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DM

Speciality Medicine

Question Booklet Version

Roll No.

11

Answer Sheet No.

(Write this number on your

Answer Sheet)

Question Booklet Sr. No.

(Write this number on

your Answer Sheet)

Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

Total marks : 150
This is to certify that the entries of Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and verified.
Candidates Signature

Invigilators Signature
Instructions to Candidates

1.

This question booklet contains 150 objective SINGLE BEST RESPONSE Type Questions (MCQs) ; distributed in two
Sections viz Section A of 100 MCQs and Section B of 50 MCQs. Each MCQ is of one mark. There is no negative
marking.

2.

The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.

3.

Section A contains 100 questions covering all the subjects of I, II and III MBBS course. Section B contains
50 questions in the subject of Broad Speciality in which the candidate has done postgraduation (MD or MS).

4.

Candidate should check that correct question paper as per the speciality is received.

5.

Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.

6.

Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make correct
entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM,
special care should be taken to mark correct entries. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET
VERSION and SERIAL NO. and Roll No. accurately. The correctness of entries has to be cross-checked by the
invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.

7.

Read each question carefully. Read the serial order of four options i.e. A, B, C & D of the MCQs carefully, including
those which are fill in the blank type of MCQs, while marking the answer.

8.

Determine the correct answer from out of the four available options given under each question.

9.

Fill the appropriate circle completely like this

, for answering the particular question only.

10.

Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answer once marked.

11.

Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.

12.

No mark shall be awarded for the particular question if the examinee has marked two or more answers to it or has done
overwriting or scratching etc. in the Answer Sheet.

13.

Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be
done on the Answer Sheet.

14.

Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer Sheet and the Question Booklet is to be
returned to the invigilator after both the candidate and invigilator have signed.

15.

No candidate is allowed to leave the Examination Hall till the examination session is over.
P.T.O.

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

DM

Med.

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SECTION A

1. All of the following structures are lined by simple Columnar Epithelium EXCEPT
A) Stomach

B) Small intestine

C) Gall Bladder

D) Trachea

2. The mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve is made up of

A) Unipolar neurons

B) Pseudounipolar neurons

C) Bipolar neurons

D) Multipolar neurons

3. Which of the following structure is related to auditory pathway ?

A) Lateral geniculate body

B) Trapezoid body

C) Medial lemniscus

D) Spinal lemniscus

4. In the flexed knee, active lateral rotation is produced by which muscle?

A) Biceps femoris

B) Popliteus

C) Semimembranosus

D) Semitendinosus

5. The most important regulator of Aldosterone secretion is

A) Blood volume

B) ACTH

C) Na+ ion conc. in blood

D) K+ ion conc. in blood

6. In presence of ADH (Anti Diuretic Hormone), the greatest fraction of total filtered water
is reabsorbed in
A) proximal convoluted tubule
B) descending limb of loop of Henle
C) distal tubule
D) cortical collecting tubule
7. All of the following increase local tissue blood flow EXCEPT

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A) Nitric oxide

B) Lactic acid

C) Endothelin

D) Adenosine
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8. The sympathetic nervous stimulation to GIT results in

A) Increased motility, relaxation of sphincters
B) Decreased motility, relaxation of sphincters
C) Increased motility, contraction of sphincters
D) Decreased motility, contraction of sphincters
9. The substitution of which amino acid on -chain of adult haemoglobin HbA leads to
Sickle Cell disease ?
A) Lysine

B) Valine

C) Glutamic acid

D) Glutamine

10. The mineral required for activity of enzyme cytochrome oxidase is

A) Zinc

B) Manganese

C) Copper

D) Molybdenum

11. Isoenzymes may differ from each other in following EXCEPT

A) Optimum pH

B) Electrophoretic mobility

C) Catalytic activity

D) Km

12. Ratio of Insulin : Glucagon is increased in

A) Early fasting state

B) Well fed state

C) Overnight fasting state

D) Prolonged starvation

13. Reids index is used in diagnosis of

A) Chronic bronchitis

B) Bronchiectasis

C) Bronchial asthma

D) Pneumonia

14. Following factor causes defect in mucosal defence in pathogenesis of peptic ulcer disease

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A) Psychological stress

B) H. Pyelori infection

C) Cigarette smoking

D) Hyperparathyroidism
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15. Dirck granulomas are seen in

A) Tuberculosis

B) Malaria

C) Syphilis

D) Leprosy

16. The thyroid neoplasm diagnosed on the basis of nuclear features only is
A) Papillary carcinoma

B) Follicular carcinoma

C) Anaplastic carcinoma

D) Medullary carcinoma

17. Menopause occurs before menarche in

A) Klinefelters syndrome

B) Downs syndrome

C) Turners syndrome

D) Edwards syndrome

18. The only cultivable hepatitis virus is

A) HAV

B) HBV

C) HCV

D) HEV

19. Which of the following is a rapid and inexpensive method for diagnosis in a women
presenting with painful genital blisters ?
A) KOH mount

B) Hanging drop preparation

C) Tzanck smear

D) Dark ground microscopy

20. Acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by

A) Enterovirus 72

B) Enterovirus 70

C) Norwalk virus

D) Rhinovirus

21. Betahistine is used in the treatment of

A) Allergy testing

B) Diagnosis of leprosy

C) Menieres disease

D) Acid peptic disease

22. Therapeutic index of a drug is indicator of its

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A) Efficacy

B) Safety

C) Potency

D) All of the above

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23. Drug of choice for induction of labour is

A) Ergotamine orally

B) Slow I.V. infusion of oxytocin

C) I.M. injection of oxytocin

D) I.V. injection of ergotamine

24. Morphine is contraindicated in

A) Head injury

B) COPD

C) Acute abdomen

D) All of the above

25. Which of the following nutritional status indicators is used in monitoring the growth of
children in ICDS programme ?
A) Weight for age

B) Weight for height

C) Height for age

D) BMI for age

26. Evaluation of health services comes under one of the following epidemiological
techniques
A) Non randomized experiments
B) Randomized controlled trials
C) Before and after studies without comparison
D) Natural experiments
27. An attribute or exposure, that is significantly associated with development of disease is
known as
A) Predisposing factor

B) Augmenting factor

C) Risk factor

D) Aetiological factor

28. As per IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness), the minimum
recommended number of beds for an SNCU (Special Newborn Care Unit) at a district
hospital is
A) 3

B) 6

C) 12

D) 15

29. Which of the following is the most reliable criteria for determination of age from
Gustafsons method ?

DM

A) Attrition

B) Periodontosis

C) Root resorption

D) Root transparency
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30. While taking dying declaration, the patient must have

A) compos mentis

B) corpus delicti

C) mens rea

D) novus actus

31. All of the following are adverse prognostic factors in acute pancreatitis EXCEPT
A) PaO2 < 60 mm of Hg
C) Urea > 16 mmols/L

B) Glucose < 10 mmols/L

D) LDH > 600 U/L

32. The Neoplastic lesions which are most common AIDS defining condition in HIV patient
are following EXCEPT
A) Kaposis Sarcoma
B) NHL
C) Invasive Cervical Carcinoma
D) Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Lungs
33. Hormone that remains stable with aging is
A) Insulin

B) Insulin growth factor

C) Glucagon like peptide 1

D) Vasoactive intestinal peptides

34. The cardiac murmur which increases in length and duration with valsalva manoeuver is
due to
A) Mitral Regurgitation

B) Ventricular septal defect

C) HOCM

D) Atrial septal defect

35. Lesions of the posterior column causes

A) Anaesthesia

B) Rigidity

C) Ataxia

D) Paralysis

36. All are causes of increased anion gap EXCEPT

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A) Diabetic ketoacidodis

B) Starvation ketosis

C) Glue sniffing

D) Ethylene glycol poisoning

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37. Drug used to perform stress ECHO is

A) Thalium

B) Dobutamine

C) Adenosine

D) Adrenaline

38. Wing beating tremor is seen in

A) Huntingtons disease

B) Wilson disease

C) Parkinsonism

D) Thyrotoxicosis

39. Amotivation syndrome seen with

A) Cannabis

B) LSD

C) Cocaine

D) Amphetamine

40. Pellagra like dermatitis occurs in

A) Dermatomyositis

B) Carcinoid syndrome

C) SLE

D) Lymphoma

41. Thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy should be treated with

A) Neomercazole

B) Carbimazole

C) Propylthiouracil

D) Radioactive iodine

42. Paraneoplastic syndrome presenting as a symmetrical ascending polyneuropathy is

seen in
A) Small cell carcinoma of lung

B) Ovarian tumor

C) Carcinoma of breast

D) Hodgkins lymphoma

43. Repetition of words leading to paraphasic errors with frequent attempts at self correction
is present in
A) Brocas Aphasia

B) Wernickes Aphasia

C) Conduction Aphasia

D) Global Aphasia

44. The most common extraintestinal manifestation of Celiac Disease is

A) Megaloblastic anemia
B) Iron deficiency anemia unresponsive to iron therapy
C) Osteoporosis
D) Dermatitis
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45. Sweety feet, acrid urine odour is seen in

A) Multiple carboxylase deficiency
B) Phenylketonuria
C) Glutaric acidemia
D) Isovaleric acidemia
46. Which phase of adolescence is marked by emotional autonomy ?
A) Early phase

B) Mid phase

C) Late phase

D) Preadolescent phase

47. Outbreaks of dermatitis and UTI are reported in healthy individuals after use of pools
and hot tubs, due to
A) Psuedomonas aeruginosa

B) Group A streptococci

C) Staphylococcus epidermidis

D) Staphylococcus aureus

48. Known risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome are all EXCEPT
A) Maternal smoking

B) Long Q-T syndrome

C) Sleeping supine

D) Male gender

49. Earliest neurological signs in Megablastic anemia is

A) Memory loss

B) Confusion

C) Neuropsychiatric symptoms

D) Loss of position sense

50. Treatment given to a child diagnosed to have Hartnups disease

A) High dose of B6

B) High dose of B1

C) Nicotinamide

D) Carnitine

51. Bilateral Acoustic Neuromas is a characteristic feature of

DM

A) Neurofibromatosis type I

B) Neurofibromatosis type II

C) Tuberous sclerosis

D) Xeroderma pigmentosum
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52. Gluten sensitive enteropathy occurs in

A) Pemphigus Vulgaris

B) Dermatitis Herpetiformis

C) Bullous Pemphigoid

D) Paraneoplastic Pemphigus

53. Groove sign of Greenblatt is seen in

A) Lymphogranuloma venereum
B) Donovanosis
C) Chancroid
D) Condyloma acuminata
54. Pautriers microabscess is seen in
A) Mycosis fungoides

B) Psoriasis vulgaris

C) Pemphigus vulgaris

D) Pemphigus vegetan

55. Alcohol withdrawal associated with agitated confusion, tactile and visual hallucinations,
is called
A) Delirium tremens

B) Wernickes encephalopathy

C) Rum fits

D) Alcohol induced psychotic disorder

56. The three types of auditory hallucinations commonly associated with Schizophrenia are
following EXCEPT
A) Audible thoughts
B) Third person hallucinations
C) Running commentary hallucinations
D) Haptic hallucinations
57. A 20 year old man, has a mental age of a 12 year old boy. What is his level of mental
retardation (MR) ?

DM

A) Profound MR

B) Mild MR

C) Severe MR

D) Moderate MR
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58. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for Electroconvulsive therapy ?

A) Pregnancy

B) Peripheral neuropathy

C) Raised ICT

D) Myasthenia gravis

59. Which one of the following are constituents of Lowenstein Jensens media EXCEPT ?
A) Agarose

B) Malachite green

C) Mineral salt

D) Asparagine

60. The following about pneumocytes is true

A) There are 4 types of pneumocytes
B) Type II pneumocytes can proliferate and generate both new type II and type I
C) Type I pneumocytes can proliferate and generate new type II and type I
D) Type I pneumocyte produces surfactants
61. A 22 yrs. college boy notice a bulge in his right groin. It is accentuated with cough but is
easily reducible. Which of the following hernias follows the path of the spermatic cord
and within the cremastic muscle ?
A) Femoral hernia

B) Indirect inguinal hernia

C) Direct inguinal hernia

D) Spigellian hernia

62. True about breast carcinoma in men

A) Estrogen receptor positive with gynacomastia
B) Progesteron receptor positive with gynacomastia
C) Radiotherapy contraindicated due to close proximity to chest wall
D) Seen in young males
63. Commonest site for colonic diverticula is

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A) Ascending colon

B) Sigmoid colon

C) Transverse colon

D) Descending colon
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64. Which of the following sign is NOT elicited in appendicitis ?

A) Pointing sign

B) Mobius sign

C) Rovsing sign

D) Psoas sign

65. Moderately increased risk of invasive breast carcinoma is associated with which of the
following lesions ?
A) Adenosis

B) Fibroadenoma

C) Atypical hyperplasia

D) Apocrine metaplasia

66. Haematemesis due to repetitive and strenuous vomiting is called as

A) Mallory Weiss syndrome

B) Dieulafoys disease

C) Boerhaave syndrome

D) Carcinoma oesophagus

67. Grawitz tumour is

A) Hypernephroma

B) Hepatoblastoma

C) Gastrinoma

D) Nephroblastoma

68. All of the following are known complication of ulcerative colitis EXCEPT
A) Stricture

B) Perforation

C) Toxic megacolon

D) Carcinoma

69. All are risk factors for carcinoma breast EXCEPT

A) Ovarian malignancy

B) Family history of carcinoma breast

C) Fibroadenosis

D) Multiparity

70. All is part of WHO surgical safety checklist EXCEPT

A) Anaesthesia check up

B) Prelist briefing

C) Sign in

D) Time out

71. 22 yrs. old male having painful fluctuant mass in the midline between the gluteal folds,
per rectal examination normal. What will be diagnosis ?

DM

A) Infected pilonidal sinus

B) Perineal abscess

C) Gluteal abscess

D) Perirectal abscess
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72. Late dumping in peptic ulcer surgery is due to

A) Hyponatremia

B) Sympathetic over activity

C) Hypoglycemia

D) Hyperglycemia

73. Chronic granulomatous lesion amoeboma is most commonly seen in

A) Caecam

B) Transerverse colon

C) Sigmoid

D) Rectum

74. Operative treatment for displaced # Galeazzi in a adult at metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction is

A) Nailing

B) Plating

C) Close reduction, casting

D) Open reduction, casting

75. Compression neuropathy of median nerve below transverse carpal ligament is

A) Anterior interosseus syndrome
B) Pronator syndrome
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Dequervans disease
76. Commonest type of TB spine is
A) Central

B) Paradiscal

C) Anterior

D) Posterior

77. Extra-articular fracture of base of first metacarpal is

A) Bennetts fracture

B) Bartons fracture

C) Rolandos fracture

D) Smiths fracture

78. Gallows traction for fracture shaft femur is used in children

A) below 2 yrs.

B) below 5 yrs.

C) below 7 yrs.

D) below 10 yrs.

79. In Otosclerosis, the tympanogram is

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A) Flat

B) Non compliance

C) High compliance

D) Low compliance
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80. Acute non-suppurative otitis media in adult is due to

A) Allergic Rhinitis

B) U.R.T.I.

C) Trauma

D) Malignancy of nasopharynx

81. Bony partition dividing the posterior ethmoids from the sphenoid is in
A) coronal plane

B) axial plane

C) oblique plane

D) both B and C

82. All are true regarding phlegmon EXCEPT

A) Formed due to coalescence of lymph nodes
B) Seen in children
C) Managed conservatively
D) Requires incision and drainage
83. In radiotherapy, electrons are mostly used to treat
A) Superficial tumors

B) Deep seated tumors

C) Radio sensitive tumors

D) Radioresistant tumors

84. In CT head, biconvex appearance is seen in

A) Subdural haemorrhage

B) Extradural haemorrhage

C) Subarachnoid haemorrhage

D) Intracerebral haemorrhage

85. Pencil in cup deformity is seen in

A) Gout

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Psoriatic arthritis

D) Reiters arthritis

86. The classical featureless ground glass pattern of skull is seen in

A) Hemangioma

B) Fibrous dysplasia

C) Osteomas

D) Epidermoid

87. Bankart lesion is seen in

DM

A) Posterior shoulder dislocation

B) Anterior shoulder dislocation

C) Inferior shoulder dislocation

D) Pseudodislocation
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88. In patients with possible cervical injury, the following should NOT be done
A) chin lift
B) hyperextension of neck
C) manual-in-line stabilisation
D) jaw thrust
89. The following are supraglottic airway devices EXCEPT
A) Laryngeal mask airway
B) Combitube
C) Double lumen tube
D) Proseal laryngeal mask airway
90. Methaemoglobinaemia is a unique systemic side effect seen with large doses of
A) Lignocaine

B) Ropivacaine

C) Prilocaine

D) Tetracaine

91. Inhalational induction agent of choice in paediatric patient is

A) Halothane

B) Isoflurane

C) Sevoflurane

D) Desflurane

92. Solubility of O2 in blood (mlO2/100 ml blood/mm Hg) is

A) 0.003

B) 0.03

C) 0.3

D) 3

93. All are intravenous induction agents EXCEPT

A) Thiopental sodium

B) Ketamine

C) Midazolam

D) Rocuronium

94. A chronic inflammatory granuloma of a Meibomian gland is called as a

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A) External hordeolum

B) Internal hordeolum

C) Chalazion

D) Squamous bleapharitis
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95. The cataract developing after a concussion injury to the eye is called as a
A) Snow storm cataract

B) Rosette shaped cataract

C) Blue dot cataract

D) Coronary cataract

96. Pap smear is useful in diagnosis of all EXCEPT

A) Trichomoniasis

B) Gonorrhea

C) Human papilloma virus

D) Inflammatory changes

97. All the following are tests for screening of cancer cervix EXCEPT
A) Cytology

B) Colposcopy

C) Speculoscopy

D) Cryosurgery

98. Active management of III stage of labour includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) Uterotonic within one minute of delivery
B) Massage of the uterus
C) Controlled cord traction
D) Immediate clamping and cutting of the cord
99. All the following side effects are associated with clomiphene citrate EXCEPT
A) Visual disturbances

B) Postural hypotension

C) Hot flushes

D) Alopecia

100. Preconceptional use of following agent leads to reduced incidence of neural tube defects
A) Calcium

B) Iron

C) Folic acid

D) Vitamin A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION B
MEDICINE
101. Most common renal manifestations of leprosy is
A) Minimal change glomerulonephritis
B) Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
C) Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis
D) Crescentric glomerulonephritis
102. All of the following are true of pyrazinamide EXCEPT
A) It crosses blood brain barrier
B) It is a must in short course chemotherapy
C) It is contra indicated in pregnancy
D) It kills slowly replicating intracellular organisms
103. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is found in
A) Gilberts syndrome
B) Crigler Najjar syndrome Type I
C) Crigler Najjar syndrome Type II
D) Dubin Johnson syndrome
104. CA 125 is elevated in
A) Ovarian non seminomatous germ cell tumor
B) Ovarian epithelial tumors
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
105. Class II antiarrhythmic drugs will
A) Prolong the plateau phase of action potential
B) Block slow calcium channels
C) Reduce SA node depolarisation
D) Prolong cardiac action potential duration
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106. Non-Caseating granulomas in all the layers of the intestine are characteristic of
A) Whipples disease
B) Crohns disease
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infection
107. TADALAFIL, used for the treatment of Erectile Dysfunction acts by
A) Inhibiting serotonin uptake

B) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase 5

C) Inhibiting monoamine oxidase D) Inhibiting 5 reductase

108. In Leprosy gray pigmentation of skin lesions is caused by
A) Clofazimine

B) Pefloxacin

C) Minocycline

D) Clarithromycin

109. Nosocomial FUO is fever in a hospitalised patient, of

A) > 38.9C with at least 7 days of investigations
B) > 38.3C with at least 3 days of investigations
C) > 38.8C with at least 1 day of investigations
D) > 39.2C with at least 5 days of investigations
110. The tension in the ventricular myocardium during systole is termed as
A) preload

B) after load

C) cardiac index

D) stroke work

111. Vit. E deficiency can cause

A) Visual scotomas

B) Xerophthalmia

C) Hyperostosis

D) Raised intracranial tension

112. Primary Platelet Plug disorder due to defects of platelet Adhesion is seen in
A) Glanzmanns thrombasthenia

B) Scotts syndrome

C) von Willebrands disease

D) Uremia

113. Study of alteration in chromatin and histone proteins and methylation of DNA sequences
is known as

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A) Metagenomics

B) Epigenomics

C) Metabolomics

D) Proteomics
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114. Bovine cough is present in

A) Vocal cord palsy

B) Laryngitis

C) Laryngeal edema

D) Tracheal tumor

115. The organism most often implicated as a cause of reactive arthritis is

A) Shigella sonnei

B) Salmonella paratyphi

C) Shigella flexneri

D) Chlamydia trachomatis

116. In Pyruvate kinase deficiency, the blood film characteristically shows

A) Hypersegmented polymorphs

B) Howel-Jolly bodies

C) Prickle cells

D) Basophilic stippling

117. In Nelsons disease, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT
A) Occurs after bilateral Adrenalectomy
B) Presence of pituitary microadenoma
C) Very high levels of ACTH
D) Very high levels of cortisol
118. Treatment of choice of thoracic actinomycosis is
A) Amphotericin B

B) Intraconazole

C) Co-trimoxazole

D) Penicillin

119. All are features of tabes-dorsalis EXCEPT

A) Urinary incontinence

B) Ataxia

C) Hyperreflexia

D) Argyll Robertson pupil

120. Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with

A) diabetic nephropathy

B) membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

C) minimal change disease

D) membranous glomerulopathy

121. All of the following are features of MEN IIa EXCEPT

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A) Parathyroid Adenoma

B) Pheochromocytoma

C) Foregut carcinoid

D) RET mutant gene locus

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122. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormality differentiates Hypocellular MDS from
aplastic anaemia ?
A) monosomy 7

B) deletion 7q

C) deletion 5q

D) deletion 17p

123. All the following are associated with secondary haemochromatosis EXCEPT
A) Sideroblastic anaemia
B) Thalassemia major
C) Hereditory spherocytosis
D) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria (PNH)
124. Causes of chloride responsive alkalosis are following EXCEPT
A) Recurrent vomiting

B) Milk alkali syndrome

C) Overdose of diuretics

D) Barters syndrome

125. Which of the following crystals may give rise to Pseudo-neuropathic arthropathy
resembling Charcots joint ?
A) Hydroxyapatite
B) Calcium oxalate
C) Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
D) Monosodium urate hydroxyapatite
126. Following hormonal levels are increased in small cell carcinoma of lung EXCEPT
A) ACTH

B) Arginine vasopressin

C) Growth hormone

D) Atrial natriuretic factor

127. Eosinophilic pulmonary infiltrates are seen in all conditions EXCEPT

A) Churg-Straus syndrome
B) Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
C) Hydralazine induced pneumonia
D) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
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128. Contra-indications to exercise testing include all of the following EXCEPT

A) Mild aortic stenosis c angina
B) Severe pulmonary hypertension with angina
C) Severe uncontrolled heart failure with angina
D) Rest angina within 48 hrs.
129. Decrease pulmonary capillary wedge pressure + decrease systemic venous resistance +
increase cardiac index is a feature of
A) Pulmonary edema

B) Acute mitral regurgitation

C) Septic shock

D) Ventricular septal rupture

130. Single gene autosomal recessive disease is

A) Wilsons disease

B) Tuberous sclerosis

C) Huntingtons disease

D) Schizophrenia

131. Which of the following drug is used for irritable bowel syndrome of the constipating
type ?
A) Lubiprostone

B) Cholestyramine

C) Loperamide

D) Rifaximin

132. MELD (Model for End-stage Liver Disease) score includes all EXCEPT
A) Sr.creatinine

B) Transaminase

C) Albumin

D) Alkaline phosphatase

133. Arsenic is used in treatment of

A) Acute promyelocytic leukaemia B) ALL
C) CML

D) Transient myeloproliferative disorder

134. Which doesnt cause haemolysis in G6PD deficiency ?

A) Oestrogen

B) Salicylates

C) Primaquine

D) Nitrofurantoin

135. Magnesium level in blood increases in

DM

A) Uncontrolled D.M.

B) Liver cirrlosis

C) Kidney failure

D) Chronic alcoholism
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136. Vasculitis not commonly seen in adults is

A) Kawasaki disease

B) Henoch Schonleins purpura

C) Temporal arteritis

D) PAN

137. Low renin is seen in all EXCEPT

A) Essential hypertension

B) Conns syndrome

C) Renovascular hypertension

D) Liddle syndrome

138. Most common site of aortic dissection

A) Ascending aorta

B) Arch of aorta

C) Descending aorta

D) Abdominal aorta

139. The most common type of lesion seen on kidney biopsy in patients of HIV associated
nephropathy is
A) Membranous glomerulonephritis
B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C) MPGN
D) Minimal change disease
140. An elevated serum anti-GMCSF titer is highly sensitive and specific for diagnosis of
A) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
B) Pulmonary lymphangioliomatosis
C) Pulmonary Langerhans Histiocytosis
D) Cryptogenic organising pnemonia
141. The recommended goal for treatment of raised Intracranial Pressure (ICP) is to maintain
A) ICP < 30 mm / Hg and CPP > 40 mm / Hg
B) ICP < 40 mm / Hg and CPP > 80 mm / Hg
C) ICP < 10 mm / Hg and CPP > 50 mm / Hg
D) ICP < 20 mm / Hg and CPP > 60 mm / Hg
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142. High densities of cannobinoid receptor are found in all of following EXCEPT
A) Cerebral cortex

B) Basal ganglia

C) Cerebellum

D) Hippocampus

143. Which of the following vitamins has been shown to lower the risk of developing gout ?
A) Vit. A

B) Vit. C

C) Niacin

D) Vit. D

144. Kussmauls sign is absent in which of the following condition ?

A) Cardiac Tamponade

B) Constrictive pericarditis

C) Restrictive cardiomyopathy

D) Right ventricular infarction

145. In coronary artery disease the fractional flow reserve value that indicates benefit from
revascularisation therapy is
A) < 0.5

B) < 1

C) < 0.75

D) < 1.5

146. A patient presents with uveitis and renal disease then all of following are possible EXCEPT
A) Sarcoidosis

B) Sjogrens syndrome

C) Polyarteritis nodosa

D) Behcets disease

147. The most useful autoimmune marker for diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis is
A) Anti-SM antibody

B) Antimitochondrial antibody

C) ANA

D) P-ANCA

148. Which of the following is not a feature of Gerstman syndrome ?

A) Acalculia

B) Dysgraphia

C) Finger anomia

D) Dressing apraxia

149. Which of the following is not the cause of pure red cell aplasia ?
A) Thymoma

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Erythropoietin

D) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria

150. The treatment shown to be effective in early course of Kawasakis disease is

A) Cyclosporine

B) Dapsone

C) IV Y-globulins

D) Methotrexate
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