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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

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Mock Test -1

All questions carry one mark each.

Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the
whole question paper before beginning to answer it.
Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after
another till you finish.
If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much
time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can
come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance
and try them again.
Since the time allotted is very short you should makes best use of it.

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Part I

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(c) 36

(d) 48

2. 240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2

(a) 120
(b) 240

(c) 40

(d) 10

3. a _bc_a_a_
(a) bccb

(c) bbca

(d) cbbc

4. HI, JI, KL, ML, NO, ?

(a) PO
(b) PQ

(c) OP

(d) QO

5. CBA, FED, IHG, LKJ, ?

(a) NOM (b) MON

(c) ONM

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1. 1, 2, 3, 6, 12, ?
(a) 18
(b) 24

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Directions (1 to 5): Find the missing term?

(d) NMO

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(b) cbcc

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MAT (Mental Ability Test)

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6. If TEMPLE is coded as VHQURL, then CHURCH will be coded as:

(a) EKYWIO (b) EKUWIO (c) EKYWIN (d) EKYWJO
7. If AJAY is written as 8882, then in same code NAMA would be written as:
(a) 4858
(b) 5848
(c) 4448
(d) 8258

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i. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in two rows, three in each.

ii. T is not at the end of any row.
iii. S is second to the left of U.
iv. R who is the neighbor of T, is sitting diagonally opposite to S.
v. Q is the neighbour of U.

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Directions (8 to 13): Read the following information carefully and answer the
question given below:

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8. Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other.

(a) U and R (b) S and P (c) P and R (d) P and U

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9. Who is facing Q?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) T
(d) S
10. Which of the following are in one row?
(a) UQR
(b) RTQ
(c) SQU
(d) PTU
11. Which of the following are in the same row?
(a) P and T (b) T and S (c) R and Q (d) P and Q
12. Who is facing R?
(a) P
(b) S

(c) Q

(d) U

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13. After interchanging the seat S with T, who will be the neighbour of S in the
new position?
(a) R and P (b) U and Q (c) Only Q (d) Only R
14. If Rain is called Water , Water is called Road; Road is called Cloud;
Cloud is called Sky; Sky is called Sea and Sea is called Path, then
where do aeroplanes fly?
(a) Road
(b) Sea
(c) Cloud (d) Water
15. Ramakant walks northwards. After a while, he turns to his right and a little
further to his left. Finally, after walking a distance of one kilometer, he turns
to his lefts again. In which direction is he moving now?
(a) North (b) South (c) East
(d) West
16. Starting from a point P, Sachin walked 20 meters towards South. He turned
left and walked 30 meters. He then turned left and walked 20 meters. He again
turned left and walked 40 meters and reached a point Q. How far and in which
direction is the point Q from the point P?
(a) 20 meters West
(b) 10 meters East
(c) 10 meters West
(d) 10 meters North
17. If West becomes North-East, North-West becomes East and so on, then what
will South become?
(a) North-West
(b) South-West
(c) West
(d) East
18. If 323 41 = 14323, 137 72 = 27731, 48 87 = 7884, then 34 75 = ?
(a) 2550
(b) 5743
(c) 7534
(d) 4357
19. If a = 11 (242) 121, b = 14 (392) 196, c = 13 (?) 169
(a) 182
(b) 338
(c) 458
(d) 368
20. If + means , means , means + and means , then
175 25 5 + 20 3 + 10 = ?
(a) 160
(b) 77
(c) 2370
(d) 240

11
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19
16

21. 17
12

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Directions (21 to 23): Find the missing term in term on the given figures:

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(a) 36

(b) 9

(c) 25

(d) 64

(b) 18

(c) 11

(d) 13

22.

(a) 14

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23.

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(a) 112
(b) 92
(c) 82
(d) 102
24. If a clock shows 12 : 37, then its mirror image will be?
(a) 11 : 37 (b) 11 : 23 (c) 01 : 23 (d) 21 : 23
25. Monika is 20 weeks elder than Priyanka and Priyanka is 63 days younger than
Jyoti. If Jyoti was born on Sunday then on what day of a week Monika was
born?
(a) Saturday (b) Sunday (c) Monday (d) None
26. What is related to Cube in the same way as Circle is related to Square?
(a) Circumference (b) Sphere (c) Solid (d) Cuboid
27. Height is related to Length in the same way as Weight is related to
__________.
(a) Length (b) Height (c) Mass
(d) Breadth
28. Letter is related to Alphabet in the same way as Necklace is related to
_______.
(a) Gold
(b) Bead
(c) Ornament (d) Silver

(c) 51
(c) 52
(c) CX3

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(b) 41
(b) 27
(b) IR9

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2 9. (a) 31
30. (a) 16
31. (a) GT7

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Directions (29 to 31): Choose the odd number/word which is different from
others:
(d) 61
(d) 83
(d) JP10

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i.P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family, each of them engaged in a

different profession: Doctor, Lawyer, Teacher, Engineer, Nurse, Manager.
ii.Each of them remains at home on a different day of the week from Monday
to Saturday.
iii.The Lawyer in the family remains at home on Thursday.
iv. R remains at home on Tuesday.
v.P, the Doctor, does not remain at home either on Saturday or on Wednesday.
vi. S is neither the Doctor nor the Teacher and remains at home on Friday.
vii. Q is the Engineer and T is the Manager.

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Directions (32 to 36): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.

32. Which of the following combinations is not correct?

(a) RTeacher
(b) QEngineer
(c) TManager
(d) All are correct

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33. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(a) LawyerTuesday
(b) TeacherWednesday
(c) ManagerFriday
(d) NurseFriday

vt.

34. Who is the nurse?

(a) S (b) R (c) U (d) Data inadequate

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36. Who remains at home on Saturday?

(a) S (b) T (c) R (d) Date inadequate

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35. Who among them remains at home on the following day after the nurse was at
home?
(a) Q (b) Q or T (c) R (d) S

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Direction (37): Out of the four given figures, three are similar in a certain way.
One figure is not like the other three. That means three figures form a group
based on some common characteristics. Find out the figure which does not
belong to the group.

(b)

(c)

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37.

(d)

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Direction (38): The second figure in the first part of the problem figures bears
a certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly one of the figures in answer
figures bears the same relationship to the first figure from the set of answer
figures which would replace the sign of question mark(?)

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38. Problem Figures

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Answer Figures

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Direction (39): Find the mirror image of the following

(b)

(c)

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39.

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Direction (40): Find the water image of the following.

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(b)

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(a)

(d)

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(c)

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41.

20

Directions (41 to 42): In each of the following questions, some positions of the
same dice have been shown. You have to see these figures and select the number
opposite to the number as asked in each question.

What is the number of dots on the face opposite to the face that contains 2
dots?
(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 6

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42.

Which number will come in place of ?

(a) 1

(b) 6

(c) 3

(d) 5

(b) 12

(c) 13

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(a) 10

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43. How many rectangles does the figure have?

(d) 14

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Directions (44 to 46): In the following questions numbers are written with a
specific rule. Find out the rule and decide which alternative will be in place of
question mark?

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44.

(b) 49

(c) 63

(d) 67

(b) 0

(c) 2

(d) 9

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(a) 45

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45.

(a) 1

(a) 36

(b) 44

(c) 48

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46.

(d) 50

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Directions (47 to 50): In the given figure, Square represents students of VIII
Standard of a school in Pune. Circle represents students taking part in debate
competition. Rectangle represents girls and triangle represents students taking
part in Mehandi competition. Then answer the following questions:

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47. How many boys are there who are taking part in Mehandi competition but not
in VIII Standard?
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) 11
48. How many students are from VIII standard who are taking part only in debate
competition?
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 9
(d) 8
49. How many girls are there, who are not in VIII standard?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 45
(d) 152
50. How many girls are in VIII standard who are not taking part in debate
competition?
(a) 20
(b) 12
(c) 25
(d) 32

Part II

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SAT (English)

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Directions (1 to 5): Read the passage and answer the questions given
below:

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There was a marked difference of quality between the personages who haunted
near bridge of brick and the personages who haunted the far one of stone. Those
of lowest character preferred the former, adjoining the town; they did not mind the
glare of the public eye. They had been of no account during their successes; and
though they might feel dispirited, they had no sense of shame in their ruin. Instead
of sighing at their adversaries they spat, and instead of saying the iron had entered
into their souls they said they were down in their luck. The miserables who would
pause on the remoter bridge of a politer stamp person who did not know how to
get rid of the weary time. The eyes of his species were mostly directed over the
parapet upon the running water below. While one on the town ward bridge did not
mind who saw him so, and kept his back to parapet to survey the passerby, one on
this never faced the road, never turned his head at coming foot-steps, but, sensitive
on his own condition, watched the current whenever a stranger approached, as if
some strange fish interested him, though every finned thing had been poached out
of the rivers years before.

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1. In this passage the author is trying to

a. explain the difference between the construction of the two bridges
b. describe the way different sections of people like to dress
c. explain the variety of ways in which strangers can be treated
d. describe how people of different classes behaved when unhappy

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2. People belonging to lower strata in their moments of distress

a. remembered the days of glory
b. dressed shabbily to earn sympathy
c. visited the brick made bridge
d. felt ashamed of their failures

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3. The attitude of lowly and genteel towards strangers was

a. virtually the same
b. entirely different
c. completely indifferent
d. virulently hostile
4. The bridge of stone was frequented by
a. all the sections of society
b. those fond of fishing
c. the sophisticated but luckless
d. none of the above

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5. The two bridges were known

a. for their similar design
b. for being equidistant from town
c. for being haunted places
d. for attracting dejected people to them

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Directions (6 to 10): Read the passage and answer the questions given
below:

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Nationalism, of course, is a curious phenomenon which at a certain stage in a

countrys history gives life, growth and unity but, at the same time, it has a tendency
to limit one, because one thinks of ones country as something different from the
rest of world. Ones perceptive changes and one is continuously thinking of ones
own struggles and virtues and failing to the exclusion of other thoughts. The result
is that the same nationalism which is the symbol of growth for a people becomes
a symbol of the cessation of that growth in mind. Nationalism, when it becomes
successful sometimes goes on spreading in an aggressive way and becomes a danger
internationally. Whatever line of thought you follow, you arrive at the conclusion that
some kind of balance must be found. Otherwise something that was good can turn
into evil. Culture, which is essentially good, becomes not only static but aggressive
and something that breeds conflict and hatred when looked at from a wrong point
of view. How are you find a balance, I dont know. Apart from the political and
economic problems of the age, perhaps, that is the greatest problem today because
behind it there is tremendous search for something which it cannot found. We turn
to economic theories because they have an undoubted importance. It is folly to talk
of culture or even of God. When human beings starve and die. Before one can talk
about anything else one must provide the normal essentials of life to human beings.
That is where economies come in. Human beings today are not in mood to tolerate
this suffering and starvation and inequality when they see that the burden is not
equally shared. Others profit while they only bear the burden.

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6. The greatest problem in the middle of the passage refers to the question.
a. how to mitigate hardship to human beings
b. how to contain the dangers of aggressive nationalism.
c. how to share the economic burden equally
d. how to curb international hatred

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7. Negative national feeling can make a nation

a. selfish
b. self-centred
c. indifferent
d. dangerous
8. Suitable title for this passage can be
a. Nationalism breeds unity
b. Nationalisma road to world unity
c. Nationalism is not enough
d. Nationalism and national problems

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9. Others in the last sentence refers to

a. other people
b. other nations
c. other communities
d. other neighbours
10. Aggressive nationalism
a. breeds threat to international relations
b. leads to stunted growth
c. endangers national unity
d. isolates a country

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Directions (11 to 15): Read the passage and answer the questions given
below:

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Detective glories tend to glorify crime. Murderers, gangsters and crooks all kinds
are described as tough, cunning and courageous individuals who know how to take
care of themselves and how to get what they want. In James McCainsThe Postman
Always Rings twice, for instance the villain is much more a impressive character
than his victim. He is casual brave smart and successful with women. It is true that
he finally gets caught. But he is punished for a crime that he did not commit, so that
his conviction is hardly a triumph of justice. Besides, looking back over the exciting
life of the criminal, the reader might conclude that it was worth the risk.

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11. The passage mention James McCain

a. as an author of detective stories
b. as brave, smart, and successful with women
c. as tough cunning and courageous
d. as being more impressive than others

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12. Murderers, gangsters and crooks referred to in the passage given above
a. always manage to get away
b. are often glorified in detective stories
c. are wiser than their victims
d. know how to escape from law

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13. According to this passage, a criminal in a detective story generally gets

caught
a. for the crimes he has committed
b. because of his careless mistakes
c. because the police is smarter than the criminals
d. for the crimes he has not committed
14. According to the passage, the life of a criminal
a. is exciting
b. is hardly worth the risk
c. is seldom presented in the right perspective
d. ends in a triumph of justice

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15. According to be passage given above, detective stories

a. make interesting reading
b. are hardly worth reading
c. encourage readers to content crimes
d. tend to create wrong notion about crimes and punishment

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Directions (16 to 30): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words
to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

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16. Fate smiles ____ those who untiringly grapple with stark realities of life.
a. with
b. over
c. on
d. round
17. The miser gazed ____ at the pile of gold coins in front of him.
a. avidly
b. admiringly
c. thoughtfully
d. earnestly
18. Catching the earlier train will give us the ____ to do some shopping.
a. chance b. luck
c. possibility d. occasion
19. I saw a ____ of cows in the field.
a. group
b. herd
c. swarm d. flock
20. The grapes are now ____ enough to be picked.
a. ready b. mature c. ripe d. advanced
21. Success in this examination depends ____ hard work alone.
a. at b. over c. for d. on
22. My uncle decided to take ____ and my sister to the market.
a. I b. mine c. me d. myself
23. If you smuggle goods into the country, they may be ____ by the customs authority.
a. possessed b. punished c. confiscated d. fined
24. Man does not live by ____ alone.
a. food b. bread c. meals d. diet
25. Piyush behaves strangely at times and, therefore, nobody gets ____ with him.
a. about b. through c. along d. up
26. Rohan and Rohit are twin brothers, but they do not look ____
a. unique b. different c. likely d. alike
27. To err is ____ to forgive divine.
a. beastly b. human c. inhuman d. natural
28. The ruling party will have to put its own house ...... order.
a. in b. on c. to d. into
29. ____ of old paintings is a job for experts.
a. Resurrection
b. Retrieval
c. Restoration
d. Resumption
30. During Diwali the shops are ...... of people.
a. busy b. full c. crowded d. bubbling

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d. PQRS

d. RQPS

d. QPSR

d. PSQR

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31. When he
P: did not know
Q: he was nervous and
R: heard the hue and cry at midnight
S: what to do
The Proper sequence should be:
a. RQPS b. QSPR c. SQPR
32. It has been established that
P: Einstein was
Q: although a great scientist
R: weak in arithmetic
S: right from his school days
The Proper sequence should be:
a. SRPQ b. QPRS c. QPSR
33. Then
P: it struck me
Q: of course
R: suitable it was
S: how eminently
The Proper sequence should be:
a. SPQR b. QSRP c. PSRQ
34. I read an advertisement that said
P: posh, air-conditioned
Q: gentleman of taste
R: are available for
S: fully furnished rooms
The Proper sequence should be:
a. PQRS b. PSRQ c. PSQR
35. Since the beginning of history
P: have managed to catch
Q: the Eskimos and Red Indians
R: by a very difficulty method
S: a few specimens of this aquatic animal
The Proper sequence should be:
a. QRPS b. SQPR c. SQRP

Lt
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Directions (31 to 35): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some
parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R
and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

d. QPSR

Directions (36 to 43): In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences.
The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four
sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P,
Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

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36. S1: In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee,
the most important person in the room.
P: For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals.
Q: On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the
committee.
R: While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the feel of this
committee.
S: As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities.
S6: From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life
of its own.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. RSQP b. PQRS c. SQPR d. QSRP

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37. S1: A force of exists between everybody in the universe.

P: Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like
earth, the force is considerable.
Q: It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.
R: Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth.
S: This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.
S6: The greater the mass, the greater is the earths force of attraction on it. We
can call this force of attraction gravity.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. PRQS b. PRSQ c. QSRP d. QSPR

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38. S1: Calcutta unlike other cities kept its trams.

P: As a result there horrendous congestion.
Q: It was going to be the first in South Asia.
R: They run down the centre of the road
S: To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line.
S6: The foundation stone was laid in 1972.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. PRSQ b. PSQR c. SQRP d. RPSQ

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39. S1: For some time in his youth Abraham Lincoln was manager for a shop.
P: Then a chance Customer would come.
Q: Young Lincoln way of keeping shop was entirely unlike anyone elses:
R: Lincoln would jump up and attend to his needs and then revert to his
reading.
S: He used to lie full length on the counter of the shop eagerly reading a book.
S6: Never before had Lincoln had so much time for reading as had then.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. SRQP b. QSPR c. SQRP d. QPSR
40. S1: All the land was covered by the ocean.
P: The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body in to
two halves.

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41. S1: Smoke oozed up between the planks.

P: Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship.
Q: The rising gale fanned the smouldering fire.
R: Everyone now knew there was fire on board.
S: Flames broke out here and there.
S6: Most people bore the shock bravely.
The proper sequence should be:
a. SRQP b. QPSR c. RSOQ d. QSRP

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Q: A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the
water.
R: The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body and ornamented it
with stars.
S: The god created the earth from the lower part, grew plants on it and populated it with animals.
S6: The god moulded the first people out of clay according to his own image
and mind.
The Proper sequence should be:
a. PQRS b. PQSR c. OPSR d. QPRS

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42. S1: You know my wife, Madhavi, always urged me to give up smoking.
P: I really gave it up.
Q: And so When I went to jail I said to myself I really must give it up, if for
no other reason than of being self-reliant.
R: When I emerged from jail, I wanted to tell her of my great triumph
S: But when I met her, there she was with a packet of cigarettes.
S6: poor girl!
The proper sequence should be:
a. PSRQ b. SPQR c. QPRS d. RSPQ

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43. S1:When a satellite is launched, the rocket begins by going slowly upwards
through the air.
P: However, the higher it goes, the less air it meets.
Q: As the rocket goes higher, it travels faster.
R: For the atmosphere becomes thinner.
S: As a result there is less friction.
S6: Consequently, the rocket still does not become too hot
The proper sequence should be:
a. QRPS b. QSPR c. PQRS d. PQSR

Co
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Directions (44 to 48): In each question below a sentence broken into five or six
parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts
is the answer.

44. 1. I 2. immediately 3. salary 4. my 5. want

a. 43152 b. 15432 c. 25143 d. 42351

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45. 1. do 2. today 3. you 4. must 5. It

a. 34152
b. 25413
c. 12543
d. 51324
46. 1. left 2. the 3. house 4. He 5. Suddenly
a. 12435
b. 21354
c. 45123
d. 51324
47. 1. Medicine 2. a 3. Neela 4. Given 5. Was
a. 51423
b. 25431
c. 15423
d 35421
48. 1. of 2. We 3. Heard 4. him 5. had
a. 42351
b. 52341
c. 25341
d. 25314

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Directions (49 to 50): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The
letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is D. (Ignore the
errors of punctuation, if any).

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49. Solve as per thedirectionsgiven above

a. we discussed about the problem so thoroughly
b. on the eve of the examination
c. that I found it very easy to work it out.
d. no error
50. Solve as per thedirections given above
a. an Indian ship
b. laden with merchandise
c. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
d. no error

Part III

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1. Consider the following decimal numbers:

(1) 1.16666666
(2) 1.181181118
(3) 2.210010001
(4) 1.454545
Which of the above numbers represent(s) rational number(s)?

vt.

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

(a) 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) none of the above

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2. For what value of k, will the expression 3x 2 + kx 2 + 6x + 16 be divisible by

(c) 2

(d) 0

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(b) 4

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x ?
2

(a) 4

(b) 2 values
(d) No value

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(a) Only 1 value

(c) 3 values

3. How many real values of x satisfy the equation x 3 + x 3 2 = 0 ?

4. A scooterist completes a certain journey in 10 hrs. He covers half the distance

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by

at 30 kmph and the rest at 70 kmph. What is the total distance of the journey?
(a) 210 km (b) 400 km (c) 420 km (d) 500 km.

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5. 42 men take 25 days to dig a pond. If the pond would have to be dug in 14
days, then what is the number of men to be employed?
(a) 67
(b) 75
(c) 81
(d) 84

14

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6. An amount at a certain rate of compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In

how many years will this amount become 8 times?
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24

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20

7. A trader marked a watch 40% above the cost price and then gave a discount of
10%. He made a net profit of Rs. 468 after paying a tax of 10% on the gross
profit. What is the cost price of the watch?
(a) Rs. 1,2000
(b) Rs. 1,800
(c) Rs. 2,000
(d) Rs. 2,340

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8. Consider circle C of radius 6 cm with centre at O. What is the difference in the

area of the circle C and the area of the sector of circle C subtending an angle
of 80o at O?
(a) 26 cm 2
(b) 16 cm 2
(c) 28 cm 2

(d) 30 cm 2

AB BC
=
The area of ABC,
DE EF

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9. Triangles ABC and DEF are similar such that

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is 16 cm2 and that of DEF is 49 cm2. If BC = 2 2 cm then what is EF equal

to?
(a) 3.5 cm
(b) (3.5) 2 cm
(c) (3.5) 3 cm
(d) 7.0 cm

10. If the distance from the vertex to the centroid of an equilateral triangle is 6 cm,
then what is the area of the triangle?
(a) 24 cm2
(b) 27 3 cm 2
(d) 12 3 cm 2

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(c) 12 cm2

11. In a ABC, AB = AC. A circle through B touches AC at D and intersects AB

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at P. If D is the mid-point of AC, Which one of the following is correct?

(a) AB = 2AP
(b) AB = 3AP
(c) AB = 4AP
(d) 2AB = 5AP

12. If the diameter of a wire is decreased by 10%, by how much percent (approx.)

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will the length be increased to keep the volume same?

(a) 5%
(b) 17%
(c) 23%
(d) 20%

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13. The volume of cuboid whose sides are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 4 is the same as that
7 :1

(b)

7 : 2 (c) 7 : 3

(d)

7 :4

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(a)

by

of a cube. What is the ratio of length of diagonal of cuboid to that of cube?

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14. What
is the least number which when divided by 7, 9 and 12 leaves the remain
der 1 in each case?
(a) 253
(b) 352
(c) 505
(d) 523

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15. A man borrowed Rs. 40000 at 8% simple interest per year. At the end of the
second year he paid back certain amount and at the end of fifth year he paid
back Rs. 35,960 and cleared the debt. What amount did he pay back after the
second year?
(a) Rs. 16,200
(b) Rs. 17,400
(c) Rs. 18,000
(d) None of these

16. Two numbers have 16 as their HCF and 146 as their LCM. How many such

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pair of numbers are there?

(a) No such pair
(c) Only 2

(b) Only 1
(d) More than 2

17. What is the angle which equals one-fifth of its supplement?

(a) 15o

(b) 30o

(c) 36o

(d) 75o

18. What is the unit digit of the product of all prime numbers between 1 and
100?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

(b) x 2 + y 2 + z 2

(c) x 3 + y3 + z 3

(d) x 2 + y 2

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x5 1 3
20. What
is
the
square
root
of

+ x + 2x + x ?

x 1
(a) x 2 + x + 1
(b) x 2 x + 1
(c) x 2 x 1
(d) x 2 + x 1

vt.

(a) x + y + z

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19. Which one of the following is the factor of x 2 + xy3 + xz3 + x 3 y + y 4 + yz ?

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2 1. The displacement of the particle is proportional to first power of time. Its

acceleration is
(a) Infinite
(b) Zero
(c) Finite but small
(d) Finite but large
22. A body of mass 2 kg has initial velocity of 3 ms 1 along x-axis. It is subjected
to a force of 4 N in a direction perpendicular to x-axis. The displacement of
the body after 4 s is given by
(a) 12 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 28 m
(d) 48 m

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23. A particle goes round a circular path of radius r with uniform speed v. After
v2

r

(b)

v2

r

(c)

2v 2

r

by

(a)

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describing half the circle, the average acceleration of the particle is:
(d)

2v 2
r

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v2

r

2
(b) v
r

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24. In the above question 23, what is the change in its centripetal acceleration?
(c)

2v 2

r

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25. A jet engine works in the principle of

2
(d) 2v
r

20

14

(a) Conservation of mass

(b) Conservation of linear momentum
(c) Conservation of energy
(d) All the above

26. Work done by the force of friction is

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(a) Always positive but not unity

(b) Always negative
(c) Always unity
(d) Always infinity
27. A body weight 400 N at the surface of the earth. When taken at the centre of
the earth, its weight will be
(a) 400 N (b) 800 N (c) 4000 N (d) Zero
28. The velocity of sound is greatest in
(a) Water (b) Air
(c) Vacuum
(d) Metal

 29. Which of the following lenses, would you prefer to use while reading small

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letters found in a dictionary?

(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm

30. Linear magnification of a plane mirror is

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(a) Zero
(b) Less than unity
(c) Equal to unity
(d) Greater than unity
31. What is the equivalent resistance between A and B in the following network?

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1

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(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
32. One-half
of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Then it will

(a) Not produce any image of the object
(b) Produce half image of the object
(c) Produce complete image of the object
(d) Produce magnified image of the object, irrespective of the position of the
another
33. When light goes from one medium to another medium, which of the following
physical quantities remains same?
(a) Speed of light
(b) Wavelength of light
(c) Frequency of light
(d) All the above
34. Magnetic field inside a solenoid is
(a) Non-uniform and strong
(b) Uniform and strong
(c) Uniform and strong
(d) Non-uniform and weak
35. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit
(a) Reduced substantially
(b) Increases heavily
(c) Varies continuously
(d) Does not change
36. Non-metals are used in making
(a) Aeroplanes
(b) Machinery
(c) Water boilers
(d) Fertilizers
37. Which non-metal reacts with air vigorously but not with water?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Phosphorous
(c) Carbon
(d) Nitrogen

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38. Fe 2 O + 2AI AI 2 O3 + 2Fe. The reaction is an example of

(a) Combination reaction
(b) Decomposition reaction
(c) Double displacement reaction
(d) Displacement reaction
39. Choose the correct option for the given metals Mercury, Iron, Sodium and
Potassium:
(a) Highly reactive metals
(b) Low reactive metals
(c) They have high melting and boiling points
(d) They are all solids
40. When sodium kept open in air, it reacts with

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(a) O2, CO2 and moisture

(b) O2 and moisture
(c) O2 and CO2
(d) O2 only
41. Metal which does not produce their hydroxide with water is
(a) Sodium (b) Zinc
(c) Magnesium (d) Calcium
42. Metal behave as a good reducing agent, because
(a) They have low ionisation energy
(b) They can loose electrons easily
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
43. The valence shell in potassium is
(a) K shell (b) L shell (c) M shell (d) N shell
44. An element having electronic configuration 2, 8, 1 os more reactive than the
element having electronic configuration
(a) 2, 8, 2 (b) 2, 8, 3 (c) 2, 8, 4 (d) All of the above
45. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan
from rusting?
(a) Applying grease
(b) Applying paint
(c) Applying a coating of zinc
(d) All of the above
46. To make bed sheets, Rayon is mixed with
(a) Cotton (b) Acrylic (c) Polyester
(d) Plastic
47. The process which is not taking place on the principle of electrolysis is
(a) Electroplating
(b) Galvanisation
(c) Purification of impure copper
(d) Decomposition of water
48. Air pollution can be reduced by
(a) Planting more trees
(b) Using less fossil fuels
(c) Decomposing vegetable wastes
(d) All of the above
49. Nali, Ravi, Surti and Murrah are the Indian breeds of
(a) Sheep (b) Goats (c) Buffaloes (d) Camels
50. Bordeaux mixture, a mixture of copper sulphate and calcium hydroxide, has
been used for
(a) Control of diseases of poultry birds
(b) Control of plant diseases caused by viruses
(c) Control of malaria
(d) Control of plant diseases caused by fungi

 51. Mycorrhiza is the term referring to

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(a) Parasitic association of fungi with important crops

(b) Symbiotic association of fungi with the roots of certain seed bearing
plants
(c) Fungi growing on plant wastes lying in the farm after harvest
(d) Fungi growing on cattle feed making it poisonous

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52. Asbestos and soot are considered dangerous because they

(a) Can damage the cement concrete structures leading to a gradual collapse
(b) Can cause cancer of the lungs
(c) Can enter the food chain leading to elimination of endangered species
(d) Are poisonous compounds for the agricultural plants
53. This gland plays a major role in the development of immune system:
(a) Thymus gland
(b) Pineal gland
(c) Adrenal gland
(d) Testes
54. In vitro fertilization is the technique of
(a) Substituting the nucleus of ovum by nucleus from a vegetative cell and
inducing it to develop into an embryo and subsequently into an individual
organism in laboratory conditions
(b) Fertilization of ovum by sperms collected from selected male
(c) Fertilization of ovum in laboratory conditions outside the female body
(d) Transfer tube of another female into the fallopian tube of another female
55. Autogamy is a kind of
(a) Pollination within the same flower
(b) Pollination in which pollen grains are transferred to another flower of the
same plant
(c) Pollination in which pollen grains are transferred to flower of a different
plant
(d) Pollination between two non compatible
56. Bagging of the female flower is done to
(a) Prevent the insects from visiting the flowers
(b) Prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen
(c) Protect the flower from being destroyed by birds
(d) Prevent the flower from drying out under the hot sun
57. Thorns are actually the modifications of
(a) Stems (b) Leaves (c) Leaf bases (d) Tendrils
58. The phototrophic response of plant towards unidirectional light is due to the
plant hormone
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Abscisic acid
59. The cell walls of root cells help in water absorption by the process of
(a) Exosmosis
(b) Endosmosis
(c) Imbibition
(d) Plasmolysis

 60. The nutritive tissue that is present in the seeds of some plants is called

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(a) Endosperm
(b) Food tissue
(c) Mother tissue
(d) Nutritive back up tissue
61. Which of the following Medieval Indian rulers was the first to introduce major
reforms in the Land-Revenue system?
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Sher Shah
(d) Akbar
62. Which sate is associated with the Revolt of 1857?
(a) Satara (b) Jaipur (c) Lahore (d) Jaiselmer
63. Who of the following are the examples of individuals who represented to the
ideas coming from revolutionary France?
(a) Gandhi and Nehru
(b) Tilak and Gokhale
(c) Tipu Sultan and Raja Ram Mohan Roy (d) Tagore and Vivekananda
64. A new form of organization developed in the 1905 Revolution was called
(a) Trade Union
(b) Triple Alliance
(c) Soviets
(d) Mensheviks
65. Hitler was imprisoned in 1923 for a term of:
(a) Seven years
(b) Six years
(c) Five years
(d) Ten years
66. In this type of cultivation, parts of the forest are cut and burnt in rotation.
Seeds are sown in the ashes after the first monsoon rains, and the crop is harvested by OctoberNovember.
(a) Shifting cultivation
(b) Commercial cultivation
(c) Intensive cultivation
(d) None of the above
67. Which of the following is the term used for Bismarks policy?
(a) Steel and Iron policy
(b) Hand Shake policy
(c) Blood and Iron policy
(d) Golden Goose policy
68. Who was the main architect of unification of Germany?
(a) Chancellor Bismarck
(b) Napoleon
(c) Habsburg Empire
(d) Louis Philippe
69. Which nationalist journal did the students publish?
(a) The French Students
(b) The china student
(c) The Vietnamese students
(d) The Yaman student
70. Who was allowed to enroll in the French school?
(a) The Chinese elite
(b) The Vietnamese elite
(c) The German elite
(d) The Japanese elite
71. When did Trieu Au live?
(a) In the 3rd century
(b) In the 4th century
(c) In the 2nd century
(d) In the 5th century
72. Who was called the Frontier Gandhi?
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(c) Jawaharla Nehru
(d) M.A. Jinnah

 73. Who composed the song Vande Mataram?

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(a) Rabindranath Tagore

(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(c) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(d) Baba Ramchandra
74. Which movement was joined by Gandhiji to promote HinduMuslim unity?
(a) None cooperation movement
(b) The Khilafat movement
(c) Satyagraha movement
(d) Peasants and worker movement
75. Who was the founder of ford company?
(a) Mark ford
(b) John ford
(c) Henry ford
(d) Peter ford
76. The Allies consisted of
(a) Britain, Germany, France & U.S.A (b) Britain, France, Russia & U.S.A
(c) Russia, Germany, France & U.S.A (d) Russia, ltaly, Germany & Japan
77. The southernmost point of India that was submerged after the 26 December
2004 tsunami was:
(a) Rajiv point
(b) Indira point
(c) India point
(d) Andaman point
78. Match the following
(a) Ganga River
(i) Sand Dune
(b) Wind
(ii) Delta
(c) Levees
(iii) Sedimentary Rocks
(d) Soil
(iv) River
(a) (a) (iv), (b) (i), (c) (ii), (d) (iii)
(b) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv)
(c) (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i)
(d) (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (iii), (d) (i)
79. What is the length of the land boundary of India?
(a) 5200 km
(b) 15200 km
(c) 45200 km
(d) 52000 km
80. Part of the Northern Plains, which was a thickly forested region full of wildlife, where the forests have been cleared to create agricultural land and to
settle migrants from Pakistan after partition.
(a) Bhabar (b) Terai (c) Bhangar (d) Khadar
81. Which one of the following is the largest river of the Peninsular India?
(a) Narmada (b) Krishna (c) Godavari (d) Mahanadi
82. Which soil is the widespread soil of India?
(a) Alluvial (b) Black (c) Laterite (d) Desert

83. Which of the following is not an area of Mountain soil?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Uttranchal
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

 84. How much forest area was converted into agricultural land between 1951 and
1980?
(a) 62,000 sq. km
(c) 26,200 sq. km

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(b) 26,000 sq. km

(d) 62.200 sq. km

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85. In which Tiger Reserve, villagers have fought against mining by citing the
Wildlife Protection Act?
(a) Ranthambore
(b) Manas
(c) Sariska
(d) Corbett

86. The total _____ water resources of India are estimated at 1897 sq. km per
annum.
(a) Renewable
(c) Perennial

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(b) Underground
(d) River

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87. Post-independent India witnessed _____ industrialization and urbanization,

nd

creating vast opportunities for us.

(a) Decreasing
(c) Intensive

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(b) Increasing
(d) None of the above

88. What is the position of India in the production of sugarcane?

(b) Second (c) Fourth (d) third

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(a) First

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89. Human capital includes-

ed

by

(a) The working population of the country

(b) All those places where human live
(c) All that capital which is produced by humans
(d) All that capital which is used in production by only humans

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90. Which of following is a Non-Market Activity?

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(a) Production for exchange

(c) Production for trade

(b) Production for self consumption

(d) Production for exports

91. National income of a country divided by its total population

14

(a) Gross Domestic product

(c) Net Domestic product

(b) Per Capita income

(d) Depreciation

20

92. Which of the following neighboring countries has better performance in terms

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of human development than India?

(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sir Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan
93. The sectors are classified into public and private sectors on the basis of:
(a) Employment conditions
(b) The nature of economic activity
(c) Ownership of enterprises
(d) Number of workers employed in the enterprise
94. Which was the largest producing sector of India in 2003?
(a) Tertiary sector
(b) Service sector
(c) Primary sector
(d) Private sector

 95. Currency is accepted as a medium of exchange because

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(a) it is easy to carry

(b) paper doesnt costs more to be printed in the form of currency
(c) it is authorized by the government of the country
(d) none of the above
96. Select the correct sequence of evolution of Panchayati Raj from the
following:
(i) National Extension Service
(ii) Baleant Rai Mehta Committee Report
(iii) Ashok Mehta committee Report
(iv) 73rd Amendment of the constitution of India. The correct sequence is
(a) ii, iii, i, iv
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) i, iii, iv, ii
(d) iv, iii, ii, i
97. Election photo Identity card in India is issued by:
(a) Collector of the district
(b) Superintendent of police
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Election Commission
98. A council consisting of several ward members, often called panch, and a president of sarpanch.
(a) Gram Sabha
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Gram Parishad
(d) None of these
99. Movement which emerged in 1966 and lasted till 1975, which was a more
militant anti racist movement, advocating even violence. If necessary to end
racism in the US.
(a) Black movement
(b) The Black Power
(c) Anti-white-movement
(d) Non-discriminatory movement
100. Radical womens movements which aimed at equality in personal and family
life as well, were called
(a) Womens movement
(b) Biological difference movement
(c) Girls movement
(d) Feminist movement

1. (b) 2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (c)

6. (a)

7. (a)

8. (d)

9. (c) 10. (c)

vt.

Part I (Mat)

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Answer Key

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11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (B) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)

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41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (d)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (b)

7. (b)

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1. (d)

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Part II (SAT)

8. (c)

9. (a) 10. (d)

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11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)

21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)

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31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d)

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41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (c)

5. (b)
15. (b)
25. (b)
35. (b)
45. (d)
55. (a)
65. (c)
75. (c)
85. (c)
95. (c)

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4. (c)
14. (a)
24. (d)
34. (c)
44. (d)
54. (c)
64. (c)
74. (b)
84. (c)
94. (a)

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3. (b)
13. (b)
23. (c)
33. (c)
43. (d)
53. (a)
63. (c)
73. (b)
83. (c)
93. (c)

14

2. (b)
12. (d)
22. (c)
32. (c)
42. (c)
52. (b)
62. (a)
72. (b)
82. (a)
92. (b)

1. (c)
11. (c)
21. (b)
31. (a)
41. (b)
51. (b)
61. (a)
71. (a)
81. (c)
91. (b)

ed

Part III (SAT)

6. (b)
16. (a)
26. (b)
36. (d)
46. (a)
56. (b)
66. (a)
76. (b)
86. (a)
96. (b)

7. (c)
17. (b)
27. (d)
37. (d)
47. (b)
57. (a)
67. (c)
77. (b)
87. (c)
97. (d)

8. (c)
18. (a)
28. (d)
38. (d)
48. (d)
58. (a)
68. (a)
78. (a)
88. (b)
98. (b)

9. (b) 10. (b)

19. (c) 20. (a)
29. (c) 30. (b)
39. (c) 40. (a)
49. (c) 50. (d)
59. (c) 60. (a)
69. (c) 70. (b)
79. (b) 80. (b)
89. (a) 90. (b)
99. (b) 100. (d)