1.

What are naturally occurring antibodies:

2. Which antibody is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

3. What blood type is not possible for an offspring of AO and BO persons?
4. What is the Nature of ABO antibodies:
a
5. Waldenstrms macroglobulinemia, multiple myeloma and increased levels of
fibrinogen is associated with what ABO discrepanc
6. In which blood group systems may the RBC typing change during pregnancy?
7. Which are the RBC equivalents of human leukocyte antigens (HLA)?
8. Which of the following does not belong to the high titer low avidity antibodies?
9. Describe the Kell blood group:
10. Adults who have the Le, Se, and H genes will exhibit which Lewis antigen on
their red cells
11. Given the following reactions, identify the cause of discrepancy:
Cell Typing:

Serum Typing:

Anti-A = 4+

A1 cells = 0

Anti-B = 2+

B cells = 4+

12. Which is a contraindication for accepting a donor for plateletpheresis

13. What are the criteria for donors to be accepted for blood donation?
15. A man turns pale and complains of dizziness while donating blood. What is the
best course
16. What would be the cause of jet-like pulsating bleeding with bright red blood
during blood donation?
17. Red blood cells stored in CPDA-2 blood bag would have a shelf-life of:

18. What is the proper storage protocol for granulocyte concentrates?

19. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor is not recommended for the treatment of
which condition?
20. What is the purpose of adding rejuvenating solutions to RBC products?
21. Prothrombin complex concentrates are used to treat what?
22. What is the purpose of adding citric acid to blood bag preservatives?
23. Fresh frozen plasma stored at -65OC would have a shelf-life of:
24. Each unit of cryoprecipitate prepared from whole blood should contain
approximately how many units of factor VIII?
25. Quality control for RBCs requires a maximum hematocrit level of:
26. Cryoprecipitate that has been thawed must be transfused within ___ hours
27. What is the preparation of Platelets prepared from a whole blood donation
require?
28. A single unit of granulocyte concentrate should contain at least ____ WBCs
29. Which antibodies is most responsible for immediate hemolytic transfusion
reactions?
30. When a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs, the first thing to do is:

32. Hepatitis B virus remains infectious on environmental surfaces for:

33. HBV is transmitted most frequently by what means?
34. Which of the blood-borne pathogens is destroyed under prolonged cold
temperature storage?
35. What procedure would help to distinguish between an anti-C and anti-Fyb in an
antibody mixture
36. What samples are required to perform compatibility testing?
37. What is the minimum testing required for a massively transfused patien
38. What is the major advantage of gel technology?
39. What is the purpose of immediate spin crossmatch ?

40. Blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored for a
minimum of how many days following transfusion?
41. After the addition of IgG-coated RBCs to a negative AHG reaction during an
antibody screen, a negative result is observed. What is a correct interpretation
42. RBCs must be washed in saline at least three times before the addition of AHG
reagent to:
43. Blood for intrauterine transfusion should be :
44. What should be done if Whartons jelly cannot be removed from cord cells?
45. Cold AIHA is sometimes associated with infection b
46. Cephalosporin given in massive doses has been associated with RBC hemolysis.
Which of the classic mechanisms is involved in the hemolytic process?
47.What is a Backup copies of the information system
48. User passwords should be:
49. What items should be checked quarterly in blood bankin
50. What is the principle involved in the gel technology?
51. Which of these match(es) is(are) correct?
1. Karl Landsteiner ABO blood group
2. Elie Metchnikoff Phagocytosis
3. Rosalyn Yallow - ELISA
4. Jules Bordet Complement fixation
52. When was T cell receptor gene discovered?
53. What Cytokine produced mainly by macrophages:

54. What is a non-specific indicator of inflammation believed to be an antibody to

the C-polysaccharide of pneumococci:
55. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows a change in the ratio of:
56. Where does Hybridomas are formed from
57.What are function of T cells ?

58. What is the major component of natural humoral immunity?

59. Interferon can be produced by which of the following?
1. Macrophages

3. Virus-infected cells

2. T lymphocytes

4. All of these

60. Which IgG subclasses does not cross the placenta?

61. What is the major amino acid component of the hinge region of an
immunoglobulin molecule?
62. What region determines the immunoglobulin class?
63.What Marker is for NK cells?
64. How are cytotoxic T cells and NK cells similar?
65. Which immunology cross-links mast cells release histamine?
66. Humoral immunity is due to:
67. What is the predominant antibody in an anamnestic response is:
68. The binding strength of an antibody for an antigen is referred to as :
69. The HLA complex is located primarily on:
70. For an antibody-coated antigen to be phagocytized, what part of the antibody
molecule fits into a receptor on the phagocytic cell?
71. What substances are added to a vaccine to enhance the immune response:?
a. Haptens
72. The alternative pathway of the complement cascade is initiated by:
1. IgG and IgM

3. Yeast cell wall

5. Lipopolysaccharides

2. Aggregates of IgA

4. Mannose group

6. Cobra venom factor

73. Deficiency of C3 complement component is associated with:

74.What type of graft is a Fetus in a mothers womb is considered a(n):
75. HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with:
76. If the interval between heating the serum for the VDRL test and testing exceeds
4 hours, the serum should be reheated at what temperature and for how long?
77. Patients with syphilis develop an antibody response to a substance known as:

78. What is the fluorescein-antihuman gamma globulin used in the FTA-ABS test:
79. What is the reactions on DNA-methyl green substrates when testing for the
presence of anti-DNase are:
80. The Widal and Weil-Felix reactions are examples of techniques to detect
81. Forssman antibodies are adsorbed by which?
82. What is the first antibody to be produced in a patient with hepatitis B virus
infection?
83. What is the first antibody to be produced in a patient with HIV infection?
84 which one is the most common congenital infection?
85. In the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsulatum, which bands are present in a
positive result
86. If only anti-HBs is positive, what can be ruled out?
87. What test will detect parasitic lactate dehydrogenase enzyme present in
malarial organi
88. Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV?
89. Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to smooth muscle?
90. Which immunofluorescent pattern indicates the need for further testing by
Ouchterlony double diffusion?
91. What disease is indicated by a high titer of anti-centromere antibodies?
92. Which of the following is a sialylated Lewis blood group antigen associated with
colorectal carcinoma?
93.Which is Associated with increased serum alpha1-fetoprotein level:
1. Testicular cancer

3. Pancreatic carcinoma

2. Hepatocellular carcinoma

4. Prostatic carcinoma

94. What is the characteristic of hCG?

95. What immune elements are involved in a reaction to poison ivy?
96. Needles used to deliver VDRL antigen should be checked how often?
97. When preparing monoclonal antibodies what should be considered?

98. The air temperature throughout the serology laboratory is 20OC. How will this
affect RPR test result?
99. What device is used to measure radioactivity in radioimmunoassay:
100. What is the Most commonly used label in ELISA:?