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IIT-JEE 2009

STS IV/MPC/P(I)/QNS

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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009


PAPER I
MATHEMATICS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 246

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INSTRUCTIONS:

PART A : MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 6. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2

1. If f(x) = [cos(x + 2) cos (x + 4) cos (x + 3)], where [ ] denotes the greatest integer
3

function, then a solution of the equation f(x) = x is


(A) 1

(B) 0

(D) 1

(C) 2

2. If f(x) = x cos 2x when |x| < 1


when |x| 1 then f(x) is

= x |x|

(A) a periodic function

(B) an odd function

(C) an even function

(D) none of these

3. The value of

1

sin

x  12  cos

1

x  12

dx, where [ ] stands for

1

the greatest integer function, is


(A) 0

(B)

(C)

(D) 2

4. If z is a complex number satisfying z 2 = z + 8 z 4 = 0, then the locus


of z is
(A) a circle

(B) an ellipse

(C) a straight line (D) a single point

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5. a , b , c are 3 vectors having magnitudes 2, 1, 1 and b b a  c = 0. Then


the acute angle between a and b is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6. A person A draws three cards at random from a pack of 52 cards. After returning
them back and shuffling it another person B draws 3 cards at random. The
chance that their draws contain exactly two common cards is
(A)

50
52

(B)

147
52

(C)

49
52

(D)

49 50
52

SECTION II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 7 to 10.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are
correct.
7. (a, b) is a variable point on y = 3x lying between the straight lines 2x + y + 4 = 0,
x + 4y 8 = 0, then
(A) a 

(C) a

(B) b 

5 13

4
5

6
13

(D) b

12 24
,
5 13

 12 12
,
5
13

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25 1  x

10

15

10

4 1x

15

9 1 x

8. A factor of

(A) x

(B) x + 2

is

(C) x + 1

(D) x + 3

x3

9. Let g(x) =

d
dx

log t dt , then
x2

(A) g(0) = 0

(B) g(1) + g
2

(C) g(e) = 9e 4e
10. Let x + y =

=0

(D) g (e) = 9e 8
x, y > 0

Let S (, n) =

r 2 n C x r y n  r then, S(1, 5) is
r

r=0

(A) 20x + 5x

(B) 25x + 5xy

(C) 25x + 5x

(D) 20x + 4xy

SECTION III
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 11 to 14. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

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(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation


for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.

11. Statement 1:

3i

3i

5  i 6  2i

5i
6  2i is real
6

and
Statement 2:
12. Statement 1:

A complex number z is real if and only if z = z


2

If e1, e2 are the eccentricities of 16x + 9y = 144 and


2
2
2
2
16x 9y = 144 then e  e > 4
1

and
Statement 2:

2
2
x2 y2
If x  y = 1 (a > b) and

= 1 represent an ellipse and
2
2
2
2
a
b
a
b

hyperbola respectively, their eccentricities are

a2  b2
a

a2  b2 respectively.
a

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In ABC, tan A, tan B, tan C are in A.P. and tan A = x, then

13. Statement 1:

tan B =

3  x2
2x

and
In ABC, tan A + tan B + tan C = tan A tan B tan C

Statement 2:

If f(x) = cos 5x + x [x], where [x] is the integral part of x,


then the period of f(x) is 1

14. Statement 1:

and
Statement 2:

The period of f(x) + g(x) is the L.C.M of the periods of f(x) and
g(x).
SECTION IV
Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 17
A straight line is such that, it is a tangent at A and normal at another point B of
2

curve x = 3t , y = 2t

15. The number of such possible lines is


(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) none of these


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16. The point B is


(A)

3 1
,
2
2

(B)

(C)

3 1
,
2
2

(D)

2 2
3

17. The tangent at A meets the x-axis at the point


(A) (0, 0)

(B) (1, 0)

(C) (2, 0)

(D) (3, 0)

Paragraph for Question Nos. 18 to 20


P is (3, 2, 1) and 3x y + 4z = 2 is the equation of a plane.
18. The image P of P in the above plane is
(A) (0, 1, 3)

(B) (0, 1, 3)

(C) (1, 2, 1)

(D) (0, 1, 3)

19. If P and ( + 2, 2, 1) lie on the same side of the plane then


(A) ( 2, 1)

(B) ( 2/3, 0)

(C) (1, 2)

(D) (2, 3)

20. The point where the line joining the origin and P meets the plane x + y + z = 1 is
1 3
,
4
4

(A) 0,

1 3
,
4 4

(B) 0 ,

(C) 0 ,

1 1
,
2 2

(D) (0, 1, 1)

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 21 to 23


Given f(x) = cos tan 1 x  1
1

= sin cot

cos tan

 sin cot  1 x
x

= sin 2 sin1 x  cos 1 x


21. The value of x for which f(x) = 0 is
(A) 0

(B) 1

(C)

1
2

(D) 

1
2

22. The value of for the value of x obtained in Question No. 21 is


(A)

5
9
2

23. If =

(A)

(B)
17
33

(C)

3
2

(D)

2
3

then the value of is

1
4

(B)

1
16

(C)

15
16

(D)

7
8

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PART B : PHYSICS
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 24 to 29. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. The equation of motion of four bodies P, Q, R and S are as follows.
2

xP = 4t 1; xQ = 6t 5t + 3; xR = 5t + 3t 2t + 6; xS = 5 sin 30 3 cos 15
Which of these four particles move with uniform acceleration?
(A) xQ

(B) xP

(C) xR

(D) xS

25. A cube of mass 30 g wettable by water floats on the surface of water. Each face of
the cube is 4 cm long. Surface tension of water = 70 dynes/cm. The distance of the
2

lower face of the cube from the surface of water is (g = 980 cm s ).


(A) 1.9 cm

(B) 1.93 cm

(C) 1.95 cm

(D) 1.98 cm

26. A solid copper sphere cools at the rate of 3.0C per minute, when its temperature
is 227C. Find the rate of cooling of another copper sphere of thrice its radius lose
its temperature at 427C, the room temperature being at 27C in both the cases.
(A) 0.48C /min

(B) 40.7C /min

(C) 42.5C /min

(D) 44.7C /min

27. The electric field intensity on the surface of a solid charged sphere of radius r
and volume charge density is given by
(A)

1
4

(B)

5r
8

(C)

r
3

(D)

5 r
6

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10

28. An a.c generator consists of a coil of 150 turns and cross-sectional area 3.6 m ,
1

rotating at a constant angular speed of 50 rad s in a uniform magnetic field of


0.03 T. The resistance of the coil is 400 . Calculate the maximum power
dissipated in the coil.
(A) 1.81 kW

(B) 1.64 kW

(C) 1.5 kW

(D) 1.32 kW

29. An object is placed 21 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature


10 cm. A glass slab of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1.5 is then placed close
to the mirror in the space between the object and the mirror. The distance of the
near surface of the slab from the mirror is 1 cm. The final image from the mirror
will be formed at
(A) 4.56 cm

(B) 5.65 cm

(C) 6.56 cm

(D) 7.67 cm

SECTION II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 30 to 33. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
30. The potential energy u of a particle of mass m = 1 kg moving in the XY plane is
given by u = 2x + 5y xy. If the particle is at rest at 2, 1, its acceleration in m/s
at this position is given by
(A) ax = 1; ay = 3

(B) zero

(C) 10

(D) 3

31. A smooth hemispherical bowl 30 cm in diameter rotates with angular speed


about an axis of symmetry. A particle P of weight 0.5 kgf is observed to remain at
rest relative to the bowl at a height of 10 cm above the base. If N is the force
extended by the particle on the bowl, then
(A) = 4.5 rad/s
(B) N = 1.5 kgf
(C) When is increased to 9 rad/s, N becomes 3.0 kgf
(D) When is increased to 9 rad/s, N becomes 0.5 kgf
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11

32. A sinusoidal wave is travelling in a medium. Then


(A) the minimum distance between two particles having the same speed is

(B) the minimum distance between two particles in the same phase is
(C) the phase difference between two particles separated by a distance of
along the direction of propagation of wave is

5
4

(D) if its equation is 0.02 sin (5t 0.2x), then the maximum particle velocity is
1

0.1 ms

33. Current i1 is flowing in a conductor along OO axis


outwards from the plane of the paper. A steady
current i is flowing in the loop ABCD.
2
(A) The net force is zero
(B) The net torque is zero
(C) As seen from O, the loop will rotate in
anticlockwise direction along OO axis
(D) As seen from O, the loop will rotate in clockwise direction along OO axis
SECTION III
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 34 to 37. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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12

(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation


for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
34. Statement 1:

The changes are isothermal if the temperature T of the gas


remains constant

and
V

Statement 2:

P dV = W is negative, volume expands, Q is negative.


V

35. Statement 1:

Rain drops always fall to the earth with uniform velocity

and
Statement 2:
36. Statement 1:

All freely falling objects have zero weight.


A plane mirror forms a real image when a converging beam of
light falls on it

and
Statement 2:

When a converging beam is reflected, the angle of reflection is


not equal to the angle of incidence.

37. Statement 1:

A concave mirror of focal length f in air is used in a medium of


refractive index 2, then the focal length of the mirror in medium
becomes double.

and
Statement 2:

The radius of curvature of a mirror is double the focal length.


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13

SECTION IV
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 38 to 40
A heat engine operates between two identical bodies A and B at different
temperatures TA and TB (TA > TB), with each body of mass m and specific heat
capacity s. The bodies remain at constant pressure and undergo no change of phase.
5

(Given : specific heat capacity of water = 4.19 10 J kg


3

and

density of water = 10 kg m )
38. Obtain an expression for the final temperature T0 attained by the two bodies A
and B, if the heat engine extracts from the system the maximum amount of
mechanical work that is theoretically possible
T
(A)

(B) T T
A

(C)
T

(D) T T
A

39. Obtain an expression for the maximum amount of work available

(A) ms

T  T
A

(B) ms

(C) ms

T  T
B

A
B

T
(D) ms

B
A

40. Calculate the maximum amount of mechanical work obtainable


(A) 1600 MJ

(B) 1800 MJ

(C) 2100 MJ

(D) 2200 MJ

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14

Paragraph for Question Nos. 41 to 43


A ball moves in a circular path of 0.15 m diameter with a constant angular speed
of 20 rev/min. Its projection on any diameter of the circle performs simple harmonic
motion. Find the acceleration and speed of the ball.
41. At a turning point of the motion of the ball
2

(A) 0.329 ms , 0

(B) 0.369 ms , 0

(C) 0.392 ms , 0

(D) 0.396 ms , 0

42. At the equilibrium position


1

(A) 0, 0.169 ms

(B) 0, 0.162 ms

(C) 0, 0.157 ms

(D) 0, 0.152 ms

43. At a point 6 cm from the equilibrium


2

(A) 0.293 ms , 0.0962 ms


2

(C) 0.233 ms , 0.092 ms

(B) 0.263 ms , 0.0942 ms


2

(D) 0.203 ms , 0.089 ms

Paragraph for Question Nos. 44 to 46


Photoelectrons are ejected from a surface when light of wavelength = 550 nm is
1
incident on it. The stopping potential for such electrons Vs = 0.19 V. Suppose a
radiation of wavelength 2 = 190 nm was incident on the surface,
44. the stopping potential V , is
s
(A) 3.47 V

(B) 3.97 V

(C) 4.47 V

(D) 4.97 V

45. the work function of the surface is


(A) 3.57 eV

(B) 3.07 eV

(C) 2.57 eV

(D) 2.07 eV

46. the threshold frequency for the surface is


(A) 500 THz

(B) 490 THz

(C) 480 THz

(D) 470 THz

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15

PART C : CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions numbered 47 to 52. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
+

47. The ionisation energy of He is 18.4 10


+2

second stationary state of Li


(A) 13.5 10

18

(C) 15.4 10

18

18

J per atom. What is the energy of

ion ?

(B) 10.35 10

(D) 4.34 10

18

18

48. In solid state each ammonia molecule has 6 other ammonia molecules as nearest
neighbours. H of sublimation of NH molecule at melting point is 30.2 kJ/mole
3
and in absence of H bonding the H sublimation is 14.4 kJ/mole. The strength
of H bond in solid state is
(A) 166.8 kJ/mol

(B) 55.6 kJ/mol

(C) 27.8 kJ/mol

(D) 13.9 kJ/mol

49. Find out the number of atoms present in 100 g of the element if the element
3

occurs in bcc structure with edge length of 290 pm, density = 6.8 gcm .
(A) 6.023 10

23

(C) 24.09 10

23

atoms

(B) 12.046 10

atoms

(D) 3.073 10

23

23

atoms

atoms

50. If 2 moles of ideal gas at 27C is subjected to expand reversibly ten times of its
initial volume, the change in entropy of expansion of the gas is
(A) 19.59 JK

(C) 9.79 JK

mol

mol

(B) 38.29 JK

(D) 29.38 JK

mol

mol

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51. The standard enthalpy and entropy changes for the reaction in equilibrium for
forward direction are given as
CO(g) + H2O(g)

CO2(g) + H 2(g)

Calculate K at 300 K and the direction of reaction if the pressure of all gases at
p
initial state is 1 atm.
1

Given H300 K = 41.16 kJ mol ; S300 K = 4.24 10

kJ mol

(A) Kp = 8.94 10 , backward reaction


4

(B) Kp = 8.94 10 , forward reaction


4

(C) Kp = 8.94 10 , backward reaction


4

(D) Kp = 8.94 10 , forward reaction


52. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 4-Aectamide-6-bromohexen-3-one
(B) 4-Bromomethyl-1-ethylamino-1-oxohept-4-en-3-one
(C) N-Ethyl-2-(2-bromoethyl)-3-keto-4-pentenamide
(D) 4-Bromoethyl-3-keto-5-ethylamidopentene
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SECTION II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions numbered 53 to 56.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are
correct.
53. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(A) H2O2 can act as most powerful oxidising agent in acidic medium.
(B) H2O2 can act as most powerful reducing agent in basic medium.
(C) H2O2 decomposes faster in acidic medium than in basic medium.
(D) It can be used as antiseptic and germicide.
54. Which of the following statements regarding oxides of nitrogen is/are correct ?
(A) Nitrogen dioxide is a mixed anhydride.
(B) Solid nitrogen dioxide is brown in colour.
(C) Nitrogen dioxide has two resonating structures.
(D) Nitrogen dioxide is a paramagnetic substance.
55. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct ?
+3

(A) Al ion is most effective than Ca


sol.

+2

ion in coagulation of arsenious sulphide

(B) SO2 ion are most effective than I ion in coagulation of ferric hydroxide sol.
4

(C) Silver sol in water is an example for lyophilic sol.


(D) The coagulation of lyophilic sol is irreversible in nature.
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56. Molal depression constant (Kf) of a solvent can be calculated from Lf = latent
heat of fusion of solid solvent, Hf = molar heat of fusion, Tf = freezing point of
solvent. The equation for Kf is
RT 2

RT 2
f

(A) K =
f

(B) K =

100 L

1000 L

100 H

RT 2 M

RT 2
(C) K =

(D) K =
f

1000 H

SECTION III
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 questions numbered 57 to 60. Each question contains
STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation
for statement 1.
(B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct
explanation for statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False.
(D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True.
57. Statement 1:

The rate constant of reaction increases with increase of


temperature.

and
Statement 2:

This is due to the decrease in the activation energy of the


reaction.
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58. Statement 1:

Globular proteins which catalyse biochemical reactions are


called enzymes.

and
Statement 2:
59. Statement 1:

All enzymes are made up of -amino acids.


Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with CCl4 in NaOH at 340 K
gives salicylic acid as major product.

and
Statement 2:

The reaction occurs through intermediate in formation of


dichloro carbene.

60. Statement 1:

In thermosetting of polymers, the highly cross-linked polymers


become hard, insoluble mass.

and
Statement 2:

This is due to heating of polymer with a percent by mass of


sulphur.
SECTION IV
Linked Comprehension Type

This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63
All radioactive atoms in a given sample do not disintegrate simultaneously.
Radioactive disintegration is an example of 1st order reaction i.e., the rate of decay is
directly proportional to number of atoms (amount of the element present at particular
time). Some of the characteristics of radioactive decay are
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20

1. Rate of decay continuously decreases with time.


2. Rate of decay as well as disintegration constant are independent of pressure
and temperature.
3. Unit of rate decay : disintegration per time.
1

4. Unit of decay constant is time .


5. Time required to complete a definite fraction is independent of initial number of
atoms of radioactive species i.e., the time required to complete n

th

fraction t1/n

t1/n [No]
58

61. 1 g mixture of Co
Co

58

59

and Co

has the activity of 2.2 10

is 71.3 days. The percent by mass of Co

(A) 18.8%

(B) 0.39%

62. The radioactive decay 83Bi

58

(C) 0.188%
211

81Ti

Bi
83

(A) 16.8 atm

(B) 22.4 atm

dis sec . Half-life of

in mixture is
(D) 3.99%

207

, takes place in 10 L closed container at

211

0C. Half-life of

12

is 2.15 min, starting with 1 mole of 83Bi


developed in the container after 4.3 minutes will be
(C) 2.24 atm

211

, the pressure

(D) 1.68 atm

63. A sample of radioactive substance shows an intensity of 4.6 millicurie at a time


and an intensity of 3.24 millicurie 600 seconds later. The half-life of radioactive
material is (log 1.42 = 0.1522)
(A) 593.6 sec

(B) 1186.5 sec

(C) 59.36 sec

(D) 118.65 sec

Paragraph for Question Nos. 64 to 66


Stereoisomerism in organic compounds is exhibited by the molecules with same
molecular formula and the same structure but they differ in their configuration i.e.,
arrangement of their atoms in space. They are classified into
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(1) geometrical or cis, trans isomerism


(2) optical or d, l isomerism
Geometrical isomerism arises when there is restricted rotation around C C bond
which generally arises due to double bond or cyclic compounds.
Optical isomerism arises when there is chirality in the molecule. The compound in
which one or more carbons attached to 4 different groups is known as chiral molecule.
The carbon is called chiral centre.
64. The following I and II are

(A) identical

(B) cis-trans isomers

(C) enantiomers

(D) meso compounds

65.

The above two are


(A) geometrical (Z, E) and (E, Z) isomers
(B) geometrical (Z, Z) and (Z, E) isomers
(C) geometrical (E, E) and (Z, Z) isomers
(D) geometrical (E, Z) and (Z, E) isomers
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66. Which of the following is optically active ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Paragraph for Question Nos. 67 to 69
The salient features of the theory are (1) the central metal ion has a number of
empty orbitals for accommodating electrons donated by the ligands. The number of
empty orbitals is equal to the coordination number of the metal ion for the particular
complex.
The atomic orbital (s, p or d) of the metal ion hybridize to form hybrid orbitals with
definite directional properties. These hybrid orbitals now overlap with the ligand
orbitals to form strong chemical bonds.
The d-orbitals involved in hybridisation, may be either inner (n 1)d orbitals or
outer nd-orbitals. The complexes formed in these two ways are referred to as low spin
and high spin complexes respectively.
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If the complex contains unpaired electrons, it is paramagnetic in nature, while if it


does not contain unpaired electrons it is diamagnetic in nature.
The number of unpaired electrons in the complex points out the geometry of the
complex and vice-versa.
The number of unpaired electrons in a complex is found from magnetic moment
measurements.
67. The complex

Fe Cl

3
6

has Fe atom of hybridization .... with .... number of

unpaired electrons.
2

(A) d sp , 4
68. The
I

decreasing
Cr H O
2

(B) d sp , 3
order
3
6

; II

of

3 2

(D) sp d , 3

paramagnetism

Ni NH

(A) I > II > III (B) I < II < III

3 2

(C) sp d , 5

2
3 6

of

; III

the

Cu NH

(C) II < I < III

following
2
3 4

complexes

are

(D) II > I > III

69. Which one of the following complexes is not coloured ?


(A) Fe CN

(C) Fe CO

3
6

(B) Ni NH

2
3 6

(D) Fe H O
2

2
6

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format:


13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Mathematics, Part B: Physics and Part C: Chemistry).
Each part has 4 sections.
14. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
15. Section II contains 4 multiple choice answer type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which only one or more answers are correct.
16. Section III contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and
STATEMENT-2 (Reason).
Bubble (A)

if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (B)

if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.

Bubble (C)

if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.


17. Section IV contains 3 sets of Linked-Comprehension type questions. Each set consists of a paragraph
followed by three questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
only one is correct.
D. Marking scheme:
18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark for all other cases. It may be noted that there is no
negative marking for wrong answer.
20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.

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