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MASSEY UNIVERSITY
MANAWATU & ALBANY CAMPUS
EXAMINATION FOR
194.241 PHYSIOLOGICAL CONTROL SYSTEMS

Semester One 2011


_____________________________________________________
Time allowed: THREE (3) hours
Answer ALL questions in Section A and Section B
All 6 questions in Section A are of equal mark value (24 marks each)
Section A = 144 marks Section B = 36 marks
Total marks: 180
Answer Section B on the Scantron card provided

Scantron Cards
Ensure that your name and identification number are entered on your
Scantron Card. Record your answer on your Scantron card by putting a solid
horizontal pencil line through the character representing the best answer
to the question with a blunt 2B or 3B pencil. The Scantron Card will not read
properly if you do not follow these instructions. At the conclusion of the
examination, hand in the Scantron Card separately.
Answer all questions on Side A of the scantron card.

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SECTION A
Question 1 Answer all questions
a. Discuss the roles of B and T lymphocytes in the immune response.
(6 marks)

b. Describe what is meant by the term clonal selection?


(6 marks)

c. Identify the key differences between the innate and acquired immune
response to pathogens.
(6 marks)

d. Describe, giving examples, the role of different components of the


cytoskeleton in cell shape, intracellular movement and motility.
(6 marks)

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Question 2 Answer all questions


a.

Discuss the mechanisms of passive and active transport, giving two


examples of a transporter for each.
(6 marks)

b.

Describe, using an example, how the properties of an epithelial sheet


allow unidirectional transport across the epithelium.
(6 marks)

c.

Identify the key functions of plasma membrane proteins and, in each


case, how these proteins would be positioned in the lipid bilayer.
(6 marks)

d.

Briefly explain the sources of energy utilised by muscle for a oneminute sustained contraction.
(6 marks)

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Question 3 Answer A or B
a.

Answer all three (I, II and III)


I.

Describe the structure of the muscle spindle (a well labeled


diagram is acceptable)
(8 marks)

II.

What is the role of the muscle spindle in the stretch reflex?


(8 marks)

III.

What is the role of the gamma efferent system?


(8 marks)

OR

b.

Answer both I and II


I.

Discuss the organisation and major functions of the autonomic


nervous system.
(12 marks)

II.

For each division of the autonomic nervous system, identify the


neurotransmitters secreted by the pre- and postganglionic
neurons and the receptor types which bind each of the
neurotransmitters.
(12 marks)

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Question 4 Answer BOTH A and B


a.

Answer TWO of the following (I to IV)


I. Discuss the means by which a neurotransmitter can be removed
from the synaptic cleft
(6 marks)
II. Discuss how an action potential is generated in an axon and the role
of sodium and potassium channels
(6 marks)
III. Explain how action potentials in smooth muscle are different from
those in nerves and skeletal muscle
(6 marks)
IV. Describe the structure of a taste bud and the chemical specificities
of the receptors responsible for the sensation of taste
(6 marks)

AND
b.

Answer ONE of the following


I.

Discuss the structure and function of the cochlea.


`

(12 marks)
OR

II.

Discuss the structure and function of the retina


(12 marks)

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Question 5 Answer A or B
a.

Answer all three (I, II and III)


I.

Describe the two methods of transport involved in reabsorption


in the kidney. Describe the factors that determine which method
a solute will follow.
(8 marks)

II.

Describe the three filtration barriers that substances leaving the


plasma must pass through to move from the glomerular capillary
to the tubule lumen.
(8 marks)

III.

Name the forces that influence filtration across the walls of


glomerular capillaries and summarize their effects.
(8 marks)

OR
b.

Answer all three (I, II and III)


I.

Describe how the kidney excretes acid. Include a description of


the buffers involved as well as how excretion varies along the
nephron.
(8 marks)

II.

Describe renal potassium excretion.


(8 marks)

III.

What are aquaporins? Describe where they found along the


nephron, what stimulates their expression and why they are so
important in the bodys maintenance of water balance.
(8 marks)
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Question 6 Answer A or B
a.

Describe the role of the loop of Henle in making concentrated urine and
the importance of counter-current blood flow in the medulla of the
kidney.
(24 marks)
OR

b.

In relation to the kidney, write notes on the following four (4) endocrine
factors:
I. Renin

(6 marks)

II. ADH (arginine vasopressin)

(6 marks)

III. Aldosterone

(6 marks)

IV. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)


(6 marks)
For each, make reference to the site of secretion, factors controlling
secretion, the site of action and the main physiological effects on the
kidney

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SECTION B answer on Side A of the scantron card
1.

Increasing the uptake of iodide by the thyroid gland and increasing the
growth of the thyroid gland are two functions of

A.

TRH.

B.

TSH

C.

T3

D.

Thyroglobulin

E.

Thyroid binding globulin

2.

How do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with


stress?

A.

by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and
enhancing blood pressure

B.

by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin

C.

by blocking the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress
response

D.

by decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure

E.

BOTH B and C

3.

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased


levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of
more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is
known as:

A.

the cell's sensitivity reaction

B.

a reaction to a stressor

C.

up-regulation

D.

cellular affinity

E.

A and D

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4.

Aldosterone:

A.

functions to increase sodium reabsorption

B.

production is greatly influenced by ACTH

C.

is secreted by the neurohypophysis

D.

presence increases potassium concentration in the blood

E.

C and D

5.

Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus

A.

travel by arteries to the pituitary

B.

enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary

C.

first enter into the hypophyseal portal system

D.

enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the
hormone-containing blood to the pituitary

E.

B and D

6.

Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to

A.

testosterone

B.

estrogen

C.

epinephrine

D.

cortisol

E.

none of the above is correct

7.

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly


responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the
following describes this mechanism?

A.

protein synthesis

B.

catabolic inhibition

C.

humoral stimulation

D.

the rapid oxidation of carbohydrates

E.

A and B
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8.

SC

Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a


manner similar to

A.

steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells

B.

insulin, because insulin is a small peptide

C.

growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid


hormone

D.

glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid


hormone

E.

B and D

9.

Oxytocin:

A.

release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism

B.

exerts its most important effects during menstruation

C.

is an adenohypophyseal secretion

D.

inhibits milk production

E.

B and D

10.

Cortisol:

A.

suppresses the immune system.

B.

causes positive calcium balance.

C.

influences brain function.

D.

A and B

E.

A and C

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11. When adenylyl cyclase is activated,


A.

calcium ions are released from intracellular stores.

B.

cAMP is formed.

C.

cAMP is broken down.

D.

protein kinases are metabolized.

E.

steroids are produced.

12.

The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary


glands is:

A.

TSH.

B.

ACTH.

C.

growth hormone

D.

FSH.

E.

prolactin

13.

All of the following are considered to be endocrine organs except the:

A.

kidneys

B.

pineal gland

C.

pancreas

D.

lungs

E.

parathyroid gland

14.

What is the largest endocrine organ (or organ system) of the body?

A.

liver

B.

gastrointestinal tract

C.

brain

D.

pituitary gland

E.

placenta
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15.

Thyroid hormone action is dependent on:

A.

plasma concentrations of transport proteins

B.

rate of secretion of thyroxine from the thyroid gland

C.

number and activity of thyroid hormone receptors in target cells

D.

conversion of the hormone to an active form within target cells

E.

all of the above

16.

Which one of the following is an example of autocrine secretion?

A.

a prostaglandin secreted into interstitial fluid that then acts on the cell
that secreted it

B.

pheromones secreted through exocrine ducts to the exterior of the


body

C.

insulin secreted into the vascular system

D.

a chemical messenger acting on target cells in the vicinity of its cellular


origin without entering the circulation

E.

a neurotransmitter released into blood to affect target cells at distant


locations

17.

Which of the following statements regarding the autonomic nervous


system (ANS) is/are true?

A.

the ANS is controlled by the hypothalamus

B.

the ANS influences pancreatic endocrine and exocrine secretion

C.

the ANS affects adrenomedullary catecholamine release

D.

the ANS affects melatonin release from the pineal gland

E.

all of the above

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18.

Select the true statement below:

A.

the pars nervosa is primarily controlled by release and inhibiting


hormones from the hypothalamus

B.

there is considerable structural conservation of chemical messengers


across animal species

C.

somatostatin is an example of a tropic hormone that stimulates the


release of other hormones

D.

somatotropin is a steroid hormone that primarily affects growth

E.

prostaglandins are polypeptide hormones secreted in an autocrine


fashion

19.

Hormone receptor concentration and affinity are affected by:

A.

antibodies against the receptor

B.

ionic balance

C.

concentration of the hormone that normally binds to the receptor

D.

concentration of hormones that can sometimes bind to the receptor

E.

all of the above

20.

Synergism occurs when:

A.

one hormone triggers the secretion of a second hormone

B.

one hormone inhibits the release of a second hormone

C.

two or more hormones act on a target cell to produce a larger response


than predicted

D.

two or more hormones act on a target cell to produce a smaller


response than predicted

E.

a hormone can exert its full effects only in the presence of another
hormone

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21.

Select the false statement below:

A.

the anterior pituitary, like the posterior pituitary, stores neuropeptides

B.

hormones of the neurohypophysis are products of hypothalamic


neurosecretory cells

C.

hypothalamic neurons secrete releasing and inhibiting factors into the


hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system

D.

oxytocin is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland

22.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of GH?

A.

mobilises fat stores

B.

increases plasma glucose levels

C.

suppresses protein synthesis

D.

acts to help conserve glucose for the brain

23.

The half life of circulating endogenous insulin in the blood is about:

A.

5 minutes

B.

25 minutes

C.

1 hour

D.

5 hours

E.

25 hours

24.

All of the following are anti-insulin actions of growth hormone, except:

A.

decreasing carbohydrate utilisation in muscle tissue

B.

sparing breakdown of trigylcerides in adipocytes

C.

enhancing hepatic glucose production

D.

sparing breakdown of muscle protein

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25.

Which of the following will stimulate growth hormone secretion?

A.

glucocorticoids

B.

-adrenergic agents

C.

arginine

D.

glucose and IGF-I

E.

all of the above

26.

All of the following statements about oxytocin are true, except:

A.

it may, in high concentrations, cause water retention

B.

it works synergistically with prostaglandins in promoting uterine


myometrial contractions

C.

it is generally released from the posterior pituitary through a


neuroendocrine reflex

D.

its release is generally inhibited by release-inhibiting factors from the


hypothalamus

27.

Which of the following is a symptom of diabetes mellitus, but not a


symptom of diabetes insipidus?

A.

dehydration

B.

polyuria (increased urine production)

C.

glucosuria (high glucose in urine)

D.

polydipsia (increased drinking)

E.

hypotonic urine

28.

Which one of the following is least involved in regulating serum Ca2+,


Mg2+ and PO43- levels?

A.

hypothalamic-pituitary axis

B.

parathyroid glands

C.

kidneys

D.

gastrointestinal tract

E.

bone

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29.

Select the false statement below:

A.

glucocorticoids suppress appetite

B.

when inflammatory reactions become intense and spread to uninjured


tissues, glucocorticoids are needed to prevent destruction of these
tissues

C.

glucocorticoids used therapeutically may retard wound healing

D.

glucocorticoids may exacerbate the symptoms of diabetes mellitus

E.

although glucocorticoids enhance hepatic and renal gluconeogenesis,


they have a tendency to suppress antibody formation

30.

The plasma in animals with Cushing's-like syndrome would typically


include:

A.

decreased liver enzymes

B.

hypocholesterolemia

C.

hyperglycemia

D.

decreased VLDL

E.

decreased insulin

31.

CRH stimulates the release of:

A.

ACTH

B.

cortisol

C.

DHEA

D.

MSH

E.

none of the above

32.

Which of the following statements regarding angiotensin II is true?

A.

it decreases renal Na+ and K+ reabsorption

B.

it inhibits ADH secretion from the neurohypophysis

C.

it inhibits aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex

D.

it vasoconstricts arterioles and stimulates catecholamine release from


noradrenergic nerve fibres

E.

it suppresses thirst
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33.

Atrial natriuretic peptide effectively antagonises the action of:

A.

ADH

B.

aldosterone

C.

angiotensin II

D.

renin

E.

all of the above

34.

Select the true statement below:

A.

thyroglobulin and T4 are synthesised and secreted by parafollicular


cells of the thyroid gland

B.

thyroglobulin and T4 are both proteins

C.

thyroglobulin and T4 levels in plasma increase in hyperthyroidism

D.

thyroglobulin and T4 are products of the anterior pituitary gland

E.

none of the above

35.

Which of the following hormones works by direct gene activation?

A.

ADH

B.

human GH

C.

cortisol

D.

insulin

E.

glucagon

36.

Where are the majority of glucagon receptors found?

A.

hepatocytes

B.

adipocytes

C.

muscle cells

D.

mucosal cells of the small intestine

E.

renal tubular cells

++++++++

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