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System Analysis and

Design

1- Globalization and the increasing internet users around the world, give IT budgets
a) high priority
b) less important
c) more component
d) more productivity
2- Systems Analysis and Design is the process people use to create
a) server
b) information systems
c) system component
d) software systems
3- System analyst analyzing business, depending on.
a) organization function and requirements
b) identifying opportunities for improvement
c) solving problems
d) all of the above

4- .____________ is a choose to implement information systems.


a) CASE
b) Modeling
c) Internet based application
d) All of the above
5.The development of database management systems helped shift the focus of systems
development from
a) processes first to data first
b) Data first to process first
c) Software first to hardware first
d) Hardware first to software first

6.The operating systems for computers moved away from line prompt interface to windows and
icon based interfaces in
a)
b)
c)
d)

1960s
1970s
1980s
1990s

7. now-a days The focus on developing systems for the


a)
b)
c)
d)

Internet and for firms intranets and extranets


Network database
Mini computers
Large organizations

8.dividing a system into components based on subsystems is


a)
b)
c)
d)

Non-Functional decomposition
Functional decomposition
Rules decomposition
Constraints decomposition

9. Is the physical layer of the information system?


a)
b)
c)
d)

hardware
software
people
data

10. To do business process modeling the analyst needs business profile and.
a) business constraints
b) business rules
c) business models
d) business drivers
11. Business models support communication between
a) analyst and system users
b) analyst and programmers
c) analyst and competitors
d) users and managers

12. Which business driver require support of multiple languages, currency exchange rates,
business cultures
a) Globalization of the Economy
b) Security and Privacy
c) Collaboration and Partnership

d) Knowledge Asset Management


13. Which business driver require Need to incorporate stringent security and privacy controls
a) Globalization of the Economy
b) Security and Privacy
c) Collaboration and Partnership
d) Knowledge Asset Management
14. _____________ a commercial exchange between businesses conducted over the internet.
a) C2C
b) B2B
c) C2B
d) B2C
15. Customer order processing is an example of.
a)Enterprise computing systems
b)Transaction processing systems
c)Business support systems
d)Knowledge management systems
16. Word processing is an example of.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Enterprise computing systems


Transaction processing systems
Business support systems
User productivity systems

17. A(n) ____________ focus on the overall business enterprise and use IT to set the
companys course and directions
a) Operational
b) Top manager
c) Supervisor
d) Middle Manager

18. An information system that captures the expertise of workers and then simulates that
expertise to the benefit of none experts is.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Enterprise computing systems


Transaction processing systems
Business support systems
Knowledge management systems

19. A(n) ____________ Provide direction, necessary resources, and performance feedback to
supervisors
a) Operational
b) Top manager
c) Supervisor
d) Middle Manager
20. Initial design decisions may be poor is one of the cons of
a) Structured Analysis
b) Prototyping
c) Joint Application Development
d) Process model
21. A(n) ____________ Framework for systems development and support a wide variety of
design methodologies
a)CASE
b)Modeling
c)Strategic planning
d)TP
22. A(n) __________ approach uses the organizations management level as the base for the
information system.
a) bottom up approach
b) top down approach
c) prototyping approach
d) Rapid Application Development

23. A(n) ____________ describes the design and protocols of telecommunications links.
a)

object model

b)
c)
d)

process model
network model
prototype model

24. Systems ________ includes preliminary investigation


a) System Planning
b) System Analysis
c) System Design
d) Systems Implementation

25. The first step in _______ is requirements modeling


a)

System Planning

b)
c)
d)

System Analysis
System Design
Systems Implementation

26. The Technical specifications of the new system determined in


a)

System Planning

b)
c)
d)

Logical design
Physical design
Systems Implementation

27. During system _________ phase users, managers, IT staff trained to operate and support the
system.
a)

System Planning

b)
c)
d)

System Analysis
System Design
Systems Implementation

28. An information system called a(n) ____________ is one that was developed by the company
that will use it.
a) in-house application
b) on-house application
c) CASE tools
d) software packages
29. A(n) ____________ is a set of components that produce specific results.
a) server
b) system
c) component
d) IT
30. The primary purpose of an information system is to ____________.
a) have fast computers
b) have the newest software
c) provide valuable information to users
d) all of the above
31. A company that manufactures and sells products is called a(n) ____________ company.
a) I-commerce
b) B2C

c) service-oriented
d) product-oriented

32. Knowledge management systems are called ___________ because they simulate human
reasoning by combining a knowledge base and inference rules that determine how the knowledge
is applied.
a) expert systems
b) enterprise systems
c) productivity systems
d) reasoning systems

32. Knowledge management systems are called ___________ because they simulate human
reasoning by combining a knowledge base and inference rules that determine how the knowledge
is applied.
e) expert systems
f) enterprise systems
g) productivity systems
h) reasoning systems
33. A(n) ____________ is usually manage a group of operational users and are responsible for
their performance
a) Operational
b) Top manager
c) Supervisor
d) Middle Manager

34. an information system that captures and processes data about business transactions
a) Transaction processing systems
b) Enterprise computing systems
c) Business support systems
d) Expert Systems
35. Global Economy require
a) Consolidation of international data
b) Support of multiple languages
c) Currency exchange rates
d) All of the above
36. _____________ a commercial exchange between businesses and consumers conducted
over the internet.

a) C2C
b) B2B
c) C2B
d) B2C
37. ____________ is a technique that uses powerful software, to help systems analysts develop
and maintain information systems.
a) CASE
b) Modeling
c) Strategic planning
d) TP
38. A(n) ____________ describes the design and protocols of telecommunications links.
a) object model
b) process model
c) network model
d) prototype model
39. A(n) ____________ Describes the logic that programmers use to write code modules .
a) object model
b) process model
c) network model
d) prototype model

40. A(n) ____________ Describes the information that a system must provide.
a) Business model or Requirements model
b) process model
c) network model
d) prototype model

41. Which of the following focus on defining the activities associated with the system
a) Data-centered Methodologies
b) Process-centered Methodologies
c) Object-oriented Methodologies
d) Joint Application Development
42. Create a blueprint that will satisfy all documented requirements Would most likely be done
during:
a) System Planning

b) System Analysis
c) System Design
d) Systems Implementation

43 .During the analysis phase, the project team:


a) Investigates any current systems, identifies improvement opportunities, and
develops a concept for the new system.
b) Begins the process & describes problems.
c) Identify the nature and scope of the business opportunity or problem.
d) Identify all outputs, inputs, and processes

44. During implementation, the project team:


a) studies the organization's current procedures and the information systems
used to perform organizational tasks
b) Begins the process & describes problems.
c) Identify the nature and scope of the business opportunity or problem.
d) codes, tests, and installs the new system

45. Speeds up the development process significantly is one of the pros of


a) Computer-Aided Systems Engineering
b) Prototyping
c) Object model
d) Process model
46. Structured Analysis and Design is an example of
a) A Process-Centered methodologies
b) A Data-centered Methodologies
c) A Combination of Data and Process methodologies
d) An Object-oriented Methodologies
47.______________ created to radically decrease the time needed to design and implement
information systems.
a) JAD
b) RAD
c) Structured Analysis
d) Object-oriented (O-O) analysis

48. Which of the following is a main reason for a system request?


a) Improved service
b) Bad training
c) Low salary
d) Technology
49- Managers alert to detect potential problems by.
a) Observe behavior of employees
b) Listen to feedback from vendors
c) Listen to feedback from customers
d) all of the above

50- The starting point for a project is called a(n) ____________.


a) Systems request
b) Feasibility study
c) Key performance indicator
d) Project definition
51. A systems review committee.
a) Tests for operational, technical, and economic feasibility.
b) Produces the companys strategic plan by using SWOT analysis.
c) Is a group of key managers and users who evaluate systems requests
d) Is a group of users and costumers who evaluate systems requests
52. Which of the following is not an internal factor that will affect a project?
a) Strategic plan
b) Top managers
c) User requests
d) Competitors
53. Which of the following is considered when analyst analyze risk
a) Probability
b) scalability

c) durability
d) Reliability
54. _______________ feasibility determines if the human resources are available to operate the
system once it has been installed
a) Operational
b) Technical
c) Economic
d) Schedule
55. Which of the following is a Point to be considered when assessing technical feasibility?
a) Management support
b) Users training
c) Performance decline in some system parts
d) Does the proposed platform have sufficient capacity?
56. Which of the following is an Operational feasibility vital issue?
a) Suppliers support
b) Users training
c) System hardware and software
d) Cost reduction and avoidance
57. Application software maintenance, incremental data storage expense, and incremental
communications are examples of:
a) intangible costs
b) recurring costs
c) tangible benefits
d) one-time costs
58. System Development, new hardware and software purchases, and user training are
examples of.
a) intangible costs
b) recurring costs
c) tangible benefits
d) one-time costs

59. ___________________ associated with project startup, initiation and development


a) intangible costs
b) recurring costs
c) tangible benefits
d) one-time costs
60. Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased speed of activity are examples
of:
a) intangible costs
b) tangible costs
c) tangible benefits
d) intangible benefits
61. Project management begins with a systems __________, and continues until the project is
completed or terminated
a) request
b) cost
c) analysis
d) design

62. A requirement or condition that a new system must satisfy or an outcome that it must achieve
is referred to as a _____.
a) goal
b) constraint
c) process
d) scope
63. In structured analysis and design ______________ maps the functional requirements to the
hardware and software
a)

Environmental Model

b)

Behavioral Model

c)

Implementation Model

d)

Initial model

64. The focus on defining the activities associated with the system is a __________
methodology.
a) data centered
b) life cycle
c) object-oriented
d) process centered
65. A formal step-by-step approach to the systems development life cycle that move logically
from on phase to the next is called _____.
a) ad hoc design
b) RAD design
c) agile development
d) structured design
66. The advantage of this development methodology is that, Results in solid, well-constructed
systems
a) Waterfall Development
b) Parallel Development
c) Rapid Application Development
d) agile development

67. The advantage of this development methodology is that dramatic time savings the systems
development effort
a) Waterfall Development
b) Parallel Development
c) Rapid Application Development
d) agile development
68. In structured analysis and design Data Flow Diagram is a (n) ____________.
a) Environmental Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Implementation Model
d) Initial model
69. The disadvantage of this development methodology is that, the design must be completely
specified before programming begins.
a) Waterfall Development
b) Structured methodology
c) Rapid Application Development
d) agile development
70. The disadvantage of this development methodology is that identifying the most important
subset of requirements at any stage is a tedious task.
a) Waterfall Development
b) Structured methodology
c) Prototyping methodology
d) object oriented analysis and design
71. ____________ methodology performs the analysis, design and implementation phases
concurrently.
a) Waterfall Development
b) Structured methodology
c) Prototyping methodology
d) object oriented analysis and design

72. Whose JAD participant provide enterprise level authorization and support for the project
a) user
b) analyst
c) top management
d) manager
73. _______ skills enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify
opportunities and problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
a) Analytical
b) Technical
c) Management
d) Interpersonal
74. _______ skills help you understand the potential and limitations of information technology.
a) Analytical
b) Technical
c) Management
d) Interpersonal
75. Working alone and with a team is part of ___________ skills.
a) Analytical
b) Technical
c) Management
d) Interpersonal
76. Ability to anticipate what might go wrong in a project and minimize risk and/or minimize
damage that might result, is a __________
a) resource management
b) project management
c) risk management
d) change management

77. In fact finding Performance describes


a) hardware, software, and procedural controls that protect the system and
data from internal or external threats
reliability

b) the system characteristics, speed, volume, capacity, availability, and


c) data that enters the system
d) the logical rules that are applied to transform the data into information

78. Analysts using models to.


a) Concentrate on important features of the system, pay less attention to less
important ones
b) Able to respond to changes or changes in users requirements with low
cost and risk
c) Properly understand users environment
d) All of the above
79. The automated software tool used by systems analysts to develop information systems are
called
a) CASE tools
b) CSAE tools
c) CESA tools
d) CSEA tools
80. Which of the following types is not a CASE tools type?
a) Diagramming tools
b) Documentation generators
c) Code generators
d) Cost benefit analysis tools
81. Which of the following objectives is not a CASE tools objective?
a) Observe behavior of employees
b) Listen to feedback from customers
c) Listen to feedback from suppliers
d) All of the above

82. The following question is an example of which system requirements The system must
support 25 users online simultaneously
a) Processes
b) Performance
c) Controls
d) Inputs
83. The following question is an example of which system requirements The system must
provide log-on security at the operating system level and at the application level
a) Processes
b) Performance
c) Controls
d) Inputs
84.

_______ skills help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
a) Analytical
b) Technical
c) Management
d) Interpersonal

85. _______ skills help you work with end users as well as with other analysts and programmers.
a) Analytical
b) Technical
c) Management
d) Interpersonal
86. Which of the steps in interview preparation should be performed first?
a) Determine the People to Interview
b) Establish Objectives for the Interview
c) Develop Interview Questions
d) Prepare for the Interview

87. The following question is an example of an/a _________ interview question:


What added features would you like to have in the new system?
a) closed-ended
b) open-ended
c) random
d) operational
88. Which of these is an advantage or benefit of Open-Ended questions?
a) Providing richness of detail.
b) Saving interview time
c) Easily comparing interviews
d) Getting to the point
89. Which of these is a disadvantage of Close-Ended questions?
a) Boring for the interviewee
b) May result in too much irrelevant detail
c) Possibly losing control of the interview
d) May take too much time for the amount of useful information gained
90. In written work procedures, you can find out about:
a) how a job is performed
b) opportunities to meet new needs
systems

c) titles and names of key individuals who have an interest in relevant existing
d) all of the above

91. Questionnaires are valuable if.


a) the number of system user are limited
b) Organization members are widely dispersed
c) the proposed system is complex
d) all of the above

92. The Simplest method of probability sampling is


a) Stratified sample
b) Systematic sample
c) Random sample
d) arranged sample
93. When comparing observation to document review
a) observation is rated low in terms of information richness
b) observation is rated as moderate in terms of time requirements
c) the observe may or may not be involved and committed
d) the observation may potentially involve large
94. Which of the following is not a traditional method of collecting system requirements?
a) interviewing
b) RAD
c) observations
d) document analysis
95. When comparing questionnaires to interviews, questionnaires:
a) are rated high in terms of information richness
b) are rated high in terms of expense
c) are limited in terms of chances for follow up
d) have an active and involved subject
96. In documents, you can find out about:
a) problems with existing systems
b) opportunities to meet new needs
systems

c) titles and names of key individuals who have an interest in relevant existing
d) all of the above

97. The biggest difference between collecting data by questionnaire or by interview is:
a) Interviews are interactive and meanings can be clarified; questionnaires
are not so interactive.
b) Questions on questionnaires cannot be open-ended; interviews can include
open-ended questions.
c) Questionnaires can only be distributed to a small number of people;
interviews can involve a wider number of respondents.
d) Questionnaires are easier and faster to design, administer, and analyze
than are interviews.
98. What is an effective guideline in ordering questions on the questionnaire?
a) Place them in random order.
b) Place those least important to respondents first.
c) Place the open-ended questions first.
d) Place those most important to respondents first
99. In sampling, which of these is not a type of sample?
a) Systematic sample
b) Stratified sample
c) Random sample
d) Biological sample
100. Which of these is an advantage or benefit of Close-Ended questions?
a) Providing richness of detail.
b) Saving interview time
c) appropriate when you want to understand a larger process or draw out the
interviewee's opinions, attitudes, or suggestions
d) Revealing avenues of further questioning that may have gone untapped
101. Which of these is a disadvantage of Open-Ended questions?
a) Boring for the interviewee
b) Failure to obtain rich detail
c) Missing main ideas
d) May result in too much irrelevant detail

102. DFDs use _____ basic symbols


a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
103. A (n) ________ is a path for data to move from one part of the information system to anther
a) process
b) data flow
c) data store
d) external entity
104. A (n)________ symbol is a rectangle, which may be shaded to make it look threedimensional
a) process
b) data flow
c) data store
d) external entity
105. A (n) ________ name identifies a specific function and consists of verb, and an adjective, if
necessary
a) process
b) data flow
c) data store
d) external entity
106. The context diagram is the _______ DFD in every business process
a) first
b) second
c) third
d) fourth

107. Processes that do not create a child diagram are called.


a) Functional primitive
b) functional diagram
c) child processes
d) level one processes
108. Diagram 0 is the explosion of the
a) diagram 1
b) diagram 2
c) context diagram
d) child diagram
109. ___________ maintains consistency among a set of DFDs by ensuring that input and output
data flows align properly.
a) Leveling
b) Balancing
c) Fronting
d) Iterating
110. Leveling also is called
a) Exploding
b) partitioning
c) decomposing
d) all of the above
111. When a process can be accurately described by a single active verb with a singular object,
this indicates that
a) the level has been carried out to a sufficiently low level.
b) no need to diagram 0
c) more levels needed
d) it needs anther DFD level

112. A ____________ is the term used to describe a central storehouse of information about a
system's data.
a) data house
b) data base
c) data dictionary
d) data warehouse
113. How are data structures usually described in data dictionaries?
a) using psuedocode
b) using decision trees
c) using algebraic notation
d) using a project repository

114. Which of these is included in the data dictionary entry for a data structure?
a) a list of all the data elements included in the data structure or record
b) Type and length
c) Output format
d) Default values
115. The main purpose of a data dictionary is to provide a source of reference in which the
____________can look up & find out its content and any other relevant information.
a) analyst
b) user
c) designer
d) all of the above
116. Which of these is included in the data dictionary entry for a data flow?
a) the DFD beginning, or source, for the data flow
b) An alphabetized list of all data elements entering the data flow
c) each process where the data flow is used
d) each data store where the data flow is used

117. Many valuable reports can obtain from data dictionary including.
a) An alphabetized list of all users by name.
b) An alphabetized list of all data elements by name
c) An alphabetized list of all software applications by name
d) An alphabetized list of all databases by name

118. When you document the Processes, Process name or label means.
a) the process name as it appears on the data flow diagram
b) the process name as it appears on the sequence diagram
c) the process name as it appears on the data decomposition diagram
d) the process name as it appears on the data class diagram
119. each data flow represent a group of related data elements called a
a) field
b) record
c) process
d) data store
120. in structured English selection [] entries become.
a) DO WHILE statements.
b) simple structured English statements.
c) PERFORM UNTIL statements.
d) IF..THEN...ELSE statements.

121. structured English uses a subset of English include


a) Action verbs
b) phrases
c) adjectives or adverbs
d) All of the above

122. What is a benefit or advantage gained from using structured English to write process
specifications?
code.

a) It is very difficult to convert the logic in structured English into program


b) Structured English is difficult to understand
c) Structured English is an excellent tool to clarify logic and relationships.
d) Structured English can often be ambiguous

123. Process specifications are not created for:


a) Physical input and/or output processes, such as read and write.
b) b.Processes that represent simple data validation.
c) c.Processes for which prewritten code. These processes are generally
included in a system as subprograms and functions.
d) d. all of the above
124. Assume condition one has four values, condition two has four values, and condition three
has two values. How many rules are required?
a) 5
b) 23
c) 32
d) 64
125. W
hich decision table variant that contains only the binary selectors (Y, N and -) in the rules
quadrant. In the action entries quadrant, indicators other than X appear.
a) Limited Entry Decision Table

b) Mixed Entry Decision Table

c) Extended Entry Decision Table


d) None of the above
126. Decision Tables consists of ______ quadrants.
a) two
b) three
c) four

d) five
127. Which decision structure can handle many repetitious actions?
a) a decision tree
b) a decision table
c) a structured English
d) none of the above
128. Which decision structure you should use when the sequence of conditions and actions is
critical?
a) a decision tree
b) a decision table
c) a structured English
d) all of the above

129. in decision trees branches represent.


a) name of process
b) conditions
c) actions to be performed
d) rules.
130 . Which of these describes a use for the data flow diagrams of a system?
a) Data flow diagrams are generally incorrect once system development has
progressed into the programming stage.
b) Data flow diagrams are useful only for the very early, general stages of
defining a system.
c) Data flow diagrams are generally not saved once the system is built
system.

d) Data flow diagrams can serve as an excellent documentation of the final

131. A(n) ____________ shows how data moves through an information system.
a) entity
b) relationship
c) data flow
d) zero

132. A process that has no input is called a ____________ process.


a) spontaneous generation
b) black hole
c) gray hole
d) negative data flow
133. The four symbols when diagramming a DFD are________.
a) context, level 0, level 1 and level 2
b) entity, relationship, process, and data flow
c) fragment, diagram, scenario, and visualization
d) process, data flow, data store, and external entity
134. When each level of a Data Flow Diagram shows how one business process in more and
more detail, the levels of the DFD have been______.
a) Composed
b) Relationship Leveled
c) Contexted
d) Decomposed
135. A ____________ is the term used to describe a central storehouse of information about a
system's data.
a) data house
b) data base
c) data dictionary
d) data warehouse
136. Which of these is an advantage or benefit of a data dictionary?
a) It provides documentation and eliminates redundancy.
b) It provides additional work for the systems analyst.
c) It is required for database design.
d) It is required for on-line system design.

137. What does the plus sign (+) symbol mean in a data structure definition?
a) iteration
b) optional
c) either/or
d) and
138. Which data elements must be contained in a data store?
a) data stores contain no data elements
b) only the data elements on the data flows going out of the data store
c) all of the data elements used in the attached process
d) all of the data elements on data flows going into or out of the data store
139. Which of these is included in the data dictionary entry for a data element?
a) all elements derived from the data element
b) aliases, synonyms or other names for the element
c) each process where the data element is used
d) each user view in which the data element appears
140. Which of the following is not a logical structure upon which modular design is based?
a) Calculation
b) Sequence
c) Selection
d) Iteration
141. A tabular of conditions and actions and an indication under which conditions, which actions
must be performed, this is a description of.
a) Decision Tables
b) .
c) Decision tree.
d) Structured English
e) Pesudo codes

142. Which decision table variant that Contains only the binary selectors Y & N and the catch all
selector - in the rules quadrant. In the action entries, it contains only the action selector symbol X.
a) Limited Entry Decision Table

b) Mixed Entry Decision Table

c) Extended Entry Decision Table

d) None of the above

143.
Alternatives are shown side by side is one of the advantages of
a) Decision Tables
b) .
c) Decision tree.
d) Structured English
e) Pesudo codes
144. In a decision tree the Root of tree
a) conditions
b) Actions to be performed

c) Name of process

d) none of the above

145. Proper use of structured English will involve

a) clear expression of hierarchy or nesting.


b) no use of terms or expressions used in the data dictionary
c) no use of logic structures such as IF,THEN,ELSE or PERFORM.
d) no use of the term and or or.

146. What is one way to reduce the redundancy and complexity of a decision table?
exclusive.

a) Write the table in extended entry form when conditions are mutuallyb) Skip infrequently occurring conditions.
c) Skip infrequently occurring actions.
d) Modify the rules to simplify the situation.

147. UML used to model the behaviour of objects with___________.


a) use cases
b) class diagrams
c) actors diagrams
d) state transition diagrams
148. A (n) ___________defines specific tasks that an object can perform
a) Instance
b) Attribute
c) Method
d) Message
149. If objects are similar to nouns, _______ are similar to adjectives that describe the
characteristics of an object
a) attributes
b) classes
c) Methods
d) Messages
150. Relationship describe the effects of membership in
a) classes
b) super-classes

c) subclasses
d) All of the above
151. In a use case diagram action or event represents by an ______ with a label that describes
the action or event
a) oval
b) esquire
c) rectangle
d) circle

152. use case diagram Performed during the _______ phase


a) analysis
b) design
c) implementation
d) maintenance
153. In a class diagram, class is drawn as a _____ with the class name at the top.
a) circle
b) oval.
c) pentagon.
d) rectangle.
154. UML notation (1...*) means
a) One or zero
b) One or many
c) One and only one
d) none of the above
155. A _______ is identified by a line showing direction that runs between two objects
a) Classes
b) Lifelines

c) Messages
d) Focuses
156. In a state transition diagram, the states appear as rounded rectangles with the state names
inside
a) circle
b) oval.
c) pentagon.
d) rounded rectangle.

157. A (n) ___________ is a command that tells an object or class to perform a creation method
a) Instance
b) Attribute
c) class
d) Message
158. A class can belong to a more general category called
a) object
b) subclass
c) super class
d) main class
159. A (n) __________ initiates a use case by requesting the system to perform a function or
process
a) case
b) event
c) actor
d) attribute
160. A class is a collection of objects with common structure, common ________
a) behaviour
b) relationships

c) semantics.
d) all of the above.
161. UML notation (0...*) means
a) zero or one
b) zero or many
c) zero and only zero
d) none of the above

162. A software package that can be used by many different types of organizations is called a
____________ .
a) standard application
b) vertical application
c) horizontal application
d) VAR application
163. Which of the following is not a reason for purchasing a Software Package?
a) Meet constraints of existing technology
b) Lower costs
c) Require less time to implement
d) Future upgrades provided by the vendor
164. Which of the following is not a reason for developing in-house software?
a) Meet constraints of existing technology
b) Lower costs
c) Satisfy unique business requirements
d) Develop internal resources and capabilities
165. Which of these tasks regarding ascertaining hardware and software needs should be done
first?
a) Inventory all current computer hardware.

b) Estimate current and future system workloads.


c) Evaluate available hardware and software for the proposed system.
d) Call vendors and schedule new system demonstrations.
166. Which of the hardware acquisition methods is better only for the long run?
a) renting
b) leasing
c) buying
d) all methods are the same

167. There are _____ options for obtaining computer equipment.


a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
168. The advantage of ______ hardware decision is that; provide tax advantages of accelerated
deprecation.
a) renting
b) leasing
c) buying
d) all methods are the same
169. The environment that analysts and programmers use to develop and maintain programs is
called the _______________ environment.
a) operational
b) test
c) management
d) analyst
170. Using a _______________ strategy to train users, you can select knowledgeable users who
then conduct sessions for others.
a) tutorial

b) classroom
c) operational
d) train-the-trainer
171. The environment for the actual system operation is called _____.
a) operational environment
b) production environment
c) both a. and b.
d)

neither a. nor b.

172. The process in which existing data is loaded into a new system is referred to as _____.
a) data conversion
b) data addition
c) data direction
d)

data exchange

173. The ____________ approach for a system changeover causes the new system to be used
immediately as soon as it becomes operational.
a) parallel operation
b) smooth cutover
c) direct cutover
d) pilot operation
174. The ____________ changeover method allows you to implement the new system in stages,
or modules.
a) phased operation
b) staged operation
c) parallel operation
d) horizontal operation
175. The _____ assesses the overall quality of a new information system.

a) post-cutover evaluation
b) post-implementation evaluation
c) post-integration evaluation
d) none of the above
176.The process of putting the new information system online and retiring the old system is
described as _____.
a) system renewal
b) system shutdown
c) system changeover
d) system initiative

177. Which of the following is the least expensive installation method?


a) direct cutover
b) pilot operation
c) parallel operation
d) phased operation
178. A reusable module that can be invoked from more than one point in a structure chart is a
_____.
a) subordinate module
b) library module
c) repeat module
d) couple module
179. _____ measures a module's scope and processing characteristics.
a) Coupling
b) Transference
c) Cohesion
d) Transaction properties
180. A lower-level module in a structure chart is referred to as a _____.
a) control module

b) sub-control module
c) subordinate module
d) level 2 module
181. Testing each module alone in an attempt to discover any errors in its code best describes:
a) module testing
b) integration testing
c) unit testing
d) function testing

182. The language grammar errors are called.


a) Syntax errors
b) Symantec errors
c) design errors
d) software errors
183. A review of a project team member's work by other members of the team is called.
a) Desk checking
b) Structured walkthrough
c) analysts walkthrough
d) project walkthrough
184. ______________________ is the process of bringing together all of the modules that a
program comprises for testing purposes.
a) integration testing
b) system testing
c) control testing
d) stub testing
185. Written or other visual information about an application system, how it works, and how to
use it best describes:
a) System documentation
b) Operations Documentation
c) Message documentation

d) User documentation
186. Operations Documentation Include
a) Special forms required, including online forms
b) Error and informational messages to operators and restart procedures
c) Special instructions, such as security requirements
d) all of the above

187. A successful information system requires training for


a) users
b) managers
c) IT staff members
d) all of the above
188. The environment for the actual system operation is called the _______________
environment.
a) operational
b) test
c) management
d) analyst
189. Systems analysts and programmers should not have access to the _________ environment
except to correct a system problem or to make authorized modification or enhancements
a) operational
b) test
c) management
d) analyst
190. Which of the following is the most expensive installation method?
a) direct cutover
b) pilot operation
c) parallel operation

d) phased operation

191. You might talk to ___________ to learn how the system functions on day-to-day basis
a) operational personal
b) high level managers
c) supervisors
d) customers

192. A(n) _______________ describes a company for its stakeholders and briefly states the
company's overall purpose, services, and values.
a) Mission statement
b) Objectives
c) Strategic planning
d) A company goals
193.Valuable sources in problem finding.
a) Observe behavior of employees
b) Listen to feedback from customers
c) Listen to feedback from suppliers
d) All of the above

194. In a SWOT analysis, the O stands for ____________.


a) Object
b) Operation
c) Objections
d) Opportunities
195. Stakeholders in a company are which of the following?
a) Community
b) Suppliers
c) Employees
d) all of the above
196. The coding of data to keep it safe from unauthorized users is called ___________
a) locking
b) hiding

c) shading
d) encryption

196. Which of the following is not an external factor that will affect a project?
a) Customers
b)
c)
d)

Existing Systems
Economy
Technology

197. Which of the following is not a main reason for a system request?
a) Improved service
b) Support for new products and services
c) Better performance
d) Technology
198. Which of the following is not considered when analyst analyze risk
a)

Probability

b)
c)
d)

Financial impact of the risk.


Risk nature
Reliability

199. ____________ can be measured in dollars.


a) Tangible benefits
b)
c)
d)

Intangible benefits
Projected sales
Future growth

200. _______________ feasibility refers to the technical resources needed to develop, purchase,
install, or operate a system.
a) Operational
b) Technical
c) Economic
d) Schedule

201. An analyst has identified the costs for hardware repairs to the system. This will be
categorized as a _____.
a) tangible benefit
b) intangible benefit

c) operational cost
d) development benefit
202. Faster decision making, information processing efficiency, and improved asset utilization are
examples of:
a) intangible costs
b) tangible costs
c) tangible benefits
d) intangible benefits
203. The process of assessing the degree to which the potential time frame and completion
dates for all major activities within a project meet organizational deadlines and constraints for
affecting change best describes:
a) Operational feasibility
b) Technical feasibility
c) Economic feasibility
d) Schedule feasibility
204. Which of the following is not an Operational feasibility vital issue?
a) Management support
b)
c)
d)

Users training
Performance decline in some system parts
Cost reduction and avoidance

205. A project is Important enough to be considered over other projects, is one of


a) History of the project request
b) Project Selection criteria
c) Operational feasibility
d) Economic feasibility

206. The product of the _________________ is a report to management


a) preliminary investigation
b)
c)
d)

strategic planning
feasibility study
risk analysis

207. To get information from a larger group, you should conduct


a) Group interview
b) user survey
c) official observation
d) unofficial observation

208. The final task in the preliminary investigation is


a) Estimate Project Development Time and Cost
b) Evaluate Feasibility
c) Perform Fact-Finding
d) Present Results and Recommendations to Management

209. Representing the systems concept as a set of storage containers and how the contents are
organized is a _____ methodology.
a) data centered
b) life cycle
c) object-oriented
d) process centered

210.A(n) _____________ is a document that describes your company, lists the IT


services or products you need, and specifies the features you require.
a) ERP
b) RFP
c) 4GL
d) ROI
211. A(n) _____________ is a document that can involve outright purchase or a verity of
leasing or renting options and can include maintenance or technical support terms
a) RFQ
b) RFP
c) 4GL
d) ROI
212. A test that evaluates the time a package takes to process a certain number of
transactions is a _____ test.
a) milestone
b) standard
c) production
d) benchmark

213. The FIRST thing that should be included in a presentation to management at the
completion of the systems analysis phase is a _____.
a) summary of primary viable alternatives
b) brief overview of the purpose and objectives of the system project
c)

justification for the choice of the recommended alternative

d) none of the above


214. logical design includes
a) Output that must be produced by the system
b) Input needed by the system
c) Process that must be performed by the system, without regard to how
tasks will be accomplished physically
d) All of the above

215. A system is maintainable if it


a) adequately handles errors
b) defined requirements and constraints, accepted by users, and support
the organizations business objectives
c) is well designed, flexible, and developed with future modifications in
mind
d) none of the above
216. The ____________ design of an information system is a plan for the actual
implementation of the system.
a) physical
b) logical
c) vertical
d) horizontal

217. Report that trace the entry of and changes to critical data values are called
_________ and are essential in every system
a) audit trails
b) undo transactions
c) ROI
218. The focus on defining the activities associated with the system is a __________
methodology.
a) data centered
b) life cycle
c) object-oriented
d) process centered
219. A formal step-by-step approach to the systems development life cycle that move
logically from on phase to the next is called _____.
a) ad hoc design
b) RAD design
c) agile development
d) structured design
220. The advantage of ______ hardware decision is that; provide tax advantages of
accelerated deprecation.
a) renting
b) leasing
c) buying
d) all methods are the same
221. A risk is an event that can affect a project _____.
a)

negatively

b)

positively

c) in any way
d) all of the above

222. A project where management has a yes/no choice over implementation is called a ____
project.
a) nondiscretionary
b) discretionary
c) resource
d) non-resource
223. The first step in evaluating feasibility is _____.
a) setting priorities
b) identify systems requests that are not feasible or necessary
c) conducting a preliminary investigation
d) none of the above
224. The first step in a preliminary investigation is generally to _____.
a)

evaluate feasibility

b)

perform fact-finding

c)

understand the problem or opportunity

d)

estimate project development time and cost

225. Project creep refers to a project that _____.


a) expands gradually without specific authorization
b) moves at an appropriate pace
c) adheres to effective boundaries
d) none of the above
226. When interacting with users about a new system, _____ is the most effective approach
toward building a positive relationship with users.
a) asking users about problems they are encountering
b) asking users about additional capabilities they would like to have with the
system
c) asking users about the limitations of the system

d) all of the above


227. A report to management that results from a preliminary investigation does NOT need to
include _____.
a) a summary of the systems request
b) an estimate of the time involved to implement the new system
c) detailed reports of the interviews conducted in the investigation
d) a list of the expected benefits of the system
228. To obtain information about a systems request, initial fact-finding should include _____.
a) studying organization charts
b) performing interviews
c) observing operations
d) all of the above
229. A(n) _______________ describes a company for its stakeholders and briefly states the
company's overall purpose, services, and values.
a) Mission statement
b) Objectives
c) Strategic planning
d) A company goals
230. Valuable sources in problem finding.
a) Observe behavior of employees
b) Listen to feedback from customers
c) Listen to feedback from suppliers
d) All of the above
231. The disadvantage of this development methodology is that it may have inconsistent internal
designs within and across systems
a) Waterfall Development
b) Structured methodology
c) Rapid Application Development
d) agile development

232. The advantage of this development methodology is that most important functionalities are
considered as and when they arrive
a) . a. Waterfall Development
b) Prototyping methodology
c) Rapid Application Development
d) agile development
233. The creation of a quick program that provides a minimal amount of features is performed
during this development methodology.
a) object-oriented
b) parallel
c) prototyping
d) structured
234. Whose JAD participant provide operational level input on current operations
a) user
b) analyst
c) top management
d) manager

235. _________ analysis and design, blend analysis and design in evolutionary process
a)
b)
c)
d)

Waterfall Development
object oriented
Structured
spiral

236. In structured analysis and design context diagram is a (n) ____________.


a) Environmental Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Implementation Model
d) Initial model

237. The term _____ refers to the additional layers required by Web-based software to
communicate with existing software and legacy systems.

a) transware
b)
c)
d)

connective software
middleware
all of the above

238. A ____________ determines how long it takes an information system to pay for itself through
reduced costs and increased benefits.
a) net present value
b)
c)
d)

return on investment
payback analysis
Information Systems analysis

239. The advantage of this development methodology is that dramatic time savings the systems
development effort
a)
b)
c)
d)

Waterfall Development
Parallel Development
Rapid Application Development
agile development

240. In structured analysis and design Data Flow Diagram


is a (n) ____________.
a) Environmental Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Implementation Model
d) Initial model
241. The disadvantage of this development methodology is that identifying the most important
subset of requirements at any stage is a tedious task.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Waterfall Development
Structured methodology
Prototyping methodology
object oriented analysis and design

242. ____________ methodology performs the analysis, design and implementation phases
concurrently.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Waterfall Development
Structured methodology
Prototyping methodology
object oriented analysis and design

243. Whose JAD participant provide enterprise level authorization and support for the project

a) user
b)
c)
d)

analyst
top management
manager

244. Which of the following objectives is not a CASE tools objective?


a) Observe behavior of employees
b) Listen to feedback from customers
c) Listen to feedback from suppliers
d) All of the above
245. The following question is an example of which system requirements The system must
support 25 users online simultaneously
a) Processes
b) Performance
c) Controls
d) Inputs
246. What is an effective guideline in ordering questions on the questionnaire?
a) Place them in random order.
b)
c)
d)

Place those least important to respondents first.


Place the open-ended questions first.
Place those most important to respondents first

247. In sampling, which of these is not a type of sample?


a) Systematic sample
b) Stratified sample
c) Random sample
d) Biological sample
248. Which of these is a disadvantage of Open-Ended questions?
a) Boring for the interviewee
b) Failure to obtain rich detail
c) Missing main ideas
d) May result in too much irrelevant detail
249. Which of these describes a use for the data flow diagrams of a system?
a) Data flow diagrams are generally incorrect once system development has
progressed into the programming stage.
b) Data flow diagrams are useful only for the very early, general stages of
defining a system.
c) Data flow diagrams are generally not saved once the system is built

d) Data flow diagrams can serve as an excellent documentation of the final


system.

250. A(n) ____________ shows how data moves through an information system.
a) entity
b)
c)
d)

relationship
data flow
zero

251. A process that has no input is called a ____________ process.


a) spontaneous generation
b) black hole
c) gray hole
d) negative data flow
252. The four symbols when diagramming a DFD are________.
a) context, level 0, level 1 and level 2
b) entity, relationship, process, and data flow
c) fragment, diagram, scenario, and visualization
d) process, data flow, data store, and external entity
253. A ____________ is the term used to describe a central storehouse of information about a
system's data.
a) data house
b)
c)
d)

data base
data dictionary
data warehouse

254. Which of these is an advantage or benefit of a data dictionary?


a) It provides documentation and eliminates redundancy.
b) It provides additional work for the systems analyst.
c) It is required for database design.
d) It is required for on-line system design.

255. What does the plus sign (+) symbol mean in a data structure definition?
a) iteration
b) optional

c) either/or
d) and
256. A (n) ___________ is a command that tells an object or class to perform a creation method
a) Instance
b) Attribute
c) class
d) Message
257. A class can belong to a more general category called
a) object
b)
c)
d)

subclass
superclass
main class

258. A (n) __________ initiates a use case by requesting the system to perform a function or
process
a) case
b) event
c) actor
d) attribute
259. A class is a collection of objects with common structure, common ________
a) behaviour
b) relationships
c) semantics.
d) all of the above.

260. A software package developed to handle information requirements for a specific type of
business
a) standard application
b)
c)
d)

vertical application
horizontal application
VAR application

261. Which of the following is a reason for developing in-house software?


a) Meet constraints of existing technology

b)
c)
d)

Lower costs
Require less time to implement
Future upgrades provided by the vendor

262. Outsourcing raises issues such as


a) control
b) culture
c) communication
d) all of the above
263. The advantage of ______ hardware decision is that; easy to change systems.
a) renting
b)
c)
d)

leasing
buying
all methods are the same

264. Which of these is not one of six objectives for output?


a) serves a specific purpose
b) on time
c) available in unlimited quantity
d) using the most effective output method

265. Which of these is not an output method?


a) printer
b) electronic output; email, faxes, Web pages
c) keyboard
d) audio output.
266. Automated facsimile systems are also called ____.

a) fax request systems


b) fax response systems
c) .faxback systems
d) none of the above
267. Output methods affect
a) flexibility
b) durability
c) distribution

d) all of the above


268. If the output is intended to be a report created to attract shareholders to the business,
_______________is desirable
a) microfilms
b) audio
c) send by e-mail
d) printed output
269. to create mock-up report you can use
a) word processor,
b)
c)
d)

a report generator
a printer spacing chart
all of the above

270. A ____________ usually causes specific actions, such as printing subtotals for a group of
records.
a) control break
b)
c)
d)

file break
detail break
output break

271. A(n) ____________ displays only those records that meet a specific condition or conditions.
a) conditional report
b) exception report
c) work report
d) summary file
272- ____________ identify a group of related items.
a) Category codes
b) Alphabetic codes
c) Block sequence codes
d) Sequence codes

273- ____________ combine data from different item attributes, or characteristics, to build the
code.
a) Category codes

b) Alphabetic codes
c) Derivation codes
d) Sequence codes
274- ____________ use a specific combination of letters that are easy to remember.
a) Category codes
b) Alphabetic codes
c) Derivation codes
d) mnemonic codes
275. A natural extension of the object-oriented analysis process is the _____.

a) relational database
b) hierarchical database
c) object compatible database
d) OODB

276- The _____ model was introduced during the 1970's and three decades later is still the
predominant model.

a) relational
b) OODB
c) hierarchical
d) none of the above

277. Which type of database has become increasingly widespread because it can run on many
platforms?
a) process-oriented databases
b) networked databases
c) hierarchical databases
d) relational databases
278. Make sure that the data dictionary entities for all ______________________are
documented completely and correctly
a) data stores
b) records
c) data elements
d) all of the above

279. The two popular database models now-a day are ________________.
a) network and relational
b) relational and hierarchal
c) relational and object-oriented.
d) network and object-oriented.
280. Data mining, can be described as:
a) a simple database query.
b) a data query written in SQL.
c) a technique for retrieving data from Web-based databases.
d) Data mining looks for meaningful patterns and relationships among data

281. A _________________ is the smallest unit of data that is accessed by the operating
system.
a) physical record
b) logical record
c) physical file
d) logical file
282. ____________ refers to information as seen through a users eyes, regardless of how or
where the information actually is organized or stored.
a) Physical storage
b) Logical storage
c) Data storage
d) Information storage
283. A ____________ is a set of field values that describes a single person, place, thing, or
event.
a) physical record
b) report record
c) logical record
d) page record
284. An integrated collection of data that can include seemingly unrelated information, no matter
where it is stored in the company is a _____.

a) data dictionary
b) network warehouse
c) data warehouse
d) company data structure
285. Files record details of all accesses and changes to a file or database and can be used to
recover changes made since the last backup, are.
a) rollback files
b) commit files
c) Audit log files
d) access control files
286. the first step in the system design specification is.
a) System environment
b) Time and cost estimates
c) Executive summary
d) Appendices
287. The section that contains the complete design for the new system, is called.
a) System components
b) System environment
c) Implementation requirements
d) Executive summary
288. The section that describes the constraints, or conditions, affecting the system is called.
a) System components
b) System environment
c) Implementation requirements
d) Executive summary
289. Inaccurate requirements, coding errors, and faulty documentation highlight the need for
robust ____________________ .
a) quality assurance
b) software engineering
c) object oriented analysis

d) training

290. After the design is created, ________ can begin


a) installation
b) support
c) coding
d) analysis
291. A set of guidelines that provide a quality assurance framework for developing and
maintaining software is _____.
a) ISO 9000-3
b) CMM
c) SEI 1000-3
d) none of the above
292. When designing programs and code modules, it is helpful to refer to ____ created in prior
SDLC phases.
a) object models
b) class diagrams
c) ERDs
d) all of the above
293. A message used by a module to signal a specific condition or action to another module is a
_____.
a) flag
b) trigger
c) tag
d) mark

294. In a structure chart, _____ represents repetitive processing.


a) a transfer symbol
b) a condition symbol
c) a loop symbol
d) all of the above
295. Data that one module passes to another is shown in _____.
a) a control module
b) a data couple
c) a library module
d) a transfer module
296. _____ refers to modules that are independent.
a) Tightly coupled
b) Loosely coupled
c) Strongly couples
d) Openly coupled
297. If modules are _______________, one module refers to internal logic contained in another
module.
a) tightly coupled
b) loosely coupled
c) data couple
d) control coupled
298. The pictorial representation of the programs or the algorithm is known as ________.

a) flowcharts
b) structured English
c) Pseudocode
d) data flow diagram
299. Pseudocode can be used to describe a(n) _____________ .
a) hardware
b) software
c) algorithm
d) all of the above
300. Structured application development usually involves a ________________ , which
proceeds from a general design to a detailed structure.
a) hardware development approach
b) top-down approach
c) software engineering approach
d) ODBC
301. In _____________, the programmer simulates each program outcome or result and displays
a message to indicate whether or not the program executed successfully.
a) integration testing
b) system testing
c) control testing
d) stub testing
302. The process of reviewing program code to spot logic errors is considered to be _____.
a) terminal checking
b) monitor checking
c) table checking
d) desk checking
303. _________________ is the process of bringing together of all the programs that a system
comprises for testing purposes.
a) integration testing

b) system testing
c) control testing
d) stub testing

305. The system's functions and how they are implemented is described in _____.
a) system documentation
b) user documentation
c) operations documentation
d) program documentation
306. The inputs, outputs, and processing logic for all program modules are found in _____.
a) system documentation
b) user documentation
c) operations documentation
d)

program documentation

307. ____________ contains all the information needed for processing and distributing online
and printed output.
a) System documentation
b) Operations Documentation
c) Message documentation
d) Program documentation
308. User Documentation Include.
a) Security and audit trail information
b) Examples of exceptions and error situations
c) A system overview that clearly describes all major system features,
capabilities, and limitations
d) all of the above
309. The environment that analysts and programmers use to develop and maintain programs is
called the _______________ environment.

a) operational
b) test
c) management
d) analyst
310. Using a _______________ strategy to train users, you can select knowledgeable users who
then conduct sessions for others.
a) tutorial
b) classroom
c) operational
d) train-the-trainer
311. The environment for the actual system operation is called _____.
a) operational environment
b) production environment
c) both a. and b.
d)

neither a. nor b.

312. The process in which existing data is loaded into a new system is referred to as _____.
a) data conversion
b) data addition
c) data direction
d) data exchange
313. The ____________ approach for a system changeover causes the new system to be used
immediately as soon as it becomes operational.
a) parallel operation
b) smooth cutover
c) direct cutover
d) pilot operation
314. The ____________ changeover method allows you to implement the new system in stages,
or modules.
a) phased operation
b) staged operation

c) parallel operation
d) horizontal operation

315. The _____ assesses the overall quality of a new information system.
a) post-cutover evaluation
b) post-implementation evaluation
c) post-integration evaluation
d) none of the above
316. The process of putting the new information system online and retiring the old system is
described as _____.
a) system renewal
b) system shutdown
c) system changeover
d) system initiative
317. Which of the following is the least expensive installation method?
a) direct cutover
b) pilot operation
c) parallel operation
d) phased operation
318. Testing each module alone in an attempt to discover any errors in its code best describes:
a) module testing
b) integration testing
c) unit testing
d) function testing

319. The language grammar errors are called.


a) Syntax errors

b) Symantec errors
c) design errors
d) software errors

320. A review of a project team member's work by other members of the team is called.
a) Desk checking
b) Structured walkthrough
c) analysts walkthrough
d) project walkthrough
321. ______________________ is the process of bringing together all of the modules that a
program comprises for testing purposes.
a) integration testing
b) system testing
c) control testing
d) stub testing
322. Written or other visual information about an application system, how it works, and how to
use it best describes:
a) System documentation
b) Operations Documentation
c) Message documentation
d) User documentation
323. ____________ are numbers or letters assigned in a specific order.
a) Category codes
b) Alphabetic codes
c) Block sequence codes
d) Sequence codes
324. One of the rights cited by IBM usability expert Dr. Clare-Marie Karat is compliance,
compliance means?
a) the user has the right to a system that performs exactly as promised
b) the user is always right
c) the user has the right to know the limits of the systems capabilities
d) the user has the right to be informed clearly about all systems requirements

325. One of the rights cited by IBM usability expert Dr. Clare-Marie Karat is scope, scope
means?
a) the user has the right to a system that performs exactly as promised
b) the user is always right
c) the user has the right to know the limits of the systems capabilities
d) the user has the right to be informed clearly about all systems requirements
326. The main menu options that display at the top of the screen are collectively referred to as
the ____.

a) menu table
b) menu display
c) menu bar
d) none of the above
327. A ____________ can display messages or provide a place for a user to enter data.
a) display box
b) toggle box
c) text box
d) check box
328. Operations Documentation Include
a) Special forms required, including online forms
b) Error and informational messages to operators and restart procedures
c) Special instructions, such as security requirements
d) all of the above
329 . A successful information system requires training for
a) users
b) managers
c) IT staff members
d) all of the above

330 . The environment for the actual system operation is called the _______________
environment.
a) operational

b) test
c) management
d) analyst
331 . Which of the following is the most expensive installation method?
a) direct cutover
b) pilot operation
c) parallel operation
d) phased operation
332. The ____________ changeover method involves implementing the complete new system at
a selected location of the company.
a) direct cutover
b) pilot operation
c) parallel operation
d) phased operation
333. Which of the following is important to a successful implementation process?
a) commitment to the project
b) commitment to change
c) extent of project definition and planning
d) all of the above

Number of Question
Answer
118
Number
of
Question
Answer
A
Number of Question
Answer
191
119
229
CB A
192
120
230
DD A
193
121
231
AA D
194
122
232
AC D
195
123
233
DD D
196
124
234
AC B
197
125
235
CB D
198
126
236
CC D
199
127
237
BC A
200
128
238
BA B
201
129
239
CB C
202
130
240
AD D
203
131
241
BC D
204
132
242
AA D
205
133
243
CD B
206
134
244
CD A
207
135
245
CC B
208
136
246
BA D
209
137
247
CD D
210
138
248
CD B
211
139
249
CA D
212
140
250
DA A
213
141
251
BA B
214
142
252
DA D
215
143
253
DB C
216
144
254
CC A
217
145
255
CA A
218
146
256
DA D
219
147
257
AD D
220
148
258
DC C
221
149
259
CA A
223
150
260
AD B
224
151
261
DA B
225
152
262
DA A
226
153
263
CD C
227
154
264
CB A
265228
D B

Number of Question
155
156
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175
176
177
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180
181
182
183
184
185
186
187
188
189
190

Answer
C
D
D
C
C
D
B
C
A
B
A
C
B
C
B
D
C
A
C
A
B
C
A
B
C
C
C
A
B
A
D
D
D
A
A
C

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Number
266
303
267
304
268
305
269
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332
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333
297
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301
302

Answer
Answer
DB
AA
AD
DA
BC
DC
BC
DD
CD
AD
CA
AB
BD
CD
AA
CB
AC
BC
AC
DC
DA
AB
CA
CB
CC
DA
DD
AA
CC
AB
DB
A
A
C
B
D
D