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Anatomy / Radio

DIAMS

1) Aortic musculature of dorsal aorta is derived from


which mesoderm
(a) Axial
(b) Para axial
(c) Intermediate
(d) Lateral
2) Barretts esophagus is diagnosed by which of the
following
(a) Intestinal metaplasia
(b) Intestinal dysplasia
(c) Columnar metaplasia
(d) Columnar dysplasia
3) Chief cells are found at which part of the gastric
gland
(a) Neck
(b) Isthmus
(c) Body
(d) Fundus
4) Intrinsic factor secreted by
(a) Oxyntic cells of stomach
(b) Chief cells of stomach
(c) Intestinal cells
(d) Enterochromaffin cell
5) Cell which does not migrate from the base of the
crypt to ends of villi is
(a) Enterocyte
(b) Endocrine cell
(c) Paneth cell
(d) Goblet cell
6) Paneth cells are most characterized by
(a) High zinc content
(b) Numerous lysozyme granules
(c) Rich
rough
endoplasmic
reticulum
(d) Foamy appearance
7) Not a feature of Kartagener Syndrome triad
(a) Bronchiectasis
(b) Chronic sinusitis
(c) Situs Inversus
(d) Infertility
8) Peyer's patches are present in
(a) Duodenum
(b) Jejunum
(c) Ileum
(d) Colon
9) Hassalls corpuscle is present in
(a) Thymus
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Lung
10) What is the type of joint seen in the growth plate
(a) Fibrous
(b) Primary cartilaginous
(c) Secondary cartilaginous
(d) Plane synovial
11) All are fibrous joints except
(a) Gomphosis
(b) Syndesmosis
(c) Symphysis
(d) Suture
12) 3rd ventricle is situated between
(a) Within parietal lobe
(b) Caudate nucleus and putamen
(c) Within temporal lobe
(d) Thalamus and hypothalamus
13) Relations of internal capsule are
(a) Thalamus medially, caudate and
lentiform nuclei laterally
(b) Thalamus laterally, caudate and
lentiform nuclei medially

(c) Thalamus and caudate nucleus


medially and lentiform nucleus
laterally
(d) Thalamus and caudate nucleus
laterally and lentiform nucleus
medially
14) All are components of basal ganglia except
(a) Thalamus
(b) Caudate nucleus
(c) Substantia nigra
(d) Globus pallidus
15) Trochlear nerve arises from
(a) Forebrain
(b) Midbrain
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla oblongata
16) Facial colliculus located at
(a) Pons
(b) Medulla
(c) Mid brain
(d) Interpeduncular fossa
17) Optic nerve is which order neuron
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
18) Which of the following is not carried by posterior
column tract
(a) Position sense
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure
(d) Vibration
19) Which of the following pathway is involved in the
ability to recognize an unseen familiar object
placed in the hand
(a) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
(b) Anterior spinothalamic tract
(c) Posterior spinothalamic tract
(d) Dorsal column
20) Function of spinocerebellar tract
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Coordinates movement
(c) Learning induced by changes in
vestibular reflexes
(d) Planning and Programming
21) Cells present in cerebellar cortex are all except
(a) Bipolar
(b) Purkinje
(c) Golgi
(d) Granule
22) In cerebellar lesion not seen is
(a) Ataxia
(b) Nystagmus
(c) Intentional tremors
(d) Arreflexia
23) Site not affected in posterior cerebral artery
infarct is
(a) Midbrain
(b) Pons
(c) Thalamus
(d) Cortex
24) Which is developed from all the 3 germ layers
(a) Tympanic membrane
(b) External acoustic meatus
(c) Auditory tube
(d) Middle ear
25) All developed up to the adult size at birth except
(a) Mastoid Antrum
(b) Tympanic cavity
(c) Orbital cavity

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Anatomy / Radio

DIAMS

(d) Ear ossicle


26) Which Paranasal sinus is absent at birth
(a) Maxillary
(b) Ethmoid
(c) Frontal
(d) Sphenoid
27) Safety muscle of tongue is
(a) Genio-glossus
(b) Palato-glossus
(c) Hyo-glossus
(d) Stylo-glossus
28) Down & out eye occurs in lesion of the nerve
(a) Occulomotor
(b) Trochlear
(c) Abducent
(d) Sympathetic T-1
29) Argyll Robertson reaction is found in all except
(a) Adie syndrome
(b) Argyll Robertson Pupil
(c) Parinaud Syndrome
(d) Weber syndrome
30) Ptosis is due to lesion of
(a) Facial nerve
(b) Somatic fibres of occulomotor
nerve
(c) Superior cervical ganglion
(d) Edinger Westphal nucleus
31) In superior oblique palsy diplopia is seen in
(a) Vertical and downward direction
(b) Horizontal and downward
(c) Vertical and outward
(d) Horizontal and upward
32) Which of the following cranial nerves present in
the posterior fossa
(a) 3rd to 12th
(b) 4th to 12th
(c) 5th to 12th
(d) 6th to 12th
33) Which tendon passes through pyramid of middle
ear
(a) Stapedius
(b) Tensor tympani
(c) Tensor veli palatine
(d) Levator veli palatine
34) Parotid duct of Stensens open into the
(a) Vestibule of mouth at the level of
upper second molar tooth
(b) Vestibule of mouth at the level of
upper third molar tooth
(c) Oral cavity on sublingual fold
(d) Oral cavity on the sublingual
papilla
35) Which structure hooks under arch of aorta
(a) Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
(b) Phrenic nerve
(c) Cardiac branch of Left vagus
(d) Thoracic duct
36) An eroded lesion in the jugular foramen may
damage which of the following pair of structures
(a) Vagus nerve and internal carotid
artery
(b) Accessory nerve and external
jugular vein
(c) Internal jugular vein and
hypoglossal nerve
(d) Glossopharyngeal and internal
jugular vein
37) Which of the following passes through foramen
magnum
(a) Internal Carotid Artery

(b) Sympathetic chain


(c) Hypoglossal Nerve
(d) Vertebral Artery
38) Common carotid artery bifurcates at
(a) Upper border of cricoid cartilage
(b) Upper border of thyroid cartilage
(c) Hyoid bone
(d) Cricothyroid membrane
39) All lie at the vertebra level C-6 except
(a) Junction of pharynx with
oesophagus
(b) Junction of larynx with trachea
(c) Cricoid cartilage
(d) Isthmus of thyroid
40) Eustachian tube opens behind
(a) Superior turbinate
(b) Superior meatus
(c) Middle turbinate
(d) Inferior turbinate
41) Which of the following is the type of joints
between malleus and incus
(a) Primary cartilaginous
(b) Secondary cartilaginous
(c) Saddle synovial
(d) Ball & socket synovial
42) In 2 months infant spinal cord ends at
(a) Lower border of T12
(b) Lower border of L I
(c) Upper border of L 3
(d) Lower border of L 3
43) Following are the various structures related to
spinal cord and their respective terminal extent.
Choose the wrong pair
(a) Adult spinal cord: Transpyloric
plane
(b) Pia mater: Coccyx
(c) Duramater: S2 vertebra
(d) Arachnoid sheath: S2 vertebra
44) Pentalogy of Fallot is characterized by
(a) Ventricular septal defect
(b) Right ventricular hypertrophy
(c) Atrial septal defect
(d) Pulmonary stenosis
45) Right heart of the border is formed by all except
(a) SVC
(b) IVC
(c) Right atrium
(d) Right ventricle
46) If the right coronary artery is blocked by a fat
globule after giving off the right marginal artery,
which of the following structures may have
oxygen deficiency
(a) Right atrium
(b) Sinoatrial node
(c) Atrioventricular node
(d) Root of the pulmonary trunk
47) Posterior interventricular artery is a branch of
right coronary artery in most of the people (right
dominance). In 10% population it arises from
(a) Circumflex artery
(b) Left coronary artery
(c) Pulmonary artery
(d) Right coronary artery
48) The Great cardiac vein lies in which groove
(a) Anterior part of right coronary
sulcus
(b) Posterior part of right coronary
sulcus
(c) Anterior interventricular groove
(d) Posterior interventricular groove

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Anatomy / Radio

DIAMS

49) Even if thrombosis is present in the coronary


sinus, which of the following cardiac veins might
remain normal in diameter
(a) Middle cardiac vein
(b) Anterior cardiac vein
(c) Small cardiac vein
(d) Oblique cardiac vein
50) Which bronchopulmonary segment is missing
from left lung
(a) Anterior basal
(b) Medial basal
(c) Posterior basal
(d) Antero-medial basal
51) A bed-ridden patient on liquid diet develops
aspiration pneumonia. Which of the following is
bronchopulmonary segment is most likely
affected
(a) Posterior of right upper lobe
(b) Inferior lingular of left upper lobe
(c) Apical of Right lower lobe
(d) Posterior of Right lower lobe
52) Structure passing along with aorta in aortic
hiatus
(a) Thoracic duct and azygous vein
(b) Thoracic duct and hemizygous
vein
(c) Left Vagus nerve and azygous
vein
(d) Left gastric vein and vagus nerve
53) A female come with complaints of chest pain. On
examination she is found to have pericarditis with
pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by
(a) Deep cardiac plexus
(b) Superficial cardiac plexus
(c) Phrenic nerve
(d) Subcostal nerve
54) All is true about phrenic nerve except
(a) Anterior primary rami of C-3,4,5
(b) Passes anterior to scalenus
anterior
(c) Passes posterior to hilum of lung
(d) Right is shorter and more vertical
55) Arch of aorta begins at the vertebra level
(a) T2
(b) T3
(c) T4
(d) T5
56) All are branches of the posterior cord of brachial
plexus except
(a) Axillary nerve
(b) Radial nerve
(c) Long thoracic nerve
(d) Thoracodorsal nerve
57) Which muscle may not be paralysed in Erbs
palsy
(a) Brachioradialis
(b) Coraco-brachialis
(c) Teres minor
(d) Deltoid
58) Erb's palsy which is not seen
(a) Adduction of the arm
(b) Extension at the elbow
(c) Pronation at forearm
(d) External rotation of the arm
59) All is true about Radial nerve except
(a) Continuation of lateral cord of
brachial plexus
(b) Root value is C-5,6,7,8 and T-1
(c) Damaged in fracture shaft of
humerus

(d) Cock up splint is used for its


injury in radial groove
60) Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral
groove may result in all except
(a) Spare nerve supply to extensor
carpi radialis longus
(b) Results in paralysis of anconeus
muscle
(c) Leaves extension at elbow joint
intact
(d) Weakens supination movement
61) All of the following are affected in low radial
nerve palsy except
(a) Extensor carpi radialis longus
(b) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
(c) Finger extensors
(d) Sensation on dorsum of hand
62) Most common nerve damaged in supracondylar
fracture is
(a) Median
(b) Anterior Interosseous
(c) Ulnar
(d) Radial
63) All are retractors of scapula except
(a) Levator scapulae
(b) Trapezius
(c) Rhomboideus major
(d) Rhomboideus minor
64) All happens during shoulder abduction except
(a) Elevation of humerus
(b) Rotation of sternoclavicular joint
(c) Movement at acromioclavicular
joint
(d) Medial rotation of scapula
65) The ligament which transfers weight of arm to
the trunk
(a) Costo-clavicular
(b) Coraco-clavicular
(c) Acromio-clavicular
(d) Coraco-humeral
66) Allens test is done for checking
(a) Neural disorders
(b) Patency of ulnar artery
(c) Patency of radial artery
(d) Blood flow in cephalic vein
67) Content of anatomical snuff box
(a) Radial nerve
(b) Radial artery
(c) Cephalic vein
(d) Anterior interosseous artery
68) Supination and pronation occur at the joint
(a) Elbow
(b) Radio-ulnar
(c) Wrist
(d) Intercarpal
69) Sterno-clavicular joint is a synovial variety
(a) Plane
(b) Condylar
(c) Ellipsoid
(d) Saddle
70) All are derivatives of Septum Transversum
except
(a) Falciform ligament
(b) Ligamentum teres
(c) Coronary ligament
(d) Lesser omentum
71) Which of the following structure doesnt develop
in mesentery of stomach
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney

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Anatomy / Radio

DIAMS

(c) Spleen
(d) Pancreas
72) Diaphragm develops from all except
(a) Septum transversum
(b) Dorsal mesocardium
(c) Pleuroperitoneal membrane
(d) Cervical myotomes
73) Physiological umbilical hernia in fetus reduces in
which month
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
74) False about Meckels diverticulum is
(a) Meckel diverticulum is the 2nd
most common congenital
anomaly of the gastrointestinal
tract
(b) Present at anti-mesenteric border
(c) All 3 layers of muscles are
present
(d) Technetium-99m (99mTc)
pertechnetate scan is the
investigation of choice
75) Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of
(a) Left gastric
(b) Coeliac trunk
(c) Splenic
(d) Gastroduodenal
76) A patient has a penetrating ulcer of the posterior
wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which
blood vessel is subject to erosion
(a) Common hepatic artery
(b) Gastroduodenal artery
(c) Proper hepatic artery
(d) Anterior
superior
pancreaticoduodenal artery
77) Not present at the transpyloric plane
(a) L-1 vertebra
(b) Right suprarenal gland
(c) Tip of ninth cartilage
(d) Fundus of gallbladder
78) Segmental resection was performed removing
part of liver lying left of the ligamentum teres.
The segments removed were
(a) 2,3
(b) 1,4
(c) 2,4
(d) 1,4,5
79) All is true about Morgagnian hernia except
(a) Congenital defect in diaphragm
(b) Passes through left part of
diaphragm
(c) Occurs between the xiphoid and
costal margins
(d) On CXR appears in anterior
mediastinum
80) Appendices epilpoicae are present in
(a) Vermiform appendix
(b) Caecum
(c) Sigmoid colon
(d) Rectum
81) Most common location of appendix
(a) Pre-ileal
(b) Post-ileal
(c) Retro-caecal
(d) Pelvic
82) Nervi erigentes supply all except
(a) Uterus
(b) Urinary bladder

(c) Rectum
(d) Appendix
83) Ureteric constriction is seen at all of the following
positions except
(a) Pelvi-ureteric junction
(b) Crossing of iliac artery
(c) Uretero-vesicle junction
(d) Ischial spine
84) Untrue about prostate is
(a) Behind the urethra and between
the two ejaculatory ducts lie the
median lobe
(b) Colliculus
seminalis
is
an
elevation
on
veru-montanum
showing three openings
(c) Its urethra is concave anteriorly
(d) Its urethra is trapezoid in shape
85) Urethral crest is situated in which urethra
(a) Prostatic
(b) Membranous
(c) Penile
(d) Bulbar
86) The length of the male urethra is
(a) 15cm
(b) 20cm
(c) 25cm
(d) 30cm
87) All are vaginal sphincters except
(a) Pubo-vaginalis
(b) External urethral sphincter
(c) Bulbospongiosus
(d) Internal urethral sphincter
88) Lymphatic drainage of distal spongy urethra is
towards the lymph nodes
(a) Superficial inguinal
(b) Deep inguinal lymph
(c) External iliac
(d) Internal iliac
89) Muscle which can cause both flexion at knee as
well as thigh
(a) Rectus femoris
(b) Sartorius
(c) Gracillis
(d) Biceps femoris
90) Hybrid muscles are all except
(a) Pectineus
(b) Adductor magnus
(c) Tensor fascia lata
(d) Biceps femoris
91) Superior gluteal nerve acts at hip joint for
(a) Abduction & lateral rotation
(b) Abduction & medial rotation
(c) Adduction & medial rotation
(d) Adduction & lateral rotation
92) Muscle that is most commonly used for grafting
(a) Sartorius
(b) Gracilis
(c) Plantaris
(d) Semi tendinosus
93) Abduction of the thigh is limited by
(a) Tension in the adductors
(b) Tension in the adductors and
iliofemoral ligament
(c) Tension in the adductors and
pubofemoral ligament
(d) Tension in the adductors and
ischiofemoral ligament
94) Physiological locking involves
(a) Internal rotation of femur over
stabilized tibia

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Anatomy / Radio

DIAMS

(b) Internal rotation of tibia over


stabilized femur
(c) External rotation of tibia over
stabilized femur
(d) External rotation of femur over
stabilized tibia
95) A healthy young athlete sitting at table with knee
at 90 degree flexion. What will happen when he
fully extends the knee
(a) Movement of tibial tuberosity
towards lateral border of patella
(b) Movement of tibial tuberosity
towards medial border of patella
(c) Movement of tibial tuberosity
towards centre of patella
(d) No change in relationship
96) Housemaid knee is due to inflammation of
(a) Suprapatellar bursa
(b) Infrapatellar bursa
(c) Prepatellar bursa
(d) Popliteal bursa
97) A player has suffered hockey stick injury to the
lateral part of the left leg just below the knee. He
drags his left toe when he walks and cannot feel
the dorsum of the foot. Which of the following will
still be intact
(a) Dorsiflexion
(b) Eversion
(c) Cutaneous sensation of the
medial leg
(d) Cutaneous sensation between
the great toe and the second toe
98) Inversion & Eversion mainly happen at which
joint
(a) Inferior tibio-fibular
(b) Ankle
(c) Subtalar
(d) Calcaneo-cuboid
99) S1 nerve root irritation due to slip disc, will result
in pain located along the
(a) Anterior aspect of the thigh
(b) Medial aspect of the thigh
(c) Anteromedial aspect of the leg
(d) Lateral side of the foot
100) In L5 root involvement, which among the
following is not affected
(a) Thigh adduction
(b) Knee flexion
(c) Knee extension
(d) Toe extension
Radiology
1. The earliest changes in thalassaemia are
seen in:
Phalanges
a)
Skull
b)
Pelvis
c)
Sternum
d)
2. In chest x-ray PA view, hilum is formed by
following except:
Upper lobe vein
a)
Lower lobe vein
b)
Proximal bronchii
c)
Pulmonary artery
d)
3. Candle wax appearance is seen in:
Osteogenesis imperfecta
a)
Melorheostosis
b)
Diaphyseal dysplasia
c)
Exostosis
d)
4. Most radioresistant blood cell is:
Lymphocyte
a)

Neutrophil
Platelets
All are equal
d)
Compound used in PET is:
Tc99 MDP
a)
I-131 seen
b)
18 Flurodeoxy glucose
c)
All can be used
d)
PET is a:
Anatomical scanning
a)
Functional scanning
b)
Both
c)
None
d)
Half life of Tc99 is:
6 hrs
a)
8 hrs
b)
10 hrs
c)
12 hrs
d)
Continuous diaphragm is seen in:
Pneumothorax
a)
Pleural effusion
b)
Pneumo pericardium
c)
Pneumo mediastinum
d)
The contrast agent used in contrast
enhanced CT is:
Iodine
a)
DTPA
b)
Xenon
c)
Air
d)
Radiological investigation in a female of
reproductive age should be restricted to:
First 10 days of cycle
a)
Last 10 days
b)
10-20th days
c)
Period of menstruation
d)
Early changes of pulmonary edema in CxR:
Bats wings appearance
a)
Pleural effusion
b)
Kerley B lines
c)
Ground glass appearance
d)
Dilatation of upper lobe veins is a reliable
sign of:
Hilar tumour
a)
Emphysema
b)
Pulm HT
c)
Cardiac decompensation
d)
The investigation of choice for a pregnant
lady with upper abd. Mass:
Barium meal
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
DSA
d)
Curie is a unit of:
Radio activity
a)
Heat
b)
Radiation
c)
Work
d)
Hot spot on Tc scan in parotid is seen in:
Adenolymphoma
a)
Calculus
b)
Mixed parotid tumour
c)
Mumps
d)
Coiled spring appearance on barium enema:
Appendicitis
a)
Cholecystitis
b)
Intussusception
c)
Perinephric abscess
d)
Hilar dance on fluoroscopy is a feature of:
ASD
a)
VSD
b)
b)
c)

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

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Anatomy / Radio

DIAMS

MS
MR
d)
Two days after onset of acute OM the x-ray of
part will show:
Metaphyseal lesion
a)
Subperiosteal new bone
b)
Soft tissue swelling
c)
Involucvum
d)
Foot ball sign is seen in:
Porcelain GB
a)
Ascites
b)
Pneumoperitoneum
c)
Portal vein thrombosis
d)
Pulmonary metastasis causing pneumothorax
is from:
Osteosarcoma
a)
Chondro sarcoma
b)
Fibro sarcoma
c)
Liposarcoma
d)
Iodine labeled MIBG scanning is used for
detection of:
Phaeochromocytoma
a)
Neuroblastoma
b)
Paraganglioma
c)
All of the above
d)
Antral pad sign in stomach is seen in:
Ca stomach
a)
Ca GB
b)
Ca pancreas
c)
All of the above
d)
Best radiological modality to differentiate b/w
solid and cystic lesions is:
USG
a)
X-ray
b)
CT Scan
c)
Radionucleid scanning
d)
Minimal ascitis is best detected by :
Xray
a)
USG
b)
CT scan
c)
MRI
d)
CT scan in EDH:
Biconvex hyperdense lesion
a)
Biconvex hypodense lesion
b)
Biconcave hyperdense lesion
c)
biconcave hypodense lesion
d)
The skeletal manifestations of 1
hyperparathyroidism are best seen in x-rays
of:
Skull
a)
Spine
b)
Hand
c)
Chest
d)
A 45 year old hypertensive male presented
with sudden onset severe headache /
vomiting and neck stiffness. On examination
he didnt have any focal neurological deficit.
His CT scan showed blood in the sylvian
fissure. The probable diagnosis is:
Meningitis
a)
Ruptured aneurysm
b)
Hypertensive bleed
c)
Stroke
d)
Contrast in X-ray is dependent on
kVp
a)
MAS
b)
Duration of exposure
c)
Distance between source and object
d)
Golden S-sign on a CXR is seen in
Right upper lobe collapse
a)
c)

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

LUL collapse
RML collapse
Left lower lobe collapse
d)
Premature filling of veins is a manifestation in
cerebral angiography of
Trauma
a)
Brain tumour
b)
Arterio venous malformation
c)
Arterial occlusion
d)
Target Material which produce X rays in a
MAMMOGRAPHY tube is
Lead
a)
Tungsten
b)
Molybdenum
c)
Cobalt
d)
X rays are produced when:
a)
Electron beam strikes the nucleus
of the atom
b)
Electron beam strikes the anode
c)
Electron beam reacts with the
electromagnetic field
d)
Electron beam strikes the
cathode
CSF on MRI seen appears
a) Hyperintense on T1 weighted image
and hypointense on T2 WI.
b) Hypointense on T1 weighted image
and hyperintense on T2 weighted
image
c) Hyperintense on T1 and T2 weighted
images
d) Hypointense on T1 and T2 weighted
images
Air bronchogram on chest skiagram is seen in
all except
Pneumonic consolidation
a)
Pulmonary edema
b)
Hyaline membrane disease
c)
squamous cell Ca lung
d)
b)
c)

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35. A 12 year old girl complains of pain persisting


in her left leg for several weeks with a low
grade fever. A radiograph reveals a mass in
the diaphyseal region of left femur with
overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue
extension. The most likely diagnosis is
Osteogenic sarcoma
a)
Osteoblastoma
b)
Ewings sarcoma
c)
Chondroblastoma
d)
36. The distance between the patient and X-ray
source in the conventional CXR is
100 cm
a)
140 cm
b)
180 cm
c)
210 cm
d)
37. Central bronchiectasis is seen in
Allergic bronchopulmonary
a)
aspergillosis
Tuberculosis
b)
Kartageners syndrome
c)
None of above
d)
38. Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a feature ofcretinism
a)
acromegaly
b)
RA
c)
OA
d)
39. In MR imaging, images of body are produced
due to
H+
a)

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Anatomy / Radio

DIAMS

CO2
N2
c)
O2
d)
Ultra sound waves are produced by means of
a
Ferromagnetic crystal
a)
Ferro electric crystal
b)
Piezo electric crystal
c)
Super conducting crystal
d)
A young patient presents with history of
dysphagia more to liquids than solids. The
first investigation you will do is
Barium swallow
a)
Oesophagoscopy
b)
Ultrasound of the chest
c)
CT scan of the chest
d)
Tc 99 colloid liver scan is possible due to
uptake of radio isotopes by
Hepatocytes
a)
Bile canalicular cells
b)
Kupffer cells
c)
Portal endothelial cells
d)
Dilatation of caecum which is likely to
perforate
5.5 cm
a)
6 cm
b)
9 cm
c)
11.5 cm
d)
For the evaluation of blunt abdominal trauma
which of the following imaging modalities is
ideal:
Ultrasonography
a)
Computed tomography
b)
Nuclear scintigraphy
c)
Magnetic resonance imaging
d)
The right lobe of the liver consists which of
the following segments:
V, VI, VII and VIII
a)
IV, V, VI, VII and VIII
b)
I, V, VI, VII and VIII
c)
I, IV, V, VI, VII and VIII
d)
The investigation of choice for imaging of
urinary tract tuberculosis is:
Plain x-ray
a)
Intravenous urography
b)
Ultrasound
c)
Computed tomography
d)
Which of the following usually produces
osteoblastic secondaries:
CA lung
a)
CA breast
b)
CA UB
c)
CA Prostate
d)
After contrast media injection in the radiology
department, a pt develops severe
hypotension, bronchospasm and cyanosis.
Which one of the following drugs should be
used for treatment:
Atropine
a)
Aminophylline
b)
Dopamine
c)
Adrenaline
d)
Intra operative radiotherapy usesA. Photons
B. Electrons
C. Gamma rays
D. X-rays
Most penetrating beam isa.
Gamma rays
b.
Beta rays
b)

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63.

c.
Alpha rays
d.
All are equal
Half-life of Co-60 isa. 5.2minutes
b. 5.2hours
c. 5.2 months
d. 5.2 years
X rays were discovered bya.
German
b. An Englishman
c. American
d. Indian
Investigation of choice for Pancoast tumour
isa.CT Scan
b.PET Scan
c. MRI
d.CxR-PA view
"LOVE BIRD" sign on barium examination is
seena. Diaphragmatic tear
b. Fallopian tube block
c. Fracture neck femur
d. Achalasia cardia
Snowman" Shape heart is seen ina. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
b. Supracardiac TAPVC
c. Cardiac TAPVC
d. Intracardiac TAPVC
"Money bag shaped heart is seen ina.
Pericardial effusion
b.
Constrictive
pericarditis
c.
Bank rubbers heart
d.
Mitral stenosis
Best investigation for Sequestration of lung
isa.
MRI
b.
CxR- PA view
c.
CT Scan
d.
Aortography
TRAM-TRACK" calcification seen ina. Neurofibromatosis
b. Sturge-weber syndrome
c. Von-hippel lindau syndrome
d. Tuberous sclerosis
Candy licked appearance on X ray is seen
ina
Leprosy
b.
Diabetic mellitus
c.
Psoriasis
d.
Sarcoidosis
Sun ray appearance on X ray is seen ina. Osteosarcoma
b. Ewings sarcoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Enchondroma
Investigation of choice for interstitial lung
disease isa.
MRI
b.
High resolution CT
c.
US
d.
Bronchography
Investigation of choice to defect acute sub
arachnoid haemorrhage isa.
Non contrast CT
b.
MRI
c.
Four vessel angiography
d.
Contrast enhanced CT
RUGGER JERSEY SPINE is seen in

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Anatomy / Radio

64.

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75.

DIAMS

a.
Rend osteodystrophy
b.
Osteopetrosis
c.
Pagets disease
d.
1 & 2 both
BULGING FISSURE is seen ina. Kleibsella pneumonia
b. Pneumococci
c. Staphylococcus
d. All of the above
GOLDEN-S-SIGN is seen ina.
bronchogenic carcinoma
b.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
c.
Sickle cell anemia
d.
Osteopetrosis
Bamboo spine is seen ina. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Psoriasis
d. All of the above
Double bubble appearance seen on X ray ina.
Duodenal atresia
b.
Jejunal atresia
c.
Ileal atresia
d.
Colonic atresia
The investigation of choice in traumatic
paraplegia is :
Spine X-ray
a)
CT
b)
MRI
c)
Myelography
d)
The imaging modality of choice for
diagnosing Hydrocephalus in an infant is :
a) U/S
b) CT
c) MRI
d) Plain Xray
Which of the following is not done in a case
of brain tumour?
a) CT
b) MRI
c) Plain X-ray skull
d) L. Puncture
Box shaped heart is seen in :
a) TAPVC
b) Ebsteins anomaly
c) Truncus arteriosus
d) Tricuspid atresia
Middle lobe collapse is best seen in :
a) AP view
b) PA view
c) lordotic view
d) Lateral view
Pneumothorax is best demonstrated by
taking a radiograph in a patient in :
a) Inspiration
b) Expiration
c) Full inspiration
d) Full expiration
e) Prone
Medusa lock appearance in X-ray seen in
a) Ascariasis
b) Tapeworm
c) Hookworm
d) Ascaris and tapeworm
Widening of the C loop in X-ray is diagnostic
of
a) Chronic pancreatitis
b) Carcinoma head of pancreas
c) Periampullary carcinoma
d) Calculi in the ampulla of vater

76. Hydatid cyst of the lung in a chest X-ray


a) Is seen on a calcified ring shadow
b) Show spackled calcification
c) Will not calcify
d) A and B are correct
77. Bone tumour arising from epiphysis isa) GCT
b) ewings sarcoma
c) osteosarcoma
d) all
78. Best investigation to detect pancreatic
necrosis isa) CECT
b) MRI
c) USG
d)X-ray
79. Cobble stone appearance of colonic mucosaa) Crohns disease
b) UC
c) Carcinoma colon
d) none
80. Congenital anomaly that can be detected
earliest by USGa) Anencephaly
b) omphalocele
c) homocystinuria
d) phenylketonuria

Radiology Answer Key


1. A
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. A
16. C
17. A
18. C
19. C
20. A
21. D
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. A
30. C
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. D
35. C
36. C

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Anatomy / Radio
37.
38.
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41.
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43.
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53.
54.
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57.
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63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.

DIAMS

A
A
A
C
A
C
C
B
A
B
D
D
B
A
D
A
C
A
B
A
D
B
A
A
B
A
D
A
A
A
A
C
A
D
B
C
D
A
B
C
A
A
A
A

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