
a. top management
b. middle management
c. supervisors
d. stockholders
9. This level of management need access to

information from outside the organization.
a. top management
c. supervisors
d. stockholders
10. This level of management need

summarized information such as weekly or
monthly reports.
a. top management
c. supervisors
d. stockholders
11. These systems (__________) record dayto-day transactions such as customer orders,
bills, inventory levels, and production
output.
a. TPS
12. These systems (__________) summarize

the detailed data of the transaction
processing systems in standard reports for
middle-level managers.
a. CSS
b. MIS
c. DSS
d. ESS
13. Management Information Systems are

used by
a. employee-level workers
c. supervisor-level management
d. top-level management
14. These systems (__________) present

information in a very highly summarized
form.
a. TPS
b. MIS
c. DSS
d. ESS
15. These systems (__________) help toplevel managers oversee the companys
operations and develop strategic plans.
a. TPS
b. MIS
30
c. DSS
d. ESS
16. The __________ activity records the

customer requests for goods or services.
20. The money that the company owes for

goods or services is handled by
a. accounts receivable
b. inventory
a. payroll
c. sales order processing
b. sales order processing
d. accounts payable
c. inventory
g. general ledger
Answer: B
21. The __________ activity is concerned

with calculating employees paychecks.
a. payroll
17. Money collected from or owed by

customers is
a. accounts payable
b. general ledger
c. accounts payable
d. sales order processing
b. inventory
c. accounts receivable
d. sales order processing
22. The __________ is the summary of all

foregoing transactions.
a. inventory
18. The __________ control system keeps

records of the number of each kind of part or
finished good in the warehouse.
b. general ledger
d. accounts payable
a. payroll
b. inventory
23. The __________ shows a companys

financial performance.
d. general ledger
a. general ledger
b. balance sheet
19. The buying of goods and services is

referred to as
c. income statement
d. statement of cash flows
a. sales order processing

b. accounts receivable
c. inventory
24. The overall financial condition of the

organization is listed in the
d. purchasing
a. income statement
31
b. profit and loss statement
c. inventory
c. balance sheet
d. exception
d. statement of cash flows
25. Management information systems

produce reports that are
29. These types of systems would most

likely be used to assist a manager in getting
answers to unexpected and generally
nonrecurring kinds of problems.
a. predetermined
a. TPS
b. encrypted
b. MIS
c. graphically simplified
c. DSS
d. dynamic
d. ESS
26. __________ reports are produced at

regular intervals.
30. Which of the following refers to a

decision-making support system for teams?
a. Management
a. TPS
b. Periodic
b. GDSS
c. Exception
c. ESS
d. Demand
d. MIS
27. When sales reports are combined into

monthly reports for the regional sales
manager, they are said to be
31. In a GDSS, the __________ is generally

a decision-maker.
a. management reports
b. periodic reports
c. exception reports
d. demand reports
28. A sales report that shows that certain

items are selling significantly above or
below marketing department forecasts is an
example of this type of report.
a. periodic
b. demand
a. programmer
b. technician
c. user
d. client
32. The basic information that makes up a

GDSS is called the
a. system software
b. user
c. decision model
d. data
32
33. Data from within the organization

consist principally of transactions from the
37. These systems permit a firms top

executives to gain direct access to
information about the companys
performance.
a. TPS
a. TPS
b. MIS
b. MIS
c. ESS
c. ESS
d. accounts receivable
d. DSS
34. This management level control the work

of the organization, such as financial
planning and sales promotion planning.
38. These systems often present summary

information in graphical format.
a. strategic level managers

b. corporate stock holders
c. tactical level mangers
d. operational level managers
35. This management level are responsible

for accomplishing the organizations day-today activities.
a. TPS
b. DSS
c. MIS
d. ESS
39. __________ workers distribute,

communicate, and create information.
a. White collar
a. strategic level managers
b. Data mine
b. corporate stock holders
c. Information
c. tactical level mangers
d. Organization
d. operational level managers
36. Which component gives a GDSS its

decision-making capabilities?
a. user
b. data
c. decision model
d. system software
40. Employees involved with the

distribution and communication of
information are called
a. managers
b. data workers
c. IT staff
d. knowledge workers
41. Employees who create information are

called
33
a. managers
d. retail
b. data workers
c. IT staff
46. Information is
d. knowledge workers
a. Data
b. Processed Data
42. __________ systems focus on managing

documents, communicating, and scheduling.
c. Manipulated input
d. Computer output
a. Office automation
b. Transaction processing
c. Knowledge work
d. Executive support
47. Data by itself is not useful unless

a. It is massive
b. It is processed to obtain information
c. It is collected from diverse sources
43. These systems are computer systems that

allow people located at various locations to
communicate and have in-person meetings.
d. It is properly stated
a. project managers
48. For taking decisions data must be
b. videoconferencing
a. Very accurate
c. telemarketing
b. Massive
d. data conferencing
c. Processed correctly
d. Collected from diverse sources
44. Which of the following is an example of

a knowledge work system?
a. project manager
b. Web server
c. Videoconferencing system
d. CAD/CAM
49. Strategic information is needed for

a. Day to day operations
b. Meet government requirements
c. Long range planning
d. Short range planning
45. CAD/CAM would be most useful in

what industry?
50. Strategic information is required by
a. motion picture
a. Middle managers
b. automobile manufacturing
b. Line managers
c. food service
c. Top managers
34
d. All workers
51. Tactical information is needed for
56. In motor car manufacturing the

following type of information is strategic

a. Decision on introducing a new model

b. Scheduling production
c. Assessing competitor car
d. Computing sales tax collected
52. Tactical information is required by

a. Middle managers

following type of information is tactical
b. Line managers
c. Top managers
d. All workers

53. Operational information is needed for


following type of information is operational
54. Operational information is required by
a. Middle managers
b. Line managers
c. Top managers
d. All workers
55. Statutory information is needed for


following type of information is statutory
60. In a hospitals information system the

following type of information is strategic
35
a. Opening a new childrens ward

b. Data on births and deaths
(i) The size of organization have become

large and data is massive
c. Preparing patients bill
(ii) Timely decisions are to be taken based

on available data
d. Buying an expensive diagnostic system

such as CAT scan
(iii) Computers are available

(iv) Difficult to get clerks to process data

following type of information is tactical
a. (ii) and (iii)

b. (i) and (ii)
c. (i) and (iv)
d. (iii) and (iv)

such as CAT scan
65. Volume of strategic information is

a. Condensed
b. Detailed

following type of information is operational
c. Summarized
d. Irrelevant

66. Volume of tactical information is

such as CAT scan
a. Condensed
b. Detailed
c. Summarized

following type of information is statutory
such as CAT scan
d. relevant
67. Volume of operational information is

a. Condensed
b. Detailed
c. Summarized
d. Irrelevant
64. A computer based information system is

needed because
68. Strategic information is
36
a. Haphazard
b. Well organized
c. Unstructured
(i) Performance appraisal of machines (iv)

Strategic information to decide
on replacement
d. Partly structured
(ii) Introducing new production (v) Tactical

information technology
69. Tactical information is
(iii) Preventive maintenance schedules (vi)

Operational information for machines
a. Haphazard
a. (i) and (vi)
b. Well organized
b. (ii) and (v)
c. Unstructured
c. (i) and (v)
d. (iii) and (iv)
70. Operational information is
73. Match and find best pairing for a

Production Management System
a. Haphazard
b. Well organized
c. Unstructured
71. Match and find best pairing for a Human

Resource Management System
(i) Policies on giving bonus (iv) Strategic
information
(ii) Absentee reduction (v) Tactical
information
(iii) Skills inventory (vi) Operational
Information
a. (i) and (v)
b. (i) and (iv)
c. (ii) and (iv)
d. (iii) and (v)

Production Management System
(i) Performance appraisal of machines (iv)

Strategic information to decide on
replacement
(ii)Introducing new production (v) Tactical
information technology
(iii) Preventive maintenance schedules (vi)
Operational information for machines
a. (iii) and (vi)
b. (i) and (iv)
c. (ii) and (v)
d. None of the above

Materials Management System
(i) Developing vendor performance (iv)
Strategic information measures
(ii) Developing vendors for critical (v)
Tactical information items
(iii)List of items rejected from a vendor
(vi)Operational information
37
a. (i) and (v)

b. (ii) and (v)
c. (iii) and (iv)
(i) Tax deduction at source report (iv)

Strategic information
(ii) Impact of taxation on pricing (v) Tactical
information
d. (ii) and (vi)
(iii) Tax planning (vi) Operational

information

a. (i) and (v)

c. (ii) and (v)

b. (iii) and (vi)
d. (ii)) and (iv)
(iii) List of items rejected from a vendor (vi)

Operational information

Finance Management System
a. (i) and (iv)
(i) Budget status to all managers (iv)

b. (i) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (iv)
(ii) Method of financing (v) Tactical

information
d. (iii) and (v)
(iii) Variance between budget and (vi)

Operational information expenses

a. (i) and (v)

c. (ii) and (v)

b. (iii) and (vi)
d. (ii) and (iv)
(iii) List of items rejected from a vendor (vi)


Marketing Management System
a. (i) and (vi)
(i) Customer preferences surveys (iv)

b. (iii) and (vi)

c. (ii) and (vi)
(ii) Search for new markets (v) Tactical

information
d. (iii) and (iv)
(iii) Performance of sales outlets (vi)


Finance Management System
a. (i) and (iv)

b. (ii) and (v)
38
c. (iii) and (vi)
System
d. (ii) and (v)
(i) Technical collaboration decision (iv)


Marketing Management System
(ii) Budgeted expenses Vs actuals (v)

Tactical information
(i) Customer preferences surveys (iv)

(iii) Proportion of budget to be (vi)

Operational information allocated to various
projects
(ii) Search for new markets (v) Tactical

information
a. (i) and (v)
(iii) Performance of sales outlets (vi)

a. (iii) and (iv)
b. (iii) and (v)

c. (ii) and (v)
d. (i) and (vi)
b. (i) and (vi)

c. (i) and (v)
d. (iii) and (v)
83. Organizations are divided into

departments because
a. it is convenient to do so

Research and Development Management
System
(i) Technical collaboration decision (iv)
b. each department can be assigned a

specific functional responsibility
c. it provides opportunities for promotion
d. it is done by every organization
(ii) Budgeted expenses Vs actuals (v)

Tactical information
84. Organizations have hierarchical

structures because
(iii) Proportion of budget to be (vi)

Operational information allocated to various
projects
a. it is convenient to do so
a. (i) and (iv)
c. specific responsibilities can be assigned

for each level
b. (ii) and (v)
b. it is done by every organization
d. it provides opportunities for promotions
c. (iii) and (vi)

d. (iii) and (iv)

Research and Development Management
85 Which of the following functions is the

most unlikely in an insurance company.
a. Training
b. giving loans
39
c. bill of material
d. accounting
90. The quality of information which does

not hide any unpleasant information is
known as
a. Complete
86. Which of the following functions is most

unlikely in a university
a. admissions
b. accounting
b. Trustworthy
c. Relevant
c. conducting examination
d. marketing
91. The quality of information which is

based on understanding user needs
a. Complete
87. Which of the following functions is most

unlikely in a purchase section of an
organization.
b. Trustworthy
a. Production planning
c. Relevant
b. order processing
c. vendor selection
d. training
92. Every record stored in a Master file has a

key field because
a. it is the most important field
88. Which is the most unlikely function of a

marketing division of an organization.
a. advertising
b. sales analysis
b. it acts as a unique identification of

record
c. it is the key to the database
d. it is a very concise field
c. order processing
d. customer preference analysis
93. The primary storage medium for storing

archival data is
a. floppy disk
89. Which is the most unlikely function of a

finance section of a company.
a. Billing
b. costing
b. magnetic disk
c. magnetic tape
d. CD- ROM
c. budgeting
d. labor deployment
94. Master files are normally stored in

a. a hard disk
40
b. a tape
c. CD ROM
d. computers main memory
99. On-line transaction processing is used

when
i) it is required to answer random queries
ii) it is required to ensure correct processing
95. Master file is a file containing

a. all master records
b. all records relevant to the application
c. a collection of data items
d. historical data of relevance to the
organization
iii) all files are available on-line

iv) all files are stored using hard disk
a. i ,ii
b. i, iii
c. ii ,iii, iv
d. i , ii ,iii
96. Edit program is required to
100. Off-line data entry is preferable when
a. authenticate data entered by an operator
i) data should be entered without error
b. format correctly input data
ii) the volume of data to be entered is large
c. detect errors in input data
iii) the volume of data to be entered is small
d. expedite retrieving input data
iv) data is to be processed periodically

a. i, ii
97. Data rejected by edit program are
b. ii, iii
a. corrected and re- entered
c. ii, iv
b. removed from processing
d. iii, iv
c. collected for later use

d. ignored during processing
101. Batch processing is used when

i) response time should be short
98. Online transaction processing is used

because
ii) data processing is to be carried out at

periodic intervals
a. it is efficient
iii) transactions are in batches
b. disk is used for storing files
iv) transactions do not occur periodically
c. it can handle random queries.
a. i ,ii
d. Transactions occur in batches
b. i ,iii,iv
c. ii ,iii
41
d. i , ii ,iii
102. Batch processing is preferred over online transaction processing when

i) processing efficiency is important
ii) the volume of data to be processed is
large
iii) only periodic processing is needed
iv) a large number of queries are to be
processed
a. i ,ii
b. i, iii
c. ii ,iii
a. large quantities of operational data

stored over a period of time
b. lots of tactical data
c. several tape drives to store archival data
d. large mainframe computers
106. Data mining can not be done if

a. operational data has not been archived
b. earlier management decisions are not
available
c. the organization is large
d. all processing had been only batch
processing
d. i , ii ,iii
107. Decision support systems are used for
103. A management information system is
one which
a. is required by all managers of an
organization
b. processes data to yield information of
value in tactical management
a. Management decision making

b. Providing tactical information to
management
c. Providing strategic information to
management
d. Better operation of an organization
c. provides operational information

d. allows better management of
organizations
108. Decision support systems are used by

a. Line managers.
104 Data mining is used to aid in
b. Top-level managers.
a. operational management
c. Middle level managers.
b. analyzing past decision made by

managers
d. System users
c. detecting patterns in operational data
109. Decision support systems are essential

for
d. retrieving archival data
a. Dayto-day operation of an organization.

b. Providing statutory information.
105 Data mining requires
c. Top level strategic decision making.

42
d. Ensuring that organizations are profitable.
a) Preliminary investigation
b) Systems design
c) Systems implementation
d) Systems maintenance
1. Which phase of the SDLC are

information needs identified?
b) Systems analysis
c) Systems design
d) Systems development
2. In this phase of the SDLC, new or

alternative information systems are
designed.
a)
preliminary investigation
b)
systems analysis
c)
systems design
d)
systems development
5. A recent survey by Money magazine

determined that out of 100 widely-held
jobs that they researched, the top job
classification was a
a)
network administrator
b)
cryptographer
c)
systems analyst
d)
computer engineer
6. Many organizations have determined

that there is a __________ -year backlog
of work for systems analysts.
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
3. In this phase of the SDLC, the new

information systems are installed and
adapted to the new system, and people
are trained to use them.
7. The first step in preliminary analysis

is to
a)
preliminary implementation
a)
purchase supplies
b)
systems analysis
b)
hire consultants
c)
systems design
c)
define the problem
d)
systems development
d)
propose changes
4. This phase of the SDLC is known as

the ongoing phase where the system is
periodically evaluated and updated as
needed.
8. In the preliminary investigation phase

of the SDLC, which one of the following
tasks would not be included?
a)
briefly defining the problem

43
b)
suggesting alternative solutions
c)
gathering the data
d)
preparing a short report
9. In order to obtain financing for the

analysis phase, the systems analyst must
a) prepare a preliminary
investigation report
b)
justify the expense of upgrading
c)
consider abandoning the project
d)
train users on the new system
10. The first step of the systems analysis

phase of the SDLC is to
a)
propose changes
b)
analyze data
c)
gather data
d)
write system analysis report
11. Which of the following shows levels

of management and formal lines of
authority?
a)
organization chart
b)
decision table
c)
pyramid diagram
d)
grid chart
d)
checklist
13. What type of analysis starts with the

big picture and then breaks it down
into smaller pieces?
a)
financial
b)
reverse
c)
top-down
d)
executive
14. Which of the following is used to

show the rules that apply to a decision
when one or more conditions apply?
a)
system flowchart
b)
decision table
c)
grid chart
d)
checklist
15. Which of the following tools shows

the data or information flow within an
information system?
a)
grid chart
b)
decision table
c)
system flowchart
d)
data flow diagram
12. A list of questions used in analysis is

called a(n)
16. These software packages evaluate

hardware and software alternatives
according to requirements given by the
systems analyst.
a)
organization chart
a)
project management
b)
interview guideline
b)
automated design tools
c)
grid table
c)
spreadsheets
44
d)
report generators
17. Which of the following is not found

on a data flow diagram?
21.The first task to complete in the

design phase of the SDLC is to
a)
design alternative systems
b)
select the best design
a)
entities
c)
examine hardware requirements
b)
process
d)
write a systems design report
c)
offline storage
d)
file
18. The final step of the systems analysis

phase in the SDLC is to
22. After designing alternative systems,

the system analyst must
a)
prepare a system design report
b)
diagram the system
a)
gather data
c)
prepare a data flow diagram
b)
write system analysis report
d)
select the best alternative
c)
propose changes
d)
analyze data
19. Which of the following would not be

described in the systems analysis report?
23. The final task in the design phase of

the SDLC is to
a)
select the best design
b)
design alternative systems
a)
the current information system
c)
prepare a system design report
b)
the requirements for a new system
d)
examine hardware requirements
c)
the development schedule
d) the training requirements for

users
20. Which of the following tasks is not

part of the systems design phase?
24. A feasibility study is used to

determine the proposed systems.
a)
resource requirements
b)
costs and benefits
a)
designing alternative systems
c) availability of hardware and

software
b)
selecting the best system
d)
c)
writing a systems design report
d)
suggesting alternative solutions
all of the above
25. Determining if employees,

managers, and clients will resist a
proposed new system is part of this
feasibility study.
45
a)
technical feasibility
b) Systems implementation
b)
economic feasibility
c) Systems development
c)
organizational feasibility
d) Systems maintenance
d)
operational feasibility
26. Determining whether expected cost

savings and other benefits will exceed
the cost of developing an alternative
system is related to
30. The first step in implementing a new

system is to determine the
a)
hardware requirements
b)
software requirements
a)
technical feasibility
c)
conversion type
b)
economic feasibility
d)
best alternative
c)
organizational feasibility
d)
operational feasibility
27. The first step of systems

development is to purchase or custom
design
a)
software
b)
a network
c)
hardware
d)
training materials
31. The __________ approach

conversion type simply involves
abandoning the old system and using the
new.
a)
direct
b)
pilot
c)
phased
d)
parallel
28. The final step of development is to
32. The old and new systems run side by

side for a period of time when using the
__________ approach to
implementation.
a)
acquire software
a)
direct
b)
acquire hardware
b)
parallel
c)
phased
d)
pilot
c) prepare a systems development

report
d)
test the system
29. During which phase of the SDLC are

users trained to use the new system?
33. Although this conversion approach

(__________) is considered low risk,
keeping enough equipment and people
active to manage two systems at the
same time can be very expensive.
46
a)
direct
a)
direct
b)
parallel
b)
parallel
c)
phased
c)
phased
d)
pilot
d)
pilot
34. Using the __________ approach, a

new system is tested in one part of the
organization before being implemented
in others.
38. The final step of the implementation

phase of the SDLC is to
a)
train the users
a)
direct
b)
develop documentation
b)
phased
c)
select the conversion type
c)
pilot
d)
write the implementation report
d)
parallel
35. The __________ implementation

approach is broken down into smaller
parts that are implemented over time.
39. Which of the following phases of the

SDLC is considered as the ongoing
process?
a)
systems development
a)
pilot
b)
systems analysis
b)
direct
c)
systems design
c)
parallel
d)
systems maintenance
d)
phased
36. The implementation approach that is

the least risky would be the
a)
direct approach
b)
parallel approach
c)
phased approach
d)
pilot approach
37. This implementation approach

(__________) is preferred when there
are many people in an organization
performing similar operations.
40. The ongoing testing and analysis of

an existing system is called
system__________.
a)
maintenance
b)
implementation
c)
design
d)
analysis
41. During a systems audit, the system

performance is compared to
a)
similar systems
b)
newer systems
47
c)
d)
the design specifications
competing systems
(B) Number of attributes.

(C) Number of tables
(D) Number of constraints.
42. A modifiable model built before the

actual system is installed is called a(n)
a)
sample
b)
example
c)
template
d)
prototype
2. Relational calculus is a
(A) Procedural language
(B) Non- Procedural language.
(C) Data definition language
(D) High level language.
3 The view of total database content is
43. The process of building a model that

demonstrates the features of a proposed
product, service or system is called a
(A) Conceptual view
a)
JAD
(C) External view
b)
RAD
(D) Physical View.
c)
template
4. Cartesian product in relational algebra is
d)
prototype
(A) a Unary operator
(B) Internal view
(B) a Binary operator

44. A modifiable model of a proposed
product, system, or system is called a(n)
a)
prototype
b)
benchmark
c)
factor
d)
template
45. RAD stands for
(C) a Ternary operator

(D) not defined
5. DML is provided for
(A) Description of logical structure of
database.
(B) Addition of new structures in the
database system.
(C) Manipulation & processing of
database.
a)
Redundant Array of Disks
b)
Rapid Application Development
c)
Remove and Destroy
(D) Definition of physical structure of

database system.
d)
Replication Applet Diagram
6. AS clause is used in SQL for
MCQs sub Part 2
(A) Selection operation
1. In the relational modes, cardinality is

termed as:
(B) Rename operation

(C) Join operation
(A) Number of tuples

48
(D) Projection operation.

7. ODBC stands for
12. An entity set that does not have

sufficient attributes to form a primary key is
a
(A) Object Database Connectivity.
(A) Strong entity set
(B) Oral Database Connectivity.
(B) Weak entity set.
(C) Oracle Database Connectivity.
(C) Simple entity set
(D) Open Database Connectivity.
(D) Primary entity set.
8. Architecture of the database can be

viewed as
13. In a Hierarchical model records are

organized as
(A) Two levels
(A) Graph
(B) Four levels
(B) List
(C) Three levels
(C) Links
(D) One level
(D) Tree
9. In a relational model, relations are termed

as
14. In an E-R diagram attributes are

represented by
(A) Tuples
(A) Rectangle
(B) Attributes
(B) Square
(C) Tables
(C) Ellipse
(D) Rows.
(D) Triangle.
10. The database schema is written in
15. In case of entity integrity, the primary

key may be
(A) HLL
(A) Not Null
(B) DML
(B) Null
(C) DDL
(C) Both Null & not Null
(D) DCL
(D) Any value.
11. In the architecture of a database system

external level is the
16. In tuple relational calculus P1 P2 is

equivalent to
(A) Physical level
(A) P1 P2
(B) Logical level.
(B) P1 P2
(C) Conceptual level
(C) P1 P2
(D) View level.
(D) P1 P2
49
17. The language used in application

programs to request data from the DBMS is
referred to as the
(C) Dbase
(A) DML
(B) DDL
22. The way a particular application views

the data from the database that the
application uses is a
(C) VDL
(A) module
(D) SDL
(B) Relational model.
18. A logical schema
(C) Schema
(A) Is the entire database.
(D) Sub schema.
(B) Is a standard way of organizing

information into accessible parts.
(C) Describes how data is actually stored on
disk.
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(D) 4GL.
23. In an E-R diagram an entity set is

represent by a
(A) rectangle
(B) Ellipse.
(C) Diamond box
19. Related fields in a database are grouped

to form a
(D) Circle.
(A) Data file

(B) Data record.
24. A report generator is used to
(C) Menu
(A) Update files
(D) Bank.
(B) Print files on paper
20. The database environment has all of the

following components except:
(C) Data entry
(A) Users
25. The property / properties of a database is

/ are :
(B) Separate files.

(C) Database
(D) Database administrator.
21. The language which has recently
become the defacto standard for interfacing
application programs with relational
database system is
(D) Delete files.
(A) It is an integrated collection of logically

related records.
(B) It consolidates separate files into a
common pool of data records.
(C) Data stored in a database is independent
of the application programs using it.
(A) Oracle
(D) All of the above.
(B) SQL.
26. The DBMS language component which

can be embedded in a program is
50
(A) The data definition language (DDL)
(B) The data manipulation language

(DML)
31. A subschema expresses
(C) The database administrator (DBA)

(D) A query language.
27. A relational database developer refers to
a record as
(A) The logical view

(B) The physical view.
(C) The external view
(A) A criteria
(B) A relation.
(C) A tuple
(D) An attribute
32. Count function in SQL returns the

number of
(A) Values
(B) Distinct values.
(C) Groups
28. The relational model feature is that there

(A) Is no need for primary key data?
(B) Is much more data independence than
some other database models.
(C) Are explicit relationships among
records?
(D) Are tables with many dimensions?
29. Conceptual design
(A) Is a documentation technique.
(B) Needs data volume and processing
frequencies to determine the size of the
database.
(C) Involves modeling independent of the
DBMS.
(D) Columns
33. Which one of the following statements is
false?
(A) The data dictionary is normally
maintained by the database administrator.
(B) Data elements in the database can be
modified by changing the data dictionary.
(C) The data dictionary contains the name
and description of each data element.
(D) The data dictionary is a tool used
exclusively by the database administrator.
34. An advantage of the database
management approach is
(A) Data is dependent on programs.
(D) Is designing the relational model.
(B) Data redundancy increases.
30. The method in which records are

physically stored in a specified order
according to a key field in each record is
(C) Data is integrated and can be accessed

by multiple programs.
(A) Hash
(B) Direct.
(C) Sequential
(D) None of the above.

35. A DBMS query language is designed to
(A) Support end users who use English-like
commands.
51
(B) Support in the development of complex

applications software.
(C) Specify the structure of a database.
40. The statement in SQL which allows

changing the definition of a table is
(A) Alter
(B) Update.
36. Transaction processing is associated with

everything below except
(A) Producing detail, summary, or exception
reports.
(B) Recording a business activity.
(C) Create
(D) Select
41. E-R model uses this symbol to represent
weak entity set?
(A) Dotted rectangle.
(C) Confirming an action or triggering a

response.
(B) Diamond
(D) Maintaining data.
(C) Doubly outlined rectangle
37. It is possible to define a schema

completely using
(D) None of these
(A) VDL and DDL
(A) Network Model
(B) DDL and DML.
(B) Hierarchical Model
(C) SDL and DDL
(C) Relational Model
(D) VDL and DML.
(D) None of these
38. The method of access which uses key

transformation is known as
(A) Direct
(B) Hash
(C) Random
(D) Sequential
39. Data independence means
(A) Data is defined separately and not
included in programs.
(B) Programs are not dependent on the
physical attributes of data.
42. SET concept is used in:
43. Relational Algebra is

(A) Data Definition Language
(B) Meta Language
(C) Procedural query Language
(D) None of the above
44. Key to represent relationship between

tables is called
(A) Primary key
(C) Programs are not dependent on the

logical attributes of data.
(B) Secondary Key
(D) Both (B) and (C).
(D) None of these
(C) Foreign Key
52
45. _______ produces the relation that has

attributes of R1 and R2
(A) Cartesian product
(A) A SQL query automatically eliminates

duplicates.
(B) SQL permits attribute names to be
repeated in the same relation.
(B) Difference
(C) A SQL query will not work if there are

no indexes on the relations
(C) Intersection
D) None of these
D) Product
51. It is better to use files than a DBMS

when there are
46. The file organization that provides very

fast access to any arbitrary record of a file is
(A) Stringent real-time requirements.
(A) Ordered file
(B) Multiple users wish to access the data.
(B) Unordered file
(C) Complex relationships among data.
(C) Hashed file
(D) B-tree
52. The conceptual model is
47. DBMS helps achieve
(A) Dependent on hardware.
(A) Data independence
(B) Dependent on software.
(B) Centralized control of data
(C) Dependent on both hardware and

software
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)

(D) Both (A) and (B)
48. Which of the following are the
properties of entities?
(A) Groups
(B) Table
(C) Attributes
(D) Switchboards
49. In a relation
(A) Ordering of rows is immaterial
(D) Independent of both hardware and

software
53. What is a relationship called when it is

maintained between two entities?
(A) Unary
(B) Binary
(C) Ternary
(D) Quaternary
(C) (A) and (B) both are true
54. Which of the following operation is used

if we are interested in only certain columns
of a table?
(D) None of these.
(A) PROJECTION
50. Which of the following is correct?
(B) SELECTION
(B) No two rows are identical
53
(C) UNION
(A) Data security
(D) JOIN
(B) Derived columns
55. Which of the following is a valid SQL

type?
(C) Hiding of complex queries
(A) CHARACTER
(D) All of the above
(B) NUMERIC
60. Which of the following is a legal

expression in SQL?
(C) FLOAT
(A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;
(B) SELECT NAME FROM

EMPLOYEE;
56. The RDBMS terminology for a row is
(C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE

WHERE SALARY = NULL;
(A) tuple
(B) Relation.
(C) Attribute
D) Degree
61. The users who use easy-to-use menu are

called
(A) Sophisticated end users
57. Which of the following operations need

the participating relations to be union
compatible?
(A) UNION
(B) Nave users.

(C) Stand-alone users
(D) Casual end users.
(B) INTERSECTION
(C) DIFFERENCE
62. Which database level is closest to the

users?
(A) External
(B) Internal
58. The full form of DDL is
(C) Physical
(A Dynamic Data Language
(D) Conceptual
(B) Detailed Data Language

(C) Data Definition Language
(D) Data Derivation Language
63. Which are the two ways in which

entities can participate in a relationship?
(A) Passive and active
59. Which of the following is an advantage

of view?
(B) Total and partial

(C) Simple and Complex
54
(C) View
64. The result of the UNION operation

between R1 and R2 is a relation that
includes
(A) All the tuples of R1
(A) The same as 0 for integer
(B) All the tuples of R2
(B) The same as blank for character
(C) All the tuples of R1 and R2
(C) The same as 0 for integer and blank for

character
(D) All the tuples of R1 and R2 which

have common columns
(D) Not a value
65. A set of possible data values is called
70. Which of the following is record based

logical model?
(A) Attribute
(B) Degree
(C) tuple
(D) Domain
69. NULL is
(A) Network Model

(B) Object oriented model
(C) E-R Model
(D) None of these
66. Which of the operations constitute a

basic set of operations for manipulating
relational data?
71. A data dictionary is a special file that

contains:
(A) Predicate calculus
(A) The name of all fields in all files.
(B) Relational calculus
(B) The width of all fields in all files.
(C) Relational algebra
(C) The data type of all fields in all files.
67. Which of the following is another name

for weak entity?
72. A file manipulation command that

extracts some of the records from a file is
called
(A) Child
(B) Owner
(C) Dominant
68. Which of the following database object
does not physically exist?
(A) Base table
(B) Index
(A) SELECT
(B) PROJECT
(C) JOIN
(D) PRODUCT
73. The physical location of a record is
determined by a mathematical formula that
transforms a file key into a record location
is:
(A) B-Tree File
55
(B) Hashed File

(C) Indexed File
78. Consider the join of a relation R with

relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n
tuples, then the maximum size of join is:
(D) Sequential file.
(A) mn
74. A primary key is combined with a

foreign key creates
(B) m+n
(A) Parent-Child relation ship between

the tables that connect them.
(B) Many to many relationship between the
tables that connect them.
(C) (m+n)/2
(D) 2(m+n)
79. The natural join is equal to:
(C) Network model between the tables that

connect them.
(A) Cartesian Product
(B) Combination of Union and Cartesian

product
75. In E-R Diagram derived attribute are

represented by
(A) Ellipse
(B) Dashed ellipse
(C) Rectangle
(D) Triangle
76. Cross Product is a:
(A) Unary Operator
(C) Combination of selection and Cartesian

product
(D) Combination of projection and
Cartesian product
80. Which one of the following is not true
for a view:
(A) View is derived from other tables.
(B) View is a virtual table.
(B) Ternary Operator
(C) A view definition is permanently

stored as part of the database.
(C) Binary Operator
(D) View never contains derived columns.
(D) Not an operator
81. A primary key if combined with a

foreign key creates
77. An instance of relational schema R (A,

B, C) has distinct values of A including
NULL values. Which one of the following is
true?
(A) A is a candidate key
(B) A is not a candidate key
(A) Parent-Child relationship between the

(B) Many to many relationship between the
(C) A is a primary Key
(C) Network model between the tables that

connect them.
(D) Both (A) and (C)

82. In E-R Diagram relationship type is
represented by
56
(A) Ellipse
(B) Dashed ellipse
(C) Rectangle
(D) Diamond
83. Hierarchical model is also called
(A) Tree structure
87. A B-tree of order m has maximum of

_____________ children
(A) m
(B) m+1
(C) m-1
(D) m/2
(C) Normalize Structure
88. _____________ function divides one

numeric expression by another and returns
the remainder.
(D) Table Structure
(A) POWER
(B) Plex Structure
(B) MOD
84. To delete a particular column in a
relation the command used is:
(C) ROUND
(A) UPDATE
89. A data manipulation command the

combines the records from one or more
tables is called
(B) DROP
(C) ALTER
(D) DELETE
85. The ______ operator is used to compare
a value to a list of literals values that have
been specified.
(A) BETWEEN
(D) REMAINDER
(A) SELECT
(B) PROJECT
(C) JOIN
(D) PRODUCT
(B) ANY
90. In E-R diagram generalization is

represented by
(C) IN
(A) Ellipse
(D) ALL
(B) Dashed ellipse
86. A logical schema
(C) Rectangle
A) Is the entire database
(D) Triangle
B) Is a standard way of organizing

information into a accessible part
C) Describe how data is actually stored on
disk
91. _________ is a virtual table that draws

its data from the result of an SQL SELECT
statement.
D) None of these
(A) View
(B) Synonym
(C) Sequence
57
(D) Transaction
92. The method of access which uses key
transformation is known as
(A) Direct
(B) Hash
(C) Random
6. Middle management monitors day-to-day

operations.
Answer: False
7. Top managerial-level information flow is
predominately vertical.
Answer: False
(D) Sequential
8. Middle-managerial level information flow

is both vertical and horizontal.
93. A table joined with it is called
Answer: True
(A) Join
9. The transaction processing system relies

on information provided by the management
information system.
(B) Self Join

(C) Outer Join
(D) Equal Join
True/False
1. The accounting department records all
financial transactions.
Answer: False
10. The decision support system combines
internal and external information to help
analyze a wide range of problems.
Answer: True
Answer: True
2. The human resources department

manages the hiring, firing, and training of a
companys personnel.
Answer: True
3. The research department handles all

aspects of promotion.
Answer: False
11. A weekly production schedule is one

report likely to be generated from a
management information system.
Answer: True
12. ESS stands for Executive Simplified
Summary.
Answer: False
13. Executive support systems are designed
to be easy to use.
Answer: True
4. The production department creates the

finished goods.
14. The sales order processing activity

records the customer requests for goods or
services.
Answer: True
Answer: True
5. Supervisor-level management deals with

control, planning and decision making.
15. The accounts receivable activity records

money received from or owed by customers.
Answer: False
Answer: True
58
16. The parts and finished goods that a

company has in stock are called surplus.
26. The system software provides a GDSS

with its decision-making capabilities.
Answer: False
17. Purchasing is the buying of materials
and services.
Answer: False
Answer: True
27. The data component of a GDSS is stored

in the system software.
18. Accounts payable is concerned with

calculating employee paychecks.
Answer: False
Answer: False
28. There are three basic decision models

used in a GDSS: operational, strategic, and
financial.
19. The general ledger refers to money the

company owes.
Answer: False
Answer: False
29. Top-level management is most

concerned with strategic planning.
Answer: True
20. Income statements show a companys

financial performance.
Answer: True
30. The strategic decision model assists in

long-range planning.
Answer: True
21. A balance sheet is an example of a

demand report.
Answer: False
22. A periodic report is created at set
intervals.
Answer: True
23. An exception report calls attention to
unusual events.
Answer: True
24. Team decisions can be facilitated by the
use of a GDSS.
Answer: True
25. In general, the user of a GDSS is some
sort of decision maker.
31. The operation decision model helps to

accomplish the organizations day-to-day
activities.
Answer: True
32. Employees who distribute, create, and
communicate information are called eworkers.
Answer: False
33. Knowledge workers create information.
Answer: True
34. An office automation system consists of
multifunctional robots.
Answer: False
Answer: True
59
35. Knowledge workers use specialized

information systems called KWS to create
information in their area of expertise.
Answer: True
Answer: True
38. Videoconferencing systems allow people
located at various locations to have inperson meetings.
Answer: True
36. CAD/CAM systems allow people

located at various locations to have inperson meetings.
Answer: False
39. CAD/CAM systems are widely used in

the processing of perishable products.
Answer: False
http://bkitab.com/pages/bpage/18
37. CAD/CAM systems use powerful

microcomputers running special programs
that integrate the design and manufacturing
activities.
60

Operation and Supply Chain Management

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OPERATION AND SUPPLY CHAIN

The volume-variety position of an

Jobbing processes, batch

Project processes, jobbing

Service shops are characterised as

2. Some customer contact, a

Batch processes, project

1. Many customer transactions,

Which is the correct order for

Project processes, batch

4. Product orientated with little

In a jobbing process the main order

Which is the correct sequence in

Jobbing / batch / project /

Jobbing / batch / project / line

Project / jobbing / batch / line

The ability to handle high

Continuous / line / batch /

Which of the following is not a

Operations and equipment

The product or service will

Processes are linear and often

Work is not fixed but moves

Which of the following statements

Job shops can produce a

Batch processing produces a

Labour costs are higher in a

Which one of the following is

Products or services are

Work is typically controlled

Customers buy the

Characteristics of line or continuous

Work is not fixed but moves

Resources are allocated to

High resource flexibility

Operations can be classified

A fast food restaurant

Less capital intensity and

More vertical integration

A front office bank

Less resource flexibility

In the mass production era there

A major supplier to an auto

Continuous flow process

Low manufacturing volumes

Which of the following conditions

High product or service

Greater capital intensity

More customer involvement

A line, or continuous, process

Less resource flexibility

A high customer-contact service

diverse work flows

more resource flexibility

The lay out where the equipment,

What would be the likely process

Highly customized service

A supermarket is usually positioned

Of the four modes of configuring

A self-service cafeteria is usually

A process with high variety and low

Allows a wide variety of