Instructors Manual 6th Edition

Instructors Manual
Building Services
Engineering
David V. Chadderton
This Building Services Engineering Instructors
Manual complements Building Services Engineering,
6th edition, with a bank of multiple choice answer
questions. Some 1700 questions cover the range of
topics in the text book and more. The aim of this
manual is to provide a teaching, learning and testing
resource. Hyperlinks to all sections are given.
Introduction
This Building Services Engineering Instructors Manual complements Building Services
Engineering, 6th edition, with a bank of multiple choice answer questions. Questions cover
the range of topics in the text book and more. The aim of this manual is to provide a teaching,
learning and testing resource.
The comprehensive contents list is hyperlinked to all chapters and subject sections to make
navigation and return to the Contents listing easy.
Topics in this manual can be of valuable assistance to instructors of courses other than
building services engineering, architecture, surveying and construction.
Wherever climate change, low energy buildings, post-occupancy assessment, thermal
environment, human comfort, energy economics, ventilation, electrical engineering, acoustics,
lighting and the use of units of measurement are to be studied, users will find material of
benefit.
More than 1700 questions with answers are presented. These repeat questions in the
printed book and add many multiple choice answer questions. They are collected into subject
groups and also in random subject sections. Instructors can easily edit and adapt the questions
provided for their own purposes and create unique testing assignments.
A selection of these questions from each subject is provided on the publishers website for
immediate use and self-testing.
How to use this manual

Correct responses are shown in red font as the Instructors Manual is only provided as
downloadable files to instructors. The user will edit the highlighted answers when preparing
them for student use by changing the red font to black. Question grouping allows rapid access
to each topic area. Some questions require more knowledge than is provided in the Building
Services Engineering, 6th edition, printed book. Users need to draw upon their own on-site
observation and their experience plus further investigation, discussion, questioning and
Internet searches.
Multiple-choice selection questions usually have only one correct answer, although
discussion may arise where shades of opinion are not clear-cut for every application. In order
to stimulate users to consider all possibilities, many questions are provided with more than
one correct response. The same question can be repeated with a different set of answers
provided.
Correct answers are only one part of the whole solution; just select from the answers
provided. Use these questions for class and individual revision. Even the spurious alternatives
provide a valid means of revising understanding and reinforcement of learning. They all
require mental gymnastics to evaluate. Groups of questions can be provided to students for
assignments. Test students understanding by requiring explanations as to why answers are
incorrect.
Students respond well to competition between groups when led by the instructor as it adds
the element of fun to learning. A class quiz of 25 questions is about right for a one-hour
session for groups of up to five students each. The quiz leader fires a question at a named
individual, allows no conferring within the group, awarding one point for the correct response
and taking a point away from the group if an incorrect answer is given, then throws the
question open to anyone to answer for a point.
Alternatively, display a question with optional responses on a data projector for the class
from the provided files. Correct solutions appear on the second slide highlighted in red. The
instructor challenges a group to discuss and agree the correct responses within, say, 30
seconds, awarding a point for accurate answers.
Sets of questions are suitable for college internal websites where students have limited
time to undertake tests and assignments. Files of questions may be emailed to students for
response by a specified date and time.
Some of these multiple choice questions are reproduced in the Building Services
Engineering, 6th edition, printed book to stimulate interest and prepare readers for tests; they
appear in the questions bank and in each chapter. Such duplication from the manual does not
create conflict as the text book and the manual have different readerships. The instructor is
provided with all the available questions in this manual.
The author hopes users will have as much enjoyment and educational benefit in answering
and discussing these questions as he did in producing them. Happy quizzing!
Contents
Introduction
1
Climate change
Building Regulations Part L2A
Carbon capture and storage
Carbon dioxide
Emission rating schemes
General knowledge 1
Government policies
Low emission buildings
Passivhaus
Post occupancy
BEMS
General knowledge 2
PROBE analysis
Low energy buildings
PROBE revisited
Built environment
Air conditions
Air quality
General knowledge 3
Heat transfer
Humidity
Measuring instruments
Sick building syndrome
Thermal comfort
Ventilation
Energy economics
Buildings response
Degree days
Discounted cash flow (DCF), NPV, IRR
Energy audit
Energy cost
General knowledge 4
Units of measurement
World energy resources
Ventilation and air conditioning

Air conditioning systems
Air curtains
Air flow design calculation
Air handing units
Chilled water system
Cooling towers
Fans
General knowledge 5
Psychrometric chart
Refrigeration
Supply air condition
Ventilation strategies
Heat demand
Admittance values
General knowledge 6
Heat transfer
Thermal insulation
Thermal response
U values
Ventilation heat demand
Heating
Building management systems
Combined heat and power
Combustion
Control system modes
General knowledge 7
Hot-water heating systems
Nuclear power
Water services
Above-ground drainage
Below-ground drainage
Drainage design assignment

Drain testing
Genera knowledge 8
Health risks
Hot-water service
Pipe materials
Rainwater systems
Sanitary appliances
Solar water heating
Syphonage
Water quality
Water resources
Water services design
Water treatment
Electrical installations
Building site power supply
Cable sizing
Cable systems
Circuit protection
Data systems
Electrical design calculations
Electrical measurements and testing
General knowledge 9
Lightning conductor design
Power factor
Three-phase system
Variable frequency drive
10
Lighting
Colour rendering
Cost analysis
General knowledge 10
Illuminance
Interior design
Lamp types
Lighting design calculation
Lumen, lux, luminaire
Physical models
Lighting controls
11
Condensation in buildings
Air conditions
Causes of condensation
Condensation formulae
Dew-point gradient
Terminology
Temperature gradient
Vapour diffusion
12
Gas
Flues
Gas burner control
Gas installation design
Gas meters
Gas supply design
13
Plant and service areas

Computer server systems
Emergency power
Lift motor rooms
Plant room staff
Service ducts
Space requirement
Switchboards
Ventilation requirements
14
Fire protection
Detectors and alarms
Fire
Fire fighting systems
Fixed fire fighting systems

Portable extinguishers
Smoke
Water systems
15
Room acoustics
Decibel
Machinery noise
Noise and vibration
Noise rating
Plant room calculations
Reverberant and direct sound fields
Room absorption
Room sound pressure levels
Sound power and pressure
Structure-borne noise
Terminology
16
Mechanical transportation
Builders work
Energy implications
Escalator
Lifts
Motor room
17
Question bank
Acronyms
Air conditioning
Air quality
CO2 emissions
Density
Electrical
Government policies
Heat transfer
Refrigeration
Temperature
Sustainability
Thermal comfort
Ventilation
Volume
18
Understanding units
Air conditions
Electrical
Energy
Frequency
Heat transfer
Mathematics
Pressure
Temperature
Units
1 Climate change
Building Regulations Part L2A

1. A new single-storey office building complies with the Building Regulations Part L2A. It is
to be in use for 12 hours a day, 5 days a week, has a floor plan of 40 m x 30 m, a room
height of 3 m. Mechanical air change rate is 1 per hour, indoor air is maintained at 22oC at
an external temperature of -3oC. There are 10 windows of 3 m2. There are two external
doors of 2.5 m2 each. Thermal transmittances are 0.2 W/m2 K for the ground floor and roof,
walls are 0.3 W/m2 K while the windows are 2 W/m2 K and the doors are 3 W/m2 K.
Calculate the regulated peak heat demand. The regulated peak cooling demand is to be
taken as equal that for heating. Take the heating seasonal weather load factor as 0.7 for
2250 h and 0.4 for 1000 h of the cooling season. Heating system overall efficiency is 80%
and the coefficient of performance of the cooling system is 2. Estimate the annual
regulated metered energy input using the workbook supplied, other software or manually
as shown in Chapter 3. Lighting runs continuously at 12 W/m2. Each floor has 100
computer workstations using 250 W each. A computer server room on the top floor has a
continuous electrical load of 8 kW. Refrigerators, water heaters and catering items add 4
kW loads to each floor with a load factor of 0.25. Sensible heat emission of each employee
is 110 W. Estimate the annual unregulated demands and compare with those that are
regulated. What do you observe from the calculated data?
Regulated demands for heating and cooling are 47.36 kW each, annual regulated load is
102,717 kWh, unregulated electrical load is 151,008 kWh, summer cooling load is 110 kW,
winter cooling load is 15 kW. Internal heat gains exceed regulated heat loss.
Carbon capture and storage

2. A 500 MWe gas-fired power station has an overall efficiency of 32% and runs at full load
for 6000 h/yr. Emission intensity is 0.5 tCO2/MWh. Calculate how many tonnes of CO2 it
emits in a year, how much a payable carbon tax rate of 30/tCO2 would cost the plant
operator in a year and how much would be added to the price of a kWh supplied into the
grid. What incentive does the plant operator have to start installing carbon capture and
storage to reduce emissions?
Emission 4.7MtCO2/yr, payable carbon tax on CO2 emissions from the power station adds
5 cents/kWh to the cost of production, and that will be passed onto distributors and final
customers. A household that consumes 10,000 kWh per year will pay an additional 500.
The power station operator could have 141M/yr to invest in CCS technology.
3. A 500 MWe oil-fired power station with an overall efficiency of 25% converts to carbon
capture and storage technology and save 90% of its CO2 emissions from 1 January 2013;
this is at the commencement of the 3rd EU ETS trading phase of 20132020. The
generator only provides peak lopping power due to the high cost of oil and ran at full load
for 1000 hours during 2011 and around the same in 2012. CO2 emission intensity for the
use of oil is agreed to be 1.0 kg CO2/kWhe. Emissions for the 3rd EU ETS trading period
are capped at 2011 levels. Traded allowances realize a maximum of 20.00/tCO2. Predict
the outcome for this investment decision.
Capped allowance = 2 MtCO2, sale of allowances = 28.8M but uncertain, sale of CO2 of
uncertain value, but might be viable.
4. What is the plant process for CCS?

1. Flue gas filtered through charcoal.
2. Suction pump removes CO2 from flue exhaust.

3. Flue gas washed with alcohol.
4. Flue gas washed with ammonia.
5. Catalytic converter in exhaust gas absorbs CO2.
5. Explain how the post-combustion capture of CO works.

The post-combustion capture of CO occurs after the burning of fossil fuels. CO is separated
from the flue gas through a process called scrubbing. Flue gas is passed through a liquid
which causes a chemical reaction and separates the CO ready for transportation and storage.
Post-combustion capture technology can be retrofitted to existing fossil fuel power stations.
6. Explain what happens to CO2 that is captured from fossil fuel combustion.
Once pure CO is captured through CCS technologies, it is compressed into a liquid state to a
similar density to crude oil at 70 atmospheres and is transported via pipeline and stored safely
offshore in depleted oil and gas fields.
Carbon dioxide
7. How does nature maintain a balance of O2, N2 and CO2 in the atmosphere?
1. By manufacturing oxygen from the earth.
2. Oceans and soil absorb all CO2 from the atmosphere.
3. Chemical reaction between H2O, CO2 and N2 in the clouds returns C to the soil and
oceans, leaving O2 in the atmosphere that is necessary for life on Earth.
4. Oceans absorb CO2, causing water acidification.
5. It doesnt.
8. How long does human-generated CO2 remain in the atmosphere?

1. Minutes.
2. Hundreds of years.
3. 12 months.
4. Never diminishes.
5. Plants consume it quickly.
Emission rating schemes

9. State what is meant by these summary solutions of the apparent need to reduce global
warming caused by human activities.
1. Renewable timber buildings.
An ancient standard of living.
2. Improvement on the 1950s building designs.
Green building.
3. Social responsibility index method.
BREEAM.
4. Marketing plan aid.
Green building stars.
5. The USA is ahead.
LEED.
10.
State what is meant by these summary solutions for buildings to reduce global warming
caused by human activities.

1. Down-under reduced energy scheme.
NABERS.
2. Seems impossible.
Zero carbon building.
3. The no-television in the home solution.
4. Dark in here at night.
5. I keep my beer in the river.
11.
caused from human activities.

1. A very tall, all-glass walled building in a 40oC summer location, having natural
ventilation and no refrigerated air conditioning.
Hyperthermia tower.
2. Natural day lighting with unshaded glazed perimeter to collect and store solar heat gains
for winter.
Sun-blinded office workers.
3. Accountants solution.
Net zero energy cost building.
4. Engineers solution.
Allowable technology minimizes energy consumption.
5. Very small energy use building.
Passivhaus.
General knowledge 1
12.
caused by human activities.

1. Solar atrium office.
Sunstroke problem.
2. Power station solution.
Zero net source energy use building.
3. Solar panel and wind turbine solution.
Net zero emission building.
4. Grid-connected renewable sources solution.
Large-scale solar, wind and wave power providers.
5. Ship solution.
Zero grid supply to the building.
13.
Which country annually increases carbon dioxide atmospheric emissions fastest?
1. Bahrain.
2. United States of America.
3. Great Britain.
4. Australia.
5. China.
14.
What do we know about global greenhouse gases?
1. They are atmospheric gas given out by plants in a horticultural greenhouse.

2. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere produced from combustion of hydrocarbons from all
sources.
3. Nuclear energy use does not generate any greenhouse gases.
4. Solar panels, geothermal energy, wind turbines and hydro-electric systems do not
contribute to greenhouses gases.
5. All greenhouse gases in the Earths atmosphere are due to electricity production and
building services installations.
15.
Which is not correct for CO2 greenhouse gas?
1. Produced by ruminating animals.

2. Continuously converted back into O2 by photosynthesis.
3. It is burnt carbon from fuel combined with atmospheric oxygen.
4. Easily reversed to solid carbon plus oxygen gas into the atmosphere.
5. Combusted hydrocarbons are not the sole source of greenhouse gases.
16.
What is approximately the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere at a few metres
above ground level?

1. 360 ppm.
2. 1000 ppm.
3. 5%.
4. Negligible.
5. 500 mg/m3.
17.
What describes the variation in air temperature in the UK?
1. Daytime outdoor air temperature remains stable within a narrow band of values.
2. Indoor air temperature only varies on a hot summer day if windows and doors allow
significant natural ventilation.
3. Linear ramp changes upwards and downwards during the day, constant at night.
4. Step changes occur indoors in response to movement of the sun during daytime.
5. Outdoor and indoor air temperatures vary sinusoidally due to planetary rotation.
Government policies
18.
How could open market trading in the EU CO2 allowances make investment decisions
in emission reduction plant and systems difficult?

Regulated sites, i.e. power stations and industrial users, do not know how much their
surplus allowances will be worth when they are available to sell.
19.
Why should building services engineers, architects and construction companies be
concerned about the trading or value of EU CO2 allowances? These are not registered sites
or users who are awarded allowances or have to purchase them.
Because building services engineers, architects and construction companies design, build
and maintain the plant and buildings that are the final consumers of energy. Power stations
and industrial buildings are part of their work.
20.
Which of these is correct about building services engineering and the EU ETS?
1. There is no connection.
2. All building services systems have CO2 emissions.
3. Without services in buildings there would be no registered emission sites.
4. Large commercial buildings need to trade in allowances.
5. Services need to minimize CO2 emissions on EU registered sites.
21.
Which of these is correct?
1. Every large energy using site is registered with the EU ETS.
2. The EU ETS charges fees for allowance traders.

3. Only financial institutions can hold CO2 allowances.
4. Power stations and large industrial sites register with the EU ETS.
5. No organization profits from trading in allowances.
22.
Which is correct about a carbon plan?
1. The most important atmospheric pollutant to be reduced is methane.

2. Carbon monoxide from vehicle exhausts is polluting the air and must be eliminated.
3. Carbon dioxide emissions from burning and combusting hydrocarbon fuels must be
reduced.
4. All hydrocarbon emissions to the atmosphere are to be phased out.
5. Nitrous oxides will always be capped at zero.
23.
What is the level of CO2 emissions from the UK?
1. 500 tonnes per year.

2. 500 giga tonnes per year.
3. 500 mega tonnes per year.
4. There arent any.
5. 500 million kilograms per year.
24.
What are the problems caused by a market price for carbon credits?
1. Site owners do not have a guarantee for the value of emission reductions.
2. Fluctuating market price for allowances is attractive for registered sites.
3. Trading in allowances becomes an industry of its own.
4. Allowance price will always increase in line with inflation.
5. Carbon credit price is tied to the strength of the Euro in world markets.
25.
Which chemical compounds are formed during combustion of a fossil fuel and what are
their effects on the atmosphere?
26.
Which of these is an EU ETS registered site?
1. District heating systems.

2. Large air-conditioned buildings.
3. Cement-making plant.
4. Hospital.
5. Apartment building.
27.
Which best describes the EU ETS?
1. Tax on energy use.

2. A disincentive to invest in energy efficiency.
3. An unavoidable cost for industry.
4. An outcome of the Kyoto Protocol.
5. An unnecessary administrative burden imposed by the EU.
28.
How has the world created what is now said to be an atmospheric catastrophe in the
making?
By digging up hydrocarbons from the earth to power our inventions. The most powerful and
influential nations have dug up the most, while those countries, less well developed with
respect to air-conditioned buildings, transportation and homes, have yet to catch up by doing
the same. The good thing about our mastery of the planet is that whatever amount of carbon
we remove from the ground, combust and discharge as what are considered to be waste
exhaust gases into the atmosphere, cannot escape from planet Earth; it remains in the
atmosphere unless nature brings it back down to ground level. So, there is no change in the
total quantity of carbon on planet Earth; it will always remain a constant amount here, that is,
not counting those components we send out into space with rocket engines, never to return.
Another good thing to note is that we have only scratched the surface of planet Earth by
digging only a few kilometres or so down. Unknown reserves of valuable resources lie
beneath our present attempts at gardening in the near surface. So what is the problem?
Centuries of habitation have resulted in us depositing our waste gas straight into the
atmosphere at ground level and out of high chimneys when it was considered unacceptable to
release products of combustion from large fossil-burning plant too near to people. Dispersal
of combustion products relied upon prevailing winds and it was assumed that nobody would
be affected, would they? Well, yes, they were. Traffic exhausts and chimneys do have
noticeable effects.
What else might have caused the observed growth of greenhouses gases in the atmosphere?
Perhaps solar flares, world wars, rainforest clearance, changes in agriculture, burning off
stubble, wild forest fires, volcanic eruptions, melting polar ice caps, changes in rainfall and
evaporation of seawater, plus any number of other suggestions. Who really knows? There are
arguments in partial explanation of numerous theories.
29.
Explain the relationship between the price of abatement, that is, the cost per tCO2, for
emission reduction retrofits from engineering and structural improvements and the value of
carbon allowances traded on the open market.
No relationship as abatement is an engineering cost while allowances are only valued by their
supply and demand to traders.
30.
What is the current level of annual CO2 emissions from the whole of the world?
1. 10 million tonnes.
2. 1000 megatons.
3. 500,000 Gt.
4. 5 Gt.
5. 30,000 Mt.
31.
What is the approximate percentage increase in world CO2 emissions from 1971 to
2008?
1. 105%.
2. 55%.
3. 350%.
4. 1000%.
5. 120%.
32.
The UK presently is grappling with the problem of sustaining its supply and
consumption of primary energy. Which of these possible scenarios is most likely?

1. Legislated extensive demand-side reduction; not popular with voting public.
2. Conversion of vehicles to hydrogen fuel; not a new idea and may face resistance from
the oil industry.
3. Build more coal-fired power stations and coalmines; opposite to policy since the 1980s.
4. Drill more offshore oil and gas wells; hydrocarbon resource decays with time.
5. Build more nuclear power stations; endless containment requirement.
33.
The UK presently is grappling with the problem of sustaining its supply and
consumption of primary energy. Which of these possible scenarios is most likely?

1. Extensive development of wind turbines; spoils visual environment.
2. Purchase more electricity from mainland Europe; will be nuclear-generated and a
political risk.
3. Tidal barrage schemes; many subsequent benefits, limited capacity potential.
4. Convert transportation to diesel-electric hybrid from nuclear power stations; endless
containment requirement.
5. Wave power stations; possibly.
34.
Which of these means of sustaining UK national supply and consumption of primary
energy reduces greenhouse gas emissions?

1. Demand-side reduction of energy use.
2. Increase coal-fired power generation and clean flue gases.
3. Build more gas turbine co-generation plants.
4. Convert cars to hybrid petrol-electric drive systems.
5. Greater use of helicopters and planes.
35.
Reducing greenhouse gas emissions is a global objective. Which of these options
always satisfies this aim?

1. Construction and use of nuclear generation.
2. Gas turbine co-generation.
3. Demand-side reduction.
4. Fluidized bed coal combustion power plant.
5. Reversing modernization.
36.
Reducing greenhouse gas emissions is a global objective. Which of these options for
power generation always satisfies this aim?

1. Wind power.
2. Wave power.
3. Hydrogen fuel for transportation.
4. Increased use of railways.
5. None of them as all require energy for construction and maintenance.
Low emission buildings

37.
Which is correct about a zero carbon building?
1. Cannot consume any fossil fuel energy.

2. Must be provided only by renewable energy systems.
3. Consumes a minimum amount of energy for all uses.
4. Has a zero cost energy bill.
5. None of these.
38.
How much energy does a green building use?
1. None.
2. A lot.
3. Only that used for lighting, computers and hot water.
4. Less than a 1960s design.
5. Any winter heat loss is replaced by summer heat gains.
Passivhaus
39.
A two-storey inner terrace house has a floor plan of 8 m x 5 m and a room height of 2.5
m. The adjoining houses are of the same standard and are along the 8 m dimension.
Mechanical air change rate is 0.5 per hour through a heat exchanger that preheats incoming
outdoor air from -3oC to 11oC in winter when the indoor air is maintained at 22oC. Four
windows are each 1 m2; two external doors are 2 m2. Thermal transmittances are 0.14
W/m2 K for the floor and walls, a flat plaster ceiling with a pitched tiled roof is 0.1 W/m2 K
while the windows and doors are 0.8 W/m2 K. House construction is a concrete slab on the
ground with 250 mm insulation, brick and block walls with 275 mm insulation, 400 mm
insulation in the roof, triple-glazed windows and PVC insulated doors. Does the design
qualify for the Passivhaus standard? If not, what simple measure is permitted by
Passivhaus to ensure compliance?
Specific heat load is16.2 W/m2 against an allowed 10 W/m2. Incoming air from the heat
exchanger is allowed to be electrically heated to 19oC to comply.
2 Post occupancy
BEMS
1. How many people use the computer building energy management system (BEMS) in a
large office building, university campus and hospital every day and every week?
1. Everyone in the building.
2. Specialist maintenance contractor.
3. One person has the expertise and time to use it.
4. Nobody.
5. Everyone in the property and facilities management department.
General knowledge 2
2. What are the differences between the designers and users of a building?
The designers passion for the appearance of their building, the big picture, contrasts with the
microscopic view of the users on how it functions to meet their own needs. Users attention
focuses on any dysfunction, technical fault and discomfort to themselves. They have no say in
what the building looks like but they can report that the lift doors are slow, a tap is leaking,
rain is coming through the skylights because the motor controller and rain sensor are too slow,
there are holes in the flooring, or they are sitting in a draught. Architects and engineers create
impressive-looking buildings with the latest technology but the user lives with it for 25 years.
3. Who is most interested in the macroscopic appreciation of a building?
1. Owner.
2. Facilities manager.
3. Building services engineer.
4. Employees.
5. Architect.
4. Who is most concerned with the microscopic-scale aspects of a building?
1. Architect.
2. Users.
3. Owner.
4. Facilities manager.
5. Building services engineer.
5. How is the air pressure sealing, or leaking, ability of a building found?
1.
Close all doors and windows. Close spill air and exhaust air dampers. Run supply and
return air fans. Measure internal static air pressure for one hour to see if it can be
maintained at a set value.
2.
Close all doors, windows, air vents, exhaust air outlet ducts and spill air dampers. Run
supply and return air fans. Raise building air static internal pressure to 50 Pa above
outdoor atmosphere barometric pressure. Switch fans off. Measure rate of decay of
indoor air pressure. Use formula to calculate air leakage rate from building.
3.
Switch off all fans. Seal all mechanical ventilation openings into building with
polythene sheets. Fit false main entrance door with a pressurizing fan, duct and air
flow meter. Run pressurizing fan to maintain a specified internal air static pressure.
Measure steady inflow rate, this is the building air tightness measurement.
6. How are building air leakage audits conducted?

1.
Run the mechanical ventilation system normally. Measure air leakages to outdoors
with an anemometer and calculate the leakage rate.
2.
Conduct a building air leakage test. Inspect and photograph leakages with a smoke
generator or infra-red thermography.
PROBE analysis
7. Rotherham Magistrates Court (PROBE report, BSJ, March 1994) was constructed in 1994
as an air-conditioned, low energy public building. It has 10 courtrooms, gas-fired heating,
refrigeration chillers and 7 air handling units; gross floor area (GFA) 5450 m2 and treated
floor area (TFA) 4350 m2. An air leakage test revealed a flow through the building of 17
m3/m2 h, based on TFA m2, at a static internal air pressure of 50 Pa. Metered electricity bills
were 444 MWh/yr and gas 620 MWh/yr. Good practice data for an air-conditioned
magistrates court was 31 kWh/m2 yr for electricity and 125 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide
F, 2004). Carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy used was 0.52 kg
CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh (A User Guide to iSBEM, version 4.1c, March 2011).
Download the report to understand more about the operation of the building, its services
systems, lighting, ventilation and any user issues found. Identify three technical faults found
by the PROBE team. Calculate the annual CO2 emission from the building with either the
manual method shown in Example 1, the workbook provided (Asset Rating, AR), TM22 or
commercial software. Find the Emission Performance Certificate, EPC grade AG, that this
building would have by using only the information provided for this question. Estimate the
energy usage to improve the EPC grade; recommend three energy-saving measures to
improve the buildings EPC grade, with reasons, and the likelihood of adoption, or rejection,
by the owners or tenants of the building.
8. Developers let the speculative office building at 1 Aldermanbury Square, City of London,
to the Standard Chartered Bank for 250 occupants in 1990 (Probe 2, BSJ, December 1995). It
was a prestige air-conditioned, nine-storey building; GFA 8000 m2; TFA 7000 m2 with offpeak ice thermal storage to reduce peak electrical energy cost. Metered electricity bills were
2,597 MWh/yr and gas 224 MWh/yr. Good practice data for an air-conditioned prestige office
building was 234 kWh/m2 yr for electricity and 114 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide F). Use
the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh and gas
0.2 kg CO2/kWh. Download the report to understand more about the operation of the building,
its services systems, lighting, ventilation and any user issues found. Identify three technical
faults found by the PROBE team. Calculate the annual CO2 emission from the building using
either the manual method shown in Example 1, the workbook provided (Asset Rating, AR),
TM22 or commercial software. Find the Emission Performance Certificate, EPC grade AG,
that this building would have by using only the information provided for this question.
Estimate the energy usage to improve the EPC grade; recommend three energy-saving
measures to improve the buildings EPC grade with reasons, and the likelihood of adoption, or
rejection, by the owners of the building.
9. The Anglia Polytechnic University Learning Resource Centre, Chelmsford, had 750 work
places and was built in 1994 (Probe 8, APU, BSJ, December 1996). GFA 6018 m2; TFA 5656
m2; library, TV studio, conference room and caf. A well-insulated building with triple
glazing, brick/insulation/block walls, gas-fired central heating, and mechanically controlled
mixed mode natural ventilation. Metered electricity bills were 282.8 MWh/yr and gas 650.4
MWh/yr. Good practice data for a naturally ventilated educational library was 46 kWh/m2 yr
for electricity and 115 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide F). Use the carbon dioxide
atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh.
improve the buildings EPC grade with reasons, and the likelihood of adoption, or rejection,
by the owners of the building.
10.
The Barclaycard HQ in Northampton (Probe, BSJ, March 2000) was known as the
greenest corporate headquarters of the 1990s. It was a prestige, mixed mode, natural
ventilation and air-conditioned four-storey building for 2400 occupants, each with a PC; 2000
meals were served each day; estimated TFA 27,600 m2. Perimeter heating was from two
condensing gas-fired boilers serving low temperature hot-water radiators fitted with
thermostatic valves. An air leakage test revealed a flow through the building of 17.3 m3/m2 h
at a static internal air pressure of 50 Pa. Estimated electricity use was 5630 MWh/yr and gas
3118 MWh/yr. Good practice data for an air-conditioned prestige office building was 234
kWh/m2 yr for electricity and 114 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide F). Use the carbon
dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg
CO2/kWh. Download the report to understand more about the operation of the building, its
services systems, lighting, ventilation and any user issues found. Identify three technical
faults found by the PROBE team. Calculate the annual CO2 emission from the building with
either the manual method shown in Example 1, the workbook provided (Asset Rating, AR),
TM22 or commercial software. Find the Emission Performance Certificate, EPC grade AG,
that this building would have by using only the information provided for this question.
rejection by the owners of the building.
11.
The Cheltenham & Gloucester Chief Office in Gloucester was built in 1989 for 930
occupants (Probe 3, C&G Chief Office, BSJ, February 1996). It was a prestige, airconditioned, four-storey building; GFA 19,900 m2; TFA 16,390 m2. Gas-fired LPHW heating
to perimeter convectors, air-cooled chillers, air handling units and variable air volume
distribution systems. An air leakage test was not conducted. Metered electricity bills were
6048 MWh/yr and gas 1655 MWh/yr. Good practice data for an air-conditioned prestige
office building was 234 kWh/m2 yr for electricity and 114 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide
F). Use the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh
and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh. Download the report to understand more about the operation of the
building, its services systems, lighting, ventilation and any user issues found. Identify three
technical faults found by the PROBE team. Calculate the annual CO2 emission from the
building with either the manual method shown in Example 1, the workbook provided (Asset
Rating, AR), TM22 or commercial software. Find the Emission Performance Certificate, EPC
grade AG, that this building would have by using only the information provided for this
question. Estimate the energy usage to improve the EPC grade; recommend three energysaving measures to improve the buildings EPC grade with reasons, and the likelihood of
adoption, or rejection, by the owners of the building.
12.
A small health service building called the Woodhouse Medical Centre in Sheffield was
constructed in 1989. It was intended as a low-energy, green building, single storey with
brick/block walls and high thermal insulation and natural ventilation (Probe 6, Woodhouse
Medical Centre, BSJ, August 1996). Single storey; GFA 640 m2; TFA 640 m2; LTHW gasfired radiator heating system; each radiator had a thermostatic flow control valve. The
occupants did not make use of the manually controlled ventilators, windows or openable roof
lights; summer overheating led to the installation of room air conditioners. No air leakage test
was conducted. Metered electricity bills were around 32,000 kWh/yr and gas 35,200 kWh/yr.
Good practice data for a naturally ventilated health centre was taken as 55 kWh/m2 yr for
electricity and 174 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide F) due to incomplete data being
available. Use the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.52 kg
CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh. Download the report to understand more about the
operation of the building, its services systems, lighting, ventilation and any user issues found.
Identify three technical faults found by the PROBE team. Calculate the annual CO2 emission
from the building with either the manual method shown in Example 1, the workbook provided
(Asset Rating, AR), TM22 or commercial software. Find the Emission Performance
Certificate, EPC grade AG, that this building would have by using only the information
provided for this question. Estimate the energy usage to improve the EPC grade; recommend
three energy-saving measures to improve the buildings EPC grade with reasons, and the
likelihood of adoption, or rejection, by the owners of the building.
13.
The Cable & Wireless College (Probe 5, BSJ, June 1996) was constructed in 1993 as a
teaching and residential educational building in Coventry. It had two lecture theatres, 20
classrooms, 22 technical training rooms, 168 study bedrooms, a library, a restaurant, a
swimming pool and sports buildings. It was single storey, had natural ventilation, GFA 12,019
m2; TFA 11,400 m2; LTHW radiator heating from gas-fired boilers. No air leakage test was
conducted. Metered electricity bills were 2132 MWh/yr and gas 4560 MWh/yr. Good practice
data for an education halls of residence was taken as 85 kWh/m2 yr for electricity and 240
kWh/m2 yr for gas as there is a wide range of building types on the campus (CIBSE Guide F).
Use the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh and
gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh. Download the report to understand more about the operation of the
question. Estimate the energy usage to improve the EPC grade; recommend three energysaving measures to improve the buildings EPC grade with reasons, and the likelihood of
adoption, or rejection by the owners of the building.
14.
The Charities Aid Foundation, with a U-shaped plan, a three-storey brick building was
constructed in West Malling, Kent, in 1997 for 200 occupants (Probe 13, BSJ, February
1998). Designed as a mixed mode, naturally ventilated building with openable windows and
external solar shading, it was an example of solar architecture. Cooling was provided by water
sprays into the exhaust air which then pre-cooled incoming warm outdoor air through heat
exchangers; an adiabatic cooling system and low cost, with no mechanical refrigeration plant.
Work areas were mainly open plan; GFA 3900 m2; TFA 3700 m2; gas-fired heating with
radiators having thermostatic valves; two air handling units with cross-flow heat exchangers
for heat recovery. A computer server room and the boardroom had direct expansion air
conditioning units using variable refrigerant volume flow (VRV) for economy. No air leakage
test was conducted but smoke pencils found leakages at windows. Metered electricity bills
were 432,900 kWh/yr and gas 558,700 kWh/yr. Good practice data for an open plan naturally
ventilated office building was 54 kWh/m2 yr for electricity and 79 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE
Guide F). Use carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh
grade AG, this building would have by using only the information provided for this question.
rejection, by the owners of the building.
15.
An air-conditioned green building for the Co-operative Retail Services HQ (CRS)
(Probe 17, BSJ, October 1998) had four storeys for 930 staff in Manchester. Built crescent
shaped, with an occupancy density of 5 m2/person, it had a TFA of 17,300 m2 and interior
atria. It had chilled beams, displacement ventilation, gas-fired heating, chillers, air handling
units and an ice thermal storage system to reduce peak electrical cost. An air leakage test
revealed a flow through the building of 17.2 m3/m2 h at a static internal air pressure of 50 Pa.
Metered electricity bills were 7800 MWh/yr and gas 2045 MWh/yr. Good practice data for an
air-conditioned, prestige office building was 234 kWh/m2 yr for electricity and 114 kWh/m2 yr
for gas (CIBSE Guide F). Use the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy
as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh. Download the report to understand more about
the operation of the building, its services systems, lighting, ventilation and any user issues
found. Identify three technical faults found by the PROBE team. Calculate the annual CO2
emission from the building with either the manual method shown in Example 1, the workbook
provided (Asset Rating, AR), TM22 or commercial software. Find the Emission Performance
16.
The University of East Anglia built the Elizabeth Fry Building, Norwich, in 1995 (Probe
14, BSJ, April 1998) for teaching. It was a low energy design, four-storey building; GFA 3250
m2; TFA 3130 m2; an air leakage test revealed a flow through the building of 6.53 m3/m2 h at a
static internal air pressure of 50 Pa which corresponded to a natural infiltration rate of 0.97 air
changes/h which was a good standard. No refrigeration was installed; Termodeck air
distribution through channels in the concrete floors distributed supply air to the rooms. There
were cellular offices for academic staff, seminar rooms, a lecture theatre, a dining room and
kitchen. Walls were well-insulated concrete block/block; argon-filled triple-glazed windows
with low emissivity glass and mid-pane venetian blinds. Heating came from gas-fired
condensing boilers for the air handling unit heating coils. Metered electricity bills were
191MWh/yr and gas 96 MWh/yr. Good practice data for a naturally ventilated cellular office
building, the nearest equivalent, was 33 kWh/m2 yr for electricity and 79 kWh/m2 yr for gas
(CIBSE Guide F). Use the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.6 kg
CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh. Download the report to understand more about the
17.
Gardener House, Homeowners Friendly Society (HFS), UK, was constructed in 1994 as
an air-conditioned, two-storey, low energy head office with air conditioning (Probe 7, Gardner
House, BSJ, October 1996). Open plan office space for 120 occupants. Part of the ground
floor was buried. Chilled beams and displacement ventilation provide the HFS with a degree
of novelty to the air conditioning requested by client. GFA 4300 m2; TFA 3800; stone-clad
exterior with double-glazed grey glass and internal venetian blinds. The building had open
plan offices, boardroom, a dining room and kitchen and gas-fired LTHW heating. An air
leakage test revealed a flow through the building of 27 m3/m2 h at a static internal air pressure
of 50 Pa with very leaky windows as found with smoke pencils. Metered electricity bills were
1216 MWh/yr and gas 1030 MWh/yr. Good practice data for an air-conditioned prestige
office building was 234 kWh/m2 yr for electricity and 114 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide
F). Use the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh
question. Estimate the energy usage to improve the EPC grade; recommend three energy-
saving measures to improve the buildings EPC grade with reasons, and the likelihood of
adoption, or rejection, by the owners of the building.
18.
Marston Book Services, Milton Park, Abingdon, had a two-storey brick open office
building constructed in 1996 as an office, plus a large book warehouse. It was designed for 53
office staff and 46 warehouse staff (Probe 16, BSJ, August 1998). It was a low cost, naturally
ventilated office building, plus a book warehouse; office, TFA 962 m2, having gas-fired
LTHW radiators and openable windows. The warehouse was a single-storey, clear span,
industrial building of GFA 5028 m2 on the ground, plus 1840 m2 of mezzanine with gas-fired
warm air heating. An air leakage test revealed a flow through the office building of 27.1
m3/m2 h at a static internal air pressure of 50 Pa and 9.4 m3/m2 h for the warehouse. Metered
electricity bills for the office were 76,000 kWh/yr and gas 126,000 kWh/yr. Metered
electricity bills for the warehouse were 332,000 kWh/yr and gas 240,000 kWh/yr. Good
practice data for a naturally ventilated office building was 54 kWh/m2 yr for electricity, 79
kWh/m2 yr for gas and for a naturally ventilated warehouse was 34 kWh/m2 yr for electricity
and 187 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide F). Use the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission
for electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh. Download the report to
understand more about the operation of the building, its services systems, lighting, ventilation
and any user issues found. Identify three technical faults found by the PROBE team. Calculate
the annual CO2 emission from the building with either the manual method shown in Example
1, the workbook provided (Asset Rating, AR), TM22 or commercial software. Find the
Emission Performance Certificate, EPC grade AG, that this building would have by using
only the information provided for this question. Estimate the energy usage to improve the
EPC grade; recommend three energy-saving measures to improve the buildings EPC grade
with reasons, and the likelihood of adoption, or rejection, by the owners of the building.
19.
The University of Birmingham built the Orchard Learning Resource Centre in 1996 as a
low energy, naturally ventilated library, academic offices and book archive (Probe, BSJ, July
2000); GFA and TFA 4500 m2; thermal insulation slightly better than the Building Regulations
at the time; gas-fired LTHW radiators with TRVs. Ventilation was with both manually and
automatically controlled ventilators. The building had 103 PCs. An air leakage test revealed a
flow through the office building of 31.9 m3/m2 h at a static internal air pressure of 50 Pa. This
was a very leaky building; smoke pencils identified leaks at structural junctions, where
heating pipes passed through walls, doorways, beneath skirting boards, around windows and
at automatically operated windows at high level that did not close securely. Metered
electricity bills were 356 MWh/yr and gas 767 MWh/yr. Good practice data for an education
library with natural ventilation was 46 kWh/m2 yr for electricity, 115 kWh/m2 yr for gas
(CIBSE Guide F). Use the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.46
kg CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh. Download the report to understand more about the
20.
Portsmouth University built the Portland Building for the School of Architecture in
1996 for 60 staff and 8701300 students in Portsmouth (Probe 18, BSJ, January 1999). It had
a design suggesting a fortress but was E-shaped in plan, not as Henry VIII would have
wished. There were lecture theatres, seminar rooms, staff offices and a library; GFA 6230 m2;
TFA 6000 m2; four storeys. Ventilation was mixed mode natural and mechanical with gasfired LTHW heating, some underfloor heating, and some direct expansion cooling units. Glare
from windows was a problem for users. The lecture theatre had displacement ventilation that
caused draughts and air flow whistling. Windows had both manual and automatic operation
which provided poor control; motorized roof windows stuck partly open, closed slowly, and
let the rain in. There were automated external sun shades. Internal air temperature control had
problems. It was a low cost, naturally ventilated office; office TFA 962 m2 having gas-fired
LTHW radiators and openable windows. An air leakage test revealed a flow through the
building of 15.6 m3/m2 h at a static internal air pressure of 50 Pa. Electricity bills were
estimated to be 300 MWh/yr and gas 600 MWh/yr due to meter errors. Good practice data for
a naturally ventilated office building was used as being the nearest listed application, 54
kWh/m2 yr for electricity, 79 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide F). Use the carbon dioxide
atmospheric emission for electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh.
improve the buildings EPC grade with reasons, and the likelihood of adoption, or rejection,
by the owners of the building.
21.
Tanfield House, Edinburgh, was an open plan, prestige two-storey office building for
the Standard Life administrative centre, built in 1995. It had internal atria, the plant operated
24 hours a day, 7 days a week, and the building was fully air conditioned. It was designed for
1300 office staff, had a roof garden, 450-seat restaurant and 306 basement car park spaces
(Probe 1, BSJ, September 1995); GFA 20,000 m2; TFA 19,780 m2; 20 air handling units. There
were 13 PCs for each workstation. The cool climate allowed a lot of free cooling through the
air conditioning system. Openable windows had tinted glass and fixed external shading; they
were rarely opened due to draughts. Internal solar shading had motorized sails beneath the
dome roof glazing. Users had no local control over lighting or the HVAC. An air leakage test
revealed a flow through the office building of 27.1 m3/m2 h at a static internal air pressure of
50 Pa. Metered electricity bills for the office were 6,329,600 kWh/yr and gas 6,547,180
kWh/yr. Good practice data for a prestige air conditioned office building was 234 kWh/m2 yr
for electricity, 114 kWh/m2 yr for gas (CIBSE Guide F). A separate building housed the IT
servers and is not included in this data. Use the carbon dioxide atmospheric emission for
electrical energy as 0.52 kg CO2/kWh and gas 0.2 kg CO2/kWh. Download the report to
understand more about the operation of the building, its services systems, lighting, ventilation
and any user issues found. Identify three technical faults found by the PROBE team. Calculate
the annual CO2 emission from the building with either the manual method shown in Example
1, the workbook provided (Asset Rating, AR), TM22 or commercial software. Find the
Emission Performance Certificate, EPC grade AG, that this building would have by using
only the information provided for this question. Estimate the energy usage to improve the
EPC grade; recommend three energy-saving measures to improve the buildings EPC grade
with reasons, and the likelihood of adoption, or rejection, by the owners of the building.
22.
Low energy building designs in the UK:
1. Are always modern and look impressive.

2. Are always found to be ideally comfortable by users.
3. Must have large windows and glazed walling.
4. Must have small windows and high levels of thermal insulation.

5.
Should consume a minimum of primary energy when compared with similar types and
sizes of buildings.
23.
Low energy buildings in the UK:
1. The description does not really mean anything as all buildings consume primary energy.
2.
How the occupants use the mechanical and electrical services determines whether a
building is a low energy consumer.
3. Must appear to be old-fashioned.

4. Must be built with brick walling.
5. Need to be built underground.
PROBE revisited
24.
The Elizabeth Fry Building at the University of East Anglia in Norwich was analysed
by the PROBE team in 1998 (see question 16 in this chapter). It was considered to have an
exceptionally good performance in many respects and was revisited in 2011 by the same team
(CIBSE Journal, March 2012). Read the revisit article and identify the main comments by the
PROBE team. What conclusion can you make about the performance of this building?
1. Experienced client representative for the campus.
2. Client required, keep it simple and do it well design and within normal cost levels.
3. Daily clerk of works inspections with the builder.
4. Attention to details affecting insulation and air tightness during construction.
5. Termodeck ventilated floor slabs as thermal storage.
6. Crude original automatic control strategy allowed overheating of the Termodeck,
needing cooling by outside air, wasting energy.
7. Original BMS could not incorporate additional temperatures sensors that were needed to
monitor the temperature of the Termodeck concrete to save energy.
8. The BMS was extended and had new control strategy in 1997 before the 1998 PROBE
analysis.
9. Changes in the usage of the building: common rooms converted into offices;
kitchen/dining areas converted into densely occupied offices, resulting in windows
being too small.
10.
Greatly increased room occupancy, use of PCs, data projectors and audio-visual
systems raised internal heat gains.

11.
Gas and electricity metering faults caused data unreliability from 2008.
12.
Electrical energy use in 1997 was 61 kWh/m2, rose to 72 kWh/m2 in June 2008.
13.
Gas energy use for heating fluctuated between 2736 kWh/m2 during 19972011.
14.
Gas energy for domestic hot-water use varied from 414 kWh/m2 during 19972011
due to a change to 24/7 operation, weekly pasteurization and a boiler change in 2009.
15.
Lightly insulated domestic hot-water pipes were found.
16.
Window glare caused discomfort.
17.
Under-heated areas had additional electrical heaters.
18.
Converted rooms had acoustic, glare and air temperature problems.
3 Built environment
Air conditions
1. Dry-bulb air temperature is measured by:
1. Thermocouple.
2. Black bulb thermometer.
3. Mercury in glass thermometer.
4. Sling psychrometer.
5. Thermistor anemometer.
2. Air dry-bulb temperature is measured by:

1. Suspending a sensor about 1.0 m below the ceiling and waiting for it to stabilize.
2. Reading the Building Management System computer screen data from a fixed sensor in
the room.
3. Leaving a sling psychrometer on a desk for an hour.
4. Shielding a mercury in glass thermometer from room air draughts.
5. Rotating a sling psychrometer at head height in room air for one minute and taking an
immediate reading.
3. Air dry-bulb temperature is dependent upon:

1. People and furniture.
2. Size of room.
3. Radiation sources within the room.
4. Solar heat gain through the windows.
5. Air velocity in the room.
4. Atmospheric vapour pressure is:

1. The total pressure of the atmosphere at the time.
2. The pressure exerted on the ground by the dry gases of the atmosphere above sea level.
3. The sum of the clouds, wind and static air forces on the ground.
4. That part of the barometric pressure produced by the water vapour in humid air.
5. None of these.
5. Which is not equal to one atmospheric pressure?

1. 300 inches of mercury.
2. 1.0 bar.
3. 14.7 pounds per square inch, psi.
4. 1,013.25 millibars (mb).
5. 101325 Pa.
6. Air conditioning engineers consider atmospheric air pressure to consist of what?

1. Polluted air.
2. Vapours, gases and water vapour.
3. Around 800.0 mb from dry gases plus 213.0 mb due to water vapour.
4. Around 700.0 mb from dry clean gases, 200 mb from polluting vapours and dusts plus
113.0 mb due to water vapour.
5. Around 990.0 mb from dry gases plus 20.0 mb due to water vapour.
Air quality
7. Which of these is not correct about indoor air quality?
1. Cannabis smoke contains carbon monoxide, benzene and toluene.

2. Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide, benzene and toluene.
3. Internal combustion engines emit carbon monoxide and many other atmospheric
pollutants.
4. Normal breathing increases the carbon dioxide content of room air.
5. Normal breathing increases the carbon monoxide content of room air.
8. Where could carbon monoxide, benzene and toluene gases have come from if detected
within an occupied building?
1. Water chiller plant room refrigerant leakage.
2. Hydrocarbon natural gas combustion water heating plant.
3. Drains and sewers.
4. Cleaning fluids and off-gassing from furnishings.
5. Outside air intake to AHU or people smoking tobacco or cannabis.
9. Where do indoor odours, vapours and gases come from?

1. Radon gas emanating from the ground beneath the building.
2. Carbon monoxide from traffic.
3. People, our clothes, and what we put on our skin.
4. Passively acquired cigarette smoke prior to entry into the office building.
5. Last nights spicy meal.
10.
Are any of these correct for biological effluent?
1. Is too complicated to be measured.

2. Comes from many sources within the working environment.
3. From one office worker in a 10.0 m2 working space is standardized at 1.0 olf.
4. Is counteracted by plants within the occupied building, particularly with open atria.
5. We walk into the building with odours on our clothes.
11.
Which of these are correct for excellent air quality in a building?
1. May need very high room air change rates.

2. May need outside air to be collected from the roof of a tall city centre building.
3. May be unachievable when the building is located in a polluted industrial area.
4. Can be improved with air filtering equipment.
5. Mainly impractical due to its high cost.
12.
Where does poor indoor air quality come from?
1. Toxic substances that occupants bring into the building by hand or on their clothing.
2. Inward leakage of outdoor air (outdoor air may be cleaner).
3.
Insufficient fresh air ventilation quantity (meaning ability to remove internally

generated pollutants).
4.
Volatile organic compounds released into the building air from furnishings, cleaning
fluids and electro-mechanical equipment.
5. Lack of adequate air filtration systems (this is not a source of pollution).
13.
Which may be related mainly to sick building syndrome?
1. Excessively cleaned and polished interior surfaces.

2. Stuffy atmosphere.
3. Eye, nose and throat irritation, headache, nausea, breathing difficulties.
4. Absenteeism.
5. General commercial noise, building services intrusive noise, fluorescent light flicker or
glare.
14.
Which is the internal air quality recommended upper limit for percentage of occupants
detecting any odour?

1. 50.
2. 40.
3. 30.
4. 20.
5. 5.
15.
Odours are measured by what units?
1. Oles.
2. Fangers.
3. Decipol.
4. Olf.
5. Millilitres per square metre of floor area.
16 Air quality within a building depends upon:

1. Number of people indoors.
2. How many and where air pollutants are found.
3. Relative humidity of room air.
4. Dry-bulb air temperature.
5. Plants, animals and furnishings in the building.
17.
Indoor odours, vapours and gases come from:
1. Ingress from outdoor environment.

2. The air conditioning systems.
3. The basement car park of the building.
4. Humans, animals, plants and furnishings within the building.
4. Dust, pollen and materials in wastepaper bins.
18.
Indoor odours, vapours and gases come from:
1. Cleaning fluids used overnight.

2. New furniture, carpets, floor coverings, sealants and adhesives.
3. Old furniture, carpets and floor coverings.
4. Personal hygiene products.
5.
Cigarette smoke, diesel engine exhaust, road tar, painting work being done and
creosote used on roofing.
19.
What is the likely outcome from inadequate outdoor air ventilation?
1. Comfortably warm houses and offices.

2. Less draught.
3. Suppression of house dust mites, condensation and mould growth due to warmer
environment.
4. Inadequate removal of house dust mites, condensation and potential mould growth.
5. Lower energy costs.
20.
What is the likely outcome from inadequate outdoor air ventilation?
1. Reduced fire risk.
2. Lower cost ducted ventilation system.

3. Suppression of hazardous pollutants such as oxides of nitrogen from vehicles, volatile
organic compounds from furnishings and possible mould growth.
4. Excess of hazardous pollutants such as oxides of nitrogen from vehicles, volatile
organic compounds from furnishings and possible mould growth.
5. Reduced contamination produced from tobacco smoke.
21.
Which of these can affect asthma sufferers?
1. Excess of outside air ventilation.

2. House dust mites and mould spores.
3. Warm indoor air.
4. Humid and warm indoor air.
5. Matters other than those related to ventilation.
22.
Which of these is not a contaminant of indoor air quality (IAQ)?
1. Tobacco smoke.
2. Volatile organic compounds (VOC) from cleaning fluids.
3. Nitrogen.
4. Carbon monoxide.
5. Nitrogen dioxide.
23.
1. Pipe tobacco smoke.

2. Volatile organic compounds (VOC) from new furnishings and floor coverings.
3. Carbon tetrachloride.
4. Nitrogen trioxide.
5. Oxygen.
24.
1. Cigar smoke.
2. Carbon dioxide.
3. Benzene, toluene, formaldehyde and ethylene glycol.
5. NOx.
25.
When carbon dioxide level in occupied rooms is sensed for control of ventilation
airflow, what is the maximum set point used, approximately, in parts per million, ppm?
1. 100.
2. 700.
3. 250.
4. 1000.
5. 5000 (health limit of CO2 in air).
26.
What is radon?
1. Solar flare particles passing through the Earths atmosphere.

2. Fire extinguishant.
3. Fluorinated hydrocarbon refrigerant.
4. Radioactive gas from granite ground.
5. Rapidly decaying radioactive isotope.
27.
What form of reduction occurs when ventilation removes tracer gas or contaminant?
1. One air change eliminates it.

2. Linear rate of decay.
3. Logarithmic rate of decay.
4. Exponential rate of decay.
5. Polynomial rate of decay.
28.
Which is not true about viruses and bacteria within buildings?
1. People and animals bring bacteria indoors.

2. Indoor potted plants are a source of bacteria.
3. Viruses and bacteria are airborne.
4. Water and damp surfaces release viruses and bacteria into room air.
5. Influenza, measles, tuberculosis and chicken pox are transmitted by air.
29.
Which of these is the correct reason for outdoor air ventilation rate control and
provision?
1. Removes dust mites.
2. Removes PM10 particles which are all larger than 10 m diameter.
3. Maintains high humidity within a building to ensure mould spores and dust mites
remain.
4. Allergic skin reactions and asthma have no causal relationship to dust mites.
5. There is no correlation to chronic illness and mortality from ventilation.
30.
We sense odours by:
1. Identifying smells.
2. Breathing onto others.

3. A measuring instrument.
4. Tasting them in our mouth.
5. Olfactory response.
31.
Regarding indoor odour quality:
1. The decimetre is the measuring unit for odour.

2. Indoor air quality is measured on the decibel scale.
3. Indoor odour is very difficult to measure because it cannot be seen.
4. Measurement remains a subjective science.
5. Sick buildings have odorous air.
32.
Concentration of odorous pollutants is measured by:
1. Number of people per 100 m2 of floor area in the building.

2. Age profile of the occupants.
3. Outdoor air ventilation rate in litre/s per person.
4. Decipol units.
5. Olf units.
33.
We perceive odours by using which units?
1. Blockage of nasal passageways.

2. Olf units.
3. Decibel units.
4. Decipol units.
5. Consensus of agreement among occupants.
34.
The decipol unit is:
1. Basic unit of sound.

2. How we evaluate pollutants through olfactory sensation.
3. The name of a sound level meter.
4. Same as the humans sniff test.
5. A taste test on the scale of 1 to 10.
35.
One olf is:
1. A very sick building.

2. One person sniffing a single odour for 10 seconds.
3. Emission rate of biological effluents from one person.
4. Standardized emission from 1.0 m2 of building or material surface area.
5.
Emission rate of biological effluent from 1.0 kg of Polyacrylonitrile (PAN) resin at

room temperature.
36.
Olf refers to:
1. A standard unit of odour from any source.

2. Ole Fanger who devised comfort measurements.
3. Olfactory sensors in the nose.
4. Number of Olfs refers to different levels of human activity.
5. Units used for tasting odours.
37.
Biological effluent:
1. Is too complicated to be measured.
2. Comes from many sources within the working environment.

3. From one office worker in a 10.0 m2 working space is standardized at 1.0 olf.
4. Is counteracted by plants within the occupied building, particularly with open atria.
5. We walk into the building with odours on our clothes.
38.
Biological loading:
1. From one office worker is around 0.10 olf/m2.

2. Of a smoker while smoking is around 25.0 olf/m2.
3. Of a smoker when not smoking is around 6.0 olf/m2.
4. Within a gymnasium in use is around 11.0 olf/m2.
5. Within a low pollution office building with an absence of smoking is around 0.20
olf/m2.
39.
Satisfactory air quality may be deemed when:
1. 100% of the full-time occupants are satisfied.

4. Complaints cease.
5. Odours have been eliminated.
40.
Air quality within a building:
1. Is easily achievable.
2. Cannot be achieved in buildings over 15 years old.
3. Deteriorates with building age.
4. Is a compromise between conflicting requirements and cost.
5. Only needs simple instrumentation to analyse.
41.
Excellent air quality in a building:
1. May need very high room air change rates.

2. May need outside air to be collected from the roof of a tall city centre building.
3. May be unachievable when the building is located in a polluted outdoor industrial
environment.
4. Can be improved with air filtering equipment.
5. Mainly impractical due to its high cost.
42.
Where does dust and dirt appear in ducted ventilation and air conditioning systems?
1. Blown through air ducts, deposited in rooms and removed by cleaning and vacuuming.
2. Retained in air handling unit air filters.
3. Nowhere but in air filters.
4. On fan blades and casings.
5. Inside air ducts and in all items of plant.
43.
What can be done to maintain the health and safety of the internal surfaces of ducted
ventilation and air conditioning systems?

1. Replace aged air ducts.
2. Increase air velocity to blow deposits out of ducts and terminal units outside of
occupied hours.
3. Change air filters regularly.
4. Internal visual inspection, compressed air brushing, scraping and vacuum cleaning.
5. Nothing more than maintaining air filters to keep air and ducts clean.
44.
Where can sinusitis, asthma, pneumonia and skin dermatitis originate?
1. Mould spores in warm, humid, unclean air and water building services systems.
2. Contaminated outdoor air.
3. Low air humidity.
4. Contact with people with breathing infections.
5. Warm, humid air in crowded buildings or transportation.
45.
How can eye and nasal irritations occur?
1. Airborne infections from other people.

2. Warm, humid air within the building.
3. Warm, low relative humidity air within buildings.
4. Clogged air conditioning filters.
5. Excessive dust in room air.
46.
What can cause eye and nasal irritations to occur?
1. Low relative humidity or volatile organic compounds (VOC) released into room air
from furnishings, cleaning fluids, paint and chemicals.
2. Badly fitting contact lenses.
3. Unclean conditioned air.
4. Airborne bacteria.
5. Common cold and flu.
General knowledge 3
47.
How can heat leakages due to inadequate thermal insulation and damaged pipes or
cables be detected?
48.
How can building designers help users feel comfortable in their workplace?
1. Provide perfect indoor air conditions.

2. Meet everyones expectations.
3. Provide some means of individual control over their microclimate.
4. Link each workstation to the building management system computer so that the control
system polls user feedback and adjusts set points accordingly.
5. Minimize greenhouse gas emissions and regularly survey users comfort responses to
minimize complaints.
49.
State the factors that are taken into account when designing for the provision of
ventilation with outdoor air.
50.
List the atmospheric pollutants that are likely to be present within normally occupied
buildings. Identify those pollutants that are used for the design of the ventilation system,
the filtration equipment, acoustic insulation and general maintenance during occupation.
51.
State why continuous logging is of value to the energy audit engineer, the
environmental system design engineer, the building designer and building occupants,
giving reasons for your statements.
52.
Where does poor indoor air quality come from?
53.
What is the human thermal comfort related to?
1. Sleeping cycle.
2. Metabolic activity.
3. Time of day.
4. Clothing.
5. Location.
54.
Human thermal comfort is related to:

2. Outdoor relative humidity.
3. Wind vector.
4. Age.
5. Crowding.
55.
Where does Legionella disease originate?
1. The French Foreign Legion.

2. Drains and sewers.
3. Cold-water storage tanks.
4. Hot-water storage cylinders.
5. Aerosols from cooling towers, shower heads, spray taps, spa baths and humidifiers.
56.
Where does Legionella disease originate?
1. Naturally occurring bacteria in soil and water.

2. Rainwater.
3. Unclean air conditioning ducts.
4. Stored water in building services systems.

5. Carpet dust.
Heat transfer
57.
Which are correct about heat transfer?
1. Latent heat transfer changes the dry-bulb temperature of air.

2. Latent heat transfer does not affect the dry-bulb temperature of air.
3. Latent heat transfer occurs when a mass of water is evaporated into air.
4. Latent heat transfer means it cannot be measured with a thermometer.
5. Latent heat transfer is an imaginary concept.
58.
Which are correct about heat transfer?
1. Sensible heat transfer means it is making common sense.

2. Sensible heat transfer is rare.
3. Most heat transfers are of the sensible category.
4. Sensible heat transfer takes place from a higher temperature to a lower temperature.
5. Sensible and latent heat transfers tend to cancel each other out.
59.
Radiation heat transfer:
1. Uses a formula including the number 5.67 x 10-8.

2. Does not include the emissivity of emitting or receiving surfaces.
3. Ignores the surface area of the emitting surface.
4. Uses absolute temperatures.
5. Calculates the heat transferred in kilojoules.
60.
Radiation heat transfer:
1. Only occurs between closely spaced flat surfaces.

2. Is from a warmer to a cooler surface.
3. Must have an air space to transfer the radiation across.
4. Cannot be absorbed by anything.
5. Occurs between surfaces that can see each other at any angle and distance.
Humidity
61.
Which is correct about air humidity?
1. Moisture in room air finds it own way out of the building.

2. Moisture gained by room air will always condense somewhere and drain away.
3. Moisture within building air will always condense into liquid at the lowest surface
temperature location.
4. Natural ventilation does not remove moist air from a building.
5. Only mechanical exhaust systems remove moist air from a building.
62.
1. Sources of moisture in a building include people, washing and toilet facilities, animals
and rain ingress.
2. All buildings are watertight.
3. The structure of a building always keeps water and moisture out.
4. Building materials are impervious to moisture transfer.
5. Cracks through structures and gaps around doors and windows never let moisture enter
the building.
63.
Which are correct about air humidity?
1. Moisture in room air is not important.

2. People enjoy humid air conditions.
3. People prefer relative humidity to be within the 4070% range for comfort.
4. Outdoor air can become saturated with moisture during rainfall.
5. Saturated outdoor air is always comfortable.
64.
Which are correct about air humidity?
1. Exhaling breath produces latent heat gain to the room air.

2. Moisture evaporation from breathing causes condensation on cold windows.
3. Moist air is unhealthy for humans so we must exhale it.
4. People are the only source of moisture output within an occupied building.
5. All open water surfaces indoors create humidity.
65.
1. Spraying water into room air heats up the room.

2. Evaporating water consumes sensible heat energy.
3. Evaporating water consumes latent heat energy.
4. A room with a relative humidity of 25% feels humid.
5. Every air conditioning system must have a humidifier system.
66.
1. Spraying water into room air lowers the room air dry-bulb temperature.
2. A room with a relative humidity of 85% does not feel uncomfortably humid.
3. The UK has a dry atmospheric climate all through the year.
4. Victoria in Australia has a high humidity climate all year.

5. Countries within the Tropics always have a dry comfortable atmosphere.
67.
Which does not apply to air humidity?
1. Relative humidity is the most commonly used term, but percentage saturation is
technically correct.
2. A thermo hygrograph continuously measures and draws graphs of room conditions.
3. Human hair is used for humidity sensing.
4. Hygroscopic salt-covered wire cells are used for electronic measurements.
5. Room air humidity is generally considered very important for human comfort.
68.
How is relative humidity or percentage saturation measured?
1. Sling psychrometer.
2. Globe and wet-bulb thermometers.
3. Psychrometer wet-bulb depression and anemometer.
4. Human hair hygrometer and psychrometer.
5. Not a directly measured physical property.
69.
What is relative humidity?
1. Air moisture content relative to water.

2. Amount of moisture in air above a base of zero.
3. A ratio.
4. Absolute moisture content of humid air.
5. Kg moisture in a kg of dry air.
70.
What is air percentage saturation?
1. Water suspended in air relative to same quantity of liquid water.

2. Amount of moisture in air above a base of zero.
3. Absolute moisture content of humid air.
4. Same as relative humidity.
5. A ratio.
71.
What is air humidity?
1. Undesirable property, removed by ventilation.

2. Unwanted moisture.
3. A cause of discomfort.
4. Finely divided droplets of water in air.
5. Steam from a kettle or cooking.
72.
What is humidity in air?
1. Superheated steam at the air dry-bulb temperature.

2. Superheated steam at the air wet-bulb temperature.
3. Steam at low partial pressure.
4. Contamination in clean air.
5. Wet steam at very low pressure and temperature, mixed in with air, producing wet-bulb
depression.
Measuring instruments
73.
Sling psychrometer:
1. Is a psychiatrist suspended out of a window.
2. Contains thermocouples.
3. Is a paper and pencil test conducted on job-seekers.
4. Is an outdated instrument.
5. Uses both wet- and dry-bulb mercury in glass thermometers.
74.
Wet-bulb thermometer:
1. No such thing.
2. Dry-bulb mercury in glass thermometer immersed in a water tank.
3. Does not work in humid air
4. Used inside a 38 mm diameter black copper globe.
5. Mercury in glass thermometer having a wet cotton sock covering the sensing bulb.
75.
Difference between dry- and wet-bulb thermometer readings:
1. Called the wet-bulb depression.

2. Measures room atmosphere depression.
3. Used to find the vapour pressure of the room air.
4. Wet-bulb temperature is always higher than the dry-bulb temperature due to evaporative
heat transfer.
5. Dry-bulb temperature is always higher than the wet-bulb temperature due to evaporative
heat transfer.
76.
Kata thermometer:
1. Not used any more.

2. Measures Feng Shui Kata factor for a building.
3. Used to measure the cooling effect of room air temperature and velocity.
4. Time taken for the alcohol in the bulb to rise between two marks is taken as the cooling
power of the room air.
5. Low cost, reliable, calibrated and non-electronic way to assess the cooling power of
room air, but is outdated.
77.
An anemometer is:
1. For measuring fan vane angles.

2. For assessing animosity towards the room conditions.
3. A calibrated device to measure air speed in a room, outdoors or an air duct.
4. A rotating vane with thermistor or heated wire sensor.
5. Only to be used by qualified personnel.
78.
Which is not used for temperature sensing?
1. Heat-sensitive pads stuck to surfaces.

2. Mercury in glass thermometers.
3. Copper-constantan thermocouple wires.
4. Thermistor.
5. Lasers.
79.
1. Touching the surface by hand.

2. Microwave emissions and a mobile sensor.
3. Burying a sensor beneath the surface of plaster and concrete.
4. Infra-red non-touch radiation sensing.
5. Clamping thermocouple sensors to pipes.
80.
1. Arial scanning from a helicopter, plane or balloon using infra-red recording camera.
2. Manufacturing industry uses non-touch infra-red scanning on production lines.
3. Satellite scanning images.
4. Infra-red scanning displays where buildings have wasteful hot surfaces.
5. Ultraviolet data loggers.
81.
Which is not true about temperature sensing?
1. Is rarely done.
2. Every project has permanent logging.
3. Computer-based building management systems log temperature data.
4. Infra-red scanning finds damaged and leaking thermal insulation.
5. Of great value to the energy auditor.
82.
What does one need to find the mean radiant temperature of an enclosure?
1. Kata thermometer.
2. Globe thermometer.
3. Dry- and wet-bulb thermometers.
4. Surface temperature thermocouples, dry-bulb thermometer and a measuring tape.
5. Silvered globe thermometer and anemometer.
83.
Which instruments are used to find wind chill index?
1. Kata thermometer.
2. Globe and wet-bulb thermometers.
3. Sling psychrometer and anemometer.

4. Thermal comfort meter.
5. Thermistor anemometer and silvered wet-bulb thermometer.
Sick building syndrome

84.
What does SBS stand for?
1. Sick building service.

2. Specialized Broadcasting Service.
3. Sports-based service.
4. Sick building standard.
5. Sick building syndrome.
85.
Where does sick building syndrome apply?
1. In architectural design failures.

2. In perception that exterior design of a building does not fit in successfully with existing
local architecture.
3. Interior of a building that looks to be designed by a sick mind.
4. Polluted interior atmosphere.
5. Poor quality external environment makes users of the building susceptible to airborne
upper respiratory ailments and overall sickness.
86.
What is SBS?
1. Stabilized basement substructure.

2. Sick building substitute.
3. Sick building syndrome.
4. Specialized biological standard for a building such as nuclear, biological or chemical

weapons manufacturing facility.
5. Submarine basic system.
87.
Which factors are not included in an SBS assessment?
1. Industrial pollution of outdoor air.

2. Tobacco smoke.
3. Too low an occupancy density in a large space.
4. Air bacteria.
5. Noise.
88.
1. Age of the workforce.

2. Volatile vapours in workspace.
3. Lack of rest breaks.
4. Poorly maintained air conditioning system.
5. Insects and pests.
89.
1. Dampness indoors.
2. Body odour.
3. Polyvinyl chloride vapour.
4. Dust and debris in working environment.
5. Inappropriate but safe clothing for workspace.
90.
Which factor is included in an SBS assessment?
1. Poorly maintained mechanical equipment.

2. Time of day.
3. Shift work times.
4. Overbearing management style over workforce.
5. Illegal medication.
91.
Which factor is not included in an SBS assessment?
1. Inadequately clean working environment.

2. Staff not taking work breaks.
3. Dust in workspace.
4. Lighting glare.
5. Tiredness.
92.
Which factor is included in an SBS assessment?
1. Staff not taking holiday entitlements.

2. Air handling unit air filters clogged with dirt.
3. Prescribed medication.
4. Government workplace legislation.
5. Excessive working hours.
93.
1. Airborne bacteria.
2. Flickering fluorescent lighting.
3. Boredom.
4. Off gassing from carpets.

5. Fumes from printing inks.
94.
1. Legionella bacteria from cooling towers.

2. Excessive sunshine on workstation.
3. Inadequate outdoor air ventilation.
4. High indoor air carbon dioxide level.
5. Inability to open windows near to workstation.
95.
1. Legionella bacteria from humidifiers.

2. Lack of windows.
3. Stuffy indoor atmosphere.
4. Legionella bacteria from shower heads and spray taps.
5. Legionella bacteria from standing water surfaces near to workstation.
96.
1. Personal medical history or disability.

2. Air temperature, velocity and humidity around workforce.
3. Increased risk from airborne infection due to very young age.
4. Increased risk from airborne infection for the elderly.
5. Increased risk from airborne infection for these suffering bronchitis, asthma or
pneumonia.
97.
Which symptom manifests with sick building syndrome?
1. Inability to obtain office space rental clients.

2. Frequent staff absences and use of medical certificates.
3. Poor return on shareholders investments.
4. High energy consumption for the building.
5. Low rental achieved for the building.
98.
Which symptom does not manifest with sick building syndrome?
1. Lethargy.
2. Headaches.
3. Excessive alcohol consumption.
4. Aching muscles.
5. Catarrh.
99.
Which symptoms manifest with sick building syndrome?
1. Upper respiratory infections.

2. High staff turnover not attributable to commercial factors.
3. Dry eyes.
4. Inability to retain staff in the building.
5. Inability to retain tenants in the building.
100. How is sick building syndrome defined?

1. Many people consider working in the building makes them sick.
2. Publicized condemnation of the building.
3. That combination of health malfunctions that noticeably affect more than 5% of the
buildings population.
4. Accumulation of health malfunctions noticeably affecting 25% of the buildings users.
5. User formalized surveys finding overall dislike for an inadequately comfortable
environment.
101. Which is a valid means of tackling a sick building?

1. Ensure workers take holiday entitlements.
2. Limit working hours to normal contract conditions.
3. Provide easily accessible outdoor rest areas.
4. Eliminate contamination in water systems serving the building.
5. Ensure chlorinated fluorocarbons are not used within the building or in the refrigeration
systems.
102. Which is a valid means of tackling a sick building?

1. Provide staff with a gymnasium, canteen and rest room.
2. Remove air conditioning and provide natural ventilation systems.
3. Replace cooling towers with air-cooled condenser water heat exchangers.
4. Treat the air conditioning supply air with deodorant atomizer sprays.
5. Replace complainants with other workers.
103. Which is not a valid means of tackling a sick building?

1. Staff training, psychological counselling and repeated surveys.
2. Reduce glare from lighting.
3. Install electronic ballasts for fluorescent lighting to run lamps at 20 kHz and eliminate
flicker.
4. Regular replacement of air filters.
5. Programme of interior air duct cleaning.
Thermal comfort
104. Mean radiant temperature:
1. Can only be calculated from empirical formulae.
2. Explains why some rooms feel like warm sunshine.
3. Measured with a solar energy meter or photo-voltaic cell.
4. Measured by a 150 m diameter globe thermometer.
5. Calculated from the room air velocity, globe and dry-bulb air temperatures at the point
of measurement.
105. In well-insulated buildings having modest glazing areas and little air movement, what
will the operative temperature be closest to?
1. Globe temperature.
2. Mean radiant temperature.
3. Wet-bulb temperature.
5. Environmental temperature.
106. Resultant room temperature:

1. Can be equal to operative temperature under some conditions.
2. Explains the resulting effect of all sources of warmth in the space.
3. Means the result of the air conditionings engineers design.

4. Calculated from the room air velocity, globe and dry-bulb air temperatures at the point
of measurement.
5. Same as mean radiant temperature.
107. List and discuss the factors affecting thermal comfort.
108. State how extremes of heat and cold affect the workers on a site, what environmental
measurements can be taken, and the corrective actions possible to ensure safe and healthy
working conditions.
109. Describe with the aid of sketches how each of the following instruments functions: drybulb thermometer, wet-bulb thermometer, globe thermometer, vane anemometer,
thermocouple, thermistor and infra-red scanner.
110. An open plan office is designed for sedentary occupation and is to have general air
movement not exceeding 0.2 m/s and an air temperature of 22C d.b., in winter. It is
expected that a globe temperature of 20C would be found at the centre of the room
volume. What would be the mean radiant, resultant, environmental and operative
temperatures?
17.9oC, 17.2oC, 19.3oC, 20.3oC.
111. A lecture theatre is designed for sedentary occupation and is to have general air
movement not exceeding 0.5 m/s and an air temperature of 21C d.b., in winter. It is
temperatures?
13oC, 11.3oC, 15.7oC, 20oC.
112. A conference room is designed for sedentary occupation and is to have general air
movement not exceeding 0.35 m/s and an air temperature of 24C d.b., in summer. It is
temperatures?
16.8oC, 15.4oC, 19.2oC, 21.4oC.
113. Survey the factors affecting thermal comfort and explain what they mean.
114. What was the earlier name for operative temperature regarding comfort assessment?
1. Wet resultant temperature.
2. Wet-bulb globe temperature.
3. Dry resultant temperature.
4. Environmental temperature.
115. Fangers thermal equation for sedentary comfort:

1. Finds a balance between variables affecting comfort.
2. Shows that people prefer slightly cool conditions.
3. Shows that people prefer slightly warm conditions.
4. Shows that it is impossible to satisfy everyone in the room.
5. Shows when room conditions create thermal neutrality, i.e. neither too hot nor too cool.
116. Which is not correct for evaluation of heat stress index (HSI)?
1. A value of 50 creates some discomfort and mental ability difficulty.
2. A maximum of 165 for a fit young professional athlete of Olympic standard.
3. The range of 4060 means unsuitable for mental effort.
4. Only selected personnel who are fit enough can work when it is in the range 7090.
5. 100 is the maximum possible for a fit acclimatized young male.
117. Heat stress index means:

1. The number of days a worker can stay in that environment is found from the allowed
exposure time.
2. Allowed exposure index is the overall effect of heat exposure.
3. Heat stress index divided by the maximum available evaporative cooling gives the
allowed exposure time.
4. The required evaporative cooling divided by the maximum available evaporative
cooling gives the allowed exposure time.
5. When the HSI is above 100, the allowed exposure time is calculated.
118. The purpose of erecting a building is to do what?

1. Stop wind blowing papers off desks.
2. Keep people warm or cool.
3. Keep rain off people.
4. Make a statement to society.
5. Filter the external environment.
119. Which is the basic need of human comfort?

1. Constant core body temperature.
2. Quiet indoor environment.
3. Being comfortably warm.
4. Avoidance of draughts.
5. Avoiding suffering heat stroke by use of cooling systems.
120. What is consumed in maintaining human comfort?

1. Bricks, concrete and glass in buildings.
2. Primary energy.
3. Intellectual capacity in designing air conditioning systems.
4. All of our human technical capabilities.
5. More of the worlds resources than are justifiable.
121. Thermal comfort PPD means?

1. Personal preferences determined.
2. Personal preferences determination.
3. Has no meaning.
4. Percentile people dissatisfied.
5. Predicted percentage of dissatisfied people.
122. A thermal comfort zone is:

1. Where everyone is satisfied.
2. When all data falls within one standard deviation of the ideal conditions.
3. Where the predicted mean vote of all occupants falls within the slightly cool to slightly
warm band.
4. When the environmental temperature is correct for the application.
5. When nobody complains.
123. Thermal comfort zone is:

1. Entirely different for males and females.
2. Conditioned by country and locality of origin.
3. Never the same for everyone.
4. Dependent upon body weight, height and shape.
5. Independent of nationality, geographic origin, age, gender and body build.
124. Personal comfort is:

1. Unlikely to be achieved for everyone in a working environment.
2. Achieved by each person adapting their clothing, working location, activity level and
daily habits to cope with the overall indoor environment provided for everyone.
3. Individually sacrificed for the good of all.
4. Not to be expected.
5. Too expensive to achieve in the workplace.
125. Cold outdoor climates:

1. Are assessed by the frostbite index (FBI).
2. Are assessed by the wind burn factor (WBF).
3. Affect building site workers due to freezing cold high wind speed.
4. Are rated as negative air temperatures.
5. Are assessed by the wind chill index.
126. Cold outdoor climates:

1. Wind chill index found from local air velocity and dry-bulb air temperature.
2. Frostbite occurs at a wind chill index of 900.
3. Frostbite can happen at any negative Celsius air temperature.
4. Frostbite should be avoided if wind chill index (WCI) is less than 1400 at an air
temperature of -10oC d.b. during a 30-minute exposure.
5. Adequate clothing always avoids frostbite.
127. Equivalent wind chill temperature (EWCT):

1. Cannot be measured or found.
2. Has the same effect of cooling as when running in cold air.
3. Calculated value for the same cooling effect of the measured conditions if the air is at
walking speed.
4. Same as 100 mm diameter globe temperature.
5. Same as resultant temperature.
128. Hot climates:

1. Are assessed with globe thermometer.
2. Cannot be analysed satisfactorily.
3. Data must include a solar radiation sensor, solarimeter.
4. Outdoor physical work must cease when outside air dry-bulb temperature equals body
temperature.
5. Area assessed with heat stress index calculation.
129. Hot climates:

1. Easily accommodated by the human body.
2. Can kill people.
3. Are fine as long as humans drink one litre of water an hour.
4. Can lead to inevitable rise of body temperature.
5. Body metabolic rate increases to compensate.
130. Hot climates:

1. Create health and safety at work issues.
2. Require skin covering with loose cotton clothing.
3. Building constructers always work in the shade.
4. Sweating does not air body cooling.
5. People born in hot climates cope easily with hot conditions.
131. Hot climates:

1. Weather never gets too hot for outdoor work in the UK.
2. Coping requires rest, keeping cool and drinking one litre of water each hour.
3. Can cause potentially lethal heat stroke.
4. Heat stroke causes no physical problems.
5. Exertion at work can cause medical problems.
132. Which is not true about heat stroke?

1. Zone of unacceptable rise of body temperature.
2. Body cannot emit sensible heat to a high air temperature.
3. Assessed with wind chill index.

4. Symptoms include fainting, fatigue or vomiting.
5. Muscles may cramp due to loss of body salts.
133. Normal human body temperature is:

1. 36.0oC.
2. 41.0oC.
3. 37.0oC oral.
4. 35.0oC.
5. Something else.
134. Normal human body temperature is:

1. 101oF.
2. 100oF.
3. 98oF.
4. 98.6oF oral.
5. Something else.
135. Which does not apply to heatstroke in a hot climate?

1. To avoid it, get into a swimming pool.
2. Occurs at a body temperature of 40.6oC.
3. Sweating ceases.
4. Body becomes involuntarily hyperactive.
5. Body becomes comatose, brain damage from reduced blood supply, and death is
imminent.
136. Which applies to heat stress index?

1. It is a perceived scale of 1 to 10 on how hot we feel.
2. It is the inverse of WCI.
3. Calculated from equivalent outdoor temperature.
4. It is a ratio expressing the measured environment stress against the maximum possible
for a fit young man.
5. Different values for males, females and peoples geographical origin.
137. Which is not true of heat stress index?

1. Involves metabolic rate and calculation of radiative and convective heat transfer from
the person.
2. Sling psychrometer and air velocity meter needed.
3. At maximum possible heat stress, only evaporative cooling is available.
4. Highly trained physically fit athletes and military specialists remain functional at up to a
heat stress index of 180.
5. Atmospheric vapour pressure is needed in the calculations.
138. Which is correct about environmental temperature te?

1. 25% of mean radiant temperature plus 75% of air dry-bulb temperature.
4. 75% of mean radiant temperature plus 25% of globe temperature.
5. 25% of globe temperature plus 75% of air dry-bulb temperature.
139. Which is correct about resultant temperature tres?

2. 50% of globe temperature plus 50% of air dry-bulb temperature.
3.
40% of mean radiant temperature plus 25% of air dry-bulb temperature plus 35% of
globe temperature.
4. 75% of mean radiant temperature plus 25% of globe temperature.

140. Which is correct for indoor comfort conditions in the UK?

1. Comfort temperatures within the range of 1528oC.
2. Mean radiant temperature always lower than air dry-bulb temperature.
3. Creation of a feeling of cosy warmth.
4. Should be fresh and cool.
5. Comfort temperatures within the range of 1923oC.

1. Should have a feeling of freshness.
2. Slightly cool is preferable to maintain alertness at work.
3. Room air percentage saturation below 60%.
4. Warm breeze at head level from good supply air distribution.
5. Glare control from sunny windows is more critical than air temperature.

1. Large areas of perimeter glazing create a feeling of Feng Shui compatibility with
outdoor environment.
2. Large areas of perimeter glazing are very comfortable to sit alongside all day when at
work.
3. Lots of solar radiation through office windows leads to happy staff.
4. Dry-bulb air temperature and mean radiant temperature should be approximately the
same.
5. Trees alongside office windows always shade sunshine, allowing control of mean
radiant and air temperatures.
143. Which is the correct meaning of comfort criteria?

1. 95% of occupants are satisfied with the dry-bulb air temperature.
2. Mean radiant temperature just below the dry-bulb air temperature in winter.
3. Dry resultant temperature in the range 1923oC.
4. Dry resultant temperature in the range 2426oC in summer.
5. Dry-bulb air temperature in the range 1526oC depending upon room application and
season.

1. Radiant heating is always preferable.
2. Feeling of freshness rather than hot and oppressive.
3. Mean radiant temperature higher than air temperature is easily achieved with good
design of the heating system in all types of buildings.
4. Mean radiant temperature higher than air temperature is easily achieved within highly
glazed faades of modern buildings.
5. Solar radiation always compensates for lack of radiation from ducted air conditioning
systems.

1. Dry-bulb air temperature must always be higher than mean radiant temperature.
2. Dry-bulb air and mean radiant temperatures must always be equal.
3. Mean radiant temperature slightly above dry-bulb air temperature is preferable.
4. All-glass atria have a high mean radiant temperature in winter.
5. Solar heat gains to all-glass atria are always beneficial.

1. All-glass atria have a low mean radiant temperature in winter.
2. Highly glazed faades are easily made comfortable by radiant heating systems.
3. Highly glazed faades are always comfortable to sit beside.
4. Traditional brick-walled rooms with small windows in cool climates are no longer
justifiable due to advances in insulated glass technology and knowledge of heat transfer.
5. Highly glazed rooms for sedentary use cannot achieve efficient energy usage.
147. Which is not the correct meaning of comfort criteria?

1. High temperature radiant heaters are useful in creating warmth in outdoor covered
areas.
2. High temperature radiant panels installed indoors lose useful heat to the external
environment through the glazing.
3. Low temperature radiant panels installed indoors lose useful heat to the external
environment through the glazing.
4. Radiant heating systems are used to counteract cooling downdraughts created by large
areas of glazing.
5. Convective heating systems counteract the cooling draughts generated by windows.
148. Which is not the correct meaning of comfort criteria?

1. Circulation upward of convective heating counteracts cooling down draughts from large
areas of glazing and roof lights.
2. Natural convector heaters must be located at high level in rooms.
3. Forced convector heat emitters can be located almost anywhere within occupied rooms.
4. Radiant heating panels having a surface temperature of 70oC or more, to radiate heat to
room occupants.
5. Radiant heating is not safe for close proximity to room occupants, especially children,
the infirm and elderly.
149. Which is the correct statement on percentage saturation for comfort criteria?
1. Below 40% in hot countries or in a gymnasium in the UK to avoid sweaty conditions.
2. Above 70% to reduce static electricity in the air of offices with computer workstations.
3. Above 80% where antique timber furniture is stored to stop wood drying and cracking.
4. Preferably 40% and below in all indoor environments in the UK to minimize
condensation.
5. 4070% for sedentary work in commercial buildings in the UK.
150. What is the appropriate moving air speed for comfort criteria?
1. 20oC d.b. air should be moving at around 0.1 m/s at neck level.
2. 30oC d.b. air can be moving at 1.25 m/s at head level for sedentary workers.
3. Should be above 2.0 m/s to create stimulating environment.
4. Almost stagnant air around sedentary workers is preferable to avoid hot or cold
draughts.
5. Constant air velocity, temperature and direction are preferred because they are
predictable for sedentary workers.
151. Which is appropriate for moving air comfort criteria?

1. Air velocity should be higher at head than feet.
2. Warm and cool draughts are preferable to slow moving air around sedentary workers.
3. Air velocity and direction should vary during sedentary working hours.
4. Local air velocity at seated head level should be 0.20.5 m/s when moving air is at 22oC
d.b.
5. Supply air diffusers should stimulate turbulent eddy currents of 0.151.5 m/s in the
occupied volume of the room.
152. Which is not an appropriate statement for moving air comfort criteria?
1. Variable air velocity and temperature are preferred.
2. Varying the air velocity during the occupied day is impossible.
3. Varying air velocity during the working day may require the supply air fan to have a
variable speed control.
4. Low energy buildings with natural ventilation systems have air velocity variations due
to changes in prevailing winds.
5. Low energy buildings may have active systems to vary air movement around occupants.
153. How is the sedentary comfort zone determined?

1. Air temperature is always within band of 1824oC d.b.
2. Globe and mean radiant temperature usually above 25oC.

3. Environmental temperature at least 23oC.
4. A wide band of combinations of air, mean radiant, resultant and environmental
temperatures encompass the comfort zone.
5. Cannot adequately be measured or specified as personal factors involved.
154. Environmental temperature:

1. Measures the outdoor environment.
2. No such thing.
3. Is a fictitious number.
4. Combines dry-bulb air and mean radiant temperatures in a room.
5. Combines the effect on comfort of air velocity, percentage saturation, radiation and air
conditions in an occupied space.
155. Environmental temperature:

1. Not related to any other temperature scale.
2. No longer used.
3. Includes comfort indicators.
4. Related to mean radiant, resultant and air temperatures.
5. Has no connection with room air velocity.
156. Dry resultant temperature:

1. Only applies to dried air.
2. Same as globe temperature.
3. Measured with a 150 mm diameter blackened copper ball suspended in the room.
4. Measured with a 100 mm diameter blackened copper ball suspended in the room.
5. Cannot be measured by a building management computer system.
157. WBGT stands for:

1. Waste burden globe transfer.
2. Wet-bulb ground temperature.
3. Wet-bulb gross transfer.
4. Wet-bulb globe temperature.
5. Nothing.
158. What is included in WBGT?

1. It does not exist.
2. Water basic (demand) and gross (heat) transfers for a building.
3. Wet-bulb temperature, globe temperature and dry-bulb air temperature.
4. Wet-bulb gradient temperature.
5. Wet-bulb ground temperature.
159. How is WBGT measured?

1. There is no such thing.
2. It is not a measurable physical property.
3. Calculated from the sum of 70% of the wet-bulb temperature, 20% of the 150 mm globe
temperature and10% of the air dry-bulb temperature (WBGT = 0.7 taoC w.b. + 0.2 tg +
0.1 ta oC d.b.).
4. Calculated from 50% of the wet-bulb air temperature plus 50% of the 38 mm diameter
globe temperature.
5. Calculated from 30% of the wet-bulb air temperature plus 40% of the 100 mm diameter
globe temperature plus 30% of the dry-bulb air temperature.
160. Which instruments are used to measure WBGT?

1. Sling psychrometer and anemometer.
2. Thermohygrograph and Kata thermometer.
3. 38 mm wet globe thermometer and mercury in glass dry-bulb thermometer.
4. 150 mm globe thermometer and sling psychrometer.
5. Wet-bulb Kata thermometer, sling psychrometer and anemometer.
161. What is the purpose of finding WBGT?

1. Thermal comfort studies in warm humid climates.
2. Compliance with health and safety at work legislation protecting against heat stress.
3. Validating safety in mine workings.
4. Ensuring outdoor and refrigerated cold room workers are not exposed to cold stress
beyond legislated limits.
5. Academic interest or research.
162. Which of these working environments outdoors may lead to construction workers
suffering heat stress?
1. High radiant heat load, moderate dry-bulb temperature and low humidity.
2. Clear blue sky, high air temperature, no shade and low humidity.
3. Clear blue sky, all work conducted beneath solid roofing, moderate dry-bulb air
temperature, and 90% relative humidity.
4. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 31oC d.b., 18oC w.b., variable warm wind.
5. Clear blue sky, all work conducted beneath solid roofing, portable cooling fans used to
raise air velocity around worker, outdoor air 41oC d.b. and 20% relative humidity.
163. Which of these working environments may lead to construction workers suffering heat
stress?
1. High radiant heat load, outdoor work, outdoor air 25oC d.b. and low humidity.
2. Indoor work in confined space, outdoor air 24oC d.b., high humidity and adequate
ventilation.
3. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 35oC d.b., 20oC w.b., little wind, all work conducted in a
deep underground mining tunnel.
4. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 29oC d.b., high humidity, little wind, all work conducted
beneath concrete floor slabs with no perimeter walling.
5. Completely cloudy sky, high dry-bulb air temperature, strong wind from inland and
high humidity.
164. Which of these working environments may lead to heat stress?

1. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 41oC d.b., 21oC w.b., strong warm wind, all mechanical
servicing work conducted within a plant room building on the roof of a multi-storey
academic building.
2. Completely cloudy sky, strenuous physical outdoor work, high dry-bulb air temperature,
strong wind from inland and high humidity.
3. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 38oC d.b., 22oC w.b., little wind, all work conducted in a
below-ground car park.
4. Completely cloudy sky, energy auditor walking throughout an occupied building and
plant rooms, high dry-bulb air temperature, strong wind from inland and high humidity.
5. Clear blue sky, outdoor air 38oC d.b., 20oC w.b., moderate wind, continuous aerobic and
anaerobic exercise within a basement gymnasium for one hour.
165. How is human comfort within a building in the UK provided?

1. Fully air conditioning the whole building.
2. Most buildings in the UK provide year-round comfort with heating and natural
ventilation.
3. A combination of low energy building design, natural and mechanical ventilation,
minimal cooling and central heating.
4. Designing buildings with fully glazed exterior walls to catch available solar heat gain.
5. Maintaining air and mean radiant temperatures within acceptable values for each
occupant.
166. What is the function of the human body thermoregulatory system?

1. Maintains comfort when heat gains to the body exceed its ability to lose heat.
2. Provides alarm signals to prompt appropriate response.
3. Stops blood temperature rising too high.
4. Averages heat gains and losses between extremities to maintain comfort.
5. Attempts to maintain energy balance and maintain 37oC core temperature.
167. Fangers thermal comfort equation includes the factors:

1. Room size and orientation.
2. Metabolic rate and clothing thermal insulation values.
3. Room air change rate of outdoor air in litre/s m2.
4. Local air velocity and dry-bulb air temperature.
5. Relative humidity.
168. Fangers thermal comfort equation includes the factors:

1. Aural environment in decibels.
2. Biological effluent loading on olfs.
3. Mean radiant temperature.
4. Atmospheric air pressure in millibars.
5. Atmospheric vapour pressure.
169. Thermal comfort variables:

1. Feeling comfortable.
2. Rate at which the body metabolism functions.
3. Oxidation of food to release energy.
4. Physical work being performed by the body.
5. Dry-bulb air temperature and percentage saturation.
170. Internal heat production of the human body is around:

1. 5.0 W/m2 while sleeping.
2. 35.0 W/m2 while sleeping.
3. 600.0 W/m2 while working in an office.
4. 110.0 W/m2 while working in an office.
5. 440.0 W/m2 during maximum exertion.
171. Clothing thermal insulation value (clo) is around:

1. 5.0 wearing a swimsuit.
2. 0 while nude.
3. 1.0 wearing a business suit.
4. 22.0 wearing a sea diving suit.
5. 4.0 wearing an Arctic suit.
172. How do you measure equivalent wind chill temperature?

1. Sling psychrometer and thermistor anemometer.
2. Shielded silvered dry-bulb thermometer.
3. 38 mm black globe thermometer and rotating vane anemometer.
4. Cannot be measured, it is a calculated value.
5. Silvered dry-bulb thermometer in an enclosure where the wind is slowed to walking
pace.
173. What is used to find the equivalent wind chill temperature?

1. Sling psychrometer, thermistor anemometer and a formula.
2. 38 mm black globe thermometer and rotating vane anemometer.
3. Shielded silvered dry-bulb thermometer.
4. Thermal comfort meter.
5. Silvered dry-bulb thermometer in an enclosure where air speed is static.
174. What may cause irreversible brain damage and death?

1. Wind chill index above 2400.
2. Frostbite in air below -20oC for 8 hours.
3. Performing work in dry-bulb air temperature above 38oC for 4 hours.
4. Heat strain.
5. Heat stroke.
175. How much should core body temperature be allowed to vary due to hot or cold heat
stress?
1. 1oC.
2. 2oC.
3. 3oC.
4. 4oC.
5. 5oC.
176. An index of heat stress is based on a ratio of heat transfers. What is it?
1. Allowed exposure time.
2. Wind chill index.
3. Kata cooling power.
4. Dry resultant temperature.
5. Heat stress index.
177. What does EWCT stand for?

1. Air temperature that has the same cooling effect when air velocity is 6.4 km/h.
2. Rate of bodily heat loss due to wind.
3. Cold energy stress on the human body.
4. External wind-cooled thermostat.
5. Outdoor 38 mm black globe temperature.
Ventilation
178. Which is correct about ventilation?

1. Natural ventilation of buildings is a nuisance.
2. Natural ventilation of occupied buildings does not need to be controlled.
3. Occupiers must always open and close windows to provide natural ventilation.
4. Natural ventilation is an important part of overall building design.
5. Good building design eliminates uncontrolled infiltration of outside air.

1. Exfiltration of air is a bad thing for buildings.
2. Natural ventilation only provides for air to leave the building.
3. All toilet rooms must have natural ventilation openings to outside air.
4. All house bathrooms and toilet rooms must have openable windows to outside.
5. All air leaving a building is replaced by the same quantity of incoming air from outside.

1. Exhaust air from a building is always contaminated.
2. Exhaust air from a building can be recycled to save energy.
3. Only the heat energy of exhaust air can be reused.
4. Exhaust air from a building must always be provided by fans.
5. Every room must have an exhaust air fan.
181. Which are correct about ventilation?

1. A naturally ventilated house probably has between 0.50 and 3.0 air changes per hour.
2. Less than 1.0 air change per hour may appear to be stagnant air and become odorous.
3. An air-conditioned office does not need an outside air supply.
4. Air-conditioned commercial buildings may have up to 20.0 air changes per hour.
5. Below-ground car parks only need a ducted exhaust air system.
182. Ventilation rates:

1. Are never measured.
2. Designed rates are never achieved due to duct losses.
3. Vary from 4.0 to 25.0 air changes per hour for air-conditioned office spaces.
4. Cause draughts.
5. Mean that supply air grilles in office ceilings must direct air away from sedentary
personnel.
183. Outdoor air ventilation rates are around:

1. 50.0 litre/s m2 floor area for normal offices.
2. 5.0 litre/s m2 floor area for normal offices.
3. 0.50 litre/s m2 for normal offices.
4. 50.0 litre/s per person for normal office accommodation with no smoking.
5. 10.0 litre/s per person for normal office accommodation with no smoking.
4 Energy economics
Buildings response
1. Which kind of buildings have a fast response, such as within an hour, to variations in the
outdoor air temperature, sunshine, cloud and wind?
1. Concrete and steel-framed 20-storey offices.
2. Traditional stone churches.
3. London Underground tube stations.
4. Large volume, single-storey industrial buildings having lightweight thermal insulation
to corrugated sheet steel wall and roof cladding, for example, an aircraft hanger, car
factory.
5. Small prefabricated building, transportable, temporary site accommodation, such as a
caravan, tent or marquee.
2. Which buildings have a slow response, several hours, to variations in the weather?
1. Concrete and steel-framed 20-storey offices.
to corrugated sheet steel wall and roof cladding, for example, an aircraft hanger, car
factory.
5. Small prefabricated building, transportable, temporary site accommodation, such as a
caravan, tent or marquee.
3. Which areas of a building do not respond to outdoor weather variations?
1. Storerooms.
2. Most offices.
4. Areas more than 5.0 m from external walls.
5. Zones that are air-conditioned.
4. Where can solar radiation, wind and outside air temperature cause great discomfort?
1. Buildings are on exposed hilltop sites.
2. Deciduous trees provide shading to windows.
3. Internal controllable window blinds are not used.
4. Sedentary occupants are located within 5.0 m of perimeter glazing.
5. Central core offices are well away from windows.
5. Where can a building of any size have zones?

1. Rooms facing a similar orientation.
2. Spaces occupied at the same times.
3. Rooms having the same number of people.
4. Areas served by one type of air conditioning system at the same time of day.
5. Where the internal air temperature control system only needs one sensor.
Degree days
6. What is the degree day load factor not relevant to?
1. Calculation of heating system kW load for design.
2. Ratio of degree days from meteorological data.
3. Minimum outside air temperature for design.
4. Seasonal weather variability.

5. Maximum possible degree days for the locality.
7. What are degree days?

1. University degree award ceremony days.
2. Number of air temperature degrees in one day.
3. Measure of the severity of winter weather.
4. Also used for calculation of summer cooling energy consumption.
5. Not used to calculate anything.
8. Which is not correct about degree days?

1. Applied to normally occupied buildings.
2. Predicts summer cooling energy consumption.
3. Based on heat gain and heat loss balance at an outdoor air temperature of 15.5oC in the
UK.
4. A 24-hour mean outdoor air temperature of 8oC produces 7.5 degree days.
5. An energy management plan relates GJ consumption to degree days.
9. What is the degree day load factor not relevant to?

1. Calculation of heating system kW load for design.
2. Ratio of degree days from meteorological data.
3. Minimum outside air temperature for design.
4. Seasonal weather variability.
5. Maximum possible degree days for the locality.
Discounted cash flow (DCF), NPV, IRR

10.
How can discounted cash flow calculation aid analysis of an energy-saving project?
11.
State what Net Present Value of an investment decisions means.
12.
State how Internal Rate of Return of a cash flow is an aid to making the decision to
invest.
Energy audit
13. State the function of an energy audit. What data are collected? How are the data
presented? What is likely to be the most serious barrier to data collection?
14.
Explain the term degree day and state its use.
15.
How is the load factor calculated and how is it used?
16.
A factory uses 20,000 l of oil for its heating and hot-water systems, 160000 kWh of
electrical power and 300000 kWh of gas for furnaces in a year. Fixed charges are 800 for
the oil, 700 for the electrical equipment and 1200 for gas equipment. Use the data
provided in this chapter and current energy prices to produce an overall energy audit based
on the gigajoule unit and find the average cost of all the energy used.
17.
What adequately describes an energy audit of a building?
1. Points out what building operators could do to save energy.

2. Is only for cosmetic appearance of doing something to reduce greenhouse emissions.
3. Identifies and quantifies viable energy-saving investments.

4. Concentrates on finding almost zero cost short-term payback energy-saving
opportunities.
5. Only analyses technical projects and not financial investment criteria.
18.
What adequately describes an energy audit of a building?
1. Summary of all energy sources.

2. Description of how energy is used on a site.
3. Comprehensive analysis and report of all energy usage.
4. Does not need to analyse or make recommendations for energy-saving projects on the
site.
5. Only ever done once in the service period of a building.
19.
Which of these adequately describes an energy audit of a building?
1. Financial audit of energy purchases.

2. Analysis of CO2 emissions.
3. Comprehensive report of energy use and quantifies viable energy-saving investments.
4. Lists lowest cost short-term payback energy-saving opportunities.
5. Reports technical projects as possibilities.
20.
What do energy audits look at?
1. Types of primary energy source used.

2. Electrical energy consumption.
3. Where energy is being wasted.
4. Where high capital cost energy-saving projects are identifiable.
5. Everything relevant.
21.
Which of these adequately describes an energy audit?
1. Can be done adequately by anyone.

2. Ignores energy wastage where it is normal industry practice.
3. Identifies the energy effectiveness of most of the site.
4. Only analyses heating, ventilating, air conditioning and electrical lighting energy use.
5. Conducted by an experienced and qualified energy auditor.
Energy cost
22.
Calculate the annual cost of a gas-fired heating system in a house with a design heat
loss of 30 kW at -2C for 16 h per day, 7 days per week for 30 weeks in the year. Use the
data provided in this chapter and the current fuel price.
23.
Find the total annual cost of running a gas-fired heating and hot-water system in a house
with four occupants if its design heat loss is 32 kW. Maintenance charges amount to 160
per year.
24.
Discuss the statement, Economic thickness of thermal insulation of houses is no longer
the relevant argument.
25.
A city centre building in England has a predicted energy consumption of 1,500,000
kWh per year for only the space heating system. The design engineer is to recommend the
energy source and system type to be used on the basis of minimizing the greenhouse gas
emissions. The average seasonal usage efficiency of the alternative systems are 95% for
electrical heating systems of various types, 75% for gas-fired radiator heating system, 65%
for coal-fired radiator heating system and 75% for an oil-fired ducted warm air heating
system. How might renewable energy sources be used? Calculate the carbon emission in
tonnes per year and make a suitable recommendation to the client.
General knowledge 4
26.
What does overall efficiency of a heating system include?
1. Mining and drilling energy expended in gaining the fuel.

2. Energy expended in cleaning up the global environment pollution after using the fuel or
energy source.
3. Combustion of the fuel delivered to the site.
4. Heat lost from the building.
5. Effectiveness of the building in retaining warmth.
27.
What is not used in a heating system fuel costs comparison?
1. Cost to produce a kWh or GJ of heat energy.

2. Overall efficiency of the heating system.
3. Means used to deliver energy source to the site.
4. Data table showing all energy sources to a common basis.
5. Total of all costs to use the energy source for a year.
28.
What is an energy use performance factor (EUPF)?
1. No such thing.
2. The efficiency of using each primary energy source.
3. Compares the efficiency of using hydrocarbon fuel sources with nuclear-generated

electricity.
4. Logical way to compare the use of various energy sources.
5. Everyone devises their own ratios.
29.
Which would not be an energy use performance factor (EUPF)?
1. per m2 floor area for a month or year of a single energy source or fuel.
2. per m2 floor area for a month or year of all energy sources or fuels.
3. Energy use kWh per degree day.
4. Energy use MJ per person per year.
5. kWh/yr energy-saving proposal.
30.
Which of these is not a correct multiple?

1. kJ = 103 J.
2. MWh = 1000 W x 1 h.
3. 1 GJ = 106 kJ.
4. 1 mm = 10-3 m.
5. 1 GW = 1000 MW.
31.
What are meant by unity brackets?
1. Something fictitious.
2. I do not understand them.
3. Easily remembered technique for conversion of units.
4. Can only convert millimetres into metres.
5. Cannot be used for real engineering calculations.
32.
What do we know about the Therm unit?
1. A term describing a vacuum flask.

2. Name of a householder connected to mains gas.
3. The equivalent of 105.5 MJ in heat units.
4. Around 293 MWh.
5. Cannot be compared with metric units.
33.
What does GCV stand for?
1. Greater coefficient of volume.

2. Greater calorific value.
3. Great curriculum vitae.
4. Heat released when flue gas water vapour condensation is removed.
5. Gross calorific value of a fuel.
34.
What is specific gravity?
1. Specific and highly grave issue for government.

2. 32.2 ft/s2 or 9.907 m/s2.
3. Relative weight of oil.
4. Specific weight of something.
5. Weight of a fluid relative to the weight of water at 4oC.
35.
What are kWs units?
1. A very small amount of energy.
2. Used to measure energy released by atoms during nuclear fission.

3. Used in acoustic measurements.
4. Equal to 1 Therm.
5. Equal to 1 kJ (kilojoule).
36.
What are MJ units equal to?
1. One large Joule.

2. One million kilojoules.
3. 103 kJ.
4. One thousand MWs.
5. 109 J.
37.
Which of these is not a correct multiple?
1. kJ = 103 J.
2. MWh = 1000 W x 1 h.
3. 1 GJ = 106 kJ.
4. 1 mm = 10-3 m.
5. 1 GW = 1000 MW.
World energy resources

38.
What determines energy supply around the world?
1. Each countrys ability to import natural resources.

2. Energy consumption demanded by the population and industry.
3. Selfless sharing of the worlds energy resources.
4. The Kyoto Protocol 1997.
5. The International Energy Agency.
39.
What determines energy supply around the world?
1. The United Nations World Resources Committee.

2. Military power ensuring supplies to meet need.
3. Atmospheric greenhouse gas international treaties and policies.
4. Political stability of each country with natural hydrocarbon resources.
5. Inter-government contracts.
5 Ventilation and air conditioning
Air conditioning systems

1. Which is not correct about the single-duct air conditioning system?
1. Used for most applications.
2. Suitable for large single zones.
3. Adaptable for large multi-room buildings.
4. Least efficient type of system.
5. Terminal heating coils may be used in multi-zone applications.
2. Which is correct about a VAV air conditioning system?

1. Stands for valve authority value.
2. Only used in hotels and conference centres.
3. Reducing room demand for cooling opens the VAV damper.
4. Rise in zone air temperature causes the VAV damper to throttle the cool supply air flow
further.
5. Single-duct all-air system with a throttling damper at each room supply air outlet.

1. Stands for virtual aerodynamic valve.
2. An outdated system.
3. Air volume control damper in terminal room unit provides correct cooling supply air
flow rate.
4. Not used in multi-zone applications.
5. Throttling damper within office ceiling creates air rush noise.

1. Setting a minimum supply air flow rate at each terminal unit avoids dumping cool air
onto occupants.
2. Always requires terminal reheat coil.
3. Stands for vortices activated valve.
4. Stands for volume activated variable flow system.
5. One terminal unit serves two zone orientations.
5. Which is a correct description of the dual-duct air conditioning system?

1. Duplicated supply and return air ducts.
2. A reduced cost design.
3. Simultaneous heating and cooling to adjacent rooms.
4. Not used in commercial office buildings.
5. Appropriate for low energy new buildings.
6. Which is a correct description of the dual-duct air conditioning system?

1. Always used where close control of zone air humidity is required.
2. Hot and cold supply air streams mixed prior to supply into the air-conditioned zone.
3. Low installation cost.
4. Economical operating energy usage.
5. Particularly appropriate for hospital applications.
7. Which is a correct description of the induction unit air conditioning system?

1. Primary air jets induce room air to circulate through a heating or cooling coil.
2. Direct alternative to the dual-duct system.

3. Preferable to the variable air volume system.
4. Not used in multi-room applications.
5. Easily maintained in a clean and healthy condition.
8. Which is a correct description of the induction unit air conditioning system?

1. Each room terminal unit has a secondary air circulation fan.
2. Recirculation air is induced away from the air discharged to atmosphere by suction from
the supply air fan.
3. Recirculated room air is neither heated nor cooled.
4. Each terminal induction unit has a 2-, 3- or 4-pipe heating and chilled water
distribution.
5. Recirculated room air does not need filtration.
9. What does FCU stand for?

1. Full conditioning unit.
2. Face console unit.
3. Full compressor unit.
4. Fan coil unit.
5. Failed compressor unit.
10.
What is the correct description of the fan coil unit air conditioning system?
1. Terminal unit used in an induction system.

2. An FCU is a small AHU.
3. Anything having a fan.
4. Room air conditioner with a fan.

5. Electric heating coil with a supply air fan.
11.
Which is appropriate for an FCU?
1. Can be around the size of a suitcase.

2. Does not always contain a fan.
3. The unit that takes heated and cooled streams of air from different ducts, mixes them
and supplies conditioned air into the zone.
4. Potential direct replacement for an induction unit.
5. Always large enough to walk around inside it.
12.
Which is appropriate for an FCU system?
1. Does not require distribution air ducts.

2. Self-contained air conditioning unit.
3. Only requires an outside air duct and electrical power connection.
4. A cooling only terminal unit.
5. Usually has air ducts, chilled water, hot-water flow and return plus condensate drain to
sewer pipework.
13.
1. Provides air conditioning to a large single zone such as a lecture theatre.

2. Provides air conditioning in each zone of a multizone system.
3. Fan noise is obtrusive for quiet office environments.
4. Usually installed within the floor space.
5. Needs no maintenance.
14.
1. Installed within ceiling spaces.

2. Does not handle recirculated room air.
3. Has no air filter.
4. Requires no BMS control connection.
5. Has incorporated duct silencer.
15.
Which is not correct for an FCU system?
1. Each FCU has a ducted outside air connection.

2. 240-volt power supply not needed.
3. Ceiling access panel to control valves, control module and air filter needed.
4. Noise level selected to be appropriate to application.
5. Is hung from steel rods bolted to concrete or steel floor beams.
16.
1. Terminal unit has no pipe connections.

2. Heating always from electrical resistance coil.
3. Built-in refrigeration compressor provides cooling.
4. Is a decentralized air conditioning system having no central plant.
5. Each FCU usually has hot and chilled water flow and return pipe connections.
17.
1. Around 75% of the supply air from an FCU is recirculated room air.
2. FCU passes the minimum quantity of recirculated room air.
3. FCU passes the maximum quantity of recirculated room air.

4. Terminal unit has no air filter.
5. Each FCU has a BMS control module.
18.
1. Unit is self-controlled.
2. Unit is manually controlled and adjustable by user.
3. FCU terminal unit has a maintenance access panel suitable for inspection, repair, filter
changing and unit replacement.
4. Fan motor never needs replacing.
5. FCU running always linked to lighting automatic controls.
19.
Which of these applies to packaged room air conditioning units?
1. Always connected to a ducted air system.

2. Always connected to a central chilled water plant system.
3. Each unit has a refrigeration compressor.
4. Always very quiet in operation.
5. Power demand not exceeding 250 W.
20.
Which is not correct for packaged room air conditioning units?
1. Small applications such as home single office and motel room.

2. Stand-alone unit used for large computer server rooms.
3. Silent and have no servicing requirements.
4. May be connected to the BMS.
5. Built-in controls.
21.
What does air-to-air passive heat exchanger mean?
1. Duct to recirculate outgoing ventilation air to the outside air intake of an AHU.
2. Actively pumps heat from exhaust air into incoming fresh air.
3. Only used in summer weather to provide free cooling.
4. Only runs in winter to avoid freezing low temperature hot-water heating coils.
5. Flat metal plate heat exchanger separating exhaust air stream from incoming outdoor
air.
22.
Which is not a feature of an air-to-air passive heat exchanger?
1. Raises incoming winter outdoor air to conditioned room air temperature.

2. Maximum heat transfer efficiency of around 50%.
3. Operates in cross-flow mode.
4. Operates in counter-flow mode.
5. Changes incoming outdoor air by up to around 10oC year-round.
23.
What connects an air conditioning duct to the supply air grille in the ceiling of an
office?
1. Fan coil unit.
2. Pump.
3. Silencer chamber.
4. Galvanized metal box.
5. Flexible tube.
24.
Which of these materials is not used for air ducts?
1. Copper and stainless steel sheet.

2. Brick, timber and stone.
3. Galvanized sheet steel.
4. Spirally wound flexible airtight fabric.
5. Porous fabric.
25.
Which is not correct about air ductwork?
1. Spiral wound flexible fabric ducts make final connections to terminal units and diffuser
boxes.
2. Air ducts have taped joints for air tightness.
3. Air duct leakage is unimportant.
4. Galvanized sheet steel ductwork has riveted or flanged joints.
5. Air ducts can be cleaned internally.
26.
Which is correct about commissioning air duct systems?
1. Air duct systems do not need to be inspected during commissioning.

2. All air ducts must be internally cleaned prior to commissioning.
3. All air ducts must be internally inspected with remote-controlled lamps and cameras
before use.
4. Rough internal projections, rivets and metal cuttings are removed by the commissioning
technician.
5. Air ducts systems are sealed in sections and pressure-tested for an air-tightness standard
compliance.
27.
Which is correct about air duct thermal insulation?
1. Air conditioning ducts do not need thermal insulation as heat gains and losses are
minimal.
2. Thermal insulation should be installed within sheet metal air ducts.
3. Return air ducts are always insulated.
4. Thermal insulation on supply air ducts maintains air condition and should usually be
used.
5. Thermal insulation thickness of 1015 mm is all that is ever justifiable.
28.
Which is true about acoustic insulation of air ductwork?
1. Never needed in a well-designed air conditioning system.

2. Internal lining of air ducts with insulation does not absorb fan noise.
3. Sound waves do not travel inside air conditioning ducts.
4. Fans are never a significant source of duct-borne noise.
5. Fans are almost always the source of duct-borne noise within an air conditioning
system.
29.
Which is correct about noise in air conditioning ducts?
1. Fans are directly bolted to sheet metal ducts to ensure joints do not vibrate free.
2. Fan blade vibration causes noise in air ducts.
3. Dirt accumulation on centrifugal fan blades may cause unbalanced vibration.
4. Fans are the source of noise and vibration in air duct systems.
5. Fan rubber belt drive from the motor isolates the fan from the motor vibration.
30.
Which is correct about noise in air conditioning ducts?
1. Ducts are mounted on springs to isolate vibration from the building structure.
2. Fan and motor are solidly bolted to a concrete plant base to isolate noise and vibration.
3. Noise from sources within the building cannot enter air ducts and transfer elsewhere.
4. Fans have a flexible airtight fabric connection with air conditioning ducts to stop
transmission of vibration.
5. Noise created in one room cannot travel through an air conditioning duct and enter
another room.
31.
Why are motorized dampers fitted into the outside air and return air intakes to the air
handling unit in a large air conditioning system?
1. Close off the air supply during a storm.

2. Stop sucking dust into the building.
3. Vary the winter and summer intake of outdoor air.
4. Shut the air conditioning down at night.
5. Fully open up during fire mode.
32.
Which is correct about air heat recovery units?
1. Transfer outgoing air into incoming air systems in air conditioning systems.
2. Transfer the heat and cooling available from exhaust air into the incoming outside air
supply to an air conditioning system.
3. Maintain the separation of outgoing and incoming air streams.
4. Need a heat pump to transfer useful heat between air streams.
5. Require frequent cleaning.
33.
What is a chilled beam?
1. Structural steel beam that is kept cool by the air conditioning system.
2, Structural steel beam supporting the weight of the air conditioning system water chiller
compressors.
3. Air conditioning surface operating at below the occupied room air dew-point
temperature.
4. A chilled water surface providing only radiant cooling.
5. Finned pipes or flat panels at high level in offices providing convective cooling surface.
34.
Which is correct about the location of air conditioning fan coil units?
1. In a plant room.
2. On the roof of a building.
3. Within a ceiling.
4. At high level in a room.
5. At low level in a room.
35.
How are single-duct air conditioning systems used?
1. In multi-roomed office and hotel bedroom applications.

2. With hot and chilled water pipe distributions to each fan coil unit.
3. To condition a single large volume occupied space such as a lecture theatre.
4. To service several hospital wards and departments from one air handling unit.
5. To minimize the size and cost of the refrigeration plant.
36.
How are dual-duct air conditioning systems used?
1. In multi-roomed large office buildings.

2. In hospitals.
3. In hotels.
4. Because they consume the minimum amount of energy of all air conditioning systems.
5. Are the simplest to install and take up least duct distribution space in risers.
37.
Which are correct about variable air volume air conditioning systems?
1. Have a terminal unit at the room end of a duct to increase the supply air quantity.
2. Reduce the amount of air supplied to each room due to cooling load variations.
3.
Have air handling unit fan speed controllers to maintain a constant supply and
recirculation air duct static air pressures.
4. Are used in multi-room buildings.

5. Are only used to condition large entertainment or hospital operating theatres.
38.
How are fan coil air conditioning systems used?
1. Have 2-, 3- or 4-pipe hot and chilled water distributions to each room FCU.
2. Are not suitable for use in England.
3. Do not need gas pipework distributions.
4. Do not need two fans.
5. Require simple air filter systems.
39.
How are variable air volume air conditioning systems used?
1. Have a terminal unit at the room end of a duct to increase the supply air quantity.
2. Reduce the amount of air supplied to each room due to cooling load variations.
3. Only operate in summer.
4. Are used in all types of buildings.
5. Are only used to condition large entertainment or hospital operating theatres.
40.
What do air handling units contain?
1. Water pump.
2. Direct fired gas burners.
3. Building management system controller.
4. Heating and cooling coils.
5. Cooling tower.
41.
Which statement on ground source heat pump refrigeration systems is correct?
1. Cannot be used in Australia as the ground is too hot.

2. Must also use outside air for cooling the building.
3. Have a cooling tower.
4. Can be used where enough undeveloped ground is available.
5. The least efficient method of cooling.
42.
Fan coil air conditioning systems:
1. Have 2-, 3- or 4-pipe hot and chilled water distributions to each room FCU.
2. Are not suitable for use in Australia.
3. Do not need water pipework distributions.
4. Do not need any fans.
5. Require elaborate air filter systems.
43.
How is the cooling duty of a chilled beam controlled?
1. Motorized damper in ducted air stream controls room air flow through the finned beam.
2. Chilled water flow to each zone controlled by a motorized valve.
3. Chilled water flow switched onoff.
4. Control panel by each workstation allows each person to vary cooling capacity.
5. Chilled water flow rate and temperature for the entire system are modulated in the
chiller plant room according to a schedule of outdoor air temperature.
44.
Why might an under-floor air distribution system (UFAD) have benefits?
1. Keeps feet cool.

2. Quieter than ducts within ceiling.
3. Supply air within the floor void cools concrete floor slab thermal mass.
4. Keeps under-floor power and communications cables cool.
5. There are no benefits as it costs more.
45.
Why might an under-floor air distribution system (UFAD) have benefits?
1. It is not a new idea; same as ancient Roman hypocaust system but now used for cooling.
2. Fan terminal unit (FTU) within floor void provides flexible modular low velocity
supply air.
3. Noisy fan within a dusty under-floor void is a health and maintenance hazard.
4. Cannot provide local heating.
5. Only used in raised floors for cabling of large computer server rooms.
46.
Why might an under-floor air distribution system (UFAD) with multiple fan terminal
units (FTU) have benefits?

1. Not used in commercial buildings as impractical and costly.
2. Keeping many under-floor fan coil units and their air filters clean and dust-free requires
excessive maintenance work that disrupts office work.
3. Saves having a central air handling unit plant room.
4. Provides controllable microclimate at each workstation.
5. Many small fans, coils, filters and controllers are cheaper than one large air handling
unit.
47.
How can a chilled water cooling coil in an AHU become a health hazard?
1. They cannot; condensation washes the coil clean and drains away, cleaning the coil.
2. They cannot; upstream air filter does not allow any dust to pass through to the coil.
3. They cannot; chilled water and surface condensate temperatures always remain below
threshold for Legionella bacteria growth.
4. They cannot; daily condensation always refills the water seal in the waste trap to the
sewer.
5. Dust passed by air filters accumulates in coil drain tray, forming warm moist breeding
ground for bacteria that may pass into air-conditioned rooms with air flow.
48.
How can a chilled water cooling coil distribute bacteria into occupied air-conditioned
rooms?
1. It cannot; air temperature remains too cool.
2. It will not under normal operation.
3. Condensate water trap between drain tray and sewer always maintains a water seal.
4. Water seal in P-trap between drain tray and sewer may become dehydrated and allow
sewer gases to pass into the air handling unit and supply duct.
5. It will not when adequately maintained in accordance with codes and standards.
Air curtains
49.
Why is an air curtain used?
1. To minimize air leakage through an open doorway into and out of an air-conditioned,
heated or refrigerated building.
2. To warm the street entrance to a retail premises.

3. To stop street debris blowing into the building.
4. To discourage people standing near doorways.
5. A statement of importance for the building.
50.
Which of these is most likely to determine the energy performance of an air curtain?
1. Width and height of the doorway.

2. Radiant heat loss and gain through the doorway opening.
3. Whether the curtain blows horizontally or vertically.
4. Reynolds number of the air flow discharging from the supply slots.
5. Size and location of the return air grilles.
51.
Why use an air curtain at doorways when it uses energy to operate?
1. More energy-efficient to close the doors.

2. Closed doors must be opened to allow passage so an air curtain improves thermal
comfort, significantly reduces inward flow of unconditioned air and outward air flow of
conditioned air.
3. Status symbol.
4. Keeps entrance area clean.
5. Keeps people traffic moving.
Air flow design calculation

52.
A department store has 340 people in an area of 35 m 25 m that is 4 m high. Smoking
is permitted.
1. Calculate the fresh air quantity required to provide 12.5 l/s per person.
4.25 m3/s.
2. If the air change rate is not to be less than 5 changes per hour, find the following.
(a)
supply air quantity;
4.86 m3/s.
(b)
percentage fresh air in the supply duct;
87.45%.
(c)
extract air quantity if 85% of the supply air is to be mechanically withdrawn;
4.13 m3/s.
(d)
recirculated air quantity;
0.61 m3/s.
(e)
ducted exhaust air quantity.
3.52 m3/s.
53.
Air enters an office through a 250 mm 200 mm duct at a velocity of 5 m/s. The room
dimensions are 5 m 3 m 3 m. Calculate the room air change rate.

20 air changes/h.
54.
Show two methods of allowing fresh air to enter a room where extract ventilation is by
mechanical means and the incoming air is not to cause any draughts.
55.
Discuss the relative merits of centrifugal and axial flow fans used in ventilation systems
for occupied buildings.
56.
A four-storey commercial building is to be mechanically ventilated. Air-handling plant
is to be sited on the roof. Each floor has dimensions 20 m 10 m 3 m and is to have six
air changes per hour. Of the air supplied, 10% is allowed to exfiltrate naturally and the
remainder is extracted to roof level. The supply and extract air ducts run vertically within a
concrete service shaft and the limiting air velocity is 10 m/s. Estimate the dimensions
required for the service shaft. Square ducts are to be used and there is to be at least 150 mm
between the duct and any other surface.
1680 mm 930 mm.
57.
A lecture theatre has dimensions 15 m 15 m 4 m and at peak occupancy in summer
has sensible heat gains of 30 kW and latent heat gains of 3 kW. Room and supply air
temperatures are to be 23C d.b. and 14C d.b. respectively. Room air moisture content is
to be maintained at 0.008 kg H20/kg air. Calculate the supply air volume flow rate, the
room air change rate and the supply air moisture content.
2.68 m3/s, 10.72 air changes/h, 0.0076 kgH2O/kg air.
58.
To avoid draughts, a minimum supply air temperature of 30C d.b. is needed for the
heating and ventilation system serving a public room. The room has an air temperature of
21C d.b. and a sensible heat loss of 18 kW. It is proposed to supply 2 m3/s of air to the
room. Calculate the supply air temperature that is required. If it is not suitable, recommend
an alteration to meet the requirements
ts 28.6oC d.b., reduce supply air quantity to 1.7 m3/s and use ts, 30oC d.b. if the room air
change rate will not be less than four changes/h.
59.
A gymnasium of dimensions 20 m 12 m 4 m is to be mechanically ventilated. The
maximum occupancy will be 100 people. The supply air for each person is to comprise 20
l/s of fresh air and 20 l/s of recirculated air. Allowing 10% natural exfiltration, calculate the
room air change rate, the air flow rate in each duct and the dimensions of the square supply
duct if the limiting air velocity is 8 m/s.
15 air changes/h, 710 mm 710 mm, 2 m3/s fresh air, 2 m3/s recirculated air, 3.6 m3/s
extract air, 4 m3/s supply air-duct, 0.4 m3/s natural exfiltration.
60.
An office 15.0 m x 7.0 m x 2.8 m has 11.0 air changes per hour from air supplied
through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 8.5 m/s. What are the supply air flow rate and
the duct dimensions?
1. Supply air flow rate is 1.20 m3/s.
2. Supply air flow rate is 750.0 l/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 325 mm x 325 mm.
61.
An open-plan workspace is 22.0 m x 10.0 m x 3.5 m, and has 15.0 air changes per hour
from air supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 5.0 m/s. What are the
supply air flow rate and the duct dimensions?
1. Supply air flow rate is 3,208 l/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 4.0 m x 160 mm.
62.
A gymnasium 25.0 m x 12.0 m x 4.0 m has 6.0 air changes per hour from air supplied
2. Supply air flow rate is 2250 l/s.
4. Duct dimensions are 516.4 mm x 516.4 mm.
63.
A hotel dining room is 12.0 m x 6.0 m x 3.0 m, and has 12.0 air changes per hour from
air supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 4.5 m/s. What are the supply air
flow rate and the duct dimensions?
64.
A retail shop 22.0 m x 6.5 m x 3.5 m has 7.5 air changes per hour from air supplied
65.
An office 13.0 m x 5.0 m x 2.85 m has airflow of 0.75 m3/s from air supplied through a
duct where it flows at a velocity of 6.5 m/s. What are the room air change rate and the duct
dimensions?
1. Room air change rate is 146 per hour.
2. Room air change rate is 0.146 per minute.
3. Room air change rate is 14.6 per hour.
66.
An entrance hall 10.0 m x 4.5 m x 6.5 m has airflow of 0.975 m3/s from air supplied
through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 6.5 m/s. What are the room air change rate
and the duct dimensions?
2. Room air change rate is 2.0 per minute.
3. Room air change rate is 288 per 8 hour working day.
67.
An industrial workshop 25.0 m x 12.5 m x 4.5 m has a heating system airflow of 700
litre/s from air supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 10.0 m/s. What are
the room air change rate and the duct dimensions?
2. Room air change rate is 1.8 air changes per hour.
3. Room air change rate is 1792 air changes per hour.

68.
A small office of 3.0 m x 4.0 m x 2.8 m has 4.0 air changes per hour from air supplied
through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 6.0 m/s. What are the supply air flow change
rate and the duct dimensions?
69.
An atrium 15.0 m x 9.0 m x 12.0 m high has 4.5 air changes per hour from air supplied
through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 4.5 m/s. What are the supply air flow change
rate and the duct dimensions?
4. Duct dimensions are 2.0 m x 225 mm.
70.
A lecture theatre 18.0 m x 20.0 m x 4.5 m has 9.5 air changes per hour from air supplied
through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 7.5 m/s. Which three answers are correct?

71.
A conference hall 55.0 m x 27.0 m x 3.6 m has 15.0 air changes per hour from air
supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 4.5 m/s. What are the supply air
flow change rate and the duct dimensions?
72.
A swimming pool hall 70.0 m x 35.0 m x 5.5 m has 6.0 air changes per hour from air
supplied through a duct where it flows at a velocity of 12.5 m/s. What are the supply air
flow change rate and the duct dimensions?
2. Supply air flow rate is 23,400 l/s.
73.
A room 3.0 m high has 20.0 air changes per hour from air supplied through a 650 mm x
500 mm duct where it flows at a velocity of 6.5 m/s. What are the supply air flow change
rate and the floor area?
4. Floor area is 58.5 m2.
74.
A conference room 5.0 m high has 16.0 air changes per hour from air supplied through a
1350 mm x 2500 mm duct where it flows at a velocity of 4.5 m/s. What are the supply air
flow change rate and the floor area?
Air handing units

75.
Which is not part of an air handling unit (AHU)?
1. One or two fans.

2. Air ducts.
3. Access for a technician to service all parts.
4. Air intake damper.
76.
Which is correct about air filters?
1. Always throw-away type.

2. Only there to stop birds and leaves being sucked into the fan.
3. Remove dust and airborne debris before entry to the occupied spaces of the building.
4. Filter media delaminates and sends harmless particles along ducts.
5. Must be manually inspected to find out when they need replacing.
77.
Which is correct about air filters?
1. Always reusable type.

2. Fine mesh filter located close to fan inlet to keep blades and casing clean.
3. Dry fabric air filter not needed where a water spray humidifier in within the AHU.
4. Can be washable, disposable or cleanable filter media.
5. The most common type of filter is the electrostatic precipitator.
78.
Which is a feature of recirculated air at an AHU?
1. Minimized to avoid recirculating dust and vapour pollutants back into the occupied
building.
2. It is an expensive waste of fan energy and duct material.
3. Maximized to take advantage of air that is already at the correct room air temperature.
4. Minimized to avoid CO2 build-up in occupied rooms.
5. Minimized to control cooling and heating energy use.
79.
Which is not a feature of recirculated air at an AHU?
1. Saves energy.
2. Recirculates humidity, dust and smoke produced in rooms.

3. Biological contamination generated in one room circulates to other rooms.
4. May need a recirculation air fan as well as ductwork.
5. Varied to control room air CO2 and temperature.
80.
1. Minimized to keep the rooms feeling fresh.

2. Maximized to save heating and cooling energy.
3. Remains constant all through the year.
4. Always around 50% of the supply air flow rate.
5. Used to equalize air static pressure in all rooms.
81.
1. Provides low cost cooling during mild weather.

2. Must always be separately filtered from the outside air intake.
3. Always has a run-around pipe coil for heat recovery.
4. Air flow rate sensor installed in duct to measure and control recirculated flow rate from
BMS.
5. Creates additional noise at the AHU.
82.
Which of these statements on air conditioning systems are correct?
1. Air handling units are usually the largest item of plant.

2. Air handling units are always manufactured off-site and delivered in one piece to any
building.
3. Some air handling units are large enough for a person to walk inside.
4. Air handling units are where the room supply air is conditioned.
5. Air handling units do not contain any moving parts.
Chilled water system

83.
Chilled water for AHUs is supplied at:
1. 19oC.
2. 12oC.
3. 6oC.
4. 70oC.
5. -5oC.
84.
How is AHU chilled water flow controlled?
1. Modulating damper.
2. Electronic control system.
3. Modulating water flow valve.
4. Manually set only once by the commissioning engineer.
5. All valves remain fully open to maximize available cooling during hot weather.
85.
What kind of pipework does an AHU chilled water system have?
1. 3 pipes, flow, return and mixed.

2. Direction arrows on pipe insulation.
3. Flow and return pipes.
4. 4 pipes so the flow control valve can select heating or chilled water throughout year.
5. A single pipe loop system as cooling coils are all connected in series with each other.
86.
How is chilled and heating water corrosion controlled?
1. Only using materials that do not corrode.

2. Dripping chemicals into the circulating water continuously.
3. Replacing system water several times a year at servicing intervals.
4. Monthly corrosion inhibitor dosing by a contractor.
5.
Monitoring water acidity pH and corrosivity by sensors monitored by the building

management system.
87.
What do water pumps for chilled, heating and condenser water circulation have?
1. Belt driven by an electric motor.

2. Driven through a gearbox from an electric motor.
3. Direct drive shaft from a 415-volt three-phase motor.
4. Direct drive shaft from a 240-volt single-phase motor.
5. Normally have a standby pump driven by a diesel engine in the event of power failure.
88.
Which water temperature flows though a chilled beam?
1. 6oC12oC.
2. 4oC18oC.
3. Below room air dew-point.
4. Minimum of room air temperature minus 10oC.
5. Above room air dew-point.
Cooling towers
89.
What does a cooling tower not do?
1. Rejects heat from the building.
2. Cools condenser cooling water at 35oC when outdoor air is at 40oC d.b.
3. Cools the evaporator circuit.
4. Evaporates condenser water.
5. Only functions when outdoor air wet-bulb temperature remains below incoming
condenser cooling water temperature.
90.
What does a cooling tower do?
1. Always remains completely clean as it is continuously washed with water circulation.

2. Never polluted with airborne contamination.
3. Operates without any energy input.
4. Collects atmospheric dust, debris and bird droppings.
5. Filters the condenser cooling water.
91.
Which is not essential for a cooling tower?
1. Continuously dosed with biocide chemicals.

2. Regular draining, physical cleaning and refilling with town water.
3. Uses considerable amounts of fan and pump energy.
4. Daily visual inspection.
5. Free discharge path for vertical plume of humid air above tower.
92.
Which is a primary characteristic of a cooling tower?
1. Quiet operation.
2. Uses almost no water.
3. Potential source of water-based Legionella bacteria for outdoor air.
4. Compact unit usually installed within a chiller plant room.
5. Functions equally well in any outdoor climate.
93.
Which statement is correct about a cooling tower?
1. A cooling tower cannot be a source of infectious bacteria.

2. The cooling tower rejects heat from the building to the outdoor atmosphere.
3. Cooling towers are only operational during the summer.
4. Cooling towers spray mains water into the air.
5. Cooling tower water systems are occasionally dosed with biocide.
94.
Which of these statements about cooling towers are correct?
1. A cooling tower cannot be a source of infectious bacteria.

2. The cooling tower rejects heat from the building to the outdoor atmosphere.
3. Cooling towers in Victoria are only operational during the summer.
4. Cooling towers have water sprays and a fan.
5. Cooling tower water systems are automatically dosed with biocide.
95.
How could a cooling water tower become a health hazard?
1. It cannot if adequately maintained.

2. Very easily, bird droppings may create bacterial growth in cooling water immediately
after monthly servicing work and inspection.
3. Chemical dosing with biocide does not allow any cooling tower water contamination.
4. Cooling tower is outdoors and so is no more a health hazard than an ornamental
fountain.
5. Cooling tower water is always too cool to support growth of bacteria, mould or algae.
96.
How could a cooling water outdoor tower become a health hazard?
1. Not possible due to legislated monitoring and maintenance procedures.

2. Outdoor water temperature always remains too cool to support bacteria growth.
3. Cooling tower water is intermittently dosed with biocide chemical so bacteria growth
cannot happen.
4. Dust storm, bird droppings, leaves, pollen and dust from nearby building site, deposit in
tower and may overcome biocide.
5. Bleed-off water to sewer passes through an air gap and water seal P-trap. Loss of water
seal from evaporation can occur in warm weather while tower remains inactive. Sewer
gases enter tower, allowing airborne bacterial infection to spread.
Fans
97.
How is a centrifugal fan driven?
1. Mechanical gearbox from the driving motor.

2. Rubber V or toothed belt.
3. Small pulley on the electric motor shaft and a large pulley on the fan drive shaft.
4. Electric motor directly connected to the fan drive shaft.
5. Chain drive with toothed sprockets.
98.
What drives the fan in a large air handling unit?
1. Diesel engine prime mover.

2. Three-phase electric motor.
3. Single-phase synchronous alternating current motor.
4. 1000-volt AC motor.
99.
What drives the fan in a large air handling unit?
1. Gas engine prime mover.

2. Six pole, phase electric motor.
3. Single-phase synchronous alternating current motor.
100. Which is a small fan drive motor, such as in a FCU?

1. DC variable speed motor, as they are the cheapest.
2. 415-volt AC motor if they require around 850 Watt power output.
3. Three phase for any size as this is the most energy-efficient type.
4. 240-volt, three-phase synchronous electric motor.
5. 240-volt single-phase direct drive motor.
General knowledge 5
101. How is room ventilation rate measured?
1. Impossible to measure something that cannot be seen.
2. Can only be calculated from duct air flow rate measurement.
3. Found from releasing a non-toxic tracer gas into the room and measuring its rate of
decay with a katharometer.
4. Measured quantity of tracer gas concentration in room remains constant when
mechanical ventilation is switched off and measured with a thermo anemometer.
5. Tracer gas concentration measured with a carbon dioxide sensor and falls in a straight
line graph when mechanical ventilation is switched off.
102. What are the two types of heat transfer taking place during ventilation of a building?
1. Latent and radiant.
2. Sensible and convection.
3. Latent and conduction.
4. Sensible and radiant.
5. Sensible and latent.
103. Which correctly describes heat transfer?

1. Sensible heat transfer comprises all types.
2. Latent heat transfer raises temperature.
3. Sensible heat transfer is logged by a thermocouple and thermistor.
4. Latent heat transfer is hidden from view.
5. Sensible heat transfer only takes place through conduction and convection.
104. Which correctly describes types of heat transfer?

1. Sensible heat transfer is the logical method.
2. Latent heat transfer occurs only in steam.
3. Radiation heat transfer is neither sensible nor latent.
4. Latent heat transfer is easily measured.
5.
Sensible heat transfer takes place from an area of higher temperature to one of lower
temperature.
105. Which does not correctly describe heat transfer?
1. Sensible heat is removed from air when water droplets spray into warm air and
vaporize.
2. Latent heat transfer occurs when water is evaporated into steam vapour.
3. Evaporative coolers and cooling towers rely on latent heat transfer to remove sensible
heat from the water passing through.
4. Evaporative coolers work less efficiently in warm humid climates.
5. Cooling towers already have saturated air, so there is no latent heat transfer with the
circulating water.
106. Which correctly describes heat transfer?

1. The sum of sensible and latent heat transfers within the plant determines the air
conditioning supply air flow rate.
2. Sensible and latent heat transfer kW values cannot be added together.
3. Air conditioning design supply air flow rate is calculated from the latent heat demand in
the building.
4. Latent heat load requires an increase in supply air flow rate from the AHU.
5. Latent heat transfers do not take place within a refrigerated air conditioning AHU
system.
107. What does a pitot-static tube measure?

1. Formula one racing car speed and air velocity in a duct.
2. Nothing, it is just a metal tube.
3. Air static pressure.
4. Total pressure of air at a velocity within a duct.
5. Air velocity pressure.
108. How is a pitot-static tube used?

1. Facing away from air flow direction.
2. Total pressure opening placed at right angles to main airflow direction in a duct.
3. Immersed in water to find static pressure at a depth.
4. Inserted into an air duct facing the airflow.
5. Inserted into a flame to take sample of combustion products into an analyser.
109. How is a pitot-static tube used to measure air velocity?

1. Output from tube converted into air velocity by an anemometer.
2. Difference between total and static air pressure pipes from tube gives velocity pressure
on a manometer. U-tube water gauge or an electronic manometer output reading of
pressure is converted into air velocity by formula.
3. Output from pitot-static tube gives total air pressure on a manometer. Manometer output
reading of pressure is converted into air velocity by formula.
4. Output from pitot-static tube gives static air pressure on a manometer. Manometer
output reading of pressure is converted into air velocity by formula.
5. Not a currently used method.
110. What is the most efficient way of recovering energy from room air?
1. Recirculation.
2. Sensible heat recovery thermal wheel.
3. Total heat recovery thermal wheel.
4. Plate heat exchanger.
5. Run-around pipe coils.
111. How does an air-to-air flat plate heat exchanger operate?

1. Flat metal plate is alternatively heated and cooled, transferring heat to incoming cool
outdoor air.
2. Porous flat plate heat exchanger transfers sensible heat from outgoing warm exhaust air.
3. Recoverable heat transfers through an aluminium foil plate between outgoing
conditioned room air and incoming unconditioned outdoor air.
4. Thermal storage bricks are heated by outgoing exhaust air, cooled later in day by
incoming cool air.
5. Concrete blocks pre-cool incoming outdoor air in daytime hot climates. Heat in blocks
is purged overnight with cool air circulated from within conditioned building.
112. How do heat pipes operate?

1. Useful heat to be recycled passes through hollow pipes.
2. Sealed evacuated tube has one end warmed by outgoing room air while other end
warms incoming outdoor cool air.
3. Sealed pipe containing a wick and refrigerant. Refrigerant liquid evaporates and
condenses at opposite ends between outgoing and incoming air streams, recovering
available heat difference.
4. Vacuum tube 1 metre long evaporates hydrocarbon in warm air end and condenses in
cool air other end, transferring waste heat.
5. Compressed heat transfer fluid in sealed tube transfers heat by conduction and
convection between ends of tube.
113. How does a run-around pipe coil system function?
1. Closed pipe loop passes water by gravity circulation between heat source and sink
locations.
2. Outgoing air duct water-cooled coil; closed cycle water pipework; warmed water
pumped through incoming outdoor air duct coil, recovering useful heat.
3. Refrigerated evaporator coil in outgoing waste heat duct passes useful heat to condenser
coil in the incoming air duct.
4. Refrigeration system recovers waste heat in outgoing air with a chilled water coil in
exhaust air duct.
5. Cold-water feed pipe to domestic hot-water system preheated in an outdoor air coil in
warm weather.
114. What is the typical thermal efficiency of an air-to-air heat recovery system?
1. Always 100%.
2. 90%.
3. 85%.
4. 80%.
5. 4085% range.
115. Outdoor supply air rate recommended for office ventilation is which value in litre per
second per person?
1. 1.
2. 5.
3. 7.
4. 9.
5. 10.
116. What is the description of a chilled beam?

1. Steel structural beam exposed in the occupied room and cooled by a supply air stream
from a directional grille.
2. Refrigerated pipe within a room.
3. Chilled water pipes alongside structural floor beams.
4. Exposed steel beam at high level in a room having chilled water pipes attached.
5. Natural convector chilled water finned pipe.
117. What can a chilled beam achieve?

1. Removes smaller heat gains from occupied spaces.
2. Removes all heat gains from a room.
3. Located above windows to remove perimeter heat gains.
4. Very little, as ducted cooling systems always needed.
5. Only removes heat gains at ceiling level from fluorescent luminaires.
118. Study a commercial or academic building that you are familiar with. Sketch and
describe how it is ventilated, heated and cooled. Do the systems perform satisfactorily? Are
you actively involved with controlling the systems? If you were to redesign the HVAC
systems for low energy use in compliance with the Carbon Plan 2011, what would you
recommend? Write an illustrated report of your recommendations with economic
justification, CO2 and other greenhouse gas emission reductions and whether such a project
might ever be implemented, and if so, when.
119. Figure 5.22 in the 6th edition shows a west-facing window in a warm climate at a
latitude of 35o south around midday. Explain how solar control is being achieved here and
how and if it might be applied to commercial buildings in other latitudes. Computer
simulation may be popular for such analysis but how could you physically model shading
for design assessment at almost no cost?
120. What does an air handling unit contain?

1. Water pump.
2. Supply and return air fans.
3. Outside air filter.
5. Cooling tower.
121. Which of these are examples of good engineering practice in the HVAC plant room?
1. Concrete plinths and anti-vibration mountings for rotating machines.
2. Telephones and computers.
3. Hard surfaced thermal insulation.
4. Artificial lighting and emergency exit lighting.
5. Low headroom under pipes and air ducts.
122. Which are correct about a fan coil unit?

1. Found in ceiling spaces over occupied rooms.
2. A small air handling unit.
3. Always installed on outdoor roof plant decks.
4. Contains a fan, air filter, heating and cooling coils.
5. Only used in office air conditioning systems.
123. What is the function of a VAV diffuser?

1. Manually adjustable supply air diffuser.
2. Vortex attunable valve.
3.
Variable air vanes on the inlet to the supply air fan making a variable air volume flow
rate air conditioning system.
4. Self-powered thermally activated variable valve supply air room diffuser.

5. Variable active vortices created by the shape of the supply air diffuser in the ceiling.
124. What is Therma-Fuser the proprietary name of?

1. Heat-sensitive air duct sealing tape.
2. Nuclear fusion reactor thermal energy power generation plant.
3. Self-powered variable flow rate supply air inlet grille.
4. Thermic lance welding system to fuse steel fabrications during construction.
5. Plastic pipe welding system.
Psychrometric chart
125. Why is a psychrometric chart used?
1. Personality testing of employees.
2. Psychiatric evaluation process.
3. Plots heat transfers in air conditioning.
4. Tests psychomotor reflex activity.
5. Vapour compression refrigeration cycle is drawn on it.

1. Shows temperature profile through a wall.
2. Calculates latent heat demand.
3. Calculates sensible heat load on the building.
4. Shows physical properties of humid air.
5. Plots dry-bulb air temperature against atmospheric pressure.

1. Takes data from a sling psychrometer and provides a means of finding percentage
saturation, moisture content and specific enthalpy of humid air.
2. Shows variation of physical properties of dry air with atmospheric pressure.
3. Plots wet-bulb temperature against vapour pressure.
4. Shows atmospheric vapour pressure for dry-bulb air temperatures from -10oC to 60oC.
5. Plots air dew-point against dry-bulb air temperatures.
128. Which is correct for sensible heating processes on a psychrometric chart?

1. Curved line between two dry-bulb temperatures.
2. Vertical straight line.
3. Any line at 45o to the horizontal.
4. Horizontal line.
5. A line concentric with the dew-point curve.
129. Which of these is a sensible heating process line on a psychrometric chart?

1. Horizontal line representing a move in conditions from right to left.
2. Sloping line downwards from right to left.
3. Horizontal line from left to right.

4. Sloping straight line upwards from left to right.
5. A line following constant percentage saturation from left to right upwards.
130. Which of these is a sensible heating process line on a psychrometric chart?

1. Straight line between two dry-bulb temperatures at constant specific enthalpy.
2. Line between two dry-bulb temperatures at constant percentage saturation.
3. Straight line between two dry-bulb temperatures at constant moisture content from right
to left.
4. Angled straight line between two dry-bulb temperatures from left to right.
5. Straight line between two dry-bulb air temperatures at constant moisture content from
left to right.
131. Which of these is a sensible cooling process line on a psychrometric chart?

1. Any curved line from right to left.
2. Horizontal line from right to left.
3. Straight line between two dry-bulb air temperatures angled upwards from right to left.
4. Line following constant percentage saturation downwards from right to left between
two wet-bulb air temperatures.
5. Vertical line between two specific enthalpies downwards.
132. Which of these does not correctly describe a cooling process line on a psychrometric
chart?
1. Cannot be precisely drawn on the chart due to variation of air percentage saturation
within the air spaces around a cooling and dehumidification coil.
2. Only the end points of the line are known precisely.

3. Line drawn represents overall picture of cooling process through the coil.
4. Curved line downwards from right to left between two moisture contents.
5. Straight line angled downwards between two pairs of coordinates from dry-bulb air
temperature and moisture content.
133. Which of these describes the leaving air condition when warm humid air enters a chilled
water cooling coil?
1. Higher moisture content.
2. Higher specific enthalpy.
3. Same moisture content.
4. Lower dry-bulb air temperature and around 90% percentage saturation.
5. 100% saturated air at same moisture content.
134. Which correctly describes cooling processes on a psychrometric chart?

1. Reduces percentage saturation.
2. Reduces wet-bulb air temperature.
3. Maintains air at constant specific enthalpy.
4. Maintains constant wet-bulb air temperature.
5. Does not change air specific volume.
135. Which correctly describes cooling processes on a psychrometric chart?

1. Lowers air moisture content when cooling medium is at a lower temperature than air
dew-point.
2. Leaving air has higher moisture content.
3. Leaving air has same specific enthalpy.

4. Process curve is always in an upwards direction.
5. Cooling coil surface dew-point temperature is always above incoming humid air
saturation temperature.
136. Which correctly describes humidification processes on a psychrometric chart?

1. Increases dry-bulb air temperature.
2. Usually reduces dry-bulb air temperature.
3. Cannot be drawn on the chart.
4. Air moisture content remains unaltered.
5. Reduces air specific enthalpy.
137. Which does not correctly describe humidification processes on a psychrometric chart?
1. Increases air moisture content.
2. Straight line from left to right angled upwards.
3. Vertical line towards saturation curve.
4. Angled line upwards from right to left towards saturation curve.
5. Adiabatic saturation line.
138. Which does not correctly describe humidification processes on a psychrometric chart?
1. Water sprays onto a chilled water cooling coil.
2. Steam injection provides better air cleanliness.
3. Straight line moving away from 100% saturation curve.
4. Straight line moving towards the 100% saturation curve.
5. Adiabatic saturation line.
Refrigeration
139. Which correctly describes a refrigeration compressor?
1. Uses gas-driven engine producing refrigeration.
2. Car engine adapted for refrigerant gas drives the cooling system.
3. Similar operation to that of an air compressor.
4. Always has an electrically driven reciprocating gas compressor.
5. Basic operation is refrigerant gas compression.
140. Which applies to vapour-compression refrigeration?

1. Prime mover driven.
2. Centripetal compressor.
3. Refrigerant liquid compressed at 40oC.
4. Refrigerant vapour condensed at 20oC.
5. Electric motor drives a reciprocating piston compressor.

1. Refrigerant gas compressor may be multi-cylinder reciprocating piston or volute scroll.
2. Refrigerant always remains as a gas.
3. Refrigerant R12 is ozone friendly.
4. Refrigerant R22 is found in domestic refrigerators.
5. Ammonia is not suitable as a refrigerant.

1. Compressed air.
2. Refrigerant vaporizes in the compressor.

3. Screw compressor.
4. Linear compressor.
5. Refrigerant condenses at low pressure and temperature.
143. Which applies to the vapour-compression refrigeration cycle?

1. Refrigerant liquid is pressurized by a centrifugal compressor.
2. Refrigerant liquid warms the inside of the building.
3. Reciprocating compressor increases refrigerant gas pressure.
4. Refrigerant thermostatic expansion valve stops and starts the flow of refrigerant to the
compressor.
5. Refrigerant liquid evaporates fully at 25oC and 4 Bar pressure in the evaporator.
144. Which is not correct about the vapour-compression refrigeration cycle?

1. Refrigerant vapour condenses into liquid at 10 Bar.
2. Refrigerant leaves the scroll compressor as superheated vapour.
3. Refrigerant liquid in the evaporator is at above atmospheric pressure.
4. There is no refrigerant liquid in the system while the compressor is running.
5. Refrigerant condenser rejects heat to the outdoor atmosphere at 40oC.
145. What does the COP of a refrigeration cooling system mean?

1. Convective operated pressure system.
2. Compressor operated performance.
3. Ratio of heat absorbed by refrigerant divided by power consumption of the compressor.
4. Number is always less than 1.0.
5. Ratio of the heat discharged in the condenser to the input power to the compressor.
146. Which is correct about refrigeration system efficiency?

1. Vapour compression refrigeration systems have a low energy efficiency and should be
avoided.
2. COP gives little idea of energy efficiency.
3. COP stands for coefficient of energy performance.
4. Refrigerating effect is always less than the electrical power input to the compressor.
5. COP of a vapour compression system providing cooling is typically in the range of 6 to
10.
147. What is a primary characteristic of absorption refrigeration?

1. Absorbs heat from within the building whereas a vapour compression system cools a
water circulation system.
2. Has an absorption compressor.
3. Uses gas pressure to generate cooling.
4. Requires a source of primary heat energy.
5. Uses no electrical energy.
148. How does absorption refrigeration function?

1. Operates at constant pressure.
2. Has two heat exchanger drums which operate at well above atmospheric pressure.
3. Does not reject any heat to the outside air.
4. Cannot produce chilled water at 6oC.
5. Uses two drums that are both at below atmospheric pressure.
149. Which of these is not correct about how absorption refrigeration functions?
1. Coefficient of performance of around 1.0.
2. Utilizes waste heat, such as process steam, as its heat energy input.
3. Has boiling, evaporation, condensing, pressure reduction and pumping processes.
4. Can only operate with a gas-fired burner as the source of heat input.
5. Uses non-toxic refrigerant.
150. Which of these is correct about how absorption refrigeration functions?

1. Only functions with fluorinated hydrocarbon refrigerants.
2. Uses ammonia as a refrigerant.
3. Refrigerant has a high ozone depletion potential.
4. Creates a lot more cooling kW than the consumed input heating power.
5. Water and lithium bromide salt in solution are the refrigerant.
151. Which is not correct in relation to domestic refrigerators?

1. Gas-powered refrigerators in homes and caravans are absorption machines.
2. Cool box is the refrigerant evaporator.
3. Air-cooled condenser finned heat exchanger is on the back of the refrigerator.
4. Absorption refrigerators have an electrically driven compressor.
5. External finned condenser heat exchanger provides useful heating to the kitchen.
152. Which applies to the lubrication of refrigeration compressors?

1. Reciprocating compressors produce oil carry-over into the refrigerant pipes.
2. Reciprocating compressors do not require lubrication.
3. Compressor lubricating oil never leaves the crankcase.

4. Piston rings do not let crankcase oil pass.
5. Refrigerant lubricates the compressor bearings.
153. What are refrigerants?

1. Combustible hydrocarbons.
2. Water.
3. Hydrocarbon oil.
4. Toxic.
5. Fluorinated hydrocarbons.
154. Which of these does not apply to refrigerants?

1. Always below atmospheric pressure.
2. Fluorinated hydrocarbons that can be made to change in the physical state.
3. Some are ozone depleting when discharged into the atmosphere
4. Supplied to the refrigerant plant manufacturer and installed in a pressurized liquid state.
5. Fluids that boil at around -30oC at atmospheric pressure.
155. Which of these does not apply to refrigerants?

1. R12 CCl2F2 was commonly used in domestic and small commercial refrigeration.
2. HFC134a is a hydro fluorocarbon.
3. R22 CHClF2 used in large systems.
4. Supplied in the form of high pressure gas.
5. Operated at 4 to 10 atmospheres pressure within the refrigeration system.
156. Which correctly describes the refrigeration cycle?

1. Compressor increases refrigerant liquid pressure.
2. Condenser is self-cooling.
3. Expansion valve stops and starts the flow of refrigerant.
4. Evaporator absorbs heat from the outside air.
5. Condenser rejects the heat extracted from within the building to the outside
environment.

1. Condenser absorbs surplus heat from the building.
2. Evaporator rejects heat from the refrigeration system.
3. Compressors of all types must only compress refrigerant vapour.
4. Centrifugal compressors usually pass refrigerant liquid droplets safely.
5. Screw compressors pass a mixture of refrigerant liquid and vapour.

1. Evaporator cools the refrigerant.
2. Liquid refrigerant completely evaporates into superheated vapour at around 5oC in the
evaporator heat exchanger and absorbs heat from the building.
3. Refrigerant does not change its physical state in the evaporator.
4. Refrigerant liquid absorbs only sensible heat from the cooling coil.
5. All refrigerant converts into vapour before entering the evaporator heat exchanger.
1. Thermostatic expansion valve regulates the rate of refrigerant flow into the evaporator
to ensure superheated vapour enters the compressor.
2. Thermostatic expansion valve allows refrigerant liquid to expand.
3. Opening of the thermostatic expansion valve is controlled by a temperature sensor on
the compressor discharge pipe.
4. Thermostatic expansion valve stops and starts the flow of refrigerant from a digital
controller.
5. TEV is an evaporator-isolating valve.
160. Which correctly describes a water-cooled refrigeration system?

1. Cold vapour leaves the compressor and enters a finned tube heat exchanger with axial
flow cooling fans.
2. Low pressure warm vapour condenses and rejects latent heat to the outside environment
through a shell and tube heat exchanger.
3. Refrigerant vapour condenses at 40oC in an air-cooled heat exchanger.
4. Water-cooled condenser pump circulates water to a cooling tower.
5. Refrigerant evaporator is a direct expansion cooling coil in an air handling unit.
161. How does a basement 700 kW centrifugal refrigeration compressor normally reject heat
to the outdoor environment in a city centre building?
1. Basement air-cooled heat exchanger and ducted outdoor air circulation.
2. Condenser cooling water ejects heat into sewer water through a second heat exchanger.
3. Condenser cooling water passes through multiple plastic pipes buried in soil heat sink.
4. Condenser cooling water circulates between a basement-located compressor and a roofmounted finned tube fluid cooler with several axial fans.
5. Evaporative cooling tower located in basement plant room and ducted to outdoors.
162. Identify which statement correctly describes the operation of the vapour compression
refrigeration cycle.
1. A compressor pump drives liquid refrigerant around the system.
2. Refrigerant condenses at 20oC to reject heat from the building.
3. Refrigerant gas vaporizes at 30oC and at high pressure to absorb heat from the building.
4. An expansion valve raises refrigerant gas pressure
5. Heat is absorbed from the building by vaporizing refrigerant at low pressure at around
5oC.
163. What are chlorinated fluorocarbons?

1. Paint solvents.
2. Adhesives used in building services and furnishings.
3. Solvents in cleaning fluids such as R113.
4. Thermal insulation materials.
5. Lubricating oils used in refrigeration and air compressors.
164. What are chlorinated fluorocarbons?

1. Toilet cleaning fluids.
2. Cleaning solvents used on office machines such as photocopiers and printers.
3. Ink-jet and laser office printer inks solvents and fixing agents.
4. Personal hygiene deodorants.
5. Foam insulation, packaging filler and furniture padding such as R11.
165. Which is correct about chlorinated fluorocarbons?

1. Released during combustion of timber and plastics.
2. Commonly found in small refrigeration appliances as R12.
3. Can be released into the atmosphere when a refrigeration system is emptied.
4. Toxic.
5. Flammable.
166. Which is correct about chlorinated fluorocarbons?

1. Must be transferred into a sealed cylinder and sent to recycling or disposal facility.
2. Collected and recycled into usable LPG.
3. Collected and recycled into foam plastic products.
4. Do no harm to the global environment.
5. Collected, liquefied and converted into cleaning solvents.
167. Which is not correct about chlorinated fluorocarbons?

1. R22 commonly used in large refrigeration systems such as chilled water plant.
2. Contained within sealed refrigeration systems at below atmospheric pressure so never
leaks into atmosphere.
3. Used in halon fire extinguishing fluid.
4. Non-toxic.
5. Only exists at atmospheric pressure in gaseous form.
168. What happens to chlorinated fluorocarbons when released into the atmosphere?
1. Dissolved by nearby water and rain.
2. Harmlessly coexist in the atmosphere.
3. Vaporize and dispersed by wind and rain.

4. Degraded by ultraviolet solar radiation releasing chlorine into upper atmosphere that
remains there for many years.
5. Degraded by infra-red solar radiation in the upper atmosphere releasing harmless oxides
of chlorine, carbon and fluorine.
169. What happens to chlorinated fluorocarbons when released into the atmosphere?
1. Do no known harm.
2. Become diluted within the vast atmosphere forming ice crystals.
3. Release carbon in gaseous form that ought to be recycled as fuel.
4. Degraded by ultraviolet and infra-red solar radiation in the upper atmosphere, thus
destroying all its chemical compounds into harmless atoms.
5. Chlorine released into atmosphere, destroys atmospheric ozone, allowing increased
solar radiation to affect Earth, expected to cause ecological and human damage.
170. What does ODP stand for?

1. Occupational degradation policy.
2. Oxford demographic population.
3. Ozone depletion potential.
4. Ozone damage problem.
5. Oversupply of damaging products of combustion.
171. Which property should CFC refrigerant replacements have?

1. Flammable.
2. Exist as a fluid at atmospheric pressure.
3. Zero chlorine content.

4. Same environmental properties as CFCs.
5. Identical thermo-physical properties.
172. Which property must CFC refrigerant replacements avoid?

1. Miscible with compressor lubricant.
2. Chlorine content.
3. Similar specific enthalpy.
4. Zero ODP.
5. Equivalent price.
173. What are fluorinated hydrocarbons used for?

1. Swimming pool water treatment.
2. Biocide decontamination of cooling towers.
3. Ozone-depleting refrigerants.
4. Non-CFC foam insulation and furnishings.
5. Removing CO2 from flue gas.
174. What does CFC stand for?

1. Carbon fibre construction.
2. Carbon fibre cycle.
3. Confederation of fan constructors.
4. Chlorinate fire control.
5. Chlorinated fluorocarbons.
175. What is the reason for using ice thermal storage in an HVAC refrigeration system?
1. Reduces water chiller plant room space requirement.
2. Reduces number of water chillers needed.
3. Reduces water chiller run time.
4. Installs smaller capacity refrigeration compressors.
5. Reduces energy cost.
176. How can an HVAC chiller plant running cost be lowered without reducing cooling
capacity or quality of service?
1. Install phase-change ice thermal storage tanks charged during off-peak electrical tariff
times.
2. Reset evaporating temperature to a higher value.
2. Install one large capacity high efficiency water chiller instead of several smaller units.
3. Install several small capacity water chillers and a load control switching program to
optimize plant operation.
5. Reset condensing pressure to a lower value.
177. The average heating, ventilating and air conditioning cooling load during a 10-hour
working day of an office building is 200 kW. Which of these is an appropriate ice thermal
storage chiller capacity when off-peak electricity is available for 7 hours at night?
1. 286 kW.
2. 29 kW.
3. 140 kW.
4. 200 kW
5. Cannot be calculated from this information.
178. How can an off-peak ice-making chiller be more efficient to operate than a daytime
water chiller?
1. Greater temperature difference between evaporation and condensing temperatures.
2. Lower outdoor night-time dry- and wet-bulb air temperatures.
3. Reduced electrical tariff.
4. Reduces peak hours electrical demand kW.
5. It is not more energy-efficient.
179. Which of these is not a reason to use ice or chilled water thermal storage for air
conditioning?
1. Reduces greenhouse gas generation.
2. Smaller water chillers.
3. Can use ozone-friendly refrigerant.
4. Reduces total plant room space.
5. Lower capital cost.
180. Which statement best describes how the cooling plant matches its output to the
requirements of the building?
1. Manually determined water chiller running times.
2. Outside weather sensor switches water chillers.
3. Water chiller switching table programmed.
4. Heating system reheats rooms when they are overcooled.
5. Room air thermostats are averaged to switch water chillers.
181. Which of these are used in water chillers for air conditioning systems?
1. Evaporative cooling.
2. Reciprocating compressors.
3. Screw compressors.
4. Ground sourced heat pumps.
5. Absorption refrigeration.
182. Describe the operation of the vapour compression refrigeration cycle and sketch a
complete system employing chilled water distribution to cooling coils in an airconditioning system.
183. Discuss the uses of the absorption refrigeration cycle for refrigerators and airconditioning systems.
184. Show how refrigeration systems can be used to pump heat from low temperature
sources, such as waste water, outdoor air arid solar collectors, to produce a usable heat
transfer medium for heating or air-conditioning systems.
185. How are multiple water chillers and water heaters connected to system pipework?
1. Alongside each other.
2. In series with each other.
3. Independently of each other.
4. In parallel with each other.
5. In any combination of pipes.
186. Which are typical through the wall packaged room air conditioner components?
1. Refrigeration compressor.
2. A building management system control connection.
3. Ducted supply air system.
4. Condenser finned pipe coil.
5. Fans.
187.
Identify which of these statements correctly describes the operation of the vapour
compression refrigeration cycle.
1. A compressor pump drives liquid refrigerant around the system.

2. Refrigerant condenses at 40oC to reject heat from the building.
3. Refrigerant gas vaporizes at 30oC and at high pressure to absorb heat from the building.
4. An expansion valve drops refrigerant gas pressure.
5. Heat is absorbed from the building by vaporizing refrigerant at low pressure at around
5oC.
188. Which of these statements are correct?

1. A reciprocating refrigeration chiller vibrates and is very noisy.
2. An absorption water chiller consumes a lot of electrical energy and is noisy.
3. Rotary screw and centrifugal refrigerant compressors may be used in large building air
conditioning systems.
4. Refrigeration water chillers are never installed in plant rooms.
5.
Most of the electrical energy for an air conditioning system is used by the refrigerant
compressor.
189. Which of these statements about refrigeration systems is correct?

1. Ground source heat pumps cannot be used in Australia as the ground is too hot.
2. Ground source heat pumps must also use outside air for cooling the building.
3. Ground source heat pumps have a cooling tower.
4. Ground source heat pumps can be used where enough undeveloped ground is available.
5. Ground source heat pumps are the least efficient method of cooling a building.
190. What does VRF mean?
1. Has no meaning.
2. Valuable recycled refrigerant.
3. Variable refrigerant flow.
4. Volume reduced flow.
5. Volume refracted fluorocarbon.
191. What does VRV mean?

1. Variable refrigerant volume.
2. Volume refrigerated valve.
3. Vacuum recycled vanadium.
4. Variable refrigeration value.
5. Valid refrigerant valence.
192. Why use VRF/VRV systems?

1. Lower cost than fixed flow refrigerant systems.
2. Saves having a building management system computer.
3. No real advantage over alternatives.
4. Bank of outdoor condensing units serves multiple indoor evaporator room air
conditioners.
5. Inverter motor drives are the latest technology and must be used.
193. Why use VRF/VRV systems?

1. Variable speed drive compressors match cooling and heating demand from multiple
evaporator room units and use less energy than single-speed compressors.
2. Not a good idea as inverter drives creates additional high frequency noise.
3. Higher cost of inverter-driven compressors makes system uneconomic.
4. On/off compressor control is more energy-efficient.
5. Essential to use latest technology.
194. Which method of controlling the capacity of a refrigeration system offers significant
savings in electrical power?
1. Compressor on/off switching.
2. Compressor cylinder head valve unloading by holding open.
3. Refrigerant hot gas bypass around the compressor.
4. Variable frequency compressor drive.
5. Thermostatic expansion valve refrigerant flow control.
195. Which is not a feature of a refrigeration compressor system?

1. Motor thermal overload cut-out switch.
2. Anti-vibration mountings.
3. Compressor discharge line oil separation and return to crankcase.
4. Suction line superheat sensing and capacity control.
5. Acoustic insulation.
196. What is not a type of refrigeration compressor?

1. Scroll.
2. Volute.
3. Centrifugal.
4. Screw.
5. Piston.
197. When the coefficient of performance during heating (COPH), of a vapour compression
refrigeration cycle is 3.5, what is the correct compressor power input to generate 3.5 kW of
heating?
1. 3.5 kW.
2. 1 kW.
3. 35 kW.
4. 10 kW.
5. Must be measured.
198. When the coefficient of performance during cooling (COPR), of a vapour compression
refrigeration cycle is 2.5, what is the correct compressor power input to generate 2.5 kW of
cooling?
1. 2.5 kW.
2. 1 kW.
3. 25 kW.
4. 10 kW.
5. Something else.
199. When the coefficient of performance during heating (COPH) of a vapour compression
refrigeration cycle is 3, what is the correct compressor power input to generate 750 kW of
heating?
1. 750 kW.
2. 2250 kW.
3. 100 kW.
4. 250 kW.
5. 75 kW.
200. When the coefficient of performance during cooling (COPR) of a vapour compression
refrigeration cycle is 2.25, what is the correct compressor power input to generate 225 kW of
cooling?
1. 225 kW.
2. 22.5 kW.
3. 506 kW.
4. 100 kW.
5. 2.25 kW
Supply air condition

201. A banking hall is cooled in summer by an air-conditioning system that provides an air
flow rate of 5 m3/s to remove sensible heat gains of 50 kW. Room air temperature is
maintained at 23C. Derive the formula for calculating the supply air temperature and find
its value.
202. A room has a sensible heat gain of 10 kW and a supply air temperature of 10C d.b.
Find the supply air rate required to keep the room air down to 20C d.b.
0.793 m3/s.
203. Ten people occupy an office and each produces 50 W of latent heat. The supply air flow
rate is 0.5 m3/s and its temperature is 12C d.b. If the room is to be maintained at 21C d.b.
and 50% percentage saturation, calculate the supply air moisture content.
0.007469 kg H20/kg air.
204. The cooling coil of a packaged air conditioner in a hotel bedroom has refrigerant in it at
a temperature of 16C. Room air enters the coil at 31C d.b. and 40% percentage saturation
and leaves at 20C d.b. at a rate of 0.5 m3/s.
1. Is the room air dehumidified by the conditioner?
No.
2. Find the room wet-bulb air temperature and specific volume.
21.2oC w.b., 0.877 m3/kg.
3. Calculate the total cooling load in the room.
6.186 kW.
Ventilation strategies
205. What is an assisted natural ventilation system?
1. Manually openable windows, louvers and skylights.
2. System may have mechanically operated ventilation devices.
3. Natural ventilation systems linked to a building management system computer.
4. Fully controlled air conditioning.
5. Always refers to natural air inlet and air outlet systems.
206. What does mixed mode ventilation mean?

1. Ventilation fans are mixed flow type, not axial or centrifugal.
2. Building occupants actively operate some ventilation controls.
3. Fully air-conditioned sealed building.
4. Mixed functional usages within building such as retail and hotel uses.
5. Something else.
207. Which applies to natural ventilation?

1. Only used where external climate and building design permit.
2. Always the lowest cost design option.
3. Always used in low energy buildings.
4. Airtight buildings rely on natural ventilation.
5. Natural ventilation relies on mechanically controlled permanent openable components
of the building.
208. What may a mixed mode ventilated building contain?

1. No mechanical ventilation.
2. Every room is air conditioned.
3. Hollow core concrete floor slabs providing cool overnight ventilation.
4. Ground-source heat pump instead of a cooling tower.
5. Cooling tower and dry air fluid cooler outdoors.
209. Where may a mixed mode ventilation system apply?
1. Mainly natural ventilation with some mechanical components.

2. Where there is no automatic control system.
3. Unoccupied building.
4. Manufacturing building.
5. Only some areas are air-conditioned.
210. How is low cost cooling provided?

1. Finding the cheapest water chiller system.
2. Maximizing the use of outdoor air.
3. Using an evaporative cooling system.
4. Not having air conditioning.
5. Designing a low energy building.
211. Sketch and describe the arrangements for natural and mechanical ventilation of
buildings. State two applications for each system.
212. Describe the operating principles of four different systems of air conditioning. State a
suitable application for each.
213. State, with reasons, the appropriate combinations of natural and mechanical ventilation
for the following: residence, city office block, basement boiler room, industrial kitchen,
internal toilet accommodation, hospital operating theatre, entertainment theatre.
214. Explain, with the aid of sketches, how the external wind environment affects the
internal thermal environment of a building.
215. List the procedure for the design of an air-conditioning system for an office block.
216. Which is an appropriate statement for displacement ventilation moving air comfort
criteria?
1. Displacement supply air inlets blow air across feet.
2. Displacement supply air inlets diffuse heating air into occupied rooms just beneath the
ceiling.
3. Displacement supply air inlets diffuse air into the room to avoid causing draughts.
4. Floor-supply air grilles keep feet warm.
5. Low level and floor-supply air grilles are not practical.
217. Which is correct for the supply of outdoor air?

1. Must always be 1.5 air changes per hour.
2. There is no minimum recommended amount.
3. Found from room and building cooling requirement.
4. Must be 25 l/s per person at all times.
5. Around 10 l/s per person is often recommended.
218. Which is correct about mechanical ventilation?

1. Should be avoided in low energy buildings.
2. When necessary, must provide 410 air changes per hour during heating and cooling.
3. Should provide a minimum of four air changes per hour to ensure thorough mixing and
movement of all air within the building.
4. Only requires exhaust air fans where there is no air conditioning.
5. Supply and exhaust air quantities must never be equal.
219. Which is correct about the air pressurization of buildings?

1. Supply and exhaust air quantities must be equal.
2. Outdoor wind environment creates internal air pressurization.
3. When exhaust air volume exceeds supply air quantity, the building is pressurized.
4. When exhaust air volume exceeds supply air quantity, the building is depressurized.
5. Supply air fans do not create building air pressurization.
220. Which is correct about the supply of outdoor air into a building?
1. Does not need to be filtered in the UK.
2. Does not need to be filtered in clean air localities.
3. Only needs to be filtered when there is a health or medical need by the occupants.
4. Air filtration is only necessary in health care, laboratory and museum buildings.
5. Incoming outdoor air is always filtered to maintain a clean and dust-free internal
environment.
221. How is the supply air flow rate determined?

1. Always determined from the number of occupants.
2. Always determined from the maximum cooling load.
3. Is 20 air changes per hour in air-conditioned offices.
4. From the greatest design requirement.
5. From the maximum heating load.
6 Heat demand
Admittance values
1. What are admittance values?
1. Solar heat gain factors for windows and opaque structures.
2. The opposite of resistance values.
3. Number of people who can pass through the buildings entry and transportation systems
at peak flow periods.
4. Always twice the thermal transmittance value.
5. Thermal factors evaluating heat flows into thermal storage of the structure.
2. Which does not apply to admittance values?

1. Y W/m2 K.
2. Reciprocal of U value.
3. Used instead of thermal transmittance in certain circumstances.
4. Expresses heat flow inwards to a heavy mass structural component.
5. Used for highly intermittently heated buildings.
General knowledge 6
3. Which is correct about thermal comfort?
1. Elderly sedentary people can develop hyperthermia in winter.
2. Hypothermia has been eradicated in the UK due to government policies.
3. Hypothermia is a temporary condition that is a nuisance but it never affects young
people.
4. Hypothermia is the inevitable lowering of body temperature leading to loss of life.
5. Shivering is a voluntary reflex action when we feel cold.
Heat transfer
4. Which of these correctly describes how heat transfers within buildings?
1. Radiation through the concrete floor.
2. Convection currents within room air.
3. Conduction between the occupants and the surfaces of the building.
4. Conduction through solid building materials.
5. Radiation across a wall cavity when there is aluminium foil-faced building paper.
5. How does heat transfer work?
1. Through a solid material it takes place by convection.
2. Aluminium foil reflective sheet is attached to brick or concrete walls to stop radiation.
3. Occupants exchange heat with the building through conduction.
4. Is always towards a higher temperature area.
5. Convection transfers heat across an air space of any size.
6. Which is correct about heat transfer?

1. Can never be zero.
2. Is not very important in mild climates like the UKs.
3. Radiation always takes place across an air space.
4. There is never any radiation exchange between parallel aluminium foil surfaces either
side of an air space in a building structure.
5. Clothing stops people losing heat to the environment.

1. Conduction is due to increased molecular excitation.
2. Conduction is due to reduced molecular excitation.

3. Conduction causes molecular flow in the direction of temperature gradient.
4. Glass in a window acts as an insulator.
5. Glass in a window has more thermal insulation than the frame.

1. Steel-framed buildings are better insulated than a concrete-framed equivalent.
2. The steel frame of a building acts as a thermal bridge so conduction heat flow bypasses
thermal insulation materials alongside.
3. There is no conduction through insulating materials.
4. Heat conduction always flows outward from a building
5. Heat bridges assist the mechanical cooling system of a building.

1. Thermal resistance of a glass window is mainly due to the surface air films.
2. Heat flow through walls, floors and roofing only takes place by conduction.
3. Conduction heat flow always flows from a lower to a higher temperature.
4. Convection currents can only travel downwards.
5. Radiation heat transfer is irrelevant for buildings.
10.
Which is correct about heat transfer?
1. Takes place between any two temperatures.

2. Always instantaneous.
3. Conduction heat flow always flows from a higher to a lower temperature.
4. Convection heat flows are one-dimensional.
5. Convection currents can only move upwards.
11.
1. Conduction flows are always in one dimension.

2. Convection flows are always with laminar fluid flow.
3. Conduction flows are three-dimensional.
4. Conduction is always the largest of all type of heat flow from a building.
5. Radiation transfers are always towards people.
12.
Which of these statements about heat transfer is incorrect?
1. Convection currents in the air around a person usually remove heat from the body.
2. Convection transfers heat between room air and the internal surfaces of the building.
3. External wind is a convection current.
4. Convection transfers heat from a higher to a lower temperature.
5. Convection transfers heat through a concrete floor to outside air.
13.
1. Radiation heat transfer only occurs in hot countries.

2. Radiation is reduced by installing high emissivity dark surfaces.
3. Glass is opaque to radiation heat flow.
4. Radiation heat transfer is calculated from surface temperatures raised to a power of two.
5. Thermal radiation is proportional to the fourth power of absolute surface temperature.
14.
1. Low temperature hot-water 70oC panel radiators do not emit radiant heat.
2. Heated floors cannot radiate heat to other room surfaces as they are too cool.
3. Surfaces must be parallel for heat to be transferred by radiation to each other.
4. Stefan Boltzmann devised a formula for radiant heat transfer.
5. Stefan Hindenburg devised a formula for radiant heat transfer.
15.
1. Shiny surfaces emit most radiant heat.

2. Brick has emissivity of around 0.2.
3. High emissivity surfaces are good thermal radiators.
4. Low-e glass does not reduce radiation heat loss from a heated room.
5. Radiant heat cannot transfer across the cavity in a wall.
16.
1. Radiation heat transfer is not well understood.

2. Lasers are the same as thermal radiation.
3. Thermal radiation travels in the same direction as a laser.
4. Radiation heat transfer is inversely proportional to the surface areas of the surfaces.
5. People do not radiate heat.
17.
Which is incorrect about heat transfer?
1. Sunshine contains radiant heat.

2. Radiation travels in straight paths.
3. Radiation heat transfer travels across a vacuum.
4. Radiation heat transfer travels from the sun to every planet in our planetary system.
5. Radiation is the slowest form of heat transfer.
18.
1. Evaporation of moisture from the human body is not a form of heat transfer.
2. Evaporation of moisture from the human body is the transfer of water mass to the
surrounding air.
3. The human body can live without evaporation from the skin.
4. Breathing does not cause evaporation heat emission from the body.
5. Clothing is designed to greatly reduce evaporation of moisture from the body.
19.
1. Sweating of the body increases evaporation.

2. Sweating of the body is a combination of metabolic activity, clothing, air temperature
and relative humidity.
3. People do not sweat in hot, dry climates such as in Australia.
4. It is impolite to sweat in the company of others.
5. Sweating only occurs in warm weather.
20.
1. Evaporation heat transfer is proportional to the partial pressure of the surrounding air.
2. Still water surfaces do not evaporate.
3. Water must be heated to at least 60oC to cause evaporation.
4. Only steam boilers evaporate water.
5. Vaporize and evaporate have different meanings.
21.
1. Air is a collection of dry gases.

2. Air is nearly all nitrogen.
3. Air is a mixture of dry gases and finely divided molecules of water.
4. Evaporation of moisture from people raises the temperature in the surrounding air.
5. Evaporation cannot be described as latent heat transfer.
Thermal insulation
22.
List the ways in which existing residential, commercial and industrial buildings can
improve their thermal insulation. Discuss the practical measures that are needed to protect the
insulation from deterioration.
23.
Review the published journals and find examples of buildings where the existing
thermal insulation has been upgraded. Prepare an illustrated presentation or article on a

comparison of the outcomes from the cases found.
24.
Write a technical report in favour of adding thermal insulation to existing buildings.
Support your case by referring to government encouragement, global energy resources,

atmospheric pollution, legislation, cost to the building user and the profitability of the users
company.
25.
A flat roof over a bedroom causes intermittent condensation during sub-zero outdoor air
temperatures. The roof has normal exposure. The owners want to eliminate the condensation
and reduce the thermal transmittance to 0.15 W/m2 K. Thermocouple temperature sensors
were used to assess the average thermal transmittance of the roof structure. On the day of the
test, the indoor air, ceiling surface and outdoor air temperatures were 16C, 11C and -2C.
Calculate the existing thermal transmittance of the roof and the thickness of the expanded
polystyrene slab that would be needed.
Rsi 0.1 m2 K/W, Q 50 W, U 2.78 W/m2 K, Rn 6.67 m2 K/W, 221 mm.
26.
An external solid brick wall is to be insulated with phenolic foam slabs 0.025 W/mK
attached to the exterior brickwork with UPVC hangers. Expanded metal is to be fixed onto the
outside of the foam and then cement rendered to a thickness of 12 mm 0.5 W/mK. The wall
has a sheltered exposure. The intention is to reduce the thermal transmittance to 0.3 W/m2 K.
Thermocouple temperature sensors were used to assess the average thermal transmittance of
the wall prior to the design work. On the day of the test, the indoor air, interior wall surface
and outdoor air temperatures were 15C, 12.7C and 6C. Calculate the existing thermal
transmittance of the wall and the thickness of the phenolic foam that would be needed. If the
foam is only available in multiple thicknesses of 10 mm, state the thermal transmittance that
will be achieved for the wall. Calculate the internal surface temperature that should be found
on the wall for a day when the indoor and outdoor air temperatures are 18C and 0C.
Rsi 0.12 m2 K/W, Q 19.2 W, 114 mm, 120 mm used, Un 0.29 W/m2 K, 17.4oC.
27.
The roof over a car manufacturing area consists of 4 mm profiled aluminium sheet 50
W/mK s on steel trusses. Wood wool slabs, 25 mm 0.1 W/mK, are fitted below the roof
sheets. The roof trusses remain uninsulated as they protrude through the wood wool. The
trusses cause condensation to precipitate onto the vehicle bodies during cold weather. The
roof is to be insulated with polyurethane board 0.025 W/mK, which will be secured to the
underside of the roof trusses. The roof has a normal exposure. The intention is to reduce the
thermal transmittance to 0.25 W/m2 K. Thermocouple temperature sensors were used to assess
the average thermal transmittance of the roof prior to the insulation. On the day of the test, the
indoor air under the roof was 13C, the internal roof surface temperature was 11C and the
outdoor air temperature was 2C. Calculate the existing thermal transmittance of the roof and
the thickness of polyurethane that would be needed. The insulation is only available in
multiple thicknesses of 10 mm. State the thermal transmittance that will be achieved for the
roof. Calculate the internal surface temperature that should be found on the newly insulated
roof for a day when the indoor and outdoor air temperatures are 16C and -5C.
Rsi 0.1 m2 K/W, Q 20 W, U 1.82 W/m2 K, extra Ra 0.18 m2 K/W; 81.75 mm, 90 mm used, Un
0.23 W/m2 K, new Q 4.83 W, 15.5oC.
Thermal response
28.
Which of these buildings have a slow response, of several hours, to variations in the
weather?
1. Steel-framed 30-storey offices.
to corrugated sheet steel wall and roof cladding, for example, an aircraft hanger.
5. Small prefabricated building, temporary site accommodation.
U values
29.
State what is meant by the following terms:
1. Thermal resistance.
2. Thermal conductivity.
3. Thermal resistivity.
4. Specific heat capacity.
5. Thermal transmittance.
6. Orientation and exposure.
7. Surface resistance.
8. Cavity resistance.
9. Emissivity.
10.
Admittance factor.
11.
Heavyweight and lightweight structures.
30.
The following materials are being considered for the internal skin of a cavity wall.
Compare their thermal resistances and comment upon their suitability for a residence.
1. 105 mm brickwork 0.62 W/mK.
2. 200 mm heavyweight concrete block 1.63 W/mK.
3. 150 mm lightweight concrete block 0.19 W/mK.
4. 75 mm expanded polystyrene slab 0.035 W/mK.
5. 100 mm mineral fibre slab 0.035 W/mK and 15 mm plasterboard 0.16 W/mK.
6.
40 mm glass fibre slab 0.035 W/mK, 150 mm lightweight concrete block 0.19
W/mK and 15 mm lightweight plaster 0.16 W/mK.
31.
Calculate the thermal transmittances of the following.
1. 6 mm single-glazed window 1W/mK, Rsi 0.13 m2K/W, severe exposure Rse 0.04
m2K/W.
2. 6 mm double-glazed window, glass 1W/mK, Rsi 0.13 m2K/W, Ra 0.18 m2K/W, Rse 0.04
m2K/W.
3. 220 mm solid brick wall 0.84W/mK and 13 mm lightweight plaster 0.16W/mK, Rsi
0.13 m2K/W, Rse 0.04 m2K/W.
4. 220 mm solid brick wall 0.84W/mK, 150 mm glass fibre quilt 0.035W/mK and 10
mm plasterboard 0.16W/mK, no cavity Rsi 0.13 m2K/W, Rse 0.04 m2K/W.
5. 105 mm brick wall 0.84W/mK, 10 mm air space Ra 0.18 m2K/W, 40 mm glass fibre
slab 0.045W/mK and 100 mm lightweight concrete block 0.19W/mK, Rsi 0.13
m2K/W, Rse 0.04 m2K/W.
6. 40o pitched roof, 10 mm tile 0.84W/mK, roofing felt 0.5W/mK and 10 mm flat
plaster ceiling 0.16W/mK with 100 mm glass fibre quilt 0.04W/mK laid between the
joists, Ra 0.16 m2K/W, Rsi 0.1 m2K/W, Rse 0.04 m2K/W.
7. 19 mm asphalt 0.5W/mK flat roof, 13 mm fibreboard 0.06W/mK, 25 mm air space
Ra 0.16 m2K/W, 100 mm mineral wool quilt 0.04W/mK and 10 mm plasterboard
0.16W/mK, Rsi 0.1 m2K/W, Rse 0.04 m2K/W.
32.
A lounge 7 m long 4 m wide 2.8 m high is maintained at a resultant temperature of
21C and has 1.5 air changes per hour of outside air at -2C. There are two double-glazed
wood-framed windows of dimensions 2 m 1.5 m U 3 W/m2K, and an aluminium-framed
double-glazed door of dimensions 1 m 2 m U 3.6 W/m2K. Exposure is normal. One long
and one short wall are external and constructed of 105 mm brick, 10 mm air space, 40 mm
polyurethane board, 150 mm lightweight concrete block and 13 mm lightweight plaster. The
internal walls are of 100 mm lightweight concrete block and are plastered. There is a solid
ground floor with edge insulation U 0.34 W/m2 K. Adjacent rooms are at a resultant
temperature of 18C. Calculate the steady-state heat loss from the room for a convective
heating system. Brick 0.84, polyurethane 0.025, lightweight concrete 0.2 and plaster 0.16
W/m. Ra 0.18 m2K/W, Rsi 0.13 m2K/W, Rse 0.04 m2K/W.
2330.5 W.
33.
A single-storey community building of dimensions 20 m 15 m 3 m high has low-
temperature hot-water radiant panel heaters. There are ten windows of dimensions 2.5 m 2
m. Natural infiltration amounts to one air change per hour. Internal and external design
temperatures are 20C and -1C. Thermal transmittances are walls 0.6, windows 5.3, floor
0.5, roof 0.4 W/m2 K. Calculate the steady-state heat loss.
20.112 kW.
34.
A single-storey factory is allowed to have 35% of its wall area as single glazing U 5.7
W/m2 K and 20% of its roof area as single-glazed roof-lights U 5.7 W/m2 K as a design
limitation, while the wall and roof U values are not to exceed 0.6 W/m2 K. An architect
proposes a building to meet this standard of dimensions 50 m x 30 m 4 m high with a wall
U value of 0.4 W/m2 K, a roof U value of 0.32 W/m2 K, 20 double-glazed windows, each of
area 16 m2 having a U value of 3.3 W/m2 K and 35 roof-lights, each of area 10 m2 having a U
value of 5.3 W/m2 K. Does the proposal meet the design restriction and what is the rate of heat
loss per m2 floor area?
Allowed heat loss per degree Celsius difference inside to outside is 3746.8 W/K; thus the
proposal complies. Proposed heat loss 3407 W/K.
35.
Calculate the boiler power required for a building with a heat loss of 50 kW and an
indirect hot-water storage system for 20 people, each using 50 litres of hot water at 65C per
day. The cylinder is to be heated from 10C in 2.5 h. Add 10% for pipe and cylinder heat
losses and 25% for rapid heating from a cold start.
83.14 kW.
36.
A 30-year-old single-storey building has dimensions 40 m 20 m 4 m high with
windows of area 80 m2 and a door of area 9 m2. It is to be maintained at a resultant

temperature of 20C when the outside is at -1oC and natural ventilation amounts to one air
change per hour. Thermal transmittances are as follows: walls, 0.6 W/m2 K; windows, 5.3
W/m2 K; door, 5 W/m2 K; floor, 0.6 W/m2 K; roof, 0.8 W/m2 K. A convective heating system is
used. It is proposed to reduce the U values of the windows to 2.6, walls to 0.3 W/m2 K and
roof to 0.32 W/m2 K. Calculate the percentage reduction in heater power that would be
produced.
43%.
37.
1. Thermal resistivity is the fire resistance property of a material.

2. Thermal resistance is the total resistance to flow of water through a heating system
circulation.
3. Thermal conductivity is used in calculating the resistance of an electrical heating wiring
system.
4. Thermal resistance is a material component property and is measured in m2 K/W.
5. Thermal resistance means how many hours electrical cable insulation can resist fire in
the building.
38.
1. The sheet of glass in a window provides a significant thermal resistance.

2. Thermal conductivity of window glass is around 1 W/m K.
3. Thermal conductivity of window glass is around 1 m K/W.
4. Window glass is only used to keep wind out of the building.
5. Windows create no thermal resistance to heat flow.
39.
Which is the correct unit?
1. Thermal conductivity m2 K/W.

2. Thermal transmittance W/m3 K.
3. Thermal conductivity m K/kJ.
4. Thermal resistivity W/m K.
5. Thermal resistivity m K/W.
40.
What does
UA ( t 1t 2)
mean?
1. Something in Greek.
2. Universal ASHRAE temperature difference used for building heat gain calculation.
3. Integration of U values and areas during a time interval.
4. Summation of thermal transmittance, surface area and indooroutdoor air temperature
difference of each external element of the building.
5. All the U values, surface area and temperature differences added together for the whole
building.
41.
Which explanation of thermal conductivity is correct?
1. Ability of a material to conduct electricity.

2. Property evaluating materials ability to pass heat.
3. Equal to resistivity multiplied by thickness.
4. Units are W/m3 K.
42.
Which is correct about thermal resistance?
1. Calculated from data tables and computer programs.

2. Calculated from material thickness divided by thermal conductivity.
3. Calculated by dividing material thickness in metres by thermal resistivity in m K/W.
4. Units are kJ/m2 K.
5. Units are W/m K.
43.
Which of these calculated values of thermal resistance is not correct?
1. 110 mm of brickwork is 0.13.

2. 150 mm of fibreglass roof insulation is 3.75.
3. 100 mm concrete having a thermal conductivity of 2.0 W/m K is 0.05.
4. A metal window frame 20 mm thick has a thermal conductivity of 50.0 W/m K and has
a thermal resistance of virtually zero.
5. A low energy building wall has 1.0 m thickness of phenolic foam having a thermal
conductivity of 0.04 W/m K, making a thermal resistance of 25.0 m2 K/W.
44.
1. U value is the sum of all thermal resistivity in a structure.

2. R value is the sum of all thermal resistivity in a structure.
3. Y value is the sum of all thermal resistivity in a structure.
4. U value is the sum of all thermal resistances in a structure.
5. R value is the sum of all thermal resistances in a structure.
45.
Which is correct about an existing structures thermal transmittance?
1. Can only be calculated from design information.
2. Cannot be measured in situ.

3. Measurement requires a thermal imaging camera.
4. Measures structural temperatures to calculate U value.
5. Thermocouple temperature sensors have to be buried in drilled holes through the
structure.
Ventilation heat demand

46.
What does
0.33 NV ( t1t 2 )
mean?
1. One-third of the volumetric air change rate multiplied by daily degree days above base
temperature.
2. 33% of normal building volume per degree temperature difference to calculate energy
usage cost.
3. A design guide to the plant room floor area likely to be required for air handling units.
4. A fraction of the nominal building volume multiplied by air temperature difference.
5. Volumetric specific heat capacity of air, times number of air changes per hour, times
room volume, times indooroutdoor air temperature difference, calculates natural
ventilation rate of heat loss for a heating system.
7 Heating

1. How often does the building management system communicate data with sensors and
actuators?
1. Continuously.
2. Once per hour.
3. Daily.
4. Every few seconds.
5. Annual reports.
2. Which of these comments are factually correct about a building management system and
are not just an opinion?
1. Physical security protection is now out of date.
2. Allows one person to control and monitor a large facility.
3. Digital recording cameras stop illegal break-ins and escapes.
4. Turn off the power source and it is useless.
5. RS232 and RS484 are types of automatic control system.
3. What does the mechanical services switchboard (MSSB) do?

1. Router for all telephone calls between Property Services staff.
2. Automatically controls all air conditioning and transportation systems on the campus.
3. It is the manually operated switchboard for all mechanical services systems within the
building.
4. Switches all the electrical sub-circuits for the whole building.
5. Only needed in buildings that do not have a computer-based building management

system.
4. How is commissioning of a building management system carried out?

1. With a screwdriver.
2. At the server computer.
3. Remotely through the internet.
4. By calibrating room air temperature sensors with a thermometer.
5. With a laptop computer communicating directly with each control box.
5. What does TCP/IP stand for?

1. Television control programming, internet post.
2. Transmission control protocol, internet protocol.
3. Telephone control program, internet protocol.
4. Transmission control program, internet packages.
5. Telephone communication package, internal protocol.
6. Which is correct about the use of carbon dioxide sensors?

1. Detect ingress of pollution from road traffic.
2. Used to vary the supply of outdoor air into rooms having VAV systems.
3. Control the intake of outdoor air into an air handling unit.
4. Warns the fire and smoke detection systems of a fire source.
5. Used to control underground car park mechanical ventilation systems.
7. Where will a computer-based building management system usually not be found?
1. Public hospital.
2. Prison.
3. Car manufacturing plant.
4. 500-person office building.
5. 100-room hotel.
8. What does the term BMS mean?

1. Building access system.
2. Building maintenance system.
3. Building management system.
4. Building monitored security.
5. Business manual security.
9. What is another common term for building management system?

1. Building control system.
2. Building automation system.
3. Facility management computer.
4. Remote security system.
5. Building maintenance team.
10.
What is an air thermostat?
1. Air temperature sensor.

2. Controller.
3. Air temperature-operated switch.
4. Humidity monitor.
5. Air speed indicator.
11.
Identify the vital components for user interface with a building management system.
1. Mobile telephone and pager.

2. Network server computer.
3. Telephone modem.
4. Computer, visual display unit, mouse and keyboard.
5. Two-way radios.
12.
How often does the building management system communicate data with sensors and
actuators?
1. When the server is switched on by a person.
2. Only when required.
3. Only when measured conditions change.
4. Regular polling.
5. When compiling monthly reports.
13.
What forms does building management system data not take when passing through the
communications cabling?
1. Alternating current of over 1.0 amp.
2. Light pulses through fibre optic cables.
3. Internet protocol data packets.
4. Electrical direct current below 0.10 amps.
5. Voltage of 10 volt maximum.
14.
What types of cable system are not normally used for building management system
communications cables?
1. Copper wire.
2. Screened TV aerial cable.
3. RS 485 copper.
4. RS232 copper.
5. Fibre optic.
15.
How does the building management system control engineer recognize what a control
point does?
1. Gives each one a unique number.
2. Gives each one a unique name.
3. Uses an easily identified code description.
4. Writes a digital bar code number.
5. Attaches a detailed description label.
16.
Which of these will the building management system user not see on the computer
screen?
1. Mimic drawings of the mechanical and electrical services systems.
2. Scale drawings of the building.
3. Floor plans showing sensor and camera positions.
4. Energy use reports.
5. Onoff status of equipment and warning and alarm messages of faults.
17.
What is a point in a building management system?
1. No such thing.
2. Water chiller, flow control valve and temperature sensor.
3. Water system.
4. Air handling unit.
5. Printed circuit board in an outstation.
18.
Roughly what is the average installation cost of a building management system point?
1. Only cost is sensor, around 30.

2. The labour cost of installing a wire, around 20.
3. Around 200.
4. As much as 3000.
5. The cost of a small computer, about 1000.
19.
How many primary, or main, users are there likely to be of a building management
system in a public hospital?

1. One person.
2. One hundred.
3. Three to ten.
5. All employees and contractors.
20.
Who are the likely secondary, infrequent, users of a building management system, in
any building?
1. Financial accountant.
2. Building surveyor.
3. Maintenance contractor.
4. Police.
5. Any staff.
6. Energy audit engineer.
7. Building facility manager.
8. Architect.
9. Mechanical design consulting engineer.
10.
Electrical design consulting engineer.
11.
Cleaning contract supervisor.
12.
Security staff.
21.
What opens and closes a water flow control valve or an air damper in a computer-based
building management system?
1. Electric or pneumatic motor.

2. Manually operated wheel valves.
3. Hydraulic actuator.
4. Geared drive.
5. Winding gear.
22.
Which component of a building management system controller takes input and output
direct current voltages from sensors and actuators, changing them into computer data?
1. Multiplexer.
2. The Ethernet.
3. Analogue to digital converter.
4. EPROM and RAM chips.
5. Arithmetic logic unit.
23.
Which of these statements about HTML is correct?
1. Another name for binary code.

2. Internationally accepted standard of control system protocol.
3. Proprietary name of open access control protocol.
4. A mathematical program language.
5. Language of TCP/IP.
24.
Which of these is not a common standard for data transmission?
1. Ethernet.
2. RS484.
3. RS232.
4. RS124.
5. C-bus.
25.
Which of these are controllers in a building management system?
1. An engineer sitting at a personal computer.

2. The personal computer.
3. Printed circuit boards hidden away in metal or plastic boxes in plant rooms.
4. Water and air temperature sensors.
5. Hand-held devices.
26.
What does the building management system control system programming do?
1. Changes room conditions continuously.
2. Switches boilers and chillers on and off several times a day.

3. Calculates how much to open a valve.
4. Switches plant on and off to a schedule.
5. Uses mathematics to model the building.
6. Makes lots of mistakes and selects the nearest correct response.
7. Corrects mistakes by programmers.
8. Draws graphs.
9. Automates the actions needed.
10.
27.
Intelligently works out what to do.
Which of these may be found in a computer-based building management security

system?
1. Armed guards.
2. Intruder protection bars at windows.
3. Digital or video camera recording.
4. Guard dogs.
5. Record of personnel movements.
6. Identity badging and door swipe cards.
7. Fibre-optic cable network communications.
8. Telephones.
9. Asset-tracking e-tags.
28.
Which is not one of the main parts of a control system?
1. Detector and controller.

2. Personal computer.
3. Heating or cooling process.

4. Actuator.
5. Internet protocol and local area network.
29.
Identify which of the following modes of automatic control are usually employed in
occupied buildings for their mechanical services.
1. Direct acting.
2. Integral action.
3. Derivative action.
4. Proportional plus integral action.
5. Fast response.
30.
How does a heating and cooling controller work?
1. Switching heating and cooling valves fully open and closed only.
2. Calculating a control output signal to correct the zone temperature.
3. Issuing digital pulses to move actuators.
4. Receiving signals from sensors and issuing output signals.
5. Searching the computer network for data.
31.
Which of these is a temperature sensor in a building management system?

2. Thermocouple.
3. Bead of ceramic metal oxide.
4. Thermistor.
5. Bi-metallic strip.
32.
What does an electronic controller contain?
1. Memory chips.
2. Video output device.
3. Communications BUS.
4. Valve and air damper actuators.
5. Calculation unit and data store.
33.
Where are the outstation and main control boxes of a building management system
normally found?
1. Terminal air conditioning units.

2. Plant rooms.
3. Computer rooms.
4. Services shafts.
5. The office of the building management personnel.
34.
Why is an automatic heating and cooling system control needed?
1. Sunshine produces a constant cooling load on the building.

2. Randomly varying outdoor weather conditions.
3. Each days outdoor air temperature is predictable.
4. Occupants of the building set their own temperature requirements.
5. Individual office air conditioning can be switched off when unoccupied.
35.
Where will a computer-based building management system be found in Australia?
1. 20-bed private hospital.

2. Motel.
3. Car manufacturing plant.

4. 50-person office building.
5. 100-room hotel.
36.
What is an air thermostat?
1. Air temperature sensor.

2. BMS controller.
3. A switch.
4. Air condition monitor.
4. Air temperature room indicator.
37.
How often does the building management system communicate data with sensors and
actuators?
1. When required by the engineer.
2. Several times per hour.
3. A few times daily.
4. Multiple times a minute.
5. When required to generate activity reports.
38.
What forms does building management system data take when passing through the
communications cabling?
1. Alternating current of over 1.0 amp.
2. Continuous digital data.
3. Internet protocol data packets.
4. Single phase current below 0.10 amp.
5. Three-phase direct current.
39.
What types of cable system are used for building management system communications
cables?
1. 240-volt alternating current.
2. Screened TV aerial cable.
3. RS 485 and RS232 copper 10-volt twisted pair.
4. Mineral-insulated copper conduit.
5. Any earthed cable.
40.
Why have building energy management systems (BEMS) become popular?
1. Good salesmanship by global corporations.

2. Increased demand from building users for monitoring, recording and automation of
actions that would have taken hours of skilled manual labour.
3. Shortage of skilled maintenance staff.
4. Fashion among building owners.
5. To reduce staff.
41.
What is the difference between building energy management systems (BEMS) and
building management systems (BMS)?

1. Often nothing.
2. BMS includes additional functions such as camera security monitoring and access
control systems.
3. BMS costs more than BEMS.
4. BEMS costs more than BMS.
5. Only BMS uses the internet.
42.
Which reports does the building owner want from the BMS?
1. Schedules of zone temperatures on a daily basis.

2. Lift usage data.
3. Detailed energy consumption correlated to weather and dates.
4. Only wants to see reports that state there are no faults with the building.
5. Building owner is too remote from daily use of such an investment and does not see any
reports.
43.
Which reports does the building user or manager want from the BMS?
1. Preferably none, cannot be bothered with such technical information.

2. Fault reports, zone temperatures, energy consumption, lift data, security camera views,
access logs for confidential areas, all on a daily basis.
3. All BMS output is dealt with by building maintenance team and not the manager.
4. General users of the building do not have access to the BMS.
5. Reports are always monitored by the BMS supply contractor and not the on-site staff.
44.
Which reports does the energy auditor want from the BMS?
1. Daily schedules of zone temperatures.

2. Lift and security camera usage data.
3. Zone temperatures, mechanical and electrical systems schematic drawings, detailed
energy consumption, weather data, gas and electrical hourly peak demands each month,
and trend graphs.
4. All fault reports.
5. Energy auditor is too remote from daily use of the building and does not see any reports.
45.
Which reports does the control system maintenance technician want from the BMS?
1. Schedules of zone temperatures on a continuous basis.

2. Lift usage data.
3. Detailed energy consumption correlated to weather and dates.
4. Only wants to see reports that state there are no faults with the building.
5. Those reports which reveal where repair work is immediately needed.
46.
What does a BMS look like?
1. Front end PC system, robust metal boxes in plant rooms with circuit boards and many
10-volt wires to sensors and final control elements such as valve motors.
2. Multiple PCs around a large site with user access at each.
3. Only a metal cabinet containing logic controllers and wires.
4. Laptop computer and wireless communications to all elements of the system.
5. Never seen, no idea.
47.
What does DDC stand for?
1. Dangerous direct current.

2. Dedicated digital control.
3. Distributed digital controllers.
4. Dedicated direct computers.
5. Direct digital control.
48.
Which of these types of automatic control systems is invalid?
1. Room air thermostat switching pumps, valves and dampers on and off.
2. Room air thermostat modulating an electrically operated damper and valve.
3. Digital communications with electrical or pneumatic signals and actuator power supply.
4. 415-volt control circuits, single- and three-phase controllers.
5. Manual control switches and valves.
6. Entirely pneumatic sensing devices and actuator power supply.
49.
What is an outstation?
1. Humanrailway interface.
2. A discharging device.
3. Remote computer for personal use in a BEMS.
4. Control actuator.
5. Metal box control panel in a plant room with printed circuit boards, programmable logic
chips, RAM, EPROMS and 10-volt wires to sensors and control elements in the field.
50.
How is a BMS observed by people?
1. Physically looking at control valves and dampers to see what they are doing.
2. Reading a PC screen.
3. Downloading data from an outstation to a laptop through an RS485 cable.
4. Through the internet.
5. It is not.
51.
What is the input and output signal to a valve or damper actuator in a DDC system?
1. 240 volts alternating current.

2. 110 volt alternating current.
3. 10 volts direct current.

4. Zero to one bar pneumatic air pressure.
5. Zero and one digital data bits.
52.
What is the difference between a BMS front end PC and a field control panel?
1. One has a screen and keyboard.

2. PC provides a window into the data system contained in the field controller panels.
3. Field panels are just wire junctions and have no software in them.
4. Field control panels have all the control and communication software while the PC only
displays system graphics, spreadsheet data and online charts of data as it is measured.
5. They equally share control and communication functions.
53.
How is BMS programming carried out?
1. All control software is written onto the hard disk drive of the front end server PC and
accessed through the network by each controller.
2. System graphics and control software packages for each type of control function are cut
and pasted from a library into files on a laptop computer, and later downloaded to each
relevant field control panel through an RS485 data cable from the laptop.
3. Geeks at PC workstations spend 60 hours a week writing software that is sent through
the internet to the field control panels anywhere in the world.
4. I have no idea.
5. Software is generated by intelligent programming fuzzy logic neural network server
computers in Minneapolis.
54.
What is the name of the generic data communication system used in BMS?
1. Open system.
2. BACNet.
3. LONtalk.
4. Ethernet.
5. GSM telephone.
55.
Which communication protocol (language) passes through BMS data systems?
1. Binary 32 data bit streams.

2. TCP/IP.
3. HTTP.
4. Wi-fi.
5. Token ring.
56.
What is TCP/IP?
1. Television control present, internet post.

2. Transmission control protocol, internet protocol.
3. Telephone control program, internet protocol.
4. Transmission control program, internet packages.
5. Telephone communication package, internal pathway.
57.
Which of these acronyms is not related to data communications within building

management computer-based systems?
1. BACNet.
2. LONtalk
3. MODbus.
4. GSMnet.
5. ARCNet.
58.
Which of these is not used to communicate with a BMS?
1. Pager.
2. Mobile digital phone.
3. Two-way radio.
4. Hand-held PDA.
5. Laptop computer.
59.
Which of these is not the reason why BMS is implemented widely?
1. Complexity of building services systems.

2. Extensive control system programming requirement.
3. Increasing demand for system monitoring and reporting.
4. Energy-saving technology and verification requirements.
5. High cost of computer equipment and PCBs.
60.
How is a computer-based building energy management system commissioned when
physical installation is complete?

1. Technician edits data on screen with a laptop or front end PC server computer.
2. Each room air temperature sensor is calibrated with a screwdriver and mercury in glass
thermometer.
3. Each valve and air damper actuator is calibrated with an air flow anemometer.
4. Each on/off function is visually confirmed in the field while a programming technician
at the front end PC server commands the actuator to move, and communicating with
two-way radio.
5. All zone and duct air temperatures, CO2 levels, pressures and air flow rates are
measured and compared with BMS displayed values to calibrate the software and
sensors.
61.
A heating and cooling controller works by:
1. Switching heating and cooling valves fully open and closed.

2. Calculating a control output signal to correct the zone temperature.
3. Issuing digital pulses to move actuators.
4. Receiving signals from sensors.
5. Searching the computer network for data.
62.
What is usually a temperature sensor in a building management system?:

2. Thermocouple.
3. Bead of ceramic metal oxide.
4. Variable voltage source.
5. Bi-metallic strip.
63.
What does a building energy management system do?
1. Put a fancy front to a simple control and security system.

2. Nothing more than people can do.
3. A lot more than people can do.
4. Allow one person to monitor, control and produce written reports on a building of any
size without leaving a desk.
5. Waste a lot of capital cost and create an ongoing maintenance cost commitment to one
supplier.
Combined heat and power

64.
List and discuss the merits of the methods used to generate electrical power. What
should the UK policy be for the next 100 years in relation to the HM Governments
Carbon Plan 2011? Should any country rely upon another country for its power supply in
the long term? Will one European country become the dominant supplier of power? If so,
what would be the advantages and disadvantages of such a policy?
65.
Discuss the application of CHP systems in relation to density of heat usage, local and
national government policy, possible plant sites, complexity of existing underground

services, ground conditions, costs of competing fuels, type and age of buildings, traffic
disruption during installation and better control of pollution. (The term density of heat
usage refers to the actual use of heat in megajoules per unit ground plan area m2, including
all floors of buildings and appropriate industrial processes requiring the sort of heat to be
sold.)
66.
What does co-generation mean?
1. On-site electrical generator.

2. Contractor-operated diesel generator providing on site uninterruptible power supply
(UPS).
3. Heat output from on-site generator water cooling system used to heat the building.
4. Combination of on-site standby generation with public electricity supply.

5. Combination of electric supplies, heating and cooling systems on a complex site.
67.
What does tri-generation mean?
1. No such thing.
2. Three systems of electricity generation on a site.
3. A site where heating, cooling and water heating are all provided by electricity.
4. Diesel or gas engine drives an alternator for site electricity generation, waste heat used
to produce hot-water heating as well as chilled water through absorption refrigeration.
5. Space heating, water heating and chilled water for air conditioning all provided by one
fuel source.
Combustion
68.
Which statement relating to combustion is correct?
1. CO2 means two molecules of carbon monoxide.

2. 2O2 means two molecules of oxygen.
3. 2H2O means two atoms of hydrogen plus two atoms of ozone.
4. CO is carbon oxide.
5. SO2 means sodium dioxide.
69.
What is the stoichiometric ratio?
1. Optimum efficiency.
2. Maximum oxygen in flue gas.
3. Maximum carbon dioxide in flue gas.
4. Poor combustion.
5. 100% excess air provided.
70.
Where are oxides of nitrogen created?
1. Nitrogen is inert, it cannot oxidize.

2. Hydrocarbon combustion.
3. Electrolysis of air from electric spark or lightning.
4. Chemical reaction within lungs.
5. Leakage of nitrogen from high pressure liquid storage.
Control system modes

71.
Identify which of the following modes of automatic control are usually employed in
occupied buildings for their mechanical services.
1. Direct acting.
2. Propensity action.
3. Derivative action.
4. Proportional plus integral action.
5. Fast response.
General knowledge 7
72.
Sketch and describe two different types of heating system for each of the following
applications: house, office, commercial garage, shop, warehouse and heavy engineering
factory.
73.
Why might the water in large heating systems be pressurized? Explain how
pressurization systems work.
74.
How do heating systems alter the mean radiant temperature of a room? Give examples.
75.
What factors are included in the decision on the siting of a heat emitter? Give examples
and illustrate your answer. What safety precautions are taken in buildings occupied by very
young, elderly, infirm or disabled people?
76.
How can radiant heating minimize fuel costs while providing comfortable conditions?
Give examples.
77.
Sketch the installation of a ducted warm-air heating system in a house and describe its
operation.
78.
List the characteristics of electrical heating systems and compare them with other fuel-
based systems.
79.
Outline the parameters considered when deciding whether to use a one- or two-pipe
distribution arrangement for a radiator and convector-low pressure hot-water heating

system.
80.
How do heating systems keep occupants warm?
1. With conduction heat transfer.

2. By radiating heat directly towards people.
3. By heating the buildings walls and floors.
4. By directly increasing the indoor air temperature.
5. By keeping out cold air in winter.

81.
Heating systems keep occupants warm:
1. With conduction heat transfer.

2. By radiating heat directly towards people.
3. By heating the buildings walls and floors.
4. By directly increasing the indoor air temperature.
5. By keeping out cold air in winter
82.
How are mild steel heating and water service system pipes joined?
1. Grooved or welded pipes with bolted flanges.

2. Compression fittings.
3. Screwed and socketed.
4. Push-fit collars on below 25 mm diameter.
5. Welded with no flanges.
83.
Recirculating water for heating and cooling systems:
1. Needs no corrosion inhibition as dissolved oxygen in water soon dissipates.

2. Must always have galvanized pipes and fittings.
3. Different metals in water systems create electrolytic corrosion.
4. Never has corrosion inhibiting chemicals added.
5. Heat always slows down corrosion.
84.
Gas that is vented from a closed hot-water circulation system may be:
1. Dissolved oxygen.
2. Air entrained into the systems by the pump.
3. Cavitation air bubbles produced in the pump impeller.

4. Methane from oxidation of black steel (could possibly be from 1, 2 and 3 also).
5. Steam.
85.
Which are correct about solar heating?
1. Every building is passively solar heated at some time of the year in every country.
2. Sunshine always produces summer overheating in non-air-conditioned buildings in the
UK.
3. Active solar systems only work with natural ventilation.
4. Solar heating systems usually work with thermal storage.
5. Water solar collectors only reach 40oC in a UK summer.
86.
Heat energy is provided on remote country campuses through:
1. Wind generators.
2. Photovoltaic solar cell collectors and battery storage.
3. Liquefied petroleum gas storage tanks and underground pipe distribution.
4. Liquid petroleum product storage tanks.
5. Ground source electrically driven heat pumps.
87.
Steam is used in which application?
1. Sterilization in hospitals.
2. Space heating in large office buildings.
3. Heating coils in air conditioning air handling unit coils.
4. Refrigeration systems.
5. Large campus sites.
88.
What is a condensing boiler?
1. Steam boiler.
2. Vapour compression refrigeration.
3. Gas-fired water heater producing a flue gas exhaust temperature below 100oC.
4. Gas-fired water heater producing a flue gas exhaust temperature above 100oC.
5. Gas-fired water heater producing a flue gas exhaust temperature below water vapour
dew-point.
89.
Why is a condensing boiler different?
1. Very low thermal efficiency.

2. Flue gas leaves after water vapour condenses.
3. Gas-side heat transfer surfaces run wet.
4. Can only be made of cast iron.
5. Only used in large power stations.
90.
A condensing boiler has a higher thermal efficiency because:
1. Made of corrosion-resistant materials.

2. Extracts latent heat from flue gas.
3. Can reduce heating system return water temperature lower than in a conventional boiler.
4. Uses fuel having a higher gross calorific value.
5. Reduced water flow rate.
91.
How much of an increase in thermal efficiency can be obtained from using a condensing
boiler?
1. 5%.
2. 10%.
3. 15%.
4. 25%.
5. 100%.
92.
A gas-fired condensing water heater needs one of the following:
1. Low heating system return water temperature.

2. High heating system return water temperature.
3. Reduced heating system water flow rate.
4. High heating system water flow rate.
5. Cold-water mains connection.
93.
Why does a condensing boiler have an induced draught fan?
1. Increased combustion air flow rate required.

2. Additional heat exchanger flue passages create more gas flow resistance.
3. Low temperature flue gas at exit has insufficient buoyancy to create a natural draught
exhaust flow.
4. Blows cool flue gas away from the building.
5. Combustion air inlet duct can be longer.
94.
How do condensing boilers withstand acidic corrosion from wet flue gas?
1. All heat transfer surfaces are stainless steel or cast aluminium.

2. Steel heat transfer surface is heat-treated and coated.
3. Heat exchanger replaced at five yearly intervals.
4. Carbon fibre laminated stainless steel heat transfer surfaces used in primary and
secondary heat exchangers.
5. Condensation confined within a stainless steel secondary heat exchanger.
95.
Which of these is not a correct location for a metal hot-water or chilled water radiant
panel?
1. Ceiling perimeter above a window.
2. In the floor.
3. External wall beneath a window.
4. Internal wall facing a window.
5. Ceiling directly above office workstations.
Hot-water heating systems

96.
Three rooms have heat losses of 2 kW, 4 kW and 5 kW respectively. Double-panel steel
radiators are to be used on a two-pipe low-pressure hot-water system having flow and
return temperatures of 85C and 72C respectively. Room air temperatures are to be 20C.
Choose suitable radiators and calculate the water flow rate for each.
97.
Sketch and describe a micro-bore heating installation serving hot-water radiators. State
its advantages over alternative pipework systems.
98.
A medium-pressure hot-water heating system is designed to provide a heat output of
100 kW with flow and return temperatures of 110C and 85C respectively. Calculate the
pump water flow rate required in litres per second.
0.95 litre/s.
99.
Find the dimensions of a double-panel steel radiator suitable for a room having an air
temperature of 15C when the water flow and return temperatures are 86C and 72C
respectively and the room heat loss is 4.25 kW.
2.4 m long 700 mm high.
100. The two-pipe heating system shown in Figure 7.14 is to be installed in an office block
where radiators 1, 2 and 3 represent areas with heat losses of 12 kW, 20 kW and 24 kW
respectively. Water flow and return temperatures are to be 90oC and 75oC respectively. The
pipe lengths shown are to be multiplied by 1.5. Pump A (Figure 7.13) is to be used. Pipe
heat losses amount to 10% of room heat losses. The friction loss in the pipes is equivalent
to 25% of the measured length. Find the pipe sizes.
X 42 mm, Y 35 mm, Z 28 mm, radiator 1 22 mm, radiator 2 28 mm.
101. A hot-water radiator central heating system is commissioned and tested while the
average outdoor air is 3C and there is intermittent sunshine and a moderate wind. The
building is sparsely occupied. Water flow and return temperatures at the boiler are 90C
and 80C respectively and the room average temperature is 27C. The heating system was
designed to maintain the internal air at 22oC at an external air temperature of -1C with
flow and return temperatures of 85C and 73C respectively. State whether the heating
system met its design specification and what factors influenced the test results.
Expected internal temperature 26.5oC, system performance is satisfactory.
Nuclear power
102. Which is correct about nuclear-sourced conventional power generation?
1. Nuclear power stations never create any greenhouse gases.

2. They will become the sole means of generating electricity.
3. They are too dangerous to build.
4. Spent nuclear fuel rods are safe to handle.
5. Spent nuclear fuel rods remain radioactive for thousands of years.
103. Which is correct about nuclear-sourced conventional power generation?

1. Uranium is combusted to produce steam.
2. Uranium fusion releases heat.
3. Fission of uranium releases heat.
4. Uranium corrodes into lead in releasing heat.
5. Radiation from uranium releases heat.
8 Water services
Above-ground drainage
1. What is the principal design requirement for waste pipes from water appliances?
1. Pipes not leaking.
2. Must empty basin, sink or shower tray within 30 seconds.
3. Avoidance of long horizontal pipes.
4. Never reduce pipe diameter below waste outlet size.
5. Maintain water seal at trap of each appliance.
2. What type of water flow occurs in the waste pipe from a basin?
1. Turbulent.
2. Laminar.
3. Steady continuous stream along lower half of sloping pipes.
4. Water swirls clockwise down vertical and along sloping pipes, adhering to the walls of
the pipe due to the Coanda effect.
5. Full bore surge followed by dribbling.
3. Which type of trap is on a waste pipe from a sanitary appliance?

1. U bend.
2. Running trap.
3. Inverted bucket trap.
4. Air-sealed thermodynamic trap.
5. P and S traps.
4. What do we know about the static air pressure inside a waste pipe?
1. Nothing, we do not measure it.

2. Always above atmospheric due to velocity and weight of falling water.
3. Sub-atmospheric pocket of air follows full-bore water flow.
4. Never varies, as always connected to the atmosphere at both ends of pipes.
5. Atmospheric air always bubbles through any air pockets to maintain atmospheric
pressure throughout the system.
5. Which of these is a problem that can occur in waste pipe systems?

1. There are no problems in a correctly designed system.
2. Pipes installed at too steep an angle create noise and suction problems.
3. Long horizontal waste pipes connecting to vertical stacks do not drainwater away fast
enough and cause flooding in baths and shower trays.
4. Self-syphonage from the trap due to inertia of water flow.
5. Self-syphonage due to leaks.
6. Which self-syphonage problem can occur in waste pipe systems?

1. Debris in a P trap.
2. Waste pipe connecting into a stack too steeply.
3. Leaking pipe joints.
4. Waste pipe too short.
5. Shallow gradient waste pipe from P or S trap that is too long.
7. Which is a cause of induced syphonage in a waste pipe?

1. Waste water falling in a vertical stack from higher floor levels.
2. Sloping waste pipe too long.
3. Sloping waste pipe too short.

4. Waste pipe diameter too large.
5. Waste pipe diameter too small.
8. What is a cause of induced syphonage in a waste pipe?

1. Positive back-pressure from downstream pipes.
2. Low atmospheric air pressure.
3. Waste pipes running full.
4. High atmospheric air pressure.
5. Insufficient ventilation of vertical stack.
9. Which of these is not a reason why waste pipes can become unsealed?
1. Self-syphonage.
2. Water leakage
3. Induced syphonage.
4. Capillary action from hair and cotton.
5. Back pressure from other sanitary appliances.
10.
Which is the primary means of maintaining a healthy internal environment in relation to
plumbing systems?
1. Regular cleaning and maintenance of all sanitary appliances.
2. Correct fresh air ventilation of toilet and wash rooms.
3. Repairing water leaks immediately.
4. Correctly located and sized plumbing.
5. Water seals.
11.
List the ways in which an above-ground drainage installation satisfies its functional
requirements.
12.
Describe, with the aid of sketches, the ways in which the water seal can be lost from a
trap and the precautions taken to avoid this happening.
13.
Describe the types of fluid flow encountered in drainage pipes.
14.
What does this formula refer to?
L
2
=35
G
1. Sloping gutter design.
2. Wall thickness and water vapour porosity for condensation prediction.
3. Finds the lower calorific value, L, of gaseous fuels from specific gravity, G.
4. Calculates permitted length for a sloping waste water pipe.
5. Audio loudness, L, constant relationship with room surface absorption area, G.
15.
Which of these waste and drain pipe sizes is not correct?
1. Basin 32 mm.
2. Soil and vent stack 100 mm.
3. Sink 40 mm.
4. Shower tray 40 mm.
5. Basin 50 mm.
16.
How are waste pipe system syphonage risks reduced?
1. Adequate ventilation to open air.

2. Installing larger diameter waste pipes than normally recommended.
3. Connecting every waste trap individually to the vertical stack.
4. Maintaining air tightness of the drainage system.
5. Regular internal cleaning of all waste and drain systems.
17.
What are discharge units?
1. Rate of flow from hose reels and sprinkler heads.

2. Design units finding flow rate required for hot and cold-water pipework to taps and
outlets.
3. A fire extinguisher.
4. Water discharge nozzle capacity.
5. Dimensionless number relating to flow volume, flow time and interval between flows
from sanitary fittings.
18.
Which is not correct discharge unit pipe sizing data?
1. Discharge units allow for intermittent flows.

2. A single WC is given a 240 discharge unit value.
3. A 100 mm diameter vertical stack carries 750 discharge units.
4. A group of one WC, bath, shower, sink and two basins is given a discharge unit value of
14.
5. A single WC is given a 14 discharge unit value.
19.
How are upper floor waste pipes connected into the sewer system?
1. Unvented direct connection.

2. Untrapped direct pipe connection to the vertical stack that runs directly to the foul
sewer.
3. Trapped pipes at a steep gradient connect to a vertical stack running directly to the foul
sewer.
4. Trapped pipes connect vertically to a sloping stack running directly to the foul sewer.
5. Trapped pipes at a shallow gradient connect to a vertical stack running directly to the
foul sewer.
20.
How are ground floor waste pipes connected into the sewer system?
1. Unvented direct connection.

2. Trapped pipe connects directly to a trapped outdoor gulley on sewer system.
3. Untrapped direct pipe connection to the foul sewer.
4. Trapped pipes at a steep gradient connect to the foul sewer.
5. Trapped pipes connect vertically to the foul sewer.
6. Trapped pipes at a shallow gradient connect to the foul sewer.
21.
How are above-ground drain systems tested?
1. Fill all sanitary appliances in the building with water and almost simultaneously release
all flows. Inspect for leaks and for remaining water seal depth in all traps.
2. No specific test, just inspect and operate.
3. Coloured hot water emptied into every appliance to test for leaks.
4. Seal drain with expandable plug prior to entry into sewer. Fill water traps; pump air
pressure into waste system with rubber tube though a P trap up to 38 mm water gauge.
Maintain this pressure without further pumping for 3 minutes. Test for joint leaks with
soap solution.
5. Seal section of waste pipe system with expandable plug at stack. Fill water traps; pump
air pressure into waste system with rubber tube though a P trap up to 100 mm water
gauge. Maintain this pressure without further pumping for 5 minutes. Test for joint leaks
with soap solution.
22.
How are above-ground drain systems tested to ensure adequate water seals remain in
traps during normal use?

1. Each sanitary fitting filled, drained and remaining trap seal depth measured.
2. All sanitary fittings in a group filled, then drained simultaneously.
3. Each section of waste pipe system sealed and pumped to an air pressure of 150 mm
water gauge for 10 minutes, then air and water released.
4. Water pumped up stack to test effectiveness of water seals in traps.
5. Air pressure in stack and waste pipes hand-pumped to 38 mm water gauge. This
pressure maintained for 3 minutes without further pumping.
23.
Which is not a very effective way to clean the inside of waste and drain pipes should it
become necessary?
1. Straight pipes are rod-cleaned and flushed.
2. High pressure water cutting jet from hose inserted along pipe.
3. Low pressure water from hose inserted along pipe.
4. Rotating cleaning brushes driven inside pipes by a flexible shaft from a rotary drill.
5. Compressed air rotary nozzles pushed inside waste pipe with flexible hose.
Below-ground drainage
24.
State the meaning of the following terms: bedding; combined system; drain; sewer;
manhole; separate system; stack; discharge pipe; vent, and explain how they interact.
25.
Sketch the pipe layout for a typical group of sanitary appliances in a dwelling, where
they are all connected into a stack. Show suitable pipe sizes, slopes and details of the
connections at the stack.
26.
List the principal requirements for an underground drainage installation.
27.
Sketch and describe the operation of a sewage pumping installation. Draw the details of
the construction of the below-ground chambers.
28.
How are below-ground drains tested?
1. Filling with water and pumping the pressure up to 30 m water gauge for an hour.
2. Sealing ends of completed system, hand-pumping air pressure up to 150 mm water
gauge for an hour without further pumping.
3. Prior to backfilling trench, subject completed drain system to a static water height of 2.4
m for an hour.
4. Internal camera survey.
5. Watching for leaks prior to backfilling trench.
29.
What does access provision for below-ground drainage require?
1. One rodding point in every system.

2. Manhole access at every change in pipe direction.
3. Currently used flexible drive drain cleaning equipment means all drains can be accessed
through any WC without additional access caps.
4. Each length of straight drain, junction and change of direction, must be rodable.
5. Every pipe must have access points at each end.
30.
20 m run of below-ground drain falls 175 mm. Which is the correct gradient?
1. 1.75.
2. 8.75.
3. 0.114.
4. 1:175.
5. 1:114.
31.
A 100 mm diameter below-ground drain is to have a gradient of 1:100 for a distance of
38 m. What fall is allowable?

1. 380 mm.
2. 100 mm.
3. 38 mm.
4. 138 mm.
5. 4 mm.
32.
Which is the maximum length of a 100 mm diameter below-ground drain at a gradient
of 1:90 when it can start at 600 mm below-ground level and connect into a sewer at a depth of
750 mm?
1. 90 m.
2. 150 m.
3. 13.5 m.
4. 54 m.
5. 8.3 m.
33.
The flow capacity of two-thirds full below-ground drain at a shallow gradient is
approximated from the formula,

2
2 d
m
Q=
V
3
4
s
What is the flow capacity of a 100-mm diameter drain when the water velocity is 0.9 m/s?
1. 7.07 l/s.
2. 9.4 l/s.
3. 2.35 l/s.
4. 1.5 l/s.
5. 4.712 l/s.
34.
What does a sewage lifting pump do in a building?
1. Raises surface water collected from roofs up to the street-level sewer.

2. Pumps sewage uphill along a public sewer.
3. Centrifugal pump empties an adjacent sump under the control of a high and low level
water sensor.
4. Positive displacement pump sucks sewage up to street level.
5. All buildings with a below-ground car park or basement rooms require a sewage pump.
35.
What does a pneumatic ejector do?
1. Drive for a hydraulic lift.

2. Provides compressed air to construction site tools.
3. It is outdated technology.
4. Sucks sewage up from a basement sump.
5. Compressed air drives a floating piston downwards to eject sewage up to a higher level
public sewer.
Drainage design assignment

36.
Design a below-ground drainage system for the Pascal Sports Club shown in Figure
8.34. The foul sewer is at an invert of 2 m and 25 m to the right of the east wall of the club.
Only one connection is allowed to be made to the 300 mm diameter sewer, and this is to its
upper half. It will be necessary to design the above-ground waste pipes from all sanitary
appliances in order to optimize the gulley positions, the 100 mm diameter pipe routes and
the location of the one ventilation stack at the high point of the whole system. Minimize
the use of under-floor pipes, all of which must be 100 mm in diameter and fully accessible.
Modifications can be made to the building to construct above-ground service ducts to
accommodate hot-water and cold-water pipes as well as wastes and drains. A 100-mm
diameter rainwater downpipe is located 500 mm from each external corner of the building
on the north and south sides. These connect to 100 mm diameter below-ground drains,
which run to the surface-water sewer alongside the foul sewer. Ensure that both drain
systems are fully integrated and separated by a bedding of at least 100-mm thick shingle or
broken stones of maximum size 510 mm. Access to the surface-water pipes is of the same
standard as that to the foul pipes. The last access prior to the sewer for both drains should
be a manhole. There is no manhole at the junction of the drain and sewer. The shower
rooms will have trapped floor gulleys that connect to the foul drain. No model solution is
provided as the design should be discussed with tutor and colleagues, and reference should
be made to manufacturers guides.
Drain testing
37.
Sketch and describe the methods of testing drainage installations.
General Knowledge 8
38.
What is the operating principle of conventional drainage installations in all types of
building?
1. Thermosyphonic action.
2. Syphonic action.
3. Anti-syphonage.
4. Gravitational fluid and solid flow.
5. Pumped flow.
39.
Which is the principle ensuring all drainage flows work correctly and sewer gases do
not enter any building?

1. Self-syphonage.
2. Induced syphonage.
3. Natural ventilation.
4. Pumped fluid flow.
5. Vacuum sealing.
40.
What is the meaning of low pressure water supply main?
1. Building has a pressure reduction valve on the incoming public water main.
2. Street water main is at very low pressure.
3. There is no such thing as all public water supply systems function at well above
atmospheric pressure.
4. All water services in buildings below four-storey height.
5. Mains water pressure supplies storage tanks that service the buildings systems.
41.
Which technical features ensure a consumer building does not contaminate the public
water supply pipe system?
1. Non-return valve on the supply pipe to each building.

2. Manual isolating valve at each building entry pipe.
3. Maintaining the buildings piped water systems at a lower pressure with a pressurereducing valve at entry from the public main.
4. Dosing all pipe systems in a building with biocide.
5. An air gap.
42.
A 1000-litre domestic hot-water storage calorifier has a heating water rate of input of 50
kW. How long will it take to raise the water content from 10oC to 65oC if heat loss from the
cylinder is negligible?
1.28 h.
43.
Identify the correct water flow rates for domestic water outlets.
1. Basin cold-water tap flow is around 0.15 litre/s.

2. Shower warm water flow rate is 2.0 litre/s.
3. WC cistern holds 35 litres.
4. Low flow shower heads pass around 0.1 litre/s.
5. An uncontrolled urinal stall consumes 3.0 litre/s.
44.
The demand unit for domestic hot- and cold-water service outlets is based upon:
1. Maximum sink water flow of 2.5 litre/s at one-hour intervals.

2. Total water flow required by a group of basin, sink, shower, bath and WC during
average usage pattern.
3. Demand unit is just a fictitious number.
4. Demand unit is 1.0 for a domestic basin cold-water tap water flow rate of 0.15 litre/s for
the duration of 30 seconds and an interval between uses of 5 minutes.
5. 100% usage in a typical house group of appliances.
45.
What is a vacuum drainage system?
1. No such thing.
2. Only used on ships and is energy-efficient.
3. Waste pipes slope at 45o downwards to create induced syphonage at each sanitary
appliance.
4. Continuously running water pump creates partial vacuum in whole of drainpipe system;
each sanitary appliance waste pipe has a vacuum system interface valve.
5. Air compressor evacuates drainpipe system; waste falls into a collecting tank that is
emptied by a sump pump to the sewer.
Health risks
46.
What is the health risk, if any, from stored domestic hot water?
1. No health risk when public mains water is heated and stored as it always remains dosed
with drinkable chemicals.
2. Heating water does not raise its health risk.
3. Only mains water that has come into contact with the atmosphere could become
contaminated.
4. Mains water bacteria always remain dormant.
5. Legionella bacteria present in water grow rapidly between 20oC and 40oC.
47.
How do we protect ourselves from domestic hot-water systems?
1. Heat and store hot water at 42oC.

2. Only use hot water at less than 45oC.
3. Water stored at 65oC so all bacteria killed.
4. Heat stored water to 65oC to kill bacteria then wait for it to cool to 40oC prior to use.
5. Heat stored water to 100oC to sterilize bacteria, wait for it to cool to 40oC prior to use.
Hot-water services
48.
Why is domestic hot water stored at high temperature?
1. Maximizes the thermal efficiency of the water heater.

2. Minimizes pipe sizes for flow rates.
3. Minimizes storage quantity.
4. It should not be as it can scald users.
5. Kills Legionella bacteria in water.
49.
What is correct about domestic hot-water supply (DHW)?
1. Stored at 50oC in insulated cylinders.

2. Stored at 65oC in insulated cylinders to ensure Legionella bacteria are destroyed.
3. Indirect calorifier storage heat exchangers heated from low temperature hot-water
heating system at 65oC.
4. Storage cylinders heated by solar panels on roof.

5. Only heated while hot water is drawn off at a tap.
50.
Which are correct about domestic hot water (DHW)?
1. Is chemically dosed to minimize corrosion.

2. Must be safe to wash skin.
3. Circulated to taps at 50oC maximum to avoid scalding.
4. Is pumped through pipes to taps continuously.
5. Only flows out of storage cylinder when taps open.
51.
Which is not correct about the heating hot-water (HHW) source?
1. Often called a boiler.

2. A boiler is a gas-fired or electrically heated device which generates steam.
3. HHW circulating at 75oC is steam at atmospheric pressure when it leaks out of the
pipes.
4. Usually a gas-fired water heater at 75oC.
5. Sealed water system having a thermal expansion tank.
52.
What are domestic hot- and cold-water services?
1. Piped heating systems for houses.

2. Central cooling systems serving residences.
3. Washing water systems.
4. Never found in commercial, health care or hotel buildings.
5. Centralized pipe distributions for aged care residential buildings.
53.
How can heat energy be saved in domestic hot-water systems?
1. Only circulate water from storage cylinders at 45oC to taps.

2. Only heat storage hot-water cylinders during times of demand.
3. Store washing water at lowest temperature, around 45oC.
4. Turn off water heating source at night
5. Insulate all hot surfaces.
54.
How can water usage be minimized in domestic hot- and cold-water systems?
1. Throttle pipe circuit balancing valves to minimize maximum water flow rates.
2. Provide all water outlets from high level storage tanks.
3. Use spray taps on washbasins, low flow shower heads, dual flush toilets and urinal
occupancy sensors.
4. Reduce washing and toilet facilities to below recommended numbers.
5. Cannot be reduced as people have to use a certain amount for each facility.
55.
Why are solar water heating panels used?
1. Reduce primary energy consumption in a radiator central heating system.

2. Generate 12-volt electricity for battery charging.
3. Replace electricity or gas used to heat domestic hot water.
4. Preheat domestic hot-water storage and reduce use of primary energy.
5. Warm swimming pools.
56.
What limits the thermal efficiency of the solar water heating panel, tube or
concentrator?
1. Weak solar irradiance.
2. Surface area of collector.
3. Lack of thermal insulation on the back of a flat panel.

4. Excessive water flow rate.
5. Heat loss from heated water back to the environment.
57.
What is the appropriate temperature for shower, tap and bath water to avoid scalding?
1. 36oC.
2. 65oC.
3. 50oC.
4. 45oC.
5. 41oC.
58.
Which is not correct about instantaneous gas-fired domestic hot-water units?
1. Lightweight system.
2. Continuous water flow at constant temperature.
3. Water is only heated on demand.
4. No standing heat losses.
5. Slow and inadequate delivery.
Pipe materials
59.
How are pipe materials selected for domestic hot- or cold-water systems?
1. Whichever are cheapest.

2. Local availability of materials.
3. Depends upon pipe diameters required.
4. Does not matter as water does not attack pipe materials.
5. Choose pipe and joint materials compatible with application and corrosivity of local
water.
60.
How are copper heating and water service system pipes joined?
1. Screwed and socket joints.

2. Ferrous welding.
3. Silver soldered slip joints or bronze welding.
4. Grooved pipes with flanges.
5. Bolted rubber seals.
61.
Draw cross-sections through four different types of pipe joint used for water services,
showing the method of producing a water seal in each case.
62.
List the factors involved in the provision of a pipework system for the conveyance of
drinking water within a curtilage. Comment on the suitability, or otherwise, of jointing

materials, lead pipes and storage tanks in this context.
63.
Describe the corrosion processes that take place within water systems and the measures
taken to protect equipment.
64.
What are advantages of using plastic pipes?
1. Thermal insulation is not required.

2. Lightweight and fast assembly.
3. Easier than steel for threaded joints.
4. Separate from the buildings earth continuity conductor.
5. Allows potable water.
65.
What are advantages of using plastic pipes?
1. Limescale does not accumulate inside the pipes.

2. Pipe is an electrical insulator.
3. Supplied from reels.
4. Colour-fast.
5. Does not radiate heat.
66.
What may be a disadvantage of using plastic pipes?
1. Does not conduct electricity.

2. Easily damaged.
3. Thermal expansion is greater than metal pipes.
4. Fewer support clips and brackets needed than for metal pipes.
5. Unpronounceable chemical names of the materials.
67.
What may be a disadvantage of using plastic pipes?
1. Migration of chemicals from the plastic contaminate water.

2. Greater thermal mass of material.
3. Plastic becomes degraded by ultraviolet radiation.
4. Joint adhesives not suitable for drinking water.
5. More support clips and brackets needed than for metal pipes.
68.
What is an advantage of using plastic pipes?
1. Cannot be painted.
2. No external corrosion.
3. Toxic materials.
4. Needs special support brackets.
5. Non-conducting.
Rainwater systems
69.
A housing estate has footpaths and roads covering an area of 4000 m2. Calculate the
rainwater flow load and the number of drain gullies required.

50 l/s; at least three drain gullies.
70.
The flat roof of a school is to be of dimensions 30 m x 20 m with a rectangular gutter on
each long side and sloping at 1 in 600. Design a suitable gutter and down pipe system.
This is a design engineering challenge and requires all relevant information from Chapter
8. There are two unknowns in the design task, the width and depth of the gutter, as is the case
in practical work. The designer has to try standard gutter sizes to find which works. Start with
the lucky guess of 120 mm width. If not satisfactory, try 100, 150 or 200 mm widths.
Plan view of roof and gutter design:
Rainwater down pipes
20 m
Sector of roof flows to this gutter
30 m
Design gutter size to carry 25% of the total roof flow. Roof slopes from centre ridge to long
edges. Gutter slopes from its centre to end with rainwater down pipe.
Side view of gutter showing water level sloping to end outlets:

Half-gutter depth
Gutter depth
Water level
Water accelerates down

slope to outlet; around
half-gutter full height
at discharge end.
Gutter slopes at 1:600

from centre
Rainwater down pipe
Water flow in a gutter sloping at 1:600 increases flow rate by 40%.

Frictional resistance of flowing water reduces flow capacity of gutter by 10%.
Water flows on to 25% of roof area for gutter size calculation.
Q=25 0.021 30 20 l/s
Q=3.15 l/ s
For level gutters other than half-round, flow capacity is:
A 3o l
9.67
Q= 5
W s
10
Ao is the area of flow at outlet mm2.
Calculate gutter depth, D mm, for a width W of 120 mm.
A3o l
9.67
Q=1.4 0.9 5
W s
10
A 3o l
9.67
3.15=1.4 0.9 5
120 s
10
A 3o
105
1
3.15
=
9.67 1.4 0.9
120
10 5
1
A o = 120 3.15
mm2
9.67 1.4 0.9
3
A o =4312 mm2
W D=4312 mm2
D=
4312
120
mm
D=36 mm at therainwater pipeoutlet

Full gutter depth is twice that at the outlet, 72 mm by calculation.
Select nearest larger standard gutter size to allow for debris accumulation and avoidance of
heavier storms causing water to overflow and cause long-term damage to structure of the
building.
71.
The flat roof of a school is to be of dimensions 40 m x 20 m with a rectangular gutter on
each long side and sloping at 1 in 600. Design a suitable gutter and down pipe system.
72.
Storage soakaway pits 2 m deep are to be used to dispose of rainwater from a roof of
dimensions 10 m x 8 m. Determine a suitable size and number of pits.

Storage volume 2.4 m3, one pit with diameter 1.25 m.
73.
Describe the features and maintenance requirements of surface-water drainage systems
for car parking, garage forecourts and large paved areas in shopping centres.
74.
What is the rainfall intensity for roof drainage design in the UK?
1. 150 litre/s.
2. 2500 litre per hour for 100 m2 roof area.
3. 75 mm/h.
4. 50 mm/h.
5. 125 mm/h.
75.
Why do drains not catch all rainfall?
1. Not all surfaces have drains.

2. Evaporation from rainwater on ground.
3. Rain falls onto gardens, grass, woodland and fields.
4. Rain falls onto rivers, lakes and reservoirs.
5. Natural runoff to rivers.
Sanitary appliances
76.
List the types of sanitary appliance available and describe their operating principles,
using appropriate illustrations. Comment on their maintenance requirements, water

consumption, long-term reliability and materials used for manufacture.
77.
On what basis are sanitary fittings allocated in a building?
1. Total number of rooms.

2. Number of meals served.
3. Number of staff and transient public using the building each day.
4. How many can be fitted into the allocated space in the architectural design.
5. Toilet and washing facilities on each floor level.
Solar water heating

78.
Sketch and describe the ways in which solar energy can be used within buildings for the
benefit of the thermal environment and to reduce primary energy use for hot-water
production. Comment on the economic balance between capital cost and expected benefits
in assessing the viability of such equipment.
Syphonage
79.
What is a cause of induced syphonage in a waste pipe?
1. Positive back-pressure from downstream pipes.

2. Low atmospheric air pressure.
3. Waste pipes running full.
4. High atmospheric air pressure.
5. Insufficient ventilation of vertical stack.
80.
How are waste pipe system syphonage risks reduced?
1. Adequate ventilation to open air.

2. Installing larger diameter waste pipes than normally recommended.
3. Connecting every waste trap individually to the vertical stack.
4. Maintaining air tightness of the drainage system.
5. Regular internal cleaning of all waste and drain systems.
Water quality
81.
Explain the terms temporary and permanent hardness, and list their characteristics.
82.
State the use of service reservoirs and describe public mains water distribution methods.
83.
Which water description is correct about soft water?
1. Occurs in granite rocky soil parts of the country.

2. High pH value.
3. Low suspended salt concentration.
4. Total dissolved salt concentration of over 200 ppm.
5. High soap-destroying capability.
84.
Which water description is correct about hard water?
1. Occurs in chalk soil parts of the country.

2. Very low pH value.
3. High suspended salt concentration and suspended vegetable matter.
4. Total dissolved salt concentration below 50 ppm.
5. Laundries consume minimal soap.
85.
Which causes temporary hardness in water?
1. Suspended solids.
2. Acidic ground water sources.
3. Precipitation of salts during storage in the building.
4. Sulphates and chloride salts in the water.
5. Dissolved carbonate salts.
86.
Which is correct about permanent water hardness salts?
1. Cannot be removed from water.

2. Only removed by steam generation and condensation.
3. Salts deposited on heat transfer surfaces during water boiling.
4. Only removable by dosing ground water with acid.
5. Due to presence of non-carbonate dissolved salts.
87.
Which is not correct about water pH value?
1. A measure of free hydrogen ions in water.

2. pH below 7 is always found in hard water.
3. Steam boiler water is treated to a pH of 11.
4. Acidic water from granite ground has a low pH.
5. Low pH is preferable for closed black steel pipe heating systems.
88.
2. High pH value.
3. High suspended salt concentration.
5. Lathers easily.
89.

2. High pH value.
3. Low suspended salt concentration.
5. High soap-destroying capability.
90.
1. Occurs in chalk soil parts of the UK.

2. Very low pH value.
3. High suspended salt concentration and suspended vegetable matter.
4. Total dissolved salt concentration below 50 ppm.
5. Laundries consume minimal soap.
91.
1. Occurs throughout the UK in any soil type.

2. pH value around 11.0.
3. Ions in water always colour it metallic.
4. Total dissolved salt concentration always around 20 ppm.
5. Lathers easily.
92.
Which of these is correct about public water supply quality?
1. Salt concentration and types found in naturally occurring ground water are common
throughout the UK.
2. Hard, soft, acidic and alkaline are descriptions applied to rainfall.
3. Hard, soft, acidic and alkaline are descriptions applied to naturally occurring ground
water.
4. Soap-destroying property of water depends on its acidity.
5. There is no correlation between dissolved salts and the soap-destroying capacity of
water.
93.
Which of these is correct about water lathering?
1. Soap-destroying capacity of water only comes from suspended salts and debris.
2. Soap-destroying property of water is caused by high alkalinity from calcium and
magnesium dissolved salts.
3. Commercial laundries prefer hard water.
4. All water destroys soap equally.
5. Soap-destroying property of water is caused by acidic dissolved salts.
94.
Which causes temporary hardness in water?
1. Suspended solids.
2. Acidic ground water sources.
3. Precipitation of salts during storage in the building.
4. Sulphates and chloride salts in the water.
5. Dissolved carbonate salts.
95.
Which is not correct about temporary water hardness?
1. Caused by calcium and magnesium bicarbonates.

2. Occurs in central southern England from chalk soil.
3. Rainwater absorbs calcium carbonate, chalk, while percolating through ground.
4. Naturally occurring pH around 7.2.
5. Salts always precipitate during storage in reservoirs and tanks.
96.
Which is correct about temporary water hardness salts?
1. Carbonate and bicarbonate salts deposit onto heat transfer surfaces during water boiling.
2. Cannot be removed by any treatment.
3. Removed by passing ground water through a carbon filter.
4. Sediments readily.
5. Remains in solution during water boiling and steam raising.
97.
1. Cannot be removed from water.

2. Only removed by steam generation and condensation.
3. Salts deposited on heat transfer surfaces during water boiling.
4. Only removable by dosing ground water with acid.
5. Due to presence of non-carbonate dissolved salts.
98.
Which is not true about permanent water hardness salts?
1. Sediments out of solution during storage.

2. Due to presence of calcium and magnesium sulphates and chlorides in ground water.
3. Cannot be removed, only neutralized.

4. Steam boiler water collects increasing salt concentration from these salts.
5. Naturally occurring due to ground conditions.
99.
1. Cause damage to steel pipe and fittings.

2. Erode pipe fittings when salt concentration is high, particularly bends and valves.
3. Hardness salt concentration up to 600 mg/l in central England.
4. Cause water to be plumbo-solvent.
5. Cause sediment in pipe systems and boilers.
100. Which is not correct about permanent water hardness salts?

1. Removable with chemical reactions.
2. Remain in suspension until water impinges on metal surfaces at high velocity.
3. Cause water to be alkaline.
4. Form hard water with a pH value in the range of 711.
5. Remain in the steam boiler water.
101. Which is not correct about water hardness?

1. Salt carry-over from steam boiler water does no harm to the pipe distribution system.
2. Chemical reaction converts hardness salts into less harmful salts.
3. Salts deposited onto heat transfer surfaces add thermal insulation.
4. Carbonates and chlorides of calcium are hardness salts.
5. Not removed by adding acid to the water.
102. Which is not correct about the water pH value?

1. A measure of free hydrogen ions in water.
2. pH of 7 means water is neither acidic nor alkaline.
3. pH below 7 is always found in hard water.
4. Steam boiler water is treated to a pH of 11.
5. Acidic water from granite ground has a low pH.
Water resources
103. Sketch and describe the Earths natural water cycle.
104. List and describe the sources of water and the methods used for its storage and
treatment.
105. What pollutants are present in naturally occurring water and where do they come from?
106. Which is correct about the public water supply in the UK?
1. Rainfall is insufficient for consumption.
2. Rainfall provides a modest surplus for storage.
3. Around 10% of rainfall is used for piped systems.
4. Reservoirs allow rainfall contamination.
5. Reservoirs do not allow sedimentation of unwanted solids.
Water services design
107. State the design parameters for cold-water mains and storage systems within buildings,
giving particular information on protection from frost damage, suitability for drinking and
protection of the mains against contamination from the building.
108. List the design parameters for hot-water service systems, giving typical data.
109. Sketch the layout of a water services system in a house, showing typical sizes of
equipment and methods of control. Show how wastage of water is minimized.
110. Sketch and describe the methods used to generate hot water, noting their applications,
economy and thermal performance.
111. Sketch and describe a suitable cold-water services installation for a 20-storey hotel
where the mains water pressure is only sufficient to reach the fifth floor.
112. Draw the layout of an indirect hot-water system employing a central-heating boiler and
secondary circulation. Show all the pipe work and control arrangements.
113. A small hotel is designed for 20 residents and four staff. Hot water to be stored at 65C
is taken from a cold-water supply at 10C and heated during a 4 h period. Calculate the
heat input rate required.
13.44 kW.
114. A cold-water storage tank in a house with five occupants is to have a capacity of 100
litres/per person and be fed from a water main able to pass 0.25 l/s. How long will it take
to fill the tank?
0.56 h.
115. A secondary hot-water service system has 55 m of 28 mm circulation pipes and 40 m of

15 mm circulation pipes. Water leaves the cylinder at 65C and returns at 60C. Air
temperature around the pipes is 15oC. Pressure loss rate in the pipes is 260 N/m3. The
frictional resistance of the pipe fittings is equivalent to 25% of measured pipe length.
Specify the head and flow rate required for the secondary circulation pump and choose a
suitable pump.
0.05 kg/s. 3.15 m head, pump C.
116. Which of these is the correct basic safety provision for the public mains water supply
system?
1. Stop valve as mains water enters each building.
2. Backflow preventer valve on each mains water pipe entering a building.
3. Ball valve on a cold-water storage tank.
4. Toilet flushing cistern.
5. Air gap beneath every ball valve and tap outlet.
117. Domestic potable cold water must not be allowed to rise above which temperature?
1. 10oC.
2. 15oC.
3. 20oC.
4. 25oC.
5. 30oC.
118. Should domestic potable cold water rise above the safe distribution temperature, what
must be done?
1. Redesign the distribution system and reinstall new pipes.
2. Test water temperature, insulate pipes, drain and flush system, cool the mains water
with a refrigeration system.
3. Evacuate the building, drain and flush system.
4. Nothing, it will soon cool down again.
5. Test water temperature, find cause of heating, insulate or reroute pipes, drain and flush
system and if necessary disinfect the system pipes and tanks.
119. Where could domestic hot-water storage capacity plus direct-fired instantaneous water
heating be a good design idea?
1. Sports changing facility.
2. Hospital.
3. Industrial catering kitchen.
4. Residence.
5. Hospice for the elderly.
120. Which has the greatest potential for wasteful usage of mains water?
1. Sink and basin taps.
2. Water closet.
3. Shower heads.
4. Clothes and dishwashing machines.

5. Uncontrolled flushing of urinals.
121. Which is not a method of urinal flush control?

1. Manual push button on each urinal trough supply pipe.
2. Temperature sensor on urinal waste pipe linked to a motorized valve on water supply.
3. Pressure-activated water supply valve.
4. Infra-red room occupancy sensor linked to a water supply pipe motorized valve.
5. Continuous flushing water flow to maintain hygienic conditions.
122. What is the meaning of low pressure water supply main?

1. Building has a pressure reduction valve on the incoming public water main.
2. Street water main is at very low pressure.
3. There is no such thing as all public water supply systems function at well above
atmospheric pressure.
4. All water services in buildings below four-storey height.
5. Mains water pressure supplies storage tanks that service the buildings systems.
123. What is the appropriate rule for open-topped water storage tanks in buildings?
1. They allow the stored water to absorb oxygen from the air and maintain its freshness.
2. They allow stored water to expand in hot weather.
3. They need only to be covered when supplying drinking water.
4. Evaporation is encouraged to remove contaminated water on surface.
5. They must always be covered to minimize evaporation and maintain cleanliness.
124. What is the minimum allowable pressure of a water main in the street?
1. 100 bar.
2. 10 atmospheres.
3. 30 m water gauge.
4. 100 kPa.
5. 10000 kPa.
125. When mains water pressure in the street is 250000 N/m2 and pipe friction and discharge
losses are negligible, to what building height can water be lifted?
1. 250 m.
2. 9.807 m.
3. 26 m.
4. 12 storeys.
5. 25.49 m.
126. The measured pressure in the water main in the street is 3.5 b. To what height could the
pressure of the water accommodate?
1. 35.6 m.
2. 0.35 m.
3. 3.5 m.
4. 356.8 m.
5. 35.0 m.
127. The water main pressure at a housing estate will drop as low as 1.75 atmospheres at
maximum demand. What height could water reach above the main?
1. 35.6 m.
2. 1.7 m.
3. 18 m.
4. 17.8 m.
5. 171.6 m.
128. Mains water can reach the plant room of a commercial building at a height of 25 m
above the street main. What is the mains pressure in kPa?
1. 245.
2. 25.
3. 245,175.
4. 25,000.
5. 2.45.
129. A pipe system is specified to have a maximum working water pressure of 375,000 N/m2.
If a static column of water from a hill could test it, what would be the correct water height?
1. 375 m.
2. 37.5 m.
3. 3.8 m.
4. 38.24 km.
5. 38.24 m.
130. The water main pressure in a street is measured at maximum local demand and found to
be 425 kPa. Pipe friction causes a pressure drop of 15,000 Pa and the discharge velocity
pressure at the roof tank must be 10 kPa. What vertical height of pipe can be supported by this
main?
1. 40.7 m.
2. 43.3 m.
3. 4.1 m.
4. 4078 m.
5. 1.53 m.
131. Where is there an air gap in a mains pressure water system in a building?
1. Around the water in a storage tank.
2. On either side of a water pressure-reducing valve.
3. Above the water level of every storage tank having a ball float valve.
4. Between water discharging from a mains pipe and the drainage overflow pipe.
5. Immediately after water leaves any mains-connected pipe.
132. What is the reason for an air gap when water discharges from a mains water pipe?
1. Ensures free flow from the tap or outlet.
2. Avoids flooding.
3. Ensures there can be no syphonage back into the mains pipe.
4. Soap and dirt cannot leach into the water main.
5. Allows a hose to be fitted.
133. What is the reason for an air gap when water discharges from a mains water pipe?
1. Any lowering of pressure in the public water main in the street does not provide a route
for reverse water flow from the building into the main.
2. Reduces water velocity discharging from the main.

3. Allows mixing of mains cold water with hot water for washing.
4. Reduces water pressure supplied to sanitary appliances.
5. Provides space for washing hands.
134. How is the main cold drinking water system in a building kept free from contamination?
1. Continual filling with water from the public main.
2. Regular dosing with biocide in the building systems.
3. Annual drainage, flushing and refilling pipework in the building.
4. Regular sampling and culture testing of mains water from the highest outlet in the
building.
5. Only installing mains pipes in service ducts where air temperature remains below 15oC.
135. How is the main cold drinking water system in a building kept free from contamination?
1. Not connecting automatically operated valves to the system.
2. Using BMS to monitor water quality sensor in pipe.
3. Not heating mains water pipes
4. Compliance with relevant codes, standards and ensuring adequate air gap at every water
outlet.
5. Not allowing any cross-connection with other water service systems.
136. What is a water pressure boosting system?

1. Public mains water pumping station.
2. Gas-fired storage water heater to raise water pressure.
3. Sump pump to remove flood water.
4. Circulating pump for a heating system, chilled water or domestic hot water.
5. Pump to raise water to floors above where the public mains pressure can reach.
137. What is a pneumatic water pressure boosting system?

1. Sealed expansion vessel to absorb thermal expansion and contraction of water in a
heating system.
2. Sealed water tank maintained at sufficient pressure by an air compressor to lift water to
floors above where the public mains pressure can reach.
3. Compressed air system to circulate water.
4. Compressed air-driven sewage ejector.
5. Public mains water pumping station equipment.
138. What is an advantage in using a pneumatic water pressure boosting system compared to
pumping?
1. Air is free.
2. Aeration of water keeps it fresh.
3. Less energy is used to intermittently maintain air pressure in a small water vessel than
to run a pump continuously to maintain the same pressure.
4. Same energy is used but cheaper to run an air compressor.
5. Air compressors are more energy-efficient than water pumps.
139. What is a delayed action ball valve?

1. Float valve on a water storage tank that reacts slowly.
2. Spherical valve seating to control water flow.
3. Spherical seated valve driven by an electric motor.
4. Float in a water storage tank that only opens the inlet water valve when the tank water
level drops to its low level limit.
5. Sprinkler fire-fighting system main flow control valve that only opens when a flow
sensor in a branch pipe detects flow to a sprinkler head.
140. What is a central domestic hot-water storage system?

1. Hot-water storage tank in the middle of a building.
2. Centrally heated storage calorifier.
3. Domestic hot-water storage cylinder with pipework distribution to all hot-water taps.
4. Gas-fired storage water hearers.
5. Electrically heated domestic hot-water unit near each tap where the power is generated
from the public system.
141. What is an instantaneous domestic hot-water unit?

1. One where opening a hot-water outlet causes immediate flow.
2. Gas-fired non-storage water heat exchanger.
3. Something like a kettle.
4. Electrically heated insulated storage water heater located beneath, alongside or above, a
hot tap outlet.
5. Large domestic hot-water storage calorifier that cannot run out of hot water.
142. Where is an indirect domestic hot-water system used?

1. Poor quality mains water does not allow drinking.
2. A heat transfer fluid medium is used to provide energy input to washing water.
3. Stored domestic hot water is not needed.
4. Only gas or electricity is available to provide heat input.

5. Only in hard water locations.
143. Where is an indirect domestic hot-water system used?

1. Domestic hot-water and heating system water circulations are separated by a storage
calorifier.
2. Only in soft water areas.
3. If water softening treatment is available.
4. Washing water is temperature-controlled.
5. Only in residential buildings.
144. Which is the normal domestic hot-water storage temperature?

1. 40oC.
2. 50oC.
3. 55oC.
4. 65oC.
5. 82oC.
145. Which is true of the health risks, if any, from domestic hot-water systems?
1. Below 20oC, public water supply should remain safe for consumption and washing.
2. Shower heads are self-cleaning.
3. Sprayed water droplets from any outlet cannot contain active bacteria.
4. Mains water pressure controls potential release of harmful bacteria.
5. Mans water contains no harmful bacteria.
146. Which is true of the health risks, if any, from domestic hot-water systems?
1. Bacteria in mains water are sterilized when heated to 40oC.
2. Harmful bacteria in all stored water actively multiply between 25oC and 40oC.
3. Shower heads are self-draining.
4. Public mains water remains safe to use at any temperature.
5. Excess dosing of chemicals in public mains water ensures safety under any usage
conditions.
147. Which is not a health risk from domestic hot-water systems?

1. Shower heads become contaminated from stagnant warm water and deposited matter.
2. Scalding.
3. Bacteria growing in water at up to 50oC.
4. Breathing aerosols from spray taps and shower heads.
5. Splashing eyes with mildly warm washing water.
148. Which is a health risk from domestic hot-water systems?

1. Crockery being washed in water at too high a temperature.
2. Clothes washed in water at 40oC.
3. Exposure to contaminated water by those at elevated health risk such as infants, hospital
patients, elderly, and those with breathing ailments.
4. Exposure to washing water treated with corrosion-inhibiting chemicals.
5. Skin burns from hot taps.
149. How do we protect ourselves from domestic hot-water systems?

1. Chemically dosing washing water with biocide.
2. Regular removal of shower heads and cleaning with biocide.

3. Avoiding use of showers, spray taps, spa baths and swimming pools.
4. Avoid washing.
5. Wait for hot water to cool before using it on skin.

1. Heat and store hot water at 42oC.
2. Only use hot water at less than 45oC.
3. Water stored at 65oC so all bacteria killed.
4. Heat stored water to 65oC to kill bacteria then wait for it to cool to 40oC prior to use.
5. Heat stored water to 100oC to sterilize bacteria then wait for it to cool to 40oC prior to
use.

1. Automatic controls on heating system.
2. Manual or thermostatic mixing of hot and cold water to 40oC prior to washing.
3. Low temperature storage cylinder.
4. Thermal insulation on all hot surfaces.
5. Thermostatic control of stored water.
152. What is the residential domestic hot-water storage requirement in litres at 65oC, per
person?
1. 5.
2. 15.
3. 30.
4. 40.
5. 60.
153. What is the office building hot-water storage requirement in litres at 65oC, per person?
1. 5.
2. 15.
3. 30.
4. 40.
5. 60.
154. What is the hotel domestic hot-water storage requirement in litres at 65oC, per person?
1. 35.
2. 25.
3. 65.
4. 45.
5. 120.
155. What is a domestic hot-water circulation system called?

1. Personnel circulation.
2. Hot-water pipe system.
3. Tap circulation.
4. Draw-off circulation system.
5. Hot-water secondary flow and return.
156. A dwelling has a 140-litre domestic hot-water storage cylinder heated from 12oC to
65oC in 3 hours. What is the appropriate heater power to select?
1. 2.879 kW.
2. 2473 W.
3. 22.26 kW.
4. 2473 kW.
5. 3 kW.
157. A large dwelling has a 395-litre domestic hot-water storage cylinder heated from 10oC
to 65oC in 3 hours. What is the appropriate heater power to select?
1. 9 kW.
2. 7.24 kW.
3. 8.428 kW.
4. 9961 W.
5. 4.32 kW.
158. A hotel has 100 double bedrooms, requires 35 litres of domestic hot-water storage per
guest in an indirect cylinder heated from 11oC to 65oC in 6 hours. What is the exact heater
power consumed?
1. 36.7 kW.
2. 17.5 kW.
3. 52500 W.
4. 90 kW.
5. 73.25 kW.
159. A 1000-litre domestic hot-water storage calorifier has a heating water rate of input of 50
1. 0.305 h.
2. 3 days.
3. 1.5 h.
4. 1.28 h.
5. 6.5 h.
1. 3 h.
2. 2 h 53 min.
3. 3.5 h.
4. 6 h.
5. 2 days.
cylinder amounts to 10% of heat input?
1. 5.1 h.
2. 5 h.
3. 3 h.
4. 12.5 h.
5. 5.6 h.
162. Why are domestic hot- and cold-water distribution pipes not designed to always provide
full flow when all taps are open?
1. But they are, they have to be.
2. Users rarely open taps fully.
3. Pipe resistance always slows water flow so full flow rate is never possible.
4. Demand for water at taps, showers and washing machines is randomly intermittent.
5. If too many taps open simultaneously, users simply have to wait a few seconds longer.
163. What does DU stand for in relation to hot- and cold-water tap systems?
1. Donor unit.
2. Demonstrable unit.
3. Demonstration unit.
4. Demand unit.
5. Discharge unit.
164. What does demand unit stand for?

1. Amount of hot water needed to fill a standard basin in one minute.
2. Maximum demand for hot water from a group of taps.
3. Statistical assessment of the simultaneous flow in litre/s from a system of hot- or coldwater outlets.
4. Number relating to water flow rate, tap discharge time and interval between usage.
5. Total water flow rate demand in a system divided by the number of taps.
165. What is the value of demand units?

1. Litre/s.
2. Total litres.
3. Time interval.
4. Number of water outlets.
5. Dimensionless.
Water treatment
166. What is part of the primary water treatment of public water supply systems in the UK?
1. Aeration in outdoor reservoirs.
2. Filtration by water percolating through the ground.
3. Pumped filtration through granite chippings.
4. Flocculation in gravel beds.
5. Slow filtration by gravity flow through sand and activated carbon beds.
167. What is part of the primary water treatment of public water supply systems in the UK?
1. Pumped filtration through crushed silica.
2. Centrifugal removal of solids in cyclone separators.
3. Centripetal force created in volute chambers to remove debris.
4. Aeration in outdoor fountains at treatment plant.
5. Pumped filtration through activated carbon.
168. Which is correct about public water supply treatment?

1. Requires no energy use.
2. Naturally occurring acidity or alkalinity remains unaltered.
3. pH value of water measures hardness.

4. Naturally occurring total dissolved salt concentration modified to meet health standards.
5. Naturally occurring total dissolved salt concentration always increased in soft water
geographical areas to match those from hard water areas of the country.
169. Which is correct about water treatment for closed circulation water systems?
1. Not needed.
2. Water purifies itself due to release of dissolved oxygen and salts during commissioning.
3. Absence of fresh oxygen in closed system avoids need for corrosion treatment.
4. There is no difference between the effects of pH value, acidity, alkalinity and
corrosiveness of water.
5. Treatment provided to combat electrolytic corrosion.
170. Which applies to the Base Exchange water treatment system?

1. Calcium carbonate in public mains water chemically reacts with sodium zeolite in
treatment tank.
2. Calcium carbonate in public mains water is absorbed by zeolite salt in the treatment
tank and remains there.
3. Zeolite salts are consumed by incoming hardness salts and residue has to be removed
for disposal.
4. Zeolite salts filter out calcium carbonate and other hardness salts and must be disposed
of to waste water when fully clogged.
5. Zeolite salts destroy hardness salts in the public mains water supplied to steam boilers.
171. What is reverse osmosis?
1. Osmotic pressure difference cannot be reversed.

2. A natural phenomenon.
3. The opposite of water diffusion through a semi-permeable membrane to equalize the
concentration of salt in solution.
4. Dissolved salts migrating through a membrane, leaving desalinated water behind.
5. Heat and pressure applied to salty water causes water molecules to pass through a fine
membrane into a desalinated water stream on the other side.
172. How does reverse osmosis water treatment work?

1. Sea water is dosed with a low molecular density chemical that assists desalinated H2O
to pass through the separating membrane.
2. Pump pressure of 50 bars is used to overcome osmotic pressure differential.
3. An activated carbon filter absorbs impurities and salts from water pumped through.
4. Carbon filters are cleaned by reversing the water flow.
5. Pure water diffuses through a membrane.
173. Which is correct about types of water treatment?
1. Demineralized water can only be condensed steam.
2. Demineralized means water contained within food quality plastic tanks and pipes
having no contact with metal.
3. Chemical action filters remove all suspended and dissolved salts to produce
demineralized water.
4. Reverse osmosis refers to using a heat pump to produce drinking water.
5. Drinking water should not contain any dissolved salts.
1. Rarely used.
2. Removes salt from public mains water.
3. Uses large amounts of electrical energy.
4. The description stands for basic quality of water treatment system.
5. Uses zeolite chemical salts.

1. Water treated this way contains no dissolved salts.
2. Water treated this way contains no suspended salts.
3. Treated water contains sodium carbonate which is a non-scale-forming salt.
4. Calcium zeolite remains in the treatment tank and is converted back to sodium zeolite
through back washing with dilute hydrochloric acid.
through back washing with sodium hydroxide.

1. Back wash water passes on to a steam boiler feed water tank as an economy measure.
2. Back wash water passes to a recycle water tank for toilet flushing as an economy
measure.
through intermittent back washing with sodium chloride.
4. Treated water contains no dissolved salts.
5. Treated water contains more dissolved salts than the public mains water.
9 Electrical installations
Building site power supply

1. A building site is to have the following electrical equipment in use each day:
(a)
concrete mixer, 5 kW, 4 h, 415 V;
(b)
sump pump, 1.5 kW, 6 h, 240 V;
(c)
20 lamps, 150 W each, 4 h, 240 V;
(d)
5 flood lamps, 300 W each, 4 h, 240 V;
(e)
6 hand tools, 750 W each, 5 h, 110 V.
The power factor of the machinery is 0.8. Site work takes place 5 days per week for 28
weeks. Electricity costs 6p per unit. Find:
(i)
Total kilovolt-amperes and the line current of the required temporary incoming
supply system, and current.
18.25 kVA, 25.4 A.
(ii)
Cost of the electricity used on site during the contract.

691.95.
2. Sketch and describe the safety precautions taken to avoid contact with both overhead and
underground electricity cables during site construction work.
3. Sketch a suitable arrangement of temporary wiring, control and safety equipment on a site
where the following items are employed: tower crane, sump pump, five flood lamps,
security lighting and circuits on each of three floors for hand lamps and tools.
4. List the site programme for the main contractor in the installation and operation of
temporary site electrical services.
Cable sizing
5. Calculate the electrical resistance per metre length at 20C of a copper conductor of a 10
mm2 cross-sectional area.
0.00172 ohm.
6. Find the electrical resistance of a copper conductor 1.5 mm2 in cross-sectional area if its
total length is 25 m and its temperature is 20C.
0.2867 ohm.
7. 28 m of copper conductor 4 mm2 in cross-sectional area is covered with thermal insulation,

which causes the cable temperature to rise to 45C. Calculate the percentage increase in
electrical resistance compared with its value at a cable temperature of 20C.
10.7%.
8. What does specific resistance of a cable mean and what are its units?
1. Total resistance of an electrical circuit in ohms.
2. Resistance property of a conducting material in m.
3. Electrical resistance of a material in M/m3.
4. The limiting resistance for 100 m length of cable in k.
5. Resistance between a live conductor and earth in M.
Cable systems
9. Which wires are needed in a 240-volt single phase system?

1. Three live phase wires and earth conductor.
2. One phase line conductor and earth connection.
3. Line phase and neutral conductors.
4. One live conductor, neutral and earth conductors.
5. One phase conductor plus a combined neutral and earth metal conduit.
10.
Which wires are needed for a 415-volt wiring system?
1. Three live wires and a neutral conductor.

2. Red, yellow and blue phase lines plus earth continuity conductor.
3. Conduit or cable containing five insulated wires.
4. Live, neutral and earth conductors.
5. Three line phase conductors only.
11.
Which wires are needed for a 415- volt wiring system?
1. Three live phase conductors, neutral conductor and an earth continuity conductor that
may be a conduit.
2. Mineral insulated copper conduit to all motors.
3. Only three phase conductors needed, as there is no neutral current and earthing
protection is at circuit breakers in a mechanical switchboard.
4. One line conductor carrying all three phases, neutral and earth conductors.
5. Line and neutral conductor pair for each of the three phases, plus earth continuity
conductor.
12.
Which are correct about mineral-insulated copper-sheathed electrical cables?
1. Fragile and easily damaged.

2. Withstand most fires and remain operational.
3. Supplied in hard copper fixed lengths, like plumbing pipes.
4. Screwed gland joints exclude water from the hygroscopic insulant.
5. Cannot be installed outdoors.
13.
What is meant by bus-bar?
1. Communications bus (C-bus) in a computer.

2. Ethernet communications cabling system around a large network.
3. TPS-insulated circular bar conductors at high level through an industrial manufacturing
plant.
4. Bare copper or aluminium bar conductors carried on insulators within sheet metal
conduit.
5. Up to 600 ampere 3-phase vertical or horizontal distribution allowing off-takes along
length.
14.
Which is not a normal application for use of MICC wiring?
1. Fire alarms systems.

2. Public buildings such as theatres.
3. Tunnels.
4. Temporary buildings.
5. Power stations and heavy industrial buildings.
15.
Why are cables installed within fixed conduit?
1. Hides ugly cables.
2. Conduit is a permanent fixture of the building while cables require replacement when
aged.
3. Conduit becomes earth continuity conductor.
4. Reduce heat emission from cables.
5. Protects PCV cables from heat gain from environment.
16.
What does an electrical domestic ring circuit mean?
1. Doorbell systems.
2. Earth-ring for appliance protection.
3. Ethernet computer wiring network.
4. Single phase power distribution loop.
5. Low voltage twisted pair seasonal lighting circuit.
17.
How are electrical cable sizes quoted?
1. Diameter.
2. Maximum current.
3. Allowable length and voltage drop.
4. Cross-sectional area.
5. Application-specific data.
18.
Which are correct about mineral-insulated copper-sheathed electrical cables?
1. Continuous operation up to 250oC.

2. Multiple conductors within copper sheath.
3. Non-ageing, withstand severe abuse.
4. Used for fire alarm systems, within plant rooms and in petrol-filling facilities.
5. Supplied as soft copper cable using sheath as earth conductor.
19.
What does armoured PVC cabling mean?
1. PVC-covered mineral-insulated copper-sheathed electrical cable.

2. PVC-covered copper cable within a rigid galvanized steel conduit.
3. Flexible copper or aluminium conductors within PVC insulation and galvanized steel
wire armour.
4. Protected cable always used in heavy industrial buildings.
5. Used for mobile outdoor plant and can be laid in soil trenches.
20.
What is meant by bus-bar?
1. Communications bus (C-bus) found in a computer.

2. Ethernet communications cabling system for a large network.
3. PVC-insulated circular bar conductors at high level through an industrial manufacturing
plant.
4. Bare copper or aluminium bar conductors carried on insulators within sheet metal
trunking.
5. Communication bus (C-bus) in a computer mother board.
21.
Why might raised floors be used?
1. Provide under-floor ventilation for cooling.

2. Ancient Roman warm air heating system dating back 2000 years.
3. Create unobstructed space for cable and air duct distribution in highly serviced offices
and computer rooms.
4. Maximize floor layout flexibility.
5. Insulate room from ground heat flow or vibration.
22.
List the cable and conduit systems used for electricity distribution and state their
applications.
23.
Show how an underground electrical service cable enters a building. Sketch the
arrangement of electricity distribution within a typical residence.
24.
Which is correct about PVC-insulated electrical cables?
1. PVC insulation lasts indefinitely.

2. PVC-insulated cables withstand temperature range of -20oC to 120oC.
3. PVC is chemically inert.
4. Installed outdoors without additional protection.
5. Damage-resistant.
25.
Which is not correct about PVC-insulated electrical cables?
1. PVC does not absorb moisture.

2. Resistance between conductors and earth is tested regularly due to ageing of PVC.
3. Installed outdoors without conduit.
4. It is a hydrocarbon.
5. Hydrogen chloride toxic vapour released when burnt.
26.
What does PVC stand for?
1. Poly vanadium carcinogen.

2. Polyvinyl chloride.
3. Phthalate vinyl chemical.

4. Plasticized vinyl cover.
5. Polychloroethane version plasticizer.
27.
Which is not correct for mineral-insulated copper-clad cables?
1. PVC-insulated electrical cables in copper conduit.

2. Copper conductor, compressed mineral fibre insulation, copper sheath.
3. Solid copper conductor, compressed magnesium oxide insulation, copper cable.
4. Indoor and outdoor use.
5. Up to 1000oC intermittent exposure.
28.
Why are cables installed within fixed conduit?
1. Keeps cables out of sight.

2. Protects cables from moisture, heat and physical damage.
3. Improved appearance.
4. Saves the need for an earth continuity conductor.
5. Lower cost cable can be used.
29.
How many cables can be installed within a conduit?
1. As many as it takes to fill the pipe or duct.

2. Not exceeding 50% of conduit volume.
3. Conduit can be 75% full and still have ventilation space to remove heat.
4. Each conduit size has a maximum cable current capacity.
5. Maximum of 40% conduit cross-sectional area may be filled.
Circuit protection
30.
Which of these is not correct about what happens when the human body receives an
electric shock?
1. Tingling sensation at minute shocks.
2. Muscle spasm and heart fibrillation.
3. Burning from heating effect of current flow through the body.
4. Not entirely sure as few return to explain what happened.
5. Nothing, because microcircuit breaker operates instantaneously.
31.
Which of these is not correct about protection from electric shock?
1. Insulate the body from earth contact with rubber matt or shoes.
2. High resistance insulation between conductors and people.
3. Fast-acting MCBs break live conductor on fault condition.
4. Hand tools use low voltage or battery power.
5. Accidents do not happen because of safety practices.
32.
Which of these might overcome protection from fault conditions in electrical
installations?
1. High resistance insulation.
2. Regular inspection and testing.
3. People.
4. Replaceable cartridge fuses.
5. Microcircuit breakers.
33.
How does a residual current circuit breaker work?
1. Excess current to the protected circuit opens single pole switch in the line conductor.
2. Excess current to the protected circuit opens a double pole switch.
3. Heating effect of a fault current trips a bi-metallic switch in the line conductor.
4. Fault current occurring in the earth conductor trips a double pole switch on the line and
neutral conductors.
5. 30 mA current generated in an electromagnetic core due to line and neutral current
imbalance, trips double pole power switch.
34.
Which is an example of unsafe practice with electrical installations?
1. Adherence to design standards.

2. Professional training.
3. National codes of practice.
4. Safety training for all staff and contractors.
5. Working on live equipment.
35.
Which is a typical time interval for a residual current device to open a 60-amp circuit
breaker double pole switch when a fault current occurs?

1. 6 minutes.
2. 1 minute.
3. 1 second.
4. 20 milliseconds.
5. Less than 0.001 seconds.
36.
Roughly how long does it take for a residual current device to open?
1. Less than 0.01 s.
2. 0.02 s.
3. 0.5 s.
4. 30 s.
5. 60 s.
37.
What does RCD stand for?
1. Residual circuit device.

2. Residual current device.
3. Resistance circuit design.
4. Radio carbon dating.
5. Ratio circuit device.
38.
What is the most common form of mortality from electric shock?
1. Burns.
2. Ventricular fibrillation.
3. Muscle spasm.
4. Pain.
5. Bleeding.
39.
Sketch and describe the characteristics of rewirable and cartridge fuses and residual
current devices.
40.
Briefly describe the methods of testing electrical installations.
41.
How does a 30 mA residual current circuit breaker work? More than one correct answer
can be given.
1. Line and neutral conductors wrap around an electromagnetic core and no current flows
through the core as magnetic flux from each wire cancels the other.
2. Line and neutral conductors wrap around an electromagnetic core, current flows
through the core due to magnetic flux from each wire.
3. Line and neutral conductors wrap around an electromagnetic core, current flows
through the core due to magnetic flux induced from line conductor.
4. Line and neutral conductors wrap around an electromagnetic core, magnetic flux
circulates harmlessly through the core due to the alternating current line and neutral
conductors.
5. Current leakage to earth from the protected appliance loses neutral current, causing
imbalance between line and neutral magnetic fluxes in core; imbalance flux generates
30 mA in trip solenoid circuit breaker.
42.
How can cartridge fuses cope with high starting currents in electric motors?
1. They cannot.
2. Only micro-circuit breakers are used to protect motors driving compressors.
3. High rupturing capacity cartridge fuses regularly pass 500% of normal running current.
4. High rupturing capacity cartridge fuses have silver elements and are packed with silica
to allow high starting currents for a known duration.
5. High rupturing capacity cartridge fuses have bimetallic elements and are packed with
carbon granules to allow high starting currents.
43.
Where are cartridge fuses or MCBs always installed?
1. Live phase cable.

2. Neutral wire.
3. Earth conductor.
4. External to the building.
5. Within a fire-resistant switchboard.
44.
How does a cartridge fuse provide safety?
1. Any fault current breaks circuit.

2. Any excess current breaks line and neutral conductors.
3. Cartridge fuses are insensitive and unreliable.
4. 60% excess current overheats fusible wire in cartridge and melts it.
5. Cartridge fuse breaks circuit instantaneously on any excess current.
45.
What do cartridge fuses do?
1. Protect the main switchboard from overload.

2. Stop fires.
3. Protect supply cables from overheating due to appliance fault.
4. Protect plant item from overheating due to a locked rotor shaft.
5. Back-up protection after motor overheat protective device has acted.
46.
How are electrical circuits and plant protected?
1. Built-in thermal overload switch.

2. Manual switch at distribution board.
3. Building management computer system detects faults and switches refrigeration
compressors, motors and fans off.
4. Micro circuit breaker cartridge fuses on each plant circuit at switchboard.

5. Micro circuit breaker switch on each plant circuit at switchboard.
47.
How is plant protected by an MCB?
1. Micro circuit breaker switch opens on detecting excess current.

2. MCB means manual circuit breaker switch at a distribution board.
3. Building management computer system detects faults and trips main circuit breaker to
the plant room where a fault occurred.
4. MCB means moulded case breaker cartridge fuse for each plant circuit at main
switchboard.
5. It is a thermal overload switch.
48.
Which statements are correct about electrical circuits?
1. Lighting and power circuits are always supplied from the same distribution board.
2. Lighting and power are always supplied from separate distribution circuits.
3. An isolating switch is always located alongside the item of plant.
4. Single phase circuits have TP&N switches.
5. Three-phase sub-circuits have TP&N switches.
49.
Why is electrical wiring tested after installation?
1. No need to as only accredited electricians do the installation.

2. To ensure electric motors are wired for correct rotation.
3. Each switch, power socket outlet, motor and luminaire checked for operation.
4. To ensure correct polarity.
5. To check security of connections.
50.
How is electrical wiring tested for safety?
1. Visual inspection only.

2. Earth loop resistance maximum 1 tested with 40 volts.
3. Cable temperature measured at full load current for one hour.
4. 45-volt fault current passed into earth conductor to trip the residual current device.
5. Insulation resistance test with 6-volt battery direct current between line and earth
conductors to verify at least 5 M present.
51.
How is electrical wiring tested for safety?
1. Insulation resistance test with 500-volt direct current between line and earth conductors
to verify at least 0.5 M present.
2. Electrical billing meter observed for zero energy usage during one hour when all
switches are in the open position.
3. Every screwed cable connection is uncovered and checked for secure connection.
4. Line, neutral and earth conductors in a single phase ring circuit must show zero
resistance at the distribution board when there is no current flow.
5. Each sub-circuit current measured to ensure correct functioning.
52.
Where are cartridge fuses or MCBs always installed?
1. Live phase cable.

2. Neutral wire.
3. Earth conductor.
4. External to the building.
5. Within a fire-resistant switchboard.
Data systems
53.
State what is meant by the term Wi-Fi, who owns it and how it is used.
54.
Explain what is meant by the term Internet.
55.
State the levels of wireless communication technology ranging from personal items
such as those only used by the wearer, household, computer-to-computer, commercial

building, campus, city and global. Which systems use each level? How do they affect
buildings and their services? How do you envisage future advances in these technologies?
56.
What are the known risks from using TCP/IP cable and wireless communication
systems? Will wireless communication be inherently safer or more secure than hard-wired
systems? How is data security maintained? Give examples to illustrate your answers.
Electrical design calculations

57.
Calculate the resistance of a 3 kW immersion heater on a 240 V AC circuit.
19.2 ohm.
58.
What current, in milli-amperes, would flow to earth during an insulation resistance test
when a 500 V DC e.m.f. is applied between the line and protective conductors and the
resistance is found to be 1.75 M?
0.2857 mA.
59.
Show by sample calculation why smaller cables can be used for long-distance power
transmission when very high voltages are used.
60.
A 33 kV supply to a factory carries 250 A per phase or line. Calculate the usable
electrical power in the factory if the average power factor is 0.68.

9716.8 kW.
61.
Find the maximum length of 6 mm2 cable that can be used if the maximum current-
carrying capacity is to be utilized on a 240 V circuit.

28.6 m.
62.
Which is correct about electrical systems?
1. Watts = Volts x Amps.

2. Three-phase current = 3 x single phase current.
3. Watts and Volt-Amperes are always the same value.
4. Current = Voltage x Resistance.
5. Current measured in Mega-Ohms.
63.
How much voltage drop is allowed in cables between the consumers intake terminal to
any outlet in the installation at full load current?

1. 12 volts.
2. 10%.
3. 4%.
4. 2.5%.
5. No recommended limit and designer can optimize the system in any manner.
Electrical measurements and testing

64.
How is power consumed by an electrical item measured?
1. Wattmeter cut into the line conductor.

2. Voltmeter and current meter both cut into line conductor to the load.
3. Ammeter connected into the line conductor to the load and a voltmeter connected in
parallel with the load.
4. Voltmeter connected into line conductor to the load and an ammeter connected in
parallel with the load.
5. Wattmeter connected in parallel with the load.
65.
Sketch the methods of connection used for measurements of current, voltage drop and
power consumption in an electrical resistance heater on an alternating current circuit.
General knowledge 9
66.
What is an ohm?
1. Residence of an electrical engineer.

2. Thermal property of an electrical conductor.
3. Unit of electrical resistance.
4. Specific resistance of a conducting wire material.
5. Temperature coefficient of resistance.
67.
How is electrical energy consumed by an item of plant, equipment or a whole building,
measured?
1. Magnetic field-sensing data logger is strapped to the single- or three-phase cable.
2. Kilowatt meter measures instantaneous current flow and applied voltage.

3. Integrating data logger multiplies output signal from a magnetic current transducer with
voltage applied at the same time.
4. Ammeter reading multiplied by voltmeter reading divided by the time in seconds of
their duration is calculated and added to a running total of energy consumed.
5. Integrating meter multiplies instantaneous current and voltage with the time duration
and records kWh consumed.
68.
Which parts of building services systems are connected to the ground, i.e., earthed?
1. Underground services plant.

2. Air conditioning ducts.
3. Lightning conductor.
4. Telecommunications cable.
5. Computer network Ethernet cabling.
69.
Which parts of building services systems are not connected to the ground, i.e.,
electrically earthed?
1. All wiring systems.
2. Water main pipework.
3. Drainage pipework.
4. Casings of all electrical appliances and plant.
5. Gas pipes.
70.
Which statement about electrical system ownership is correct?
1. Supply cable from power pole or underground cable in street is the responsibility of the
building owner.
2. Consumers main isolating switch and RCD are supplied and installed by the power
supply company.
3. The power supply company owns the incoming cable, residual current device and the
billing meter.
4. Building owner leases electrical supply system up to and including lighting and power
distribution boards from the public power supply corporation.
5. Power supply company owns all distribution systems after the billing meter.
71.
Explain how electricity is generated and transmitted to the final user.
72.
Which system of public electricity is provided to small to medium-sized non-domestic
buildings in the UK and Australia?

1. 50 Hz, 240 volt, AC.
2. 210 volt, 1 phase, 55 Hz, alternating current.
3. 2 phase, 60 Hz, 200 volt.
4. 440 volt, 3 phase, 60 Hz.
5. AC, 50 Hz, 3 phase, 415 volt.
73.
List the sources of energy used for the generation of electricity and state their immediate
and long-term benefits.
74.
Explain, with the aid of sketches, the meaning of the terms single-phase and three-
phase electricity supplies and show how they are used within buildings.
75.
What does balancing the phases mean?
76.
What is Ohms Law?

V2
.
I
1.
R= 3
2.
R=V I .
3.
V2
.
I=
R
4.
I =V R l .
Where
is specific resistance and l is is cable length.
5. Current circuit amperes equal applied voltage divided by total circuit resistance in
ohms.
77.
What opposes the flow of electrical current into an electric motor?
1. Resistance of the wires.

2. Increasing resistance due to heating effect of the current.
3. Self-induced electromotive force.
4. Back-pressure from the pump, fan or drive system on motor output shaft.
5. Capacitance of motor windings.
78.
1. Resistance of the motor coils.

2. Inductance.
3. Temperature coefficient of resistance increases circuit electrical resistance.
4. Mechanical feed-back from forces on motor output shaft.
5. Capacitance of motor control system.
79.
Where does the self-induced electromotive force in an electrical circuit come from?
1. An opposing current.
2. A higher voltage than the one driving the correct current direction.
3. A stationary magnetic field from a source other than that causing correct current flow.
4. A stationary magnetic field acting in the opposite direction to required current flow.
5. Expanding and collapsing magnetic field created by the incoming alternating current.
80.
What does a self-induced electromotive force do to an electrical circuit?
1. Nothing.
2. Speeds up current flow.
3, Opposes incoming current and causes it to lag behind voltage in real time.
4. Opposes incoming current and causes it to appear leading the cyclic pattern of the
driving voltage frequency.
5. Supports the incoming current frequency and increases the current.
81.
Which electrical loads create an opposing electromotive force?
1. All of them.
2. All wires.
3. Tungsten filament lamps.
4. Resistance heating elements.
5. Motors.
82.
Which electrical loads do not have the property of inductance?
1. Fluorescent lamps.
2. Resistance heating coils.
3. Air compressor plant.
4. Motors.
5. Transformers.
83.
Which electrical loads have the property of inductance?
1. Capacitors.
2. Ethernet networks.
3. Refrigeration compressor.
4. Centrifugal fan.
5. 12-volt battery in a UPS.
84.
Which electrical loads do not have the property of inductance?
1. Battery-charging transformer.
2. Emergency generator.
3. Lift motor.
4. Building management system control and communications network.
5. Large plant room air handling unit.
85.
What does inductance do to an electrical system?
1. Speeds up current.
2. Multiplies available power by a percentage.
3. Reduces current.
4. Reduces available voltage.
5. Causes current to lag behind applied voltage.
86.
Where is inductance not found?
1. Alternating current systems at 50 Hz.

2. Direct current systems.
3. 60 Hz AC systems.
4. Single-phase motors.
5. Three-phase motors.
87.
Where is inductance not present in an electrical system?
1. Fluorescent luminaire.
2. Packaged air conditioning unit.
3. Refrigeration water chiller.
4. Cooling tower fan.
5. Resistance heating coil.
88.
Where is inductance not present in an electrical system?
1. Direct current lift motor.

2. Three-phase, 415-volt air conditioning fan motor.
3. Single-phase condenser fan motor.
4. Chilled water pump motor.
5. Variable frequency drive for a fan or pump motor.
89.
What is the time difference between voltage and current in an AC system called?
1. Lead angle.
2. Microsecond gap.
3. Phase.
4. Peak difference.
5. Lag.
90.
What is the difference between voltage and current in an AC system called?
1. Phase shift.
2. Following phase.
3. Phase angle.
4. Current gap.
5. Voltage lead.
91.
What is the time difference between current and voltage in an AC system called?
1. Capacitance lag.
2. Capacitance lead angle.
3. Inductance lag.
4. Lag.
5. Resistance differential.
92.
State the requirements of telecommunications installations.
93.
Which correctly describes the relationship between voltage and current in an alternating
current system?
1. Voltage and amperes are synchronized.

2. Voltage peak occurs behind peak value of current.
3. Current always follows voltage, producing it by exactly one phase.

4. Inefficient generators produce a current flow lagging voltage.
5. Current always follows fractionally behind the voltage that produces flow of electricity.
94.
1. Resistance of the motor coils.

2. Inductance.
3. Temperature coefficient of resistance increases circuit electrical resistance.
4. Mechanical feed-back from forces on motor output shaft.
5. Capacitance of motor control system.
95.
How is electrical energy that is consumed by an item of plant, equipment or a whole

building, measured?
1. Magnetic field-sensing data logger is strapped to the single- or three-phase cable.

2. Kilowatt meter measures instantaneous current flow and applied voltage.
3. Integrating data logger multiplies output signal from a magnetic current transducer with
voltage applied at the same time.
4. Ammeter reading multiplied by voltmeter reading divided by the time in seconds of
their duration is calculated and added to a running total of energy consumed.
5. Integrating meter multiplies instantaneous current and voltage with the time duration
and records kWh consumed.
96.
What does self-induced electromotive force do to an electrical circuit?
1. Nothing.
2. Speeds up current flow.
3. Opposes incoming current and causes it to lag behind voltage in real time.
4. Opposes incoming current and causes it to appear leading the cyclic pattern of the
driving voltage frequency.
5. Supports the incoming current frequency and increases the current.
97.
What does inductance do to an electrical system?
1. Speeds up current.
2. Multiplies available power by a percentage.
3. Reduces current.
4. Reduces available voltage.
5. Causes current to lag behind applied voltage.
98.
Explain what is meant by on-site generation. Discuss its merits with practical examples.
Is it financially worthwhile for homes, large commercial or industrial sites? State your
reasons. Is it only really needed for emergency use? Give examples of how it is used in
emergencies.
99.
What system of public electricity is provided to residences in the UK?
1. Two-phase, 60 Hz, 200 volt, AC.

2. 200-300 volt, one-phase, 50 Hz.
3. AC, one-phase, 50 Hz, 240 volt.
4. Three-phase, 440 volt, 60 Hz.
5. 50 Hz, three-phase, 415 volt.
100. What does RMS mean?
1. Relative mean square of an alternating voltage.

2. Root mean square equivalent of a direct voltage.
3. Rate monitoring system.
4. Resonance of the mean of squared current values in an alternating current flux field.
5. Square root of the averages of the squared values of an alternating voltage when
measured at regular intervals during half a revolution of the alternator providing the
power.
101. How is three-phase electricity created at a power station?

1. Three single-phase alternators have interconnected output power circuits.
2. Single-phase generators with rectifiers creating three phases.
3. Multiple transformers create three phases.
4. Each alternator has three stator coils so one revolution of the rotor generates three
separate sine wave outputs.
5. Three single-phase alternators each power one line voltage; each building takes all three
lines to have three-phase power.
102. How is 240-volt value created from the sine wave output of a generator?
1. Peak value of the sine wave, Vmax = RMS.
2. Average voltage from all values measured at 5o intervals of one revolution,
V mean=
VN
.
N
3. Average of all squared voltages during half a revolution, V mean=
4. Square root of all peak voltages, V mean=
V max .
V 2N
.
N
5. Square root of sum of all voltages during half a revolution, squared, divided by the
number of values calculated, V RMS =
V 2N
N
103. What does single-phase electricity mean?

1. Voltage and current generated by a single stator coil of an alternator.
2. One-third of the voltage generated in a power station alternator.
3. Nuclear-generated electricity.
4. Direct current electricity generator.
5. The positive voltages part of an alternating current full cycle.
104. What does the graphical output from an alternating current look like on an oscilloscope?
1. Cannot be viewed as frequency is too rapid.
2. Steady flat line.
3. Jagged peaks and troughs.
4. Smooth sine wave.
5. Smooth cosine wave.
105. Which of these does single-phase electricity current look like on an oscilloscope screen?
(Hint, draw them.)
1. Zero phase angle zero current, 90o phase angle maximum positive current, 180o phase
angle zero current.
2. Zero phase angle maximum positive current, 90o phase angle zero current, 180o phase
angle maximum negative current.
3. Zero phase angle 50% maximum positive current, 90o phase angle 100% positive
current, 180o phase angle zero current.
4. 135o phase angle zero current, 225o phase angle maximum negative current, 315o phase
angle zero current.
5. Zero phase angle zero maximum negative current, 90o phase angle zero current, 180o
phase angle maximum positive current.
106. Which of these does a three-phase output voltage from a power station alternator look
like on an oscilloscope screen? (Hint, draw them.)
1. Three smooth sine waves peaking positively and negatively at the same time.
2. Three flat lines at different voltage values.
3. Three cosine waves at 60o phase angle separation.
4. Each stator coil produces an alternating ripple at 20 Hz making an average smooth total
curve at 3600 RPM.
5. Three sine waves peaking positively and negatively at 120o intervals.
107. What is the rotational speed of the alternator in a UK power station?

1. 60 revolutions per second.
2. 50 revolutions per minute.
3. 18000 RPM.
4. 3600 RPM.
5. 3000 RPM.
108. When a co-generation plant is installed in a building, what rotational speed must the
diesel engine, gas engine or gas turbine run at to produce an electrical frequency of 50 Hz?
1. Any speed.
2. Exactly 3000 RPM.
3. Any appropriate engine steady speed driving a gear to the 3000 RPM alternator shaft.
4. 3600 RPM to allow for slip.
5. 5000 RPM to maximize engine torque.
109. What correctly describes the relationship between voltage and current in an alternating
current system?
1. Voltage and amperes are synchronized.
2. Voltage peak occurs behind peak value of current.
3. Current always follows voltage producing it by exactly one phase.
4. Inefficient generators produce a current flow lagging voltage.
5. Current always follows fractionally behind the voltage that produces flow of electricity.
110. What do we know about the current generated in each of the three stator coils in the
alternator?
1. They are not equal as they occur at different times.
2. Always equal in magnitude and phase angle.
3. We do not know anything about each as only the total is measured.
4. Always equal in magnitude.
5. A short circuit or failure of any one stator coil does not affect the power supply.
111. What does three phase mean?

1. There are three line conductors each carrying a single phase.
2. Each line conductor carries current from three generator coils
3. Three phase provides three times the power of single phase.

4. The type of electricity needed for electric motors.
5. Three power supplies.
112. What is the advantage of a three-phase system?

1. Widely variable phase current meets variable demands.
2. Continuously stable power supply.
3. More easily generated.
4. Can generate at any desired frequency.
5. Quieter than single phase.
113. How much current should flow through the neutral conductor in a three-phase system?
1. Same as line current.
2. Sum of all line currents.
3. Square root of three times single-phase line current.
4. Up to half of current supplied to the load.
5. Zero.
114. What voltage is provided by a three-phase system to a building?

1. Can be 11000 volts.
2. 240 volts same as single phase.
3. RMS value of three phase is 500 volts.
4. RMS value of 3 single phases combined is 240 volts.
5. RMS value of three identical single phases separated by 120o is 415 volts.
115. How should the services in a building take power from a three-phase supply?
1. Each phase serves a different part of the building.
2. The mechanical services distribution board always takes all its power from the yellow
phase.
3. Single phase circuits take current from each phase.
4. Equal current taken from each phase.
5. 240-volt circuits for lighting and small power equipment each connect to all three
phases.
116. How do electric motors connect to the incoming power supply to a building?
1. Single-phase fan and pump motors of up to 1 kW connect to one phase line.
2. Single-phase motors must be connected to all three phase lines to equalize phase
current.
3. 415 volt motors take current from two phase lines.
4. In any combination of phases as needed.
5. Equal current flows through neutral and line conductors in all phase types.
117. How do electric motors connect to the incoming power supply to a building?
1. Each phase conductor connects to each stator coil of the motor.
2. Each motor coil has an earth continuity conductor.
3. 415-volt motors are larger than 1 kW power requirement and take equal current from
each of the three phases.
4. 415-volt motors are only used when a motor capacity of over 25 kW is required.
5. Three-phase motors each have a capacitor starter switch.
118. What is the neutral conductor doing in both single- and three-phase power systems?
1. Ensures safety of the system.
2. Only carries current if a fault condition exists.
3. Passes fault current to earth.
4. Has fuses or micro circuit breakers protecting the building and users.
5. Completes the current circuit back to the alternator.
119. Photovoltaic cells are used for what?

1. Controlling artificial lighting systems.
2. Intruder detection.
3. Generating electricity.
4. Heating water from the sun.
5. Balancing phase currents in a three-phase system.
Lightning conductor design

120. Design a lightning conductor system for a 60 m-high building on clay shale using 4.5 m
earth rods. The down conductor is to be a copper rod 10 mm in diameter.
Three earth rods give a total system resistance of 8.937 ohm.
121. Sketch and describe a lightning conductor installation for a city centre office block.
122. Which are correct about lightning conductors?

1. Not every building requires one.
2. Every building above house height must have a lightning conductor.
3. Copper or aluminium rod from air terminal above highest point of building.
4. Ground terminal earth rods or plates.

5. Maximum resistance from air to ground terminations is 1 M.
Power factor
123. State the function of the power factor correction in alternating current circuits.
124. Calculate the apparent power, in kilovolt-amperes, of an electric motor which is

connected to a 415 V AC three-phase supply and has a current flow of 17.5 A.
12.6 kVA.
125. Why is the power factor in electrical systems an issue for concern?
1. It is not of any concern.
2. Low power factor means electrical energy is used inefficiently.
3. High power factor means electrical energy is wasted.
4. 100% power factor is not usually attainable at a justifiable cost.
5. Low power factor means electrical supply system becomes oversized.
126. What is a low power factor?

1. Zero.
2. 0.95.
3. 0.85.
4. 1.0.
5. 0.8 and below.
127. What is the correct formula for a power factor?
1.
PF=
kVA
.
kVAh
2.
PF=
kVAh
.
kWh
3.
PF=
kW
.
kVA
4.
Power Factor=
5.
kW =
input energy
.
kilovolt amperes
PF
.
kVA
128. How is the electrical power factor raised?

1. Cannot be improved after equipment installation.
2. Replace with more efficient specification motor.
3. Install digitally controlled AC/DC rectifiers at mechanical switchboard.
4. Install capacitor banks in parallel with each plant item.
5. Renegotiate electrical supply contract.
129. Which is the correct formula for power factor?

1.
PF=
kWh
kVAh
2.
PF=
kVAh
kWh
3.
PF=
kW
kVA
4.
PF=
real energy
apparent kilo volt amperes
5.
kW =
kVAh
PFh
130. What causes the power factor in an electrical system?

1. Insufficient capacitance.
2. Uninterruptible power supply system.
3. Inductance.
4. Parallel resistances.
5. Temperature coefficient of resistance.
131. What causes power factor in an electrical system?

1. Variable frequency speed drives.
2. UPS storage batteries.
3. Resistance heating coils for air and water.
4. Electronic soft start controllers on motors.
5. Electric motors.
132. Where are power factor capacitor banks not installed to improve the electrical power
factor?
1. Power supply main switchboard for the whole site.
2. Mechanical services switchboard.
3. Alongside air conditioning fan or pump control switch.
4. Main switchboard for a building.
5. Close to BMS computer server.
133. Where are power factor capacities installed?

1. In series with power supply to a three-phase pump motor.
2. On a neutral conductor.
3. Only on power suppliers incoming service cable to the site and before the billing meter.
4. In parallel with the switchboard power supply to the plant item to be improved.
5. Always in mechanical services plant room.
Three-phase system
134. Which is true about three-phase motors?

1. Run hot.
2. Need built-in cooling fan.
3. Generate more noise than an equivalent single-phase motor.
4. Quieter than single-phase motors.
5. Provides more power output for same line current as a single-phase motor.
135. Why are three-phase electric motors preferable?

1. Lower purchase cost.
2. Smaller than same power single-phase motor.
3. Provide better motor cooling due to separated phase coils.
4. Lower running cost.
5. Balances phase currents.

1. Consumes same power as an equivalent single-phase motor.
2. Takes equal current from each phase.
3. Cannot be rewound if overheating causes damage.
4. Bulky.
5. Energy inefficient.

1. Cooler operation.
2. No need for built-in cooling fan.
3. Generate less noise than an equivalent single-phase motor.
4. Quieter than direct current motors.
5. Provides more power output for same line current as a single phase motor.
138. How much current flows back to the power station alternator along the neutral
conductor from a balanced load in a building?
1. None.
2. Same as supplied from one phase.
3. Sum of all three-phase currents.
4.
3 current one phase .
5. Any fault current.
Variable frequency drive

139. What is the meaning of inverter drive?
1. An electric motor installed in an inverted position.
3. Three-phase motor running in single phase.
4. Digitally driven motor.
5. Motor driven at variable alternating current frequencies.
140. How is inverter drive created?

1. Alternating current single speed motor drives a direct current generator which drives a
variable speed motor.
2. 50 Hz incoming AC digitally chopped and sent out to the motor at frequencies ranging
from zero to 50 Hz.
3. Three-phase, 50 Hz, alternating current, single-speed motor drives a direct current
generator which drives a single-phase, variable speed motor.
4. Variable voltage controller regulates motor rotational speed from a digital controller.
5. Variable current controller regulates motor rotational speed from a digital controller.
141. What is one reason for using a variable speed motor?

1. Closely matches supplied service to demand condition.
2. Improves motor power factor by 100%.
3. Runs motor at cooler temperature.
4. Runs motor more quietly at lower speed.
5. Makes digital control easier.
142. What is the reason for using a variable frequency motor?

1. Makes it easier to slow down a motor from full speed to stop.
2. Makes it easier to accelerate a motor to full speed.
3. Saves energy.
4. Uses less direct online starters which produce supply cable surges.
5. Fashion.
143. Where are variable frequency motor speed controllers not suitable for use?
1. Lifts.
2. Air conditioning fans.
3. Heating system pumps.
4. Chilled water and condenser water system pumps..
5. Chemical dosing pumps.
1. Escalators.
2. Exhaust fans.
3. Cold-water main pressure boosting pumps.
4. Cooling tower pumps and fans.
5. Sump pumps.
1. Scroll refrigeration compressors.
2. Centrifugal refrigeration compressors.
3. Screw compressors.
4. Reciprocating refrigeration compressors.
5. Stairwell air pressurization fans during fire-fighting.
146. Which problem is not caused by variable frequency drives to motors?

1. Harmonic frequencies passed into electrical distribution.
2. Reduced power factor.
3. Motor coil windings increased in temperature.
4. Reduced motor output power at peak load.
5. High frequency noise creation.
10
Lighting
Colour rendering
1. What has lamp temperature got to do with lighting?
1. Nothing significant.
2. Colour rending is affected.
3. Keeping lamps cool prolongs service period.
4. Hotter lamps provide more useful heat gain to the building.
5. High temperatures make servicing difficult.
2. Explain how the rendering of colours by illumination systems is measured.
3. Compare the energy efficiency and colour-rendering of different lamp types, stating
suitable applications for each.
4. What is meant by lamp colour temperature?

1. Description of colour-rendering property.
2. Colour shift in surface caused by the type of lamp.
3. Colour of the lamp when viewed directly.
4. Infra-red fraction of the sun produced by the lamp.
5. Calculated average temperature from each of eight wavelength bands in the light
produced by a lamp.
5. What is meant by colour temperature in lighting?

1. Gives the lamp a specific colour.
2. Creates the colour of the light emitted by a lamp.

3. That fraction of the suns temperature produced by a lamp.
4. Lamp produces a receiving surface colour equivalent to that from a black body heated
to that temperature.
5. Lamp produces a receiving surface colour the same as a heated wire at a known
temperature.
6. Which is not correct about lighting colour temperature?

1. Incandescent lamp 2900 K.
2. Blue sky 10000 K.
3. Fluorescent lamp 10500 K.
4. Candle 2000 K.
5. Fluorescent lamp 4000 K.
7. Which is correct for colour rendering index of lighting?

1. Lamp colour relative to a matt white surface in daylight.
2. Percentage of lamp output occurring within ultraviolet spectrum.
3. Lamp output compared to a 5000 K daylight lamp on eight test colours and given a
percentage.
4. Perceived colour shift on eight test colours compared to reconstituted daylight.
5. Percentage of reflected light from eight coloured surfaces.
Cost analysis
8. Analyse the costs of these competitive lighting systems and recommend which is
preferable, stating your reasons. A heavy engineering factory is to be illuminated for 15 h per
day, for 5 days per week for 50 weeks per year. The floor size is 120 m long and 80 m wide.
An overall illumination of 250 lx is to be maintained over the whole floor. The overall light
loss factor for the installation is 63%. The designers have the choice of using 150 W tungstenhalogen lamps, which produce 2100 lm and need replacing every 2000 h, 80 W tubular
fluorescent lamps, which produce 6700 lm and are expected to provide 12000 h of service,
and 250 W high-pressure sodium lamps, which produce 27500 lm and are expected to last for
24000 hours. The lighting layout needs an even number of lamps. Electricity costs 7.2 p/kWh.
The tungsten lamps cost 90p each, the fluorescent tubes cost 10.50 each and the sodium
lamps cost 61 each. Replacing any lamp takes two people 2 min. and their combined labour
rate is 17 per hour. The hire cost of scaffolding is 120 per 8 hour day.
Lighting 3750 h/yr, 3.81 106 lm, tungsten, 1814 lamps, replace 3401 per year, total annual
cost 80,255 per year, fluorescent 569 lamps, replace 178 per year, total annual cost 14,403
per year, sodium 139 lamps, replace 22 per year, total annual cost 10,917 per year.
9. A lecture theatre is to be illuminated for 8 h per day, for 5 days per week for 30 weeks per
year. The floor is 32 m long and 16 m wide. An overall illumination of 350 lx is to be
maintained over the whole floor. An even number of lamps is to be used. Utilization factor for
the installation is 0.73 and the maintenance factor is 0.7. Designers have the choice of using
100 W tungsten filament lamps, which have luminous efficacy of 10 lm/W and need replacing
every 2000 h, 100 W quartz halogen low-voltage lamps in reflectors, which have an efficacy
of 95 lm/W and provide 23000 hours use, and 65 W tubular fluorescent lamps, which have an
efficacy of 57 lm/W and are expected to provide 7500 h of service. Electricity costs 8 p/kWh.
The tungsten lamps cost 85p each, the halogen cost 29p each and the fluorescent tubes cost
11.25 each. Compare the total costs of each lighting system and make a recommendation as
to which is preferable, stating your reasons.
Lighting 1200 h/yr, 350685 lm, tungsten 352 lamps, replace 211 per year, total annual cost
3559 per year, fluorescent 95 lamps, replace 16 per year, total annual cost 772 per year,
halogen 37 lamps, replace 2 per year, total annual cost 423 per year.
10.
Explain, with the aid of sketches, how interiors can be illuminated by daylight. State
how natural illumination is quantified.
11.
State the relationship between the visual task and the illuminance required, giving
examples.
12.
Sketch and describe how supplementary artificial lighting is used to achieve the desired
illuminance.
13.
Discuss the use of localized task-illumination systems in relation to the illumination
level provided, reflection, energy conservation, shadows and user satisfaction.
14.
Define the terms used in lighting system design.
15.
Draw a graph of illumination provided versus service period for an artificial
illumination installation to show the effect of correct maintenance procedure.
16.
Discuss how the use of air-handling luminaires improves the performance of the
lighting installation and makes better use of energy.
17.
What is illumination intensity?
1. Luminosity.
2. Light level.
3. Lumens.
4. Lux.
5. Lumen per watt.
18.
Illumination intensity provided is related to what?
1. Contrast between detail and background on the working plane.

2. Cleanliness of luminaires.
3. Task lighting needed.
4. Lighting colour temperature.
5. Provision of shadow-free lighting.
19.
Which illuminance levels are correct?
1. Small electronic component inspection 3000 lux.

2. Corridor 250 lumen/m2.
3. Bright sunlight 100000 lux.
4. Rough tasks 500 lumen/m2.
5. Hospital operating theatre table 10000 lux.
20.
What is lighting design?
1. A primarily scientific application.

2. Engineering design.
3. A unique combination of technology and visual effects.
4. Entirely a mathematical application.

5. Best achieved by an iterative design technique.
21.
What is a luminaire?
1. A part of the lamp control system.

2. The complete light fitting.
3. A unit of light output flux.
4. A unit of reflected light.
5. Those parts of the lighting fitting other than the lamp.
22.
What is light system glare?
1. Whether discomfort is created in a particular viewing direction.

2. Impairment of vision due to excessive brightness.
3. Sedentary position includes direct view of sunshine.
4. Florescent indoor lighting systems do not cause glare.
5. All lighting causes glare when viewed directly.
23.
What is an air-handling luminaire?
1. A sealed light fitting inside an air handling unit to allow servicing work.
2. A light fitting open to the room air allowing cooling
3. Luminaire passing air returning to the ductwork system from the conditioned room.
4. Lamp designed for low temperature operation.
5. Sealed luminaire to keep out moisture.
24.
Write a technical report to explain how the reflectance of room surfaces, the location,
dimensions and shape of glazing, the spacing of rows of luminaires and their height
above the working plane are related to the efficient use of electrical energy in the overall
lighting design.
25.
Which is correct about lighting?
1. Light and heat energy are mutually convertible.

2. Light radiation is the same as heat radiation.
3. In the absence of humans or animals, there would be no light.
4. Light energy only exists within a visible spectrum.
5. Low power laser beams are for heat energy.
26.
Which is correct about units for lighting?
1. W/m2.
2. Light intensity is 5.67 x 10-8 W/m2 K4.
3. Lumens.
4. Flux in Webber/m2.
5. Light intensity increases with distance from source.
27.
Which is correct about lighting?
1. Light intensity varies inversely with the square of the distance from the source.
2. Light intensity varies inversely with the distance from the source.
3. Light intensity reduces with the distance from the source.
4. Light intensity varies inversely with the square root of the distance from the source.
5. Light intensity varies inversely with the distance cubed from the source.
28.
What is a valid technical reason for burning primary energy resources to provide
artificial lighting?
1. Overcomes effect of dull sky.

2. Makes outside of building appear more impressive.
3. Human task illumination.
4. Good colour rendering of exteriors.
5. Increases lighting available during daytime.
29.
What has been the most significant benefit to humans since ancient Rome?
1. Air conditioning in hot climates.

2. Refrigeration.
3. Central heating and cooling providing comfort.
4. Computers, mobile telephones and television.
5. Indoor electric lighting.
30.
What is supplementary daylight?
1. Manually operated blinds or curtains.

2. Mechanically operated shading devices.
3. Perimeter fluorescent lighting.
4. Artificial lighting temporarily or permanently used to stabilize variations in day
lighting.
5. Artificial lighting having the same colour rendering temperature as daylight.
31.
What is a light meter?
1. Easily portable data logger.

2. 1 lumen/m2 projected for one metre.
3. Current-generating photocell calibrated in lux.
4. Current-generating photocell that activates an alarm in a BMS security control room.
5. Photocell that receives a laser beam from an emitter as part of a security, smoke or heat
detection system.
32.
Light falling onto the surface in a room:
1. Is all absorbed.
2. Is all reflected.
3. Bounces off at same angle as it arrives.
4. Some is absorbed and some is reflected.
5. Displays the colour of the surface material.
33.
Which are correct about PSALI illumination?
1. Daylight level remains consistent across the room.

2. Daylight level decreases with distance from perimeter.
3. Permanent luminaires provide uniform illuminance.
4. Shadows are eliminated.
5. Overall illuminance is the sum of daylight penetration and artificial.
34.
How is it possible to increase the use of day lighting?
1. Cannot be increased when architecture has been designed.

2. Should not be used excessively due to heat gains and losses.
3. Regular window cleaning.
4. Roof lights facing away from sun orientation.

5. Mirrored reflectors or motorized louvers.
35.
Which are features of task illumination?
1. Reduces lighting power demand.

2. Individual switching creates unequal light distribution.
3. Encourages use of inefficient lamps.
4. Overall background luminaires required.
5. Decreased maintenance.
36.
Which are features of task illumination?
1. Increases lighting power demand.

2. Creates wide range in illumination value across working plane.
3. Glare.
4. Heat source close to user.
5. Eliminates shadows.
37.
What is lighting design?
1. A primarily scientific application.

2. Engineering design.
3. A unique combination of technology and visual effects.
4. Entirely a mathematical application.
5. Best achieved by an iterative design technique.
38.
Lighting is?
1. Artistic.
2. Technical application of energy use and functionality.
3. Unrelated to architecture.
4. Essential and controllable use of energy.
5. Unrelated to sick building syndrome.
39.
How are lighting designs modelled?
1. They cannot be, only tested at full scale.

2. Computer simulation.
3. Only artificial lighting can be modelled in a laboratory.
4. Cut-outs in a cardboard box to simulate windows and ceiling diffusers.
5. Scale model room with low voltage luminaires.
40.
What is a valid technical reason for burning primary energy resources to provide
artificial lighting?
1. Illuminate architectural decorative features.
2. Human safety.
3. Good colour rendering of interiors.
4. Increase lighting available during daylight.
5. Things look better.
41.
Which is the principal essential service in the developed world?
1. Computers.
2. Electric lighting.
3. Telecommunications.
4. Mechanical lifts and escalators.

5. Heating and air conditioning.
42.
Which energy-using service cannot be avoided in modern buildings?
1. Lifts and escalators.

2. Air conditioning.
3. Basement car park mechanical ventilation.
4. Computer-based building management systems for air conditioning and security.
5. Lighting.
43.
Which feature of natural illumination is correct?
1. Preference for natural daylight.

2. Daylight is free of cost.
3. Windows should be same length as external wall.
4. Windows should be same height as room.
5. Every window should have external solar shading.
44.
Which feature of natural illumination is correct?
1. Sedentary workers prefer natural illumination.

2. Tall, narrow glazing allows daylight penetration while limiting solar heat gain.
3. Large windows provide daylight but heating and cooling energy consumption may not
be justifiable in all cases.
4. Sedentary workers prefer to have no natural illumination.
5. Translucent sheets in industrial roofing are never a good design.
45.
What is colour rendering?
1. Selection of correct room surface colours.

2. Colour mixing.
3. Light colour mixing.
4. Colour rendered by a surface under daylight.
5. Colour rendered by a surface under artificial lighting matches that of daylight.
46.
What does PSALI stand for?
1. Premium service actual lighting of interiors.

2. Personal safety artificial lighting.
3. Permanent state all lighting of interiors.
4. Permanent supplementary artificial lighting of interiors.
5. Permanent safety lighting.
47.
What was BZ?
1. Greenwich meridian time.

2. Eastern standard time.
3. Building zone lighting classification.
4. British zonal classification describing light flux projections.
5. British zone lighting design standard.
48.
Which of these correctly describe BZ classification?
1. BZ 0 means equal spherical illuminance.

2. BZ 10 means light projection all downwards.
3. BZ 5 projects only sideways and is used for wall-mounted luminaires.
4. BZ 10 has a luminaire directing all light output upwards providing only reflection off
the ceiling.
5. BZ defines the solid angle projection from a lamp in streradians.
49.
What does lighting contrast mean?
1. Difference between light and dark appearance of a simultaneously viewed plane.

2. Excessive glare on the working plane.
3. Correct glare on the working plane.
4. The view of luminaires on a ceiling that creates visual discomfort.
5. Difference between alternative lighting schemes for the same plane.
50.
What does daylight factor mean?
1. Lumen/m2 on a desk near a window during daytime.

2. An opinion about how much daylight reaches the working plane and walking areas.
3. Window area divided by floor area expressed as a percentage.
4. Ratio of daylight received on the working plane within a building divided by 5000 lux,
expressed as a percentage.
5. Measured daylight illuminance on a working plane divided by peak cloudy sky outdoor
illuminance at ground level of 100,000 lumen/m2.
51.
What is a light meter?
1. Easily portable data logger.

2. 1 lumen/m2 projected for one metre.
3. Current-generating photocell calibrated in lux.
4. Current-generating photocell that activates an alarm in a BMS security control room.
5. Photocell that receives a laser beam from an emitter as part of a security, smoke or heat
detection.
52.
What does light loss factor (LLF) mean?
1. Percentage reduction in daylight on working plane due to distance and angles from
windows.
2. Reduction in lumen output from a luminaire due to opacity of its diffuser.
3. Proportion of available total light output lumens received on working plane.
4. Overall loss of light from dirtiness of the lamp, luminaire and room surfaces.
5. Inverse of maintenance factor.
53.
What does light loss factor, LLF mean?
1. Amount of light lost from the interior of the building through door and window
openings.
2. Amount of light energy absorbed by room surfaces as a percentage of as-manufactured
lamp lumens.
3. Inverse of overall efficiency of a lighting system in delivering useful light.
4. Light lost within a lamp and luminaire due to multiple reflections within basic design.
5. Overall loss of light due to dirt agglomeration.
Illuminance
54.
What is illumination intensity?
1. Illuminance.
2. Light level.
3. Lumens.
4. Lumen/m2.
5. Lumen per watt.
55.
Illumination intensity specified for the design is related to what?
1. Availability of daylight.
2. Lumen output from artificial lighting system.
3. Luminance factors of room surfaces.
4. Size of detail to be discerned on the working plane.
5. Colour rendering required.
56.
What is illumination intensity provided related to?
1. Contrast between detail and background on the working plane.

2. Cleanliness of luminaires.
3. Task lighting needed.
4. Lighting colour temperature.
5. Provision of shadow-free lighting.
57.
1. General office 1000 lux.

3. Dwelling 50 to 150 lux.
4. Street lighting 5 lumen/m2.
5. Drawing office 2000 lux.
58.
1. Small electronic component inspection 3000 lux.

3. Bright sunlight 100,000 lux.
4. Rough tasks 500 lumen/m2.
5. Hospital operating theatre table 10,000 lux.
59.
What is illuminance?
1. Light output lumens.

2. Luminous flux density.
3. Light received in lumens divided by light lumens emitted.
4. Total light output from all lamps in an enclosure or room.
5. Opposite of darkness.
60.
1. Proportion of available light flux received on working plane.

2. Lux received on working plane.
3. Colour brightness index.
4. Luminous flux intensity reflected from a surface.
5. Brightness of perceived detail relative to background.
61.
What is illumination?
1. Award made to a university luminary.

2. Switching on an electrical lighting system.
3. The act of lighting.
4. Understanding.
5. Light emitted.
Interior design
62.
State how the lighting design can be made to feature particular parts of the interior of
the building and the parts that should be featured for safety and appearance reasons.
63.
When 900 lumen falls onto a 2.0 m2 surface from a fluorescent lamp, and a light meter
finds that 360 lumen are reflected, the luminance of the surface is:
1. 0.71.
2. 0.4
reflected ratio = (360/900) = 0.4.
3. 0.2.
4. Insufficient information.
5. 1.25.
Lamp types
64.
Which is not true about fluorescent lamps?
1. Low cost and reliable.

2. Poor colour rendering compared to daylight.
3. Visible flicker may be observed from 50 Hz single phase.
4. Energy efficiency around 85 lumen per Watt.
5. Colour temperature 4000 K and RA8 of 85.
65.
Where are sodium discharge lamps used?
1. Low pressure SOX sports facilities.

2. Not used for street lighting.
3. High pressure SON produces industrial indoor white lighting.
4. Where good colour rendering preferred.

5. Regular replacement installations.
66.
How does a fluorescent lamp work?
1. Fluorescing powder-filled tube is electrically heated.

2. Fluorescent lining of tube becomes heated.
3. Vapour within tube fluoresces.
4. Vapour within tube is electrically charged.
5. Tube interior coating fluoresces when irradiated
67.
What is the efficacy of a lamp?
1. Efficiency at converting colour temperature into illuminance on the working plane.

2. Percentage of lamp globe or tube surface area that emits light.
3. Proportion of lamp light output directed toward the working plane.
4. Lumens light output per watt of electrical input power to lamp.
5. Luminous efficacy is total illuminance produced divided by lamp electrical input power
including all control equipment consumption.
68.
Why are tungsten filament lamps commonly used?
1. Lowest purchase cost.

2. Very bright.
3. Give no glare.
4. Warm the house.
5. Very energy efficient.
69.
1. Among the least energy-efficient types of light source.

2. Provide warm colour.
3. Good colour rendering on illuminated surfaces.
4. Cheaply replaceable in homes.
5. Maintain light quality for many years.
70.
1. Easily replaced by cleaning staff in commercial buildings.

2. Are monochromatic.
3. Heat output is useful.
4. Small enough to hide inside decorative fittings.
5. Low cost.
71.
1.
Lighting system glare index means?

Number of luminaires in one view from a sedentary position, divided by the total
number installed in the room, expressed as a percentage.
2. A calculated number scale for discomfort glare.

3. Too many lamps directed at sedentary users.
4. Luminaire reflector is too bright for comfort.
5. Calculation of candelas viewed from a workstation.
72.
What is the utilization factor?
1. Efficiency of lighting system.

2. Percentage of light not usefully employed from a system.
3. Ratio of luminous flux received at the working plane to the installed flux.
4. Proportion of illumination installed that falls onto walls and floors.
5. Energy efficiency of a luminaire.
73.
What does the light output from a system do over a period of years?
1. Remains constant until lamp fails.

2. Increases during initial 2000 hours fluorescent lamp use, then deteriorates.
3. Tungsten filament lamps maintain initial brightness when kept clean as filament
temperature does not change with age.
4. Reduces continually due to lamp ageing and dirt accumulation.
5. Fluorescent lamp light depends on chemical reaction on tube lining so does not
deteriorate, only lamp dirtiness reduces luminous intensity.
74.
Which is correct about tungsten filament lamps?
1. Good colour matching with daylight.

2. 10,000-hour service period.
3. Cannot have variable resistance dimmer control.
4. Highest energy efficiency.
5. Highest efficacy.
75.
Which is correct about LED lamps?
1. Low efficacy.
2. Generate lots of heat.
3. They are light-emitting diodes.
4. Do not produce white light.
5. Very expensive technology.
76.
Which is not correct about LED lamps?
1. Frequently used in battery-powered portable lighting.

2. High energy efficiency.
3. Very low power input.
4. Reliable and long-lasting.
5. High cost.
77.
Which is not correct about LED lamps?
1. Can be switched rapidly.

2. Small size.
3. Can be used in compact arrays.
4. Produce white light.
5. Cannot be connected to alternating current power supply.
78.
Which is not true about fluorescent lamps?
1. Low cost and reliable.

2. Poor colour rendering compared to daylight.
3. Visible flicker may be observed from 56 Hz single phase.
4. Energy efficiency around 85 lumen per Watt.
5. Colour temperature 4000 K and RA8 of 85.
79.
1. Low pressure SOX interior warehouses.
2. Low pressure SOX street lighting.

3. Low pressure SON street lighting.
4. Where good colour rendering is essential.
5. Where frequent replacement is allowed.
80.
1. Low pressure SOX sports facilities.

2. Not used for street lighting.
3. High pressure SON produces industrial indoor white lighting.
4. Where good colour rendering is preferred.
5. Regular replacement installations.
81.
Which is correct about fluorescent lamps?
1. Tube interior is an empty vacuum.

2. Tube contains mercury, argon or krypton vapour.
3. Tube contains nitrogen gas at atmospheric pressure.
4. Tube internally coated with neon particles.
5. Tube internally coated with fluorine.
82.
Which is correct about fluorescent lamps?
1. Tube internally coated with phosphor.

2. Gas within tube radiates white light.
3. Tube internal surface painted with colour.
4. Tungsten filament in tube sparks fluorescence in tube lining.
5. Mixture of gas and air in tube fluoresces when charged.
83.
Which is correct about mercury discharge lamps?
1. Banned due to use of mercury metal.

2. Mercury vapour electrically excited within small quartz tube.
3. High bay office and conference room lighting.
4. Lamps create noise and troublesome flicker.
5. Low power consumption.
84.
Which is correct about mercury discharge lamps?
1. Quartz tube radiates to phosphor internal lining of lamp causing fluorescence.

2. High cost lamp due to use of rare metal.
3. Low light efficiency.
4. Preferred replacement for tungsten filament lamps.
5. Noisy operation.
Lighting design calculation

85.
What does utilization factor mean?
1. Proportion of total light output that is usefully employed.

2. Overall application factor of a lighting installation.
3. Efficiency of a luminaire.
4. Reduction of lamp light output caused by the light fitting.
5. Overall factor from room shape and surface colours for any luminaire.
86.
Calculate the room index for an office 20 m 12 m in plan, 3 m high, where the
working plane is 0.85 m above floor level.
87.
State the luminance factors for a room having a cream ceiling and dark grey walls.
88.
Find the utilization factor for a bare fluorescent tube light fitting having two 58 W, 1500
mm lamps in a room 5 m 3.5 m in plan and 2.5 m high. The working plane is 0.85 m
above floor level. Walls and ceiling are light stone and white respectively.
59%.
89.
Sketch satisfactory arrangements for natural and artificial illumination in modern
general and drawing offices, a library and a lounge. Comment particularly on how glare
and reflections are controlled.
90.
A supermarket of dimensions 20 m 15 m and 4 m high has a white ceiling and mainly
dark walls. The working plane is 1 m above floor level. Bare fluorescent tube light fittings
with two 58 W, 1500 mm lamps are to be used, of 5100 lighting design lumens, to provide
400 lx. Their normal spacing-to-height ratio is 1.75 and total power consumption is 140 W.
Calculate the number of luminaires needed, the electrical loading per square metre of floor
area and the circuit current. Draw the layout of the luminaires.
Room index 3, UF 0.73, MF 0.9, 36 luminaires in three rows of 12 along the 20 m
dimension, 16.8 W/m2, 21 A.
91.
What is the room index for a lighting system design?
1. Ratio of room width times length divided by height.

2. Dimensionless ratio of lamp spacing.
3. Ratio of luminaire height above working plane to room height.
4.
l W
.
H ( l +W )
5.
W
.
H ( l W )
Lumen, lux, luminaire

92.
What does luminaire mean?
1. Installed lamp.
2. Lighting flux received at the working plane.
3. Famous person.
4. Unit of glare from a lighting system.
5. Complete apparatus of lamp, diffuser, reflector and electrical controls.
93.
What does luminaire mean?
1. A part of the lamp control system.

2. The complete light fitting.
3. A unit of light output flux.
4. A unit of reflected light.
5. Those parts of the lighting fitting other than the lamp.
94.
Which is the recommended design illumination for office work?
1. 40 lux.
2. 400 lux.
3. 800 lumen/m2.
4. 2600 lux.
5. 200 lumen/m2.
95.
What is the total light output from a light source?
1. Luminaire performance.
2. BZ classification.
3. Luminous intensity.
4. Illuminance.
5. Luminous flux.
96.
Which of these is the illuminance on a 2 m x 2 m desk from a 500 lumen lamp when all
of its light falls onto the desk?

1. 125 lux.
2. 500 lux.
3. 2000 lumen/m2.
4. 250 candela.
5. 500 lumen.
97.
1. Proportion of available light flux received on working plane.

2. Lux received on working plane.
3. Colour brightness index.
4. Luminous flux intensity reflected from a surface.
5. Brightness of perceived detail relative to background.
98.
What is a lumen?
1. Unit of lighting not presently in use.
2. 1000 candela/m2
3. SI unit of light output or received.
4. A directional measurement of light.
5. Lighting power of a source.
99.
What are lux?
1. Total light output from a source.

2. A measurement of glare.
3. 31.4 candela.
4. 1 lumen/m2.
5. A measurement of reflected light.
100. What is an air-handling luminaire?

1. A sealed light fitting inside an air handling unit to allow servicing work.
2. A light fitting open to the room air allowing cooling
3. Luminaire passing air returning to the ductwork system from the conditioned room.
4. Lamp designed for low temperature operation.
5. Sealed luminaire to keep out moisture.
101. Why use an air-handling luminaire?

1. Stops 50 Hz lamp flicker from being viewed.
2. Minimizes lamp temperature to maximize service period.
3. Recycles lamp heat output into plant and away from room.
4. Saves using return air grilles in ceilings.
5. Improves lamp cleanliness.
102. What is a lumen?

1. Unit of lighting glare.
2. Unit of lighting relative to daylight.
3. Unit comparing the intensity of light received from a lamp to that from the sun in a clear
sky.
4. Quantity of light emitted from a source.
5. Uniform light flux emitted from a fluorescent lamp.

1. Quantity of light received by a surface.
2. Glare-free luminous flux.
3. Glare-free luminous flux from an indirect lighting system.
4. Luminous glare.
5. Measurement of glare.

1. Unit of lighting not presently in use.
2. 1000 candela/m2
3. SI unit of light output or received.
4. A directional measurement of light.
5. Lighting power of a source.
105. What are lux?

1. Total light output from a source.
2. A measurement of glare.
3. candela.
4. 1 lumen/m2.
5. A measurement of reflected light.
106. What are lux?

1. Indoor light level from a uniform source.
2. A measurement of light level variation across the working plane.
3. Outdoor daylight level measured at same height above ground as the working plane.
4. A disused unit of glare.
5. SI unit of illuminance.
107. What is the meaning of luminous intensity?

1. Brightness of a light source.
2. A measure of glare from a luminaire or lamp.
3. Lighting power emitted in a direction.
4. Total installed lighting power.
5. Energy in a direction measured in candela units.
108. What does candela mean?

1. Candle power of a lamp.
2. Luminous intensity in a direction.
3. Disused unit.
4. Total lighting power installed.
5. Ratio of usefully received lighting power to the total lighting power installed.
Physical models
109. Use the cardboard box small-scale models of rooms to investigate the visual design of
lighting systems.
1. Cut different shapes and locations of windows and roof lights such that they all have the
same open area.
2. Colour the internal surfaces differently by means of dark, light, removable and
reflective sheets of materials.
3. Cut slots and holes into the ceiling to model different designs of strip fluorescent and
filament lighting layouts; replaceable ceilings with different designs are helpful.
4. View the interior of the room under various day lighting and artificial lighting arrangements.
5.
Make three-dimensional sketches of what you see of the lighting layouts produced,
showing the shading. Write the lighting level found on each area on a scale of 1 (dark)
to 10 (bright).
110. Using the models created for Question 109, answer the following.
1. What is the effect of quantity of daylight on the quality of the day lighting system
created?
2. What effect do the colours of the room interior surfaces have on the quality of the
lighting produced?
3. What colours should the room surfaces be?
Justify your views in relation to the use of the room, its maintenance costs and design of
the decoration.
111. Using the models created for Question 109, answer the following.
1. What patterns of illumination are produced on the end walls by differently spaced rows
of strip lighting?
2. What are the best spacing arrangements between rows of strip or circular lamps? These
depend upon what is being illuminated, so state the objectives of the lighting design
first.
112. Create an approximate scale model of the interior of a room that is known to you.
Experiment with three combinations of day lighting and artificial lighting to find the
best overall lighting scheme for the tasks to be performed in the room.
113. Put small boxes and partitions into a scale model of a room to represent furniture, desks,
horizontal and vertical working planes. Carry out an experimental investigation of the
problems that arise for the lighting designer.
Lighting controls
114. Explain how combinations of natural and artificial lighting with automatic sensing and
computer-based control systems can help to meet the HM Governments Carbon Plan
2011. In your opinion, are modern lighting systems that are already installed and are
being installed today ever going to contribute to carbon emission reduction? How? Give
examples of good and average practices known to you.
115. What is a feature of an energy-efficient lighting control system?

1. BMS reports maintained of all lighting system usage.
2. All rows of luminaires remain switched on during working day as frequent starting uses
more energy.
3. Lamp deterioration increases with frequent switching so should remain on continuously.
4. Occupancy sensors are programmed to keep lights on for half an hour after occupants
leave.
5. Timed switch-off controller minimizes lighting use after occupation ceases.
116. Which are correct descriptions of lighting system sensor operation?

1. Sensor detects light level in room and switches on rows of luminaires to maintain set
lux level.
2. All sensor types are used by the building management computer system (BMS) to
switch rows of luminaires on and off.
3. Groups of luminaires switched on from a sensor detecting occupancy within a
controlled space.
4. Microwave sensor detects use of electrical equipment within room and switches lights
on.
5. Microwave sensor detects any small movement within controlled space and switches
luminaires on and then off when no movement is detected for a set time interval.
117. How is a fluorescent lamp controlled?

1. 240-volt electrodes pass current through the tube and heat the phosphor lining,
producing light.
2. Tube has a glow starter switch, resistance ballast and a capacitor.
3. Tube electrodes run at 12 volts from a transformer.
4. Electrical excitation of tube vapour has to be at 50 Hz.
5. Digital controller rectifies lamp electrodes to run at 20 kHz.
118. Which sensors are used to control lighting systems?

1. Room air temperature thermistor.
2. Light dimmers.
3. Photocells.
4. Passive infra-red, acoustic and ultra-sonic detectors.
5. Microwave emitters.
119. Which is a correct description of a lighting system sensor operation?

1. Passive infra-red sensors cannot see in the dark.
2. Stationary working people cause infra-red, microwave and acoustic sensors to switch
lights off in occupied rooms.
3. Laser beams across rooms sense people.
4. Automatic sensors must not create risk to occupants by stranding them in the dark.
5. Automatic sensing systems cannot be trusted and are unreliable.
120. Which is a correct description of a lighting system sensor operation?

1. Frequent switching on and off of fluorescent lighting does not work.
2. People in office workstations cannot be seen by infra-red, microwave and acoustic
sensors.
3. Fluorescent lamps take too long to switch on for automatic sensing systems to work
efficiently and people have to walk into a dark room.
4. Correctly placed occupancy sensors ensure safe access at all times and fluorescent
lamps switch on very quickly.
5. Unoccupied rooms should not remain without lighting as they are an invitation to
burglars.
121. Which are correct descriptions of a lighting system sensor operation?
1. Sensor detects light level in room and switches on rows of luminaires to maintain set
lux level.
2. All sensor types are used by the building management computer system (BMS) to
switch rows of luminaires on and off.
3. Groups of luminaires switched on from a sensor detecting occupancy within controlled
space.
4. Microwave sensor detects use of electrical equipment within room and switches lights
on.
5. Microwave sensor detects any small movement within controlled space and switches
luminaires on and then off when no movement is detected for a set time interval.
1. All lamps switched together.
2. Occupancy-sensed background illumination for whole of controlled space, together with
local manually switched task lighting.
3. Manual switch or sensor illuminates minimum number of luminaires needed for task.
4. Photocell sensors used by BMS to optimize number of operational luminaires.
5. Every luminaire independently switched.

1. Photocell sensors keep artificial lighting switched off when adequate daylight available.
2. Photocell sensor control box minimizes number of operational luminaires.
3. Photocell sensors are unreliable.

4. Photocell sensors detect too many variables within room.
5. Frequent switching on and off of lighting negates energy-saving control strategy
intention.

1. BMS reports maintained of all lighting system usage.
2. All rows of luminaires remain switched on during working day as frequent starting uses
more energy.
3. Lamp deterioration increases with frequent switching on and off so should remain on
continuously.
4. Occupancy sensors are programmed to keep lights on for half an hour after occupants
leave.
5. Timed switch-off controller minimizes lighting use after occupation ceases.
11
Condensation in buildings
Air conditions
1. Describe the constituent parts of the atmospheric pressure.
2. What drives water vapour from one area to another?
3. Describe the way in which moisture is alternatively stored and released by porous building
materials.
4. What is the flow of vapour through a composite structure analogous to?
5. State the conditions under which water vapour will condense on or within a construction.
6. Using a psychrometric chart or a sketch of one, without calculation or use of tabulated

data, which air condition do you expect to have a higher vapour pressure than the air in
the room you are in now?
1. 20oC d.b., 50% percentage saturation.
3. -5oC d.b., 100% relative humidity.
5. 35oC d.b., 32oC w.b.
7. Using a psychrometric chart or a sketch of one, without calculation or use of tabulated

data, which air conditions do you expect to have a lower vapour pressure than the air
in an air-conditioned London office?
3. 15oC d.b., 100% relative humidity.
5. 36oC d.b., 31oC w.b.
8. Which of these is not true about mould and fungal spores within buildings?
1. Surface mould releases spores in air.
2. Spores land on damp wood, paper, carpet and food.
3. Spores thrive in the absence of moisture.
4. Cause of respiratory illness such as asthma.
5. Cause of skin allergic reactions.
Causes of condensation
9. Where are indoor condensation problems most likely found?
. 1. Hot dry ambient air locations.
2. Hot humid ambient air locations.
3. Temperate maritime climates, such as the UK, where outdoor air humidity remains high.
4. Below zero ambient air locations.
5. In any building anywhere.
10.
Why does condensation occur within a building?
1. Users leave taps running, baths full, water evaporates and deposits onto room surfaces,
making air moist.
2. Kettles, cooking, fish tanks and open bowls of water evaporate more water vapour into
room than ventilation can remove.
3. Porous building materials provide pathways for cold moisture to ingress a warm
building and make indoor surfaces damp.
4. Evaporated water within the building meets surfaces at below dew-point temperature.
5. Cyclic variation of indoor surface temperatures always produces below dew-point
locations.
11.
What always combats condensation problems within occupied buildings?
1. Thermal insulation.
2. Impervious building materials.
3. Removing open water surfaces.
4. Air conditioning.
5. Heating and ventilation.
12.
Where does water vapour originate within a building?
1. Atmospheric rain.
2. Wind-driven atmospheric humidity.
3. Occupants and their activities.
4. Lack of sufficient natural and mechanical ventilation.
5. Refrigeration systems and food storage.
13.
What is the relationship of building materials to moisture mass transfer?
1. There is none, building materials do not leak water.

2. Good design and construction remove all moisture issues.
3. Modern building materials have zero permeability.
4. Porous structural materials absorb and pass moisture.
5. Vapour barriers isolate brick, concrete and thermal insulation materials from moisture
generated within a building.
14.
What drives moisture flow through a structure?
1. Vapour pressure difference in Pascals.

2. Air temperature difference in oC d.b.
3. Percentage saturation difference.
4. Air moisture content difference in kg H2O/kg dry air.
5. Wet-bulb air temperature difference in oC w.b.
15.
Which is correct about condensation and mould growth?
1. Always occurs in buildings over 20 years old.

2. Cannot happen with current design standards.
3. Readily forms in the UK in room corners, on window sills, in cupboards on external
walls and within structures having an overall thermal transmittance of over 1.4 W/m2 K.
4. Must be removed, the surface gloss painted and outdoor air ventilation minimized.
5. Impervious external surface materials need to be matched with an outdoor vapour
barrier to stop moisture flowing into the wall, floor or roof structure.
16.
What links condensation problems with buildings?
1. Too many sources of water in the building.
2. Leaking services pipes and tanks.

3. Rain penetration.
4. Animal and fish bowls and tanks.
5. Temperature and ventilation (14 are also important).
17.
Why does condensation form in a building?
1. Cold surfaces collect moisture.

2. Too many people use the building.
3. Too much cold air ventilation.
4. Insufficient cold air ventilation.
5. Insufficient outdoor air ventilation, building air and surface temperatures (14 are
relevant).
18.
Provision of high levels of outdoor air ventilation and indoor air temperature to
eliminate condensation within a building, has implications for:

1. Whether the building is used for sedentary or active pursuits.
2. The age of the building and its construction materials, such as stone or metal cladding.
3. Whether the building is located in a geographical region where outdoor air is
consistently cold and damp.
4. Energy used for heating and ventilation (other answers are relevant).
5. Creation of a healthy indoor environment.
19.
What difference drives moisture flow?
1. Relative humidity.
2. Percentage saturation.
4. Wet-bulb air temperature.

5. Vapour pressure.
20.
What resists the flow of moisture through a building structure?
1. Thermal resistively as it does the flow of heat.

2. An impermeable vapour barrier such as glass, polymer sheet and aluminium foil.
3. A ventilated air cavity.
4. Hot dry outdoor air (yes, because it may have a vapour pressure higher than indoors).
5. Plaster internal surfaces.
21.
What is air, in terms of condensation risk?
1. Mixture of oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide.

2. Dry gas needed to ventilate humidity out of buildings.
3. Mixture of dry gases and water vapour.
4. What causes the problem.
5. Humans and animals breathe out humid air.
22.
What does atmospheric air pressure consists of?
1. Oxygen and nitrogen in Earths atmosphere.

2. Oxygen, nitrogen and clouds.
3. Mixture of dry gases and water vapour.
4. Gravitational pull upon air.
5. Velocity pressure of constant air movement around the globe.
23.
What is the movement of humidity through a building called?
1. Ventilation.
2. Natural or mechanical ventilation.
3. Condensation.
4. Evaporation.
5. Mass transfer.
24.
How does moisture flow through building materials?
1. Wind drives rain through brick and concrete walls.

2. Only occurs when they have permeability.
3. From high outdoor atmospheric vapour pressure to the lower indoor air vapour pressure.
4. Only occurs when indoor air and outdoor air vapour pressures are the same value in
kPa.
5. From the internal air to outdoor air vapour pressures.
25.
What is the meaning of interstitial condensation?
1. Condensation forming across state borders.

2. Condensation occurring intermittently.
3. Condensation found on cavity wall ties.
4. An intermediate state in the process of condensation between a high vapour pressure
area and a high moisture content material.
5. Condensation within a structure.
26.
What is vapour diffusion into a structure that then condenses called?
1. Adiabatic.
2. Complex.
3. Leakage.
4. Interstitial.
5. Intermediate.
27.
What is interstitial condensation?
1. Water lying on a building surface.

2. Water forming on a vertical surface.
3. Water forming within a structure.
4. Water vapour from within the building that forms liquid on the external surface of a
wall or roof.
5. Inward passage of outdoor precipitation forming liquid within walls, floors, ceilings or
window cavities.
28.
What is vapour diffusion?
1. Moisture in room air moving to a cold surface and depositing water.

2. Thermodynamic process called condensation.
3. Moisture from a wet porous building material releasing vapour into a warmer air
atmosphere.
4. What happens to air humidity on an air handling unit cooling coil.
5. Water vapour flow through a porous building material.
29.
What is vapour diffusion analogous to?
1. Reverse osmosis.
2. Radiant heat transfer.
3. Convection and conduction heat transfer through a structure.
4. There is no equivalence in terms of buildings.

5. Latent heat transfer within a cooling tower or evaporative cooler.
30.
What is happening in a building during vapour diffusion?
1. Odours and gases produced indoors slowly percolate through the building structure to
outdoors.
2. Steam from water boiling, cooking and hot-water washing are absorbed into furniture,
furnishings, carpets and surface plaster unless removed by ventilation.
3. Internally sourced water vapour migrates through porous building structures.
4. Low indoor vapour pressure drives moisture towards higher outdoor moist air vapour
pressure.
5. Liquid water passes through the building structure.
31.
What is happening in a building during vapour diffusion?
1. High indoor vapour pressure drives moisture towards lower outdoor air vapour pressure.
2. Dry gases pass through the building structure.
3. Indoor and outdoor vapour pressures move towards each other.
4. Moisture flows between areas of different vapour pressure trying to become equal.
5. Liquid moisture travels to place of highest vapour pressure.
32.
Which is true about vapour diffusion?
1. Condensation of moisture vapour occurs where vapour pressure is lowest.

2. Windows do nothing to slow vapour diffusion from a building.
3. Condensation occurs where moisture flow reaches a vapour barrier at or below its dewpoint temperature.
4. Windows are not a vapour barrier.

5. Condensation of moisture vapour occurs where vapour pressure is highest.
Condensation formulae
33.
What is the correct formula for calculating moisture mass flow rate through a
complete building structure?
1.
M=
p 1 p2
.
R
2.
Q=
pv 1 pv 2
A .
R
3.
V =R v
4.
G=
p2 p1
.
Rt
5.
G=
ps 1 p s1
.
Rv
34.
pt 1 p t 2
.
A
What is the correct formula for calculating the vapour resistance of a material?
1.
Rv =r v l .
2.
Rt =
r t l
.
A
3.
Rl =
A r l
.
Rv
4.
Rt =
r t l
.
A
5.
Rv =r v l A .
Dew-point gradient
35.
Calculate the thermal transmittance, temperature and dew-point gradients through a flat
roof consisting of 25 mm stone chippings, 10 mm roofing felt, 150 mm aerated concrete,

75 mm wood wool/cement slabs, a ventilated 50 mm air space and 12 mm plasterboard.
The roof has a sheltered exposure. Internal air conditions are 22oC d.b., 50% saturation.
External conditions are 2oC d.b., 80% saturation. The stone chippings have a high
emissivity when weathered and offer no resistance to the flow of water vapour. Plot a
graph of the two temperature gradients and find if condensation is likely to occur.
U value 0.46 W/m2 K, heat flow 9.26 W/m2. Thermal temperature gradient is 22oC,
21.07oC, 20.38oC, 18.71oC, 11.76oC, 3.08oC, 2.9oC, 2.7oC, 2oC. Indoor dew-point 11.3oC,
vapour pressure 1300 Pa, outdoor air -0.8oC and 568 Pa. Vapour resistance Rv 6.265 GN
s/kg, mass flow of vapour G 1.168 107 kg/m2 s. Dew-points at the same interfaces as the
thermal temperatures are 11.3oC, 11.3oC, 10.5oC, 10.5oC, 8.8oC, -0.7oC, -0.8oC, -0.8oC,
-0.8oC. Condensation does not occur.
36.
Calculate the thermal transmittance, temperature and dew-point gradients through a wall
consisting of 15 mm dense plaster, 100 mm medium-weight concrete block work, 40 mm

glass fibre quilt, a ventilated 10 mm air space and 105 mm brickwork. The wall has a
severe exposure. The average internal air conditions are 14C d.b., 60% saturation when
the external conditions are 1oC d.b., 80% saturation. Plot a graph of the two temperature
gradients and find if condensation is likely to occur.
U value 0.6 W/m2 K, heat flow 7.74 W/m2. Thermal temperature gradient is 14oC, 13.07oC,
12.84oC, 11.32oC, 3.58oC, 2.19oC, 1.22oC, 1oC. Indoor dew-point 6.5oC, vapour pressure
936 Pa, outdoor air -1.8oC and 531 Pa. Concrete block work resistivity taken as 200 GN
s/kg m. Vapour resistance Rv 25.35 GN s/kg, mass flow of vapour G 1.6 x 10-8 kg/m2 s.
Dew-points at the same interfaces as the thermal temperatures are 6.5oC, 6.5oC, 6.3oC,
0.09oC, -0.06oC, -0.06oC, -1.8oC, -1.8oC. Condensation does not occur.
37.
Describe how the following forms of condensation occur: temporary, permanent and
interstitial.
38.
List the sources of moisture in buildings.
39.
What is the purpose of installing a vapour barrier and what effect does it have on the
dew-point temperatures within a structure?
40.
Discuss the use of thermal insulation in reducing the likelihood of condensation in walls
and roofs.
41.
State examples of thermal insulation increasing the risk that condensation occurs.
42.
List the actions that could be taken to reduce the water vapour input to a dwelling.
43.
Discuss the use of heating and ventilation in combating condensation problems.
44.
Why might prefabricated concrete buildings suffer more from condensation than other
constructions?
45.
What sources of moisture would you look for when consulted about mould growth on a
building?
46.
How frequently is condensation likely to occur on or within a structure?
1. Continuously.
2. Seasonally.
3. Throughout winter.
4. Intermittently.
5. Only on or below design minimum outdoor air temperature days.
47.
Why are thermal and dew-point temperature gradients for a structure calculated and
drawn?
1. Validate construction design suitability.
2. Predict location within structure where condensation occurs.
3. Decide whether drainage is necessary.
4. Locate air vents.
5. Calculate thermal transmittance.
48.
Why are thermal and dew-point temperature gradients for a structure calculated and
drawn?
1. Calculate thermal admittance of the structure.
2. Decide where additional thermal insulation or vapour barrier improves performance.
3. Discover dynamic behaviour of the structure.
4. No need to do it now as computers do all design work.
5. Calculate optimum thickness of thermal insulation.
49.
Which is true of industrial roofing?
1. Any thermal insulation prevents condensation.

2. An insulated corrugated sheet steel roof does not have a winter condensation risk.
3. Adding thermal insulation to cold deck design always eradicates condensation risk.
4. External insulation creates a warm deck construction that should avoid interstitial
condensation.
5. Adding insulation to a cold deck design may not eradicate condensation risk.
Terminology
50.
In the context of condensation in a building, what does rv symbolize?
1. Vapour resistivity of a material.

2. Vapour resistivity of a structure.
3. Resistance to vapour flow of a structure.
4. Volumetric resistivity of a structure.
5. Volumetric resistance of a material to moisture transfer.
51.
In the context of condensation in a building, what does Rv stand for?
1. Resistance value.
2. Resistance volume.
3. Vapour resistivity.
4. Volumetric resistance of a material.
5. Total vapour resistance.
Temperature gradient
52.
Calculate the temperature gradients through the following structures. Internal and
external air temperatures are to be taken as 21oC d.b. and -1C d.b. Assume that ta = te. The
answers should be expressed as the surface or interface temperatures in descending order
from the warm side. Outside surfaces are taken as having a high emissivity and normal
exposure. All air spaces are ventilated. The thermal conductivity of glass is 1.05 W/m K.
1. 6 mm single-glazed window.
6.79oC, 6.11oC.
2. 6 mm double-glazed window.
13.89oC, 13.55oC, 2.89oC, 2.55oC.
3.
Cavity wall of 15 mm dense plaster, 100 mm lightweight concrete block, air space and
105 mm brick.
18.47oC, 17.83oC, 6.71oC, 2.91oC, 0.27oC.

4.
An industrial roof of 10 mm asbestos cement corrugated sheet which has been given
an external coating of 50 mm phenolic foam. The thermal conductivity of asbestos
sheet is 0.4 W/m K.
19.45oC, 19.06oC, -0.38oC.
53.
A shop window consists of 6 mm plate glass in an aluminium frame. The display area
air temperature is expected to be 15C d.b. and to have a dew-point of 7oC. Find the
external air temperature that will start to produce condensation on the inside of the
window. The window has normal exposure.
2.72oC.
54.
If a double-glazed window is to be fitted in the shop in Question 53, what could the
external air temperature drop to before condensation starts?
-7.46oC.
55.
A hospital ward is to be maintained at 24C d.b. and 80% percentage saturation. The air
dew-point is 20.5C. Thermal insulation is to be added to the inside of the existing wall to
avoid surface condensation when the external air temperature falls to -5oC d.b. The U value
of the original wall is 1.9 W/m2 K. Calculate the thickness of insulation material required if
its thermal conductivity is 0.06 W/m K.
28.1 mm.
56.
Which is true?
1. 103 kN s/g m = GN s/kg m.

2. 103 N s/g =MN s/g.
3. MN s/g m = GN s/kg m.
4. 106 N s/kg = MN s/g.
5. kN s/kg = MN s/g.
57.
What is the vapour resistivity of a structural material measured in?
1. kN/m2 s.
2. MN s.
3. kN s/kg.
4. GN s/kg m.
5. kN kg/m2 s.
58.
Which of these is correct for the units of moisture mass flow rate through a building
structure when used to calculate condensation risk?

1. kg/s.
2. grammes/hour.
3. kPa/m2.
4. kg/m2 s.
5. N s/kg.
59.
Which units of vapour pressure are used to calculate condensation risk?
1. bar.
2. kPa/m2.
3. N/m2.
4. GN s/kg m.
5. Pa.
60.
One Pascal unit is the same as what?
1. kg/m2.
2. Nm/s.
3. N/m2.
4. N s/kg.
5. mbar.
61.
What is the total resistance to the flow of vapour through a structure measured in?
1. kN/m2 s.
2. GN s.
3. GN s/kg.
4. GN s/kg m.
5. MN s/m2.
62.
What is the name of the vapour resistance property of a building material?
1. Total resistance.
2. Thermal resistivity.
3. Pressure resistance.
4. Vapour pressure impermeability.
5. Vapour resistivity.
Vapour diffusion
63.
Which material list puts vapour resistivity in the correct order of increasing resistance to
moisture transfer?
1. Dense concrete, closed cell polyurethane foam, glass fibre wool, brickwork.
2. Glass fibre wool, brickwork, dense concrete, closed cell polyurethane foam.
3. Closed cell polyurethane foam, brickwork, glass fibre wool, dense concrete.
4. Brickwork, glass fibre wool, closed cell polyurethane foam, dense concrete.
5. Closed cell polyurethane foam, dense concrete, brickwork, glass fibre wool.
64.
How can a porous wall or roof have its vapour resistance improved?
1. Maximize ventilation of the cavity.

2. Add a layer of aluminium foil.
3. Cut ventilators through structure.
4. Install thermal insulation.
5. Paint internal surface with water-based emulsion.
65.
1. Add a layer of polythene film.

2. Wallpaper internal surfaces.
3. Drill ventilation holes to ventilate structure.
4. Replace with new materials.
5. Cannot be done to increase heating within building.
66.
1. Rebuild it.
2. Add gloss paint to internal surfaces.
3. Increase cavity ventilation.
4. Reduce cavity ventilation.
5. Increase heating and ventilation within building to compensate.
12
Gas
Flues
1. What happens to water vapour in flue gas?
1. Condenses when flue gas cools to water vapour dew-point temperature.
2. Remains as vapour at all times.
3. Cools and appears as steam discharging into atmosphere.
4. Becomes absorbed into flue system materials and drains.
5. Combines with other flue gases.
2. List the methods of flueing gas appliances and compare them in relation to their
application, complexity and expected cost.
3. Which are correct about a balanced flue system?

1. Terminal must not be exposed to prevailing wind locations.
2. Terminal can be alongside a door or beneath a window.
3. Terminal must be 500 m away from an opening into building and not beneath a window.
4. Air pressure difference causing flow through terminal is created by combustion.
5. Appliance may have a combustion air supply fan to make terminal location easier.
4. What are Se-ducts, U-duct and shunt ducts?

1. No such thing.
2. Outdoor air ventilation supply ducts used for hotel guest room bathrooms.
3. Prefabricated flue systems for gas appliances in tall blocks of flats.
4. Trade names of service duct components.
5. Electrical cabling trunking.
5. What is a fan-diluted flue?

1. Means of discharging flue gases at low level without a vertical chimney.
2. Induced draught fan in a boiler flue.
3. Fan that blows combustion air into a boiler room.
4. Secondary flue pipe passing outdoor air and diluted flue gases.
5. Gas appliance having an inbuilt combustion air fan.
6. What are the limiting conditions for low-level fan-diluted flue gas discharge?
1. Any temperature is allowed.
2. Maximum carbon dioxide content of 15%.
3. Not to discharge toward people or stationary vehicles.
4. Must discharge into an underground or multi-storey car park.
5. Maximum of 0.50% CO2 and 30oC.
7. What is the correct function of a brick chimney?

1. Discharge flue gas above gutter level.
2. Maintain flue gas temperature as warm as possible.
3. Absorb condensation of water vapour from flue gas.
4. Slow down flue gas velocity.
5. Create draught needed to drive combustion air and combusted gases through the
appliance.
8. What is the function of a draught diverter in a gas-fired water heater flue system?
1. Allow access into the flue pipe system for cleaning.
2. Discharge flue gases into boiler room during a draught downwards through the
chimney.
3. Explosion relief valve as fuel ignition occurs.
4. Reduces unpleasant odours discharged into atmosphere.
5. Assists pilot flame being blown out under adverse draught.
9. Why is a there a draught diverter in a flue system?

1. Stops oil fuel flue gases spilling into boiler room.
2. Entrainment of air from boiler room keeps flue gas warm.
3. Allows water vapour in flue gas to drain.
4. Dilutes products of combustion.
5. Diverts combustion gases into boiler room on cold start-up when flue system is cold.
10.
What happens to water vapour in flue gas?
1. Condenses when flue gas cools to water vapour dew-point temperature.

2. Remains as vapour at all times.
3. Cools and appears as steam discharging into atmosphere.
4. Becomes absorbed into flue system materials and drains.
5. Combines with other flue gases.
11.
What happens to water vapour in flue gas?
1. Some condenses and runs into drainage system.

2. Remains as vapour.
3. Chemically combines with carbon dioxide in flue gases.
4. Condenses with nitrous oxides and forms acid liquid.
5. Discharged as atmospheric pollution.
Gas burner control

12.
How are gas burners ignited?
1. Hand-held flame from butane liquid gas bottle with spark igniter.
2. Permanent gas pilot flame.
3. Piezoelectric spark igniter for pilot flame.
4. Hand-held match.
5. Electrically heated wire controlled by BMS.
13.
How is a gas flame re-ignited during hot running?
1. Electrically heated wire controlled by BMS.

2. Piezoelectric spark igniter.
3. Permanent gas pilot flame.
4. Water thermostat opens main gas valve on fall of temperature.
5. Thermocouple is heated by permanent pilot allows main gas valve to open.
14.
How is safe operation of a gas-fired appliance maintained?
1. Optical signal from combustion chamber informs BMS when flame is lit and
extinguished.
2. If flame is extinguished, piezoelectric spark re-ignites main burner.
3. Permanent pilot flame heats thermocouple which holds pilot valve open, ensuring main
burner can be re-ignited when main gas valve opens.
4. Flame-failure solenoid valve held open by permanent pilot flame on thermocouple.
5. If pilot flame is extinguished, main gas valve remains closed.
15.
Explain, with the aid of sketches, the sequence of operation of safety and efficiency
controls on gas-fired appliances.
Gas installation design

16.
Sketch and describe the gas service entry and meter compartment arrangements for
housing.
17.
Around what pressures do natural gas and liquefied petroleum gas run at in pipe
distribution systems in buildings?

1. Up to 40 atmospheres.
2. Usually above 200 kPa.
3. Up to 3,000 mm water gauge.
4. 20 to 200 mm water gauge.
5. Less than 100 kPa.
18.
Which are types of gas burner?
1. Vaporizing cylinder.
2. High pressure injection and spark ignition.
3. Atmospheric bar.
4. Pressurized gas with fan-blown combustion air supply.
5. Fluidized bed.
19.
How is natural gas pressure measured at a burner?
1. Compressed air pressure gauge reading up to 500 kPa.
2. Gas sample taken in a sealed container to a laboratory.

3. Digital pressure gauge through a Schrader valve in the pipeline.
4. Water U-tube manometer connected to a test cock with a rubber tube.
5. Digital manometer connected to a test cock with a rubber tube.
20.
Around what pressures do natural gas and liquefied petroleum gas run at in pipe
distribution systems in buildings?

1. Up to 40 atmospheres.
2. Usually above 200 kPa.
3. Up to 3000 mm water gauge.
4. 20 to 200 mm water gauge.
5. Less than 100 kPa.
21.
If the natural gas pressure in the public street main is insufficient for the gas-burner inlet
pressure, what is done?

1. A different type of gas burner must be selected by designers.
2. Change to oil-firing.
3. Install the gas burner plant in the basement.
4. Install a gas pressure boost centrifugal compressor.
5. Install high pressure liquefied petroleum (LPG) or substitute natural gas (SNG) tanks.
Gas meters
22.
How is natural gas metering for billing carried out?
1. Rotary gas meter monitored by the BMS.

2. Flow rate measured from the pressure drop through an orifice plate in the pipeline.
3. Positive displacement gas consumption meter.

4. Pitot-static tube in pipeline and a data logger.
5. Rotary vane anemometer in pipeline and an integrating revolution-counter meter.
23.
How does a positive displacement gas billing meter work?
1. Number of movements of slide valves are counted and converted into flow units.
2. Two bellows expand and contract as gas is directed through four chambers.
3. Movement of the bellows is mechanically counted.
4. Rotations of valves drive counting wheels.
5. Two pressure sensors count number of movements by the bellows and display flow on
rotating dials.
24.
Explain how a gas meter measures gas flow rate and total quantity passed during a year.
Gas supply design

25.
A gas-fired water heater has a heat output of 30 kW at an efficiency of 75% and a gas
pressure of 1225 Pa. Calculate the gas flow rate required at the burner and the reading on a
U-tube manometer in millimetres on the water gauge at the outlet from the pressure
governor.
1.026 litre/s, 125 mmH2O.
26.
Express gas pressures of 55 mm H20, 350 N/m2, 75 Pa, 1.5 kPa and 1.05 bars in
millibars.
5.394 mb, 3.5 mb, 0.75 mb, 15 mb, 1050 mb.
27.
The pipe from a gas meter to a boiler is 18 m long and has elbows that cause a
resistance equivalent to 25% of the measured length. Calculate the maximum allowable
pressure loss rate for the pipeline.
3.333 Pa/m.
28.
If the maximum allowable pressure loss rate in a pipeline is 2.3 Pa/m and the resistance
of the pipe fittings amounts to 20% of straight pipe, what is the maximum length of pipe
that can be used?
27.17 m.
29.
A gas boiler of 43 kW heat output and 75% efficiency is supplied from a meter by a
pipe 23 m long. The resistance of the fittings amounts to 25% of the pipe length. Find the
gas supply pipe size needed.
1.47 litre/s, 2.609 Pa/m, 32 mm.
30.
Calculate the actual gas pressure drop through a 22 mm pipe carrying 0.81 l/s when the
pipe length is 12 m and the fittings resistance amounts to 20% of its length.
72 Pa.
31.
How can a brick chimney be protected from flue gas damage?
1. Regular cleaning to remove acidic soot.

2. Bricks do not deteriorate.
3. Vitrified clay or flexible stainless steel liner pipe installed.
4. Cannot be protected, they need to be decommissioned.
5. Internally sprayed with concrete to seal against moisture.
32.
Which are correct features for a free-standing outdoor flue pipe?
1. Cast iron pipe to resist corrosion and damage.

2. Concrete pipe to resist water and physical damage.
3. Double-walled stainless steel insulated pipe and downdraught cowl.
4. 25 mm copper drain pipe from base to drain cover.
5. Terminal is 600 mm above top of any nearby window or gutter.
33.
What is a room-sealed gas appliance?
1. Gas-fired heater installed outside a room in the outside air.

2. Gas-fired warm air ducted heater installed within a sealed cupboard.
3. Any balanced flue gas appliance.
4. No such thing.
5. Gas-fired heater where combustion air enters the unit directly from outdoors through the
same wall terminal where flue gas is discharged into the outdoor air.
34.
What is the primary responsibility of designers and engineers with piped gas systems?
1. Ensuring leak-free design and installation.

2. Minimizing pipe lengths.
3. Supplying gas to all likely usage locations.
4. Safety.
5. Minimizing the use of electricity.
35.
Which of these consume piped natural gas?
1. Water heating, steam raising and cooking.
2. Domestic refrigerators.
3. Commercial refrigeration systems, cold rooms and freezers.
4. On-site power generation.
5. Absorption refrigeration.
36.
Which is the more energy-efficient use of piped natural gas?
1. Central water-heating plant with widely distributed heat emitters and washing facilities.
2. One large water heater in a plant room for all heating requirements.
3.
Steam boiler plant distributing steam to outlying buildings requiring heating and
domestic hot-water systems.
4.
Gas-powered co-generation plant in each building making full use of the heat and
electricity output.
5.
Central heating and domestic hot-water heating plant in distributed buildings from
piped natural gas around a large site.
37.
If and when naturally occurring methane from underground sources becomes

exhausted on a world scale, what alternative gas or energy can the world use?
1. None, we will all be very cold.

2. We will be totally relying on nuclear- generated electricity for all energy systems
including transportation.
3. No gas, we will be using deep-drilled oil-firing for everything.
4. Substitute natural gas (SNG) is produced from the refining of crude oil and gasification
of coal, as it used to be prior to underground methane being available last century.
5. Geothermal heating wells become viable.
38.
Which are the two essentials for all gas-burning installations?
1. Boiler or water heating plant room.

2. Ventilation of the building in the event of a gas leak.
3. Automatic gas safety shut-off valve preferably connected to the BMS.
4. Unobstructed combustion air inlet directly from outdoors.
5. Flue gas system.
13
Plant and service areas
Computer server systems

1. What do we know about computer server spaces?
1. None needed, located beneath a desk.
2. Located in roof plant space, out of sight.
3. Any corner of a room will do.
4. Secure accessible and safe room to work in.
5. Always very hot places.
2. What do we know about computer server spaces?

1. An inconvenient collection of electrical boxes.
2. Vital hub of every business and office.
3. Nobody ever works in there.
4. Do not need ventilation.
5. Provide useful heat into the building during winter.
3. What is essential for a computer server facility?

1. Basement store room location.
2. Empty internal office with lockable door.
3. Interior secure work room with mechanical ventilation and temperature-controlled
cooling 24 hours a day, 365 days a year.
4. Partitioned space in basement car park as it is cool there.
5. Any office or store room where enough space can be made available.
Emergency power
4. Emergency electrical power systems:
1. Have massive banks of lead acid batteries to maintain electrical energy during a power
supply failure.
2. A diesel engine-driven electrical generator switches on at power supply failure to
provide emergency services.
3. Allow all lifts, lighting and air conditioning systems to continue operating without
interruption.
4. Are never tested.
5. Are used to supplement public network power supply at times of peak summer demand.
5. List the principal information and activities involved in the provision of main services
throughout a housing estate.
6. Sketch a suitable arrangement for the services beneath the public highway and leading into
a dwelling. Show the recommended dimensions and explain how the ground is to be
reinstated.
7. Who are allowed into plant rooms?

1. Staff, students, employees, academic and administrative staff.
2. Cleaning and security staff.
3. Property Services employees.
4. Property Services staff and contractors working on the site.
5. Only those who are authorized by the Property Services Manager.
8. Which of these is an example of good engineering practice in the HVAC plant room?
1. Concrete plinths and anti-vibration mountings for rotating machines.
2. Telephones and computers.
3. Hard surfaced thermal insulation.
4. Artificial lighting and emergency exit lighting.
5. Low headroom under pipes and air ducts.
9. A high quality plant room will have the following feature:

1. Thermal insulation covering all hot and cool surfaces of pipes and ducts.
2. Bright colours to aid identification of equipment.
3. All rotating plant is directly bolted to the concrete floor.
4. Display of a list of all hazards.
5. Written instructions for safe access for personnel.
10.
How are fans and compressors fixed to the building?
1. Solidly bolted to cast concrete plant bases to isolate vibration at that location.
2. Not bolted to the building structure.
3. Always installed within heavy concrete floors, wall and ceiling in plant rooms.
4. Standing on a thick rubber pad or coil spring that separates the vibrating item of plant
from the concrete plant base.
5. Bolted to heavy steel beams that are concreted to the concrete building structure to
dissipate vibration energy before entering the structure.
Lift motor rooms
11.
What is involved with lift motor rooms?
1. Driving motor and winding gear are located in basement plant areas.
2. Each lift has its driving motor and winding gear mounted above the shaft within a
ventilated and cooled roof-level plant room.
3. All motors are located on top of each passenger car.
4. One electric motor drives all lift cars in a group from a roof-level plant room.
5. Sealed concrete plant room above each lift shaft.
Plant room staff

12.
Who are allowed into plant rooms?

2. All contractors.
3. Members of the public.
4. Only employed maintenance engineers.
5. Those approved by the building manager.
13.
What are plant rooms designed to accommodate?
1. Only mechanical plant.

2. Only electrical plant.
3. Plant and people.
4. Wiring and pipes.
5. Pumps and boilers.
14.
What are plant room conditions supposed to be?
1. Safe work places.
2. Minimum size possible.

3. Maximum size needed.
4. Showcase for plant items.
5. Always out of sight.
15.
Where is the building maintenance managers office likely to be located?
1. Alongside reception area.

2. By the main plant room, often in the basement.
3. In the executive office suite on a high level floor.
4. Basement car park.
5. In entrance foyer.
16.
What are the most problematic noise sources in plant rooms for maintenance workers?
1. Gas-fired water heaters.

2. Toilet exhaust fans.
3. Air handling units.
4. Rotary and reciprocating compressors.
5. None of them are as plant is switched off when work is undertaken.
17.
How often do technical workers enter large plant rooms?
1. Once a year.
2. Daily, several times.
3. Monthly service checks and fan belt changes.
4. Hourly logging of energy and operational data.
5. Once a week.
18.
What is the space temperature control requirement for plant rooms?
1. None, they always remain cool.

2. Does not matter as air temperature never gets too hot for the mechanical plant.
3. Wall and roof ventilation openings.
4. Nobody works in there so it does not matter.
5. Natural and mechanical ventilation for workers and where necessary, cooling to limit
room temperature for workers and electrical systems.
Service ducts
19.
Draw the installation of services in a vertical duct through a three-storey office building.
The duct is 2.5 m 1.2 m. The boiler and ventilation plant are in the basement. There are
false ceilings on all floors.
20.
Sketch and describe how the spread of fire through a building is limited by the services
installation.
21.
A false ceiling over a supermarket contains recessed luminaires, sprinkler pipes and a
single-duct air-conditioning system. The false ceiling is 400 mm and has structural steel
beams 250 mm deep. Extract air from the shop passes through the luminaires. Draw the
installation to scale.
22.
A concrete floor with a wood block finish houses a service duct carrying two 35 mm
heating services, two 28 mm hot-water services, a 42 mm cold-water service and 54 mm

gas pipes. Side branches are required to carry a maximum of three 22 mm pipes.
Continuous access covers are to be provided. The hot-water pipes are to have 50 mm thick
thermal insulation, and at least 25 mm clearance is needed around the pipes. Draw a
suitably detailed design showing dimensions, materials, pipe support, cover construction
and pipe routes at the branch.
23.
Describe, with the aid of sketches, how successful coordination between all the services
can be achieved within builders work ducts.
Space requirement
24.
Estimate the plant room and service duct space requirements of the following buildings,
using the preliminary design information given.

1.
A naturally ventilated hotel with a hot-water radiator heating system. Roof and
basement plant rooms are available. The hotel dimensions are 50 m 30 m, with ten
storeys 3 m high. Total occupancy is 750. An oil-fired boiler plant is to be used.
2.
A single-storey engineering factory of dimensions 100 m 40 m, using overhead gasfired radiant heating. The roof height slopes from 3 m to 5 m at the central ridge.
There are 300 occupants. Mechanical ventilators and smoke extractors will be fitted in
the roof. A standby diesel electricity generator and an electrical substation are
required.
3.
A 12-storey city centre educational building of 40 m 20 m, 3 m ceiling height, with a

single-storey workshop block and laboratory area 40 m 60 m 4 m. The whole
complex is to be mechanically ventilated with four air changes per hour. Hot-water
radiators and fan convectors provide additional heating. Gas and electricity are to be
used.
The tower building has a basement with ramp access to ground level. A refectory is
located at ground level. The total building occupancy is 2000.
Switchboards
25.
What does the mechanical services switchboard (MSSB), do?
1. Router for all telephone calls between Property Services staff.

2. Automatically controls all air conditioning and transportation systems on the campus.
3. It is the manually operated switchboard for all mechanical services systems within the
building.
4. Switches all the electrical sub-circuits for the whole building.
5. Only needed in buildings that do not have a computer-based building management
system.
26.
What do the lights on the mechanical services switchboard (MSSB) mean?
1. They are traffic lights to show the operation sequence for items of mechanical services
plant.
2. Green light displays that item of plant is operational.
3. Green light proves the air conditioning fan is running correctly.
4. No light by a switch shows there is a fault.
5. Red light indicates that item of plant has gone into a fault condition.
27.
The mechanical services switchboard (MSSB) contains:
1. Building management system computers and controllers.

2. Fire services control panel.
3. Lift control system.
4. On/off switches, fuses, relays, contactors and motor overload switches for all the HVAC
plant.
5. Spare parts for the mechanical services contractor.
Ventilation requirements
28.
Explain how fuel-burning appliances fitted in kitchens, living rooms, cupboards and
domestic garages can be adequately ventilated. Illustrate an example of each location and
state the areas of ventilation openings required for appliances of 3 kW, 18 kW and 40 kW
heat output.
29.
A high quality plant room will have which of the following features?
1. Thermal insulation covering all hot and cool surfaces of pipes and ducts.
2. Bright colours to aid identification of equipment.
3. Anti-vibration mountings and concrete plinths for all rotating plant.
4. Display a list of all hazards.
5. Clear and safe access for personnel.
14
Fire protection
Detectors and alarms

1. Which are correct about fire detection and alarm systems?
1. BMS sensors and wires are the fire alarm system.
2. Visible smoke laser light detectors in rooms.
3. Detailed drawings of detectors wired in series with each other.
4. Break-glass alarm call points are outdated.
5. Automatic connection to the fire brigade call centre.
2. Which are correct about fire detection and alarm systems?

1. Thermal detectors in office ceilings.
2. Blue tooth air temperature sensors send alarm signals on rise of room temperature.
3. Detailed drawings of detectors and alarm wiring are not needed.
4. Break-glass alarm call points in all areas.
5. Manual phone call is always needed to the fire brigade call centre.
3. Fire detection and alarm systems include:

1. Smoke detectors in ceiling voids.
2. Visible smoke laser light detectors in plant rooms.
3. Randomly placed sensors.
4. Break-glass alarm call points in all areas.
5. Manual call to the fire brigade.
Fire
4. Identify the essential components of a fire.

1. Fuel and air.
2. Source of ignition and combustible material.
3. Paper, wood, solvents, air and warmth.
4. Fuel, oxygen and ignition temperature.
5. Fuel, air and high temperature radiated heat.
5. How does a fire commence?

1. A small flame radiates combustibility over a long distance.
2. Adjacent buildings cannot be set on fire.
3. Combustible material, liquid or gas becomes raised to its ignition temperature in the
presence of oxygen.
4. Electrical services often start fire.
5. Any spark from a light switch or plant switch can start a fire.
6. Which is not a means of extinguishing fire?

1. Deprive the fire of air.
2. Cool the burning material.
3. Cease the supply of more fuel.
4. Calling the fire brigade.
5. Closing doors and windows and evacuating the building.
7. Which is a means of extinguishing fire?

1. Disconnect electrical supply from electrical service or item on fire.
2. Switch lights off and leave that floor level.
3. Cover burning photocopier with wool blanket and leave that floor.
4. Spray water onto burning electrical heater and evacuate.
5. Throw a fireproof blanket over a burning computer.

1. Human activity starts a fire.
2. Any flame can start a fire.
3. A match alone starts a fire.
4. Sunshine starts fires.
5. Concentrated energy is needed to commence combustion.

1. Thermostat failure often starts a fire.
2. Failure of normal safety precautions within building services or human activity causes a
fire to start.
3. Building services systems are inherently fire-prone.
4. Gas-fired water heaters always set buildings on fire.
5. Gas fuel cannot combust outside of an appliance.
10.
How does a fire commence?
1. A small flame radiates combustibility over a long distance.

2. Adjacent buildings cannot be set on fire.
3. Combustible material, liquid or gas becomes raised to its ignition temperature in the
presence of oxygen.
4. Electrical services often start fire.
5. Any spark from a light switch or plant switch can start a fire.
Fire fighting systems

11.
How are water and foam systems used to protect building structures from fire damage?
12.
Compare a fixed sprinkler installation with other methods of fire-fighting. Give three
applications for sprinklers.
13.
Which is not a means of extinguishing fire?
1. Spraying water.
2. Covering an oil fire with foam.
3. Spraying CO2 onto an electrical equipment fire.
4. Spraying chemical into a flame to interfere with flame propagation.
5. Increasing fuel supply to flood out oxygen supply.
14.
Which is a means of extinguishing fire?
1. Increase local ventilation dilute combustion temperature.

2. Increase ventilation to force flames away from fire-fighter.
3. Cover burning liquid with non-combustible blanket.
4. Use fans to blow air at source of fire to blow it out.
5. Use explosive to blow flame out.
15.
1. Maintain electrical supply to smouldering electrical equipment so proper shut-down can

be carried out.
2. Maintain electrical supply to smouldering computer equipment so proper shut-down can

be carried out to save data.
3. Maintain electrical supply to lighting systems within a building on fire to aid escape.
4. Maintain electrical supply to all mechanical ventilation equipment to facilitate
evacuation.
5. Shut down all electrical systems except stairway pressurization and firemans lift, to
remove source of fire energy.
16.
1. Carry burning materials out of a multi-storey building.

2. Close all doors and windows, manually or automatically, to exclude ventilation.
3. Keep all doorways open to aid evacuation.
4. Keep all lifts operational to air evacuation.
5. Keep all fire-protection doors open while personnel remain in building to aid firefighters.
17.
Which is not a means of extinguishing fire?
1. Switch off electricity.

2. Turn off gas isolating valve.
3. Turn off oil supply pipe, manually or automatically.
4. Just evacuate the area.
5. Apply appropriate fire extinguisher.
Fixed fire fighting systems

18.
Hose reel fire-fighting systems:
1. Are not suitable for office buildings.

2. Never need to be tested.
3. Should not be intrusively visible.
4. Are for anyone to use to commence fire fighting until professionals arrive.
5. Only used in public buildings.
19.
Which are true about sprinkler fire-fighting systems?
1. Are never used where electrical lighting and computers are in use due to risk.
2. Spray water upwards from nozzles in the floors.
3. Spray water across and downwards from nozzles located high on the wall of some
rooms.
4. Frequently installed in factories, warehouses and office buildings.
5. Sprinkler nozzles are turned on manually at the fire control valve cupboard.
20.
1. Cannot be tested after initial commissioning.

2. Have manual isolating hand wheel valves for each part of the building.
3. Can be and are used in office buildings.
4. Freezing weather stops the system functioning.
5. A pre-action sprinkler system is only supplied with water once the fire alarm is raised.
21.
Which are true about fire extinguisher systems?
1. Foam tanks and distribution pipework where oils and flammable liquids are hazards.
2. Water is the most common extinguishing agent.
3. Carbon dioxide storage tanks and distribution pipework may be used where personnel
can be rapidly evacuated or are not present.
4. Foam and water mixtures where petroleum oil is a hazard.
5. Chemical gas such as halon where there are no people in the room.
22.
1. Have two sources of water supply.

2. Have basement and higher-level water storage tanks for 10 minutes supply capacity
where there is only one public water main available.
3. Duplicate pumps in parallel maintain water pressure in the system.
4. The emergency generator for the building provides back-up power.
5. The system requires routine maintenance and annual testing.
23.
1. Have sprinklers located on a 3.0 m grid pattern covering the floors.

2. Can have sprinklers mounted on a sidewall 150 mm from the ceiling.
3. Have self-acting outlets heads that fracture on rise of air temperature.
4. Part of a fire-fighting strategy.
5. Provide a high degree of security against fire damage.
24.
Which are correct about Pyrogen chemical gas fire extinguishing?
1. Is a solid aerosol-generating element.

2. Developed from solid rocket fuel technology.
3. Is an inert non-toxic solid that can be activated by heat to release a gas.
4. Pyrogen gas prevents fresh oxygen reaching the combustion zone.
5. Pyrogen is a fast-acting explosive response.
25.
List the sources of fire within a building and describe how they may develop into a
major conflagration. State how the spread of fire is expected to be limited by good building
and services practice.
26.
List the ways in which fire and smoke are detected and fire-fighting systems are brought
into action.
27.
Describe the methods and equipment used to fight fires within buildings in their likely
order of use.
28.
State the principal hazards faced by the occupants of a building during a fire. How are
these hazards overcome? Give examples for housing, shops, cinemas, office blocks, singlestorey factories and local government buildings.
29.
Sketch and describe the fire-fighting provisions necessary in large industrial oil-fired
boiler plant.
30.
CO2 is a greenhouse gas emission problem for the world (HM Government, Carbon
Plan 2011). Why is it used in fire fighting?
1. Global emissions will not diminish for hundreds of years.

2. There is no inter-governmental agreement on ceasing its use.
3. Amounts used are minimal.
4. CO2 cannot burn anything.

5. Using it is a lesser problem.
31.
Which are correct about fire-fighting services?
1. Primarily are to minimize damage to the building and its services systems.
2. Primarily to prevent and minimize danger to people.
3. Secondary purpose is to save the building and its continued use.
4. Are only used by professional fire fighters.
5. Have both fixed and portable fire extinguishers.
32.
Which are true about fire fighting systems in large buildings?
1. Never need to be tested after being commissioned.

2. Have a fire control panel identifying which parts of the system are activated.
3. Have an indicator board in the entrance to the building advising fire location.
4. Are all filled with water.
5. Are always connected to the computer-based building management system.
33.
Tabulate the combinations of fire classification and types of extinguisher to show the
correct application for each. State the most appropriate fire-fighting system for each fire
classification and show which combinations are not to be used.
34.
Fire-fighting services:
1. Primarily are to minimize damage to the building and its services systems.
2. Primarily to prevent and minimize danger to people.
3. Have emergency evacuation warning systems.
4. Are only used by professional fire fighters.

5. Have only fixed fire extinguishing systems.
Portable extinguishers
35.
Which are used to fight a fire with a portable extinguisher?
1. Water on paper, wood and fabric material fires.

2. Foam extinguishers on flammable liquid fires.
3. Dry powder extinguisher on electrical equipment fires.
4. Chemical extinguishers where road vehicles are involved.
5. Consider it to be a first-aid solution.
Smoke
36.
Which are correct about smoke control during a building fire?
1. Not a critical hazard for personnel.

2. Materials within buildings are sources of toxic chemicals
3. Smoke control exhaust fans remove air from the building.
4. Escape routes are protected with water sprinkler systems.
5. Air pressure differentials across doorways control smoke movement to aid escape.
37.
Which are correct about smoke control during a building fire?
1. The most critical hazard for personnel.

2. Materials within buildings are sources of toxic chemicals.
3. Smoke control compartmentalizes the building.
4. Escape routes are pressurized with clean outdoor air.
5. Air pressure differentials across doorways control smoke movement to aid escape.
38.
Smoke control during a building fire:
1. Personnel can always escape.

2. Combats toxic chemicals.
3. Exhaust fans remove air from the building.
4. Water sprinkler systems protect escape routes.
5. Pressurized escape route.
Water systems
39.
Explain how sprinkler systems function, giving details of the alternative operating
modes available. State the suitable sources of water for sprinklers.
40.

2. Can have sprinklers mounted on a sidewall 150 mm from the ceiling.
4. Part of a fire-fighting strategy.
5. Provide a high degree of security against fire damage.
41.
Which is true about sprinkler fire-fighting systems?

2. Must be manually turned on.
4. The only fire-fighting system a building needs to have.
5. Create unnecessary water damage.
42.
Sprinkler fire-fighting systems:
1. Cannot be tested after initial commissioning.

2. Distribute halon gas.
3. Can be and are used in office buildings.
4. Freezing weather stops the system functioning.
5. A pre-action sprinkler system is pre-charged with nitrogen.
15
Room acoustics
Calculation questions may need to be evaluated on the worksheet DBPLANT.
Decibel
1. Which is the smallest increment of sound pressure level detectable by the human ear?
1. 1 W/m2.
2. 1 Bel.
3. 60 Bel.
4. 100 N/m2.
5. 1 decibel.
2. Explain why any decimal fraction of a decibel is not used in engineering design.
3. What is the smallest increment of sound pressure level detectable by the human ear?
1. 1 W/m2.
2. 1 Bel.
3. 60 Bel.
4. 100 N/m2.
5. 1 decibel.
4. What is the unit of sound?

1. Pascal.
2. Watt.
3. Decibel.
4. Bell.
5. Bel.
5. Which is correct for sound units?

1. 1 Bel is the sound level of an international standard bell ring.
2. 1 Bel of sound pressure is very loud.
3. 1 dB is the smallest increment of sound pressure detectable by the ear.
4. Fractions of decibels are always counted.
5. Bel units are only used for specific frequencies.
6. How is acoustic energy created?

1. No such thing as acoustic energy.
2. Molecular vibration creates sound.
3. Physical vibration of a machine.
4. Magnetic resonance radiates sound waves.
5. A small proportion of the electrical or primary fuel input to a machine converts into
acoustic energy in Watts.
7. What happens to audible range during human life?

1. No significant change.
2. Hearing sensitivity to volume improves with ageing.
3. Ability to hear low frequency sounds deteriorates with ageing.
4. Human ear becomes less able to hear higher frequencies with increasing age.
5. Frequency range increases with age.
8. About how much reduction in hearing occurs during human life?

1. Hearing ability improves with age.
2. 100 dBA at retirement age.
3. Almost nothing with ageing.
4. 20 dB loss is common.
5. Maximum of 5 dB.
9. Explain the meaning of SWL:

1. Selective wind loading.
2. Sound wind level.
3. Sound watts level, meaning power.
4. Sound pressure level, meaning energy.
5. Sound watts loudness, meaning loudness power.
10.
How much acoustic power is experienced within buildings?
1. 10% of electric motor power becomes acoustic energy.

2. Around 10 W/m2 floor area.
3. Above 1 kW.
4. Always below 500 W.
5. Less than 1 Watt.
11.
Where does sound energy not come from?
1. Atmospheric wind.
2. Dynamic mechanical equipment.
3. Harmonic frequencies in electrical systems.
4. Building materials.
5. Information technology equipment.
12.
Which is not a harmonic frequency?
1. Alternating current 50 Hz.

2. Every sound frequency.
3. 20 kHz fluorescent lamp.
4. Any audible frequency generated by an electronic item such as variable speed drive
controller of a fan or pump.
5. Refrigeration compressor rotational speed.
13.
Which is not a frequency?
1. Complete rotations each second.

2. Alternating current sine wave.
3. Structure-borne vibration sound.
4. Fan RPM.
5. Sound pressure.
14.
Which flowing fluid may not cause noise?
1. Water falling down a drain pipe.

2. Compressed air discharging to the atmosphere.
3. Steam discharging to the atmosphere.
4. Laminar flow inside pipes and ducts.
5. Open drain flow.
15.
Which flowing fluid may not cause noise?
1. Turbulent eddy currents shearing from blunt objects within air ducts.
2. High pressure water in circulating pipe systems.
3. Airflow across an air-conditioned room.
4. Air flow round a bend in an air duct.
5. Water flow through a heat exchanger.
16.
Which is not relevant to a sound frequency of 1 kHz?
1. Low frequency that is uncomfortable for the human body.

2. Human ear is most sensitive to sounds around 1 kHz.
3. Critical frequency in acoustic design.
4. Low frequency that is not noticed by the human body.
5. A multiple of alternating current frequency.
17.
List the sources of noise that could be found within an air-conditioned building.
18.
What is meant by noise?
19.
State which items of mechanical services plant, equipment and systems within an
occupied building are not likely to create noise.
20.
Explain how sound travels from one location to another.
21.
Explain what is meant by the term sound pressure wave.
22.
Why is sound important?
23.
Explain how we hear sounds.
24.
How are noises related to human ear response?
1. Humans respond to sound power level within a range of audible frequencies.

2. Humans respond to loudness produced over a range of audible frequencies.
3. Sound pressure levels are added to create an overall relationship to ear response.
4. Sound power levels are added to create an overall relationship to ear response.
5. Loudest sound at any frequency is taken as ear response.
25.
Should we be concerned with any linkage between the HM Governments Carbon Plan
2011 and acoustics?
1. No, there is no connection.

2. Acoustic energy dissipates in porous materials and raises its temperature, causing a
cooling load for the refrigeration system; yes, we are concerned.
3. Only people create unwanted sound.
4. Noise reconverts back into useful energy.
5. Yes, noise means energy is used somewhere.
26.
What is presbycusis?
1. Hearing loss due to long-term exposure to noise above 90 dBA.

2. Hearing loss due to ear disease.
3. Normal deterioration in hearing due to ageing.
4. A church presbytery committee.
5. Temporary shift in hearing ability from exposure to high industrial noise levels above
95 dBC.
27.
Hearing range is:
1. 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
2. 2 Hz to 20 MHz.
3. 200 Hz to 200 MHz.
4. Infinitely wide.
5. 2 kHz to 20 MHz.
28.
What is noise?
1. Sound.
2. Acoustic power.
3. Unwanted sound.
4. Age-related sound.
5. Traffic, aeroplanes, pneumatic drills, fans, refrigeration compressors.
29.
How do we judge sound?
1. Absolute measurement.
2. Comparing a sound with absolute zero sound level.
3. Relatively.
4. Subjectively.
5. Qualitative judgement.
30.
What does the building services engineer do with noise?
1. Ignores it.
2. Passes any problem to a specialist.

3. Controls it to acceptable standard in occupied spaces.
4. Not choose plant that generates noise.
5. Alters the use of the building to avoid any noise problem.
31.
What generates noise for the building services engineer?
1. Potentially everything the engineer can put into a building.

2. Only reciprocating machines.
3. Poorly designed and built engineering components.
4. The external environment.
5. All mechanical service plant and distribution systems.
32.
What is sound?
1. Anything humans hear.

2. Electrical signals in the brain responding to ear drum vibration.
3. Noise.
4. Annoyance created by music or pneumatic road drills.
5. Radiated energy in audible frequencies.
33.
Presbycusis is:
1. Exposure to above 100 dBA.

2. What happens when listening to loud music.
3. Normal deterioration in hearing due to ageing.
4. Presbytery.
5. Improvement in hearing ability.
34.
How do we judge sound?
1. We dont.
2. Comparing a sound with absolute zero sound level.
3. On some sort of scale.
4. By its annoyance.
5. Qualitatively.
35.
What is sound?
1. Electromagnetic radiation.
2. Molecular vibration of solid materials.
3. Radio frequency waves.
4. Anything that causes an ear response.
5. Pressure waves.
36.
Sound travels through air because it is:
1. Incompressible.
2. Supporting molecular vibration.
3. Compressible.
4. Inelastic.
5. Plastic.
37.
Reference point for sound level measurement is:
1. Absolute zero sound.

2. Lowest audible level by a domestic animal.
3. Smallest sound detectable by human ear.

4. Zero atmospheric pressure as found in space.
5. Inaudible level created in a test laboratory.
38.
List the ways in which mechanical and electrical services plant, equipment and systems
generate sound.
39.
Explain, with the aid of sketches and examples, how sound is transferred, or can be,
through a normally serviced, multi-storey occupied building.
40.
Discuss the statement: Turbulent flows in building services systems create a noise
nuisance.
41.
State how the building structure transfers sound.
42.
State the range of frequencies that are detectable by the human ear and the frequencies
that are used in acoustic design calculations. State the reasons for these two ranges being
different, if they are.
43.
Frequency range used for assessment of sound power level (SWL) from machines is:
1. 0 to 200 MHz.
2. 1 kHz to 2 MHz.
3. 125 Hz to 8 kHz.
4. 63 Hz to 20000 Hz.
5. 125 kHz to 8 MHz.
44.
By what mechanism do ears respond to sound power level (SWL)?
1. Ears have no mechanism.

2. Sound power radiates to vibrate the eardrum.
3. Acoustic vibration energy vibrates the body, which transfers through the body muscle
and bone structure, to vibrate eardrums.
4. Acoustic power raises air pressure on eardrums.
5. Acoustic output power pulsates and vibrates air, raising air pressure waves; eardrum
vibrates from air pressure waves.
Machinery noise
45.
Sound waves repeat at a frequency due to:
1. Absorption by porous surfaces.

2. Wind forces.
3. Multiple sources of sound.
4. Passage of blades in a rotary machine such as a compressor, pump or turbine.
5. Variations in air pressure.
46.
An 8-cylinder Formula one car engine peaks at 20,000 RPM. One of the sound
frequencies it produces is around:
1. 8 Hz.
2. 20 kHz.
3. 400 Hz.
4. 2000 Hz.
5. 2667 Hz.
47.
A gas turbine rotates at 60,000 RPM and has 50 blades on its largest diameter. One of
the sound frequencies it produces is around:
1. 50 kHz.
2. 50 Hz.
3. 5000 Hz.
4. 60 kHz.
5. 20 kHz.
48.
A 12-cylinder Italian Formula one car engine peaked at 15,000 RPM. One of the sound
frequencies it produces is around:

1. 3 kHz.
2. Something very annoying.
3. Music to an engineer.
4. A horrible scream.
5. 20,000 Hz.
49.
How is noise transmission from plant reduced?
1. Cannot be reduced, only contained within plant room.

2. Select quieter plant.
3. Seal plant room doors.
4. Locate plant room away from occupied rooms.
5. Flexible rubber and spring mountings.
50.
1. Porous sound-absorbing materials.

2. Thicker concrete walls and floors.
3. Bolt refrigeration compressor to concrete slab.
4. Line plant room with lead.
5. Sit further away from it.
51.
Which item of plant does not normally create noise?
1. Fans and pumps

2. Refrigeration compressors.
3. Fired water heaters.
4. Air compressors.
5. Piped systems.
52.
Which frequency range is audible?
1. 2 kHz to 200 kHz.

2. Infinite range.
3. 200 kHz to 1 MHz.
4. 0 Hz to 10000 Hz.
5. 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
53.
A noisy machine on a plant room base:
1. Radiates direct sound in straight lines only.

2. Fills the plant room with noise.
3. Sounds equally noisy from all directions.
4. Produces a spherical field of sound waves.
5. Produces a hemispherical sound field.
54.
A noisy machine on a plant room concrete floor:
1. Has no sound directivity.

2. May direct sound more strongly in a particular direction.
3. Sends direct sound field through the floor.
4. Only creates a reverberant sound field.
5. Gains a benefit from sound energy absorbed by the floor.
Noise and vibration

55.
What happens if an air conditioning fan is run at its natural frequency of vibration, say,
100 RPM?
1. Nothing special.
2. Fan can continue to run at this speed indefinitely.
3. It is the ideal speed for the fan as it produces maximum aerodynamic efficiency.
4. Fan cannot vibrate.
5. Fan vibration can cause destruction.
56.
Explain, with the aid of sketches, ways in which the noise and vibration produced by the
mechanical and electrical services of a building can be reduced before they become a
nuisance for the buildings users.
57.
Explain how sound energy is dissipated into the environment.
58.
What does natural frequency of vibration mean?
1. Damped vibration.
2. Strike a guitar string and it vibrates at up to four times its natural frequency depending
on volume of sound box.
3. Bounce a coil spring and it vibrates at its natural frequency of vibration.
4. A frequency mechanically forced upon an item, such as by a motor.
5. A material never vibrates at this frequency.
Noise rating
59.
What does NR stand for?
1. Noise resonance.
2. Normal rating.
3. No resonance.
4. Noise ratification.
5. Noise rating.
60.
1. Humans respond to sound power level within a range of audible frequencies.

2. Humans respond to loudness produced over a range of audible frequencies.
3. Sound pressure levels are added to create an overall relationship to ear response.
4. Sound power levels are added to create an overall relationship to ear response.
5. Loudest sound at any frequency is taken as ear response.
61.
1. Loudest sound at any one frequency determines maximum discomfort.

2. Loudest sound at 1 kHz defines maximum discomfort.
3. Rating discomfort is entirely subjective and varies widely.

4. Ear responds most to widely spaced sound waves.
5. Sound loudness at specific frequencies is related to ear response at same frequencies.
62.
How is noise related to human ear response?
1. Noise rating curves represent human ear response to the range of audible frequencies.
2. Sounds are equally loud to the human ear at any audible frequency.
3. Loudness is not related to sound pressure level.
4. Loudness relates solely to sound power level.
5. Ear response is a flat line over all frequencies.
63.
How is noise related to human ear response?
1. Noise rating curves specify equal sound power level for all frequencies.
2. Noise rating curves specify equal sound pressure level for any frequency.
3. Noise rating curves specify equal loudness for a range of frequencies.
4. Noise rating are subjectively assessed.
5. Machines are given a noise rating value.
64.
Which of these is not correct about noise rating?
1. Critically quiet areas such as a recording studio are designed to NR20.

2. NR 60 to NR 80 are found in heavy industrial facilities.
3. Office environments require external traffic and mechanical services noise to be
controlled to around NR 40.
4. NR 80 is not suitable for a library.
5. Noise rating is in percentages.
65.
Explain how noise rating curves relate to the response of the human ear and are used in
the design of mechanical services plant and systems.

See explanation in Chapter 15.
66.
The centrifugal fan in an office in an air-handling plant produces the noise spectrum
shown in Table 15.9 of the book. Calculate the sound pressure levels for noise ratings NR
35, NR 40, NR 45, NR 50 and NR 55 and plot the noise rating curves for the frequency
range 31.5 Hz to 8 kHz. Plot the room sound pressure levels on the same graph and find
which noise rating is not exceeded.
NR 40 is not exceeded in the room.
67.
A model XT45 water chiller is to be located within a plant room on the roof of a hotel in
a city centre. The plant room is 12 m long, 10 m wide and 3 m high. The room directivity
index is 2. The plant operator will normally be 1 m from the noise source. The floor is
concrete; the roof is lined internally with a 50 mm polyester acoustic blanket with a
metallized film surface. The plant room walls are 115 mm brickwork. There are no
windows. The water chiller manufacturer provided the sound power levels as 100 dB
overall, 74 dB at 63 Hz, 89 dB at 125 Hz, 95 dB at 250 Hz, 97 dB at 500 Hz, 99 Hz at 1
kHz, 97 dB at 2 kHz and 90 dB at 4 kHz.
1. Check that the correct data is entered onto the working copy of the original worksheet
file DBPLANT.WKS and find the noise rating that is not exceeded within the plant
room.
NR 80.
2. The plant room has three external walls. The nearest openable window in nearby
buildings is at a distance of 15 m from a plant room wall. There is no acoustic barrier
between a plant room wall and the recipients window. The directivity index for the
outward projection of sound is taken as 3 dB. Find the noise rating at the recipients
window and state what the result means.
NR 25, no intrusive noise from the chiller.
3. A corridor adjoins the plant room. The target sound space, an office, is on the opposite
side of the corridor. The corridor is 10 m long, 1 m wide and 3 m high. It has a room
directivity index of 2, a carpeted concrete floor, plastered brick walls and a plasterboard
ceiling. The common wall between the plant room and the corridor is 10 m long, it is
constructed with 115 mm plastered brickwork and it does not have a door. There are no
windows. There is no other sound barrier. Find the noise rating which would be found at
a distance of 0.5 m from the plant room wall while within the corridor.
NR 45.
4. The target office is 10 m long, 10 m wide and 3 m high. The room directivity index is 2.
The nearest sedentary occupant of the office will be 1 m from the corridor wall. The
floor has pile carpet, the walls are plastered brick and there is a suspended ceiling of 15
mm acoustic tile and 50 mm glass fibre-matt. The office has four 2 m 2 m singleglazed windows on two external walls. The office wall that adjoins the corridor is 115
mm plastered brickwork and it has one 2 m2 door into the corridor. Find the noise rating
(NR) and sound pressure levels (SPL) dB that are experienced in the target office. State
what effect the office and plant room doors will have on the noise rating in the target
room. Recommend appropriate action to be taken with these doors.
NR 20 when doors have equal sound reduction to the walls, have airtight seals and are
closed.
68.
A centrifugal fan is located within the basement plant room of an office building. The
plant room is 8 m long, 6 m wide and 3 m high. The room directivity index is 2 and the
plant operator will normally be 1 m from the noise source. The floor and ceiling are
concrete, there are four 230 mm brick walls and one acoustically treated door. There are no
windows in the plant room. The sound power levels of the fan are: 86 dB overall, 64 dB at
63 Hz, 66 dB at 125 Hz, 72 dB at 250 Hz, 80 dB at 500 Hz, 86 Hz at 1 kHz, 82 dB at 2
kHz and 77 dB at 4 kHz.
1. Find the noise rating that is not exceeded within the plant room.
NR 80.
2. A corridor and staircase connect the plant room to the Reception area of the building.
The corridor is 6 m long, 1 m wide and 3 m high. It has a room directivity index of 2.
The corridor has a concrete floor, plastered brick walls and a plasterboard ceiling. The
common wall between the plant room and corridor is 2 m long. The sound reduction
index of the plant room door is 20 dB at each frequency from 125 Hz to 4 kHz. There is
no other sound barrier. Find the noise rating that would be found at a distance of 1 m
from the plant room in the corridor.
65 dB due to sound escape through door.
3. The Reception area is 12 m long, 8 m wide and 3 m high. The room directivity index is
2. There are 10 m2 of single-glazed windows in Reception. There is a door at the top of
the staircase down to the plant room. The stairs door is 1 m wide, 2 m high and it has a
sound reduction index of 20 dB at each frequency from 125 Hz to 4 kHz. The nearest
occupant will be 1 m from the stairs door. The floor has thermoplastic tiles on concrete,
the walls are plastered brick and there is a plasterboard ceiling. Find the noise rating
which is not exceeded in Reception.
NR 35.
69.
Oil-fired hot-water boilers are located in a plant room in the basement of an exhibition
and trade centre building in a city centre. The plant room is 10 m long, 10 m wide and 5 m
high. The room directivity index is 2. The floor, walls and ceiling are concrete. There are
no windows. The reference sound power level of the boiler plant is 88 dBA.
1. Find the anticipated spectral variation in the sound power level for the frequency range
from 63 Hz to 4 kHz from Table 15.4 and Figure 15.1 in the book, enter the data into the
worksheet and find the noise rating that is not exceeded within the boiler plant room.
NR 75.
2. The plant room has three 100 mm concrete external walls. The nearest recipient can be
1 m from the external surface of a boiler plant room wall. There is no acoustic barrier
between a plant room wall and a recipient. The directivity index for the outward
projection of sound is taken as 3 dB. Find the noise rating at the nearest recipients
position and state what the result means.
NR 45, equivalent to the background noise level in a corridor.
3. A hot-water pipe and electrical cable service duct connects the boiler plant room to
other parts of the building. The concrete-lined service duct is 30 m long, 2 m wide and 1
m high. Both ends of the service duct have a 100 mm concrete wall. Calculate the noise
rating within the service duct at its opposite end from the boiler plant room.
NR 35.
4. A conference room 115 mm brick wall adjoins the service duct at the furthest end from
the boiler plant room. The conference room is 12 m long, 10 m wide and 4 m high. The
room directivity index is 2. The nearest sedentary occupant will be 0.5 m from the
service duct wall. The floor has pile carpet, the walls are plastered brick and there is a
suspended ceiling of 15 mm acoustic tile and 50 mm glass fibre matt. There are no
windows. Find the noise rating that is produced in the conference room by the boiler
plant.
NR 20, there is no intrusive noise.
70.
A four-pipe chilled-water and hot-water fan coil unit is located within the false ceiling
space above an office in an air-conditioned building. Conditioned outdoor air is passed to

the fan coil unit through a duct system. The office is 5 m long, 4 m wide and 3 m high. The
room directivity index is 2. The office has a concrete floor with thermoplastic tiles and 115
mm plastered brick walls. The 700 mm deep suspended ceiling has 12 mm fibreboard
acoustic tiles, recessed fluorescent luminaires, ducted supply and return air with a supply
air diffuser, a return air grille and a concrete ribbed slab for the floor above. The office has
a double-glazed window of 2 m x 2 m. The reference sound power level of the fan coil unit
is 85 dBA. Enter the ceiling space as the plant room and bypass the intermediate space data
as directed.
1. Find the anticipated spectral variation in the sound power level of the fan coil unit for
the frequency range from 63 Hz to 4 kHz from Table 15.4 and Figure 15.1 in the book.
Enter the data into the worksheet and find the noise rating that is not exceeded within
the ceiling space above the office.
NR 60.
2. Find the noise rating that is not expected to be exceeded within the office at head
height. Assume that the sound reduction of the acoustic tile ceiling is maintained across
the whole ceiling area.
NR 40.
3. Sketch a cross-section of the fan coil unit installation and identify all the possible noise
paths into the office.
Through the supply and return air ducts, noise radiation from the outer case of the fan coil
unit, from the ceiling space through ceiling tiles, light fittings, noise break-in from the ceiling
space into the supply and return air ducts and then into the office, structurally transmitted
vibration from the fans, main air-handling plant noise through the outside air duct to the fan
coil unit.
4. List the ways in which the potential noise paths into the office can be, or may need to
be, attenuated.
Acoustic lining in the outdoor air, supply air and return air ducts, anti-vibration rubber
mounts for the fan coil unit and the fan within it, acoustic lining within the fan coil unit,
acoustic blanket above the recessed luminaires and above the ceiling tiles.
Plant room calculations

71.
1. Cannot be reduced, only contained within plant room.

2. Select quieter plant.
3. Seal plant room doors.
4. Locate plant room away from occupied rooms.
5. Flexible rubber and spring mountings.
72.
An air-conditioning centrifugal fan has an overall sound power level (SWL) of 75 dBA.
The fan is to be installed centrally within a plant room that has a room absorption constant
R of 12 m2. Calculate the sound pressure level that will be produced close to the fan, in the
plant room at 1000 Hz when the fan is operating, and also generally within the room.
R 100 mm SPL 87 dB; R 1 m SPL 71 dB.
73.
A 900 mm diameter axial fan is to be installed on the concrete floor of an 8 m 4 m 3
m high plant room. The fan sound power level at 1000 Hz is 89 dB. The room absorption
constant R at 1000 Hz is 8 m2 and the reverberation time is 0.4 s. Calculate the room sound
pressure level at a radius of 300 mm from the fan, and the reverberant room sound pressure
level.
Directivity Q 2, R 0.5 m SPL 92 dB, reverberant SPL 79 dB.
74.
A reciprocating water chilling refrigeration compressor has an overall sound power
level of 92 dBA. It is to be located within a concrete-and-brick plant room that has a

reverberation time of 1.8 s and a volume of 250 m3. Calculate the plant room reverberant
sound pressure level.
84 dBA.
75.
An air-handling plant has an overall sound power level of 81 dB. The plant room has an
external wall of 10 m2 that has an acoustic attenuation of 35 dB and ventilation openings

having a free area of 3 m2. The windows of residential and office buildings are at a distance
of 12 m from the plant room wall. Calculate the external sound pressure level at the
windows and recommend what, if any, attenuation is needed at the plant room.
Through the wall SPL2 19 dB; through air vent 49 dB; open air vent causes noise to bypass
the attenuation of the wall and may need acoustic louvers or an acoustic barrier.
76.
A forced draught gas-fired boiler has an overall sound pressure level of 96 dB. The
boiler plant room has an external wall of 60 m2 that has an acoustic attenuation of 25 dB
and two louver doors to admit air for combustion. Calculate the external sound pressure
level at a distance of 20 m from the plant room wall. State your recommendations for the
attenuation of the boiler and the plant room.
Through the wall SPL2 47 dB; through air vents in doors 59 dB; open air vent causes noise
to bypass the attenuation of the wall; burner needs an acoustic enclosure.
Reverberant and direct sound fields

77.
What is a reverberant sound field?
1. Sound transmitted over a large distance.

2. Sound passing through a structure.
3. What remains within an enclosure after source energy is absorbed by the building
structure.
4. Reflected sound.
5. Sound pressure level measured in an anechoic laboratory chamber.
78.
Explain what is meant by direct and reverberant sound fields.
79.
Direct sound field:
1. Increases in intensity further from the source.

2. Remains at a constant noise at any distance from the source while hearer remains in the
source plant room.
3. Decreases linearly with distance from source.
4. Falls with the inverse square of the distance from the sound source.
5. Doubles the value of the reverberant sound field.
80.
Which of these is not correct about absorbing sound energy?
1. Dense materials absorb acoustic energy efficiently.

2. Highly porous materials are good sound absorbers.
3. The denser the material mass, the greater the sound absorption.
4. A 75 mm air cavity behind a sheet of plasterboard is a good sound absorber.
5. A plastered brick wall has a low sound absorption coefficient.
81.
Which is not correct about reverberation time?
1. When short, below a second, the room seems lively.

2. Long reverberation time causes room to sound noisy and echoes.
3. A lecture theatre needs a short reverberation time.
4. A large volume car manufacturing building has a long reverberation time.
5. When short, below a second, the room seems dull.
82.
Which is not correct about an anechoic chamber?
1. Used to measure sound power level from acoustic sources such as fans and
compressors.
2. Must have no reverberant sound field.
3. Lined with fully absorbent foam wedges.
4. Sounds perfectly dull.
5. Used to measure reverberant field sound pressure level from acoustic sources such as
fans and compressors.
83.
Which is not correct for sound fields?
1. Direct sound from a source.
2. Anywhere a source provides sound power level.

3. An enclosure having a reverberant sound pressure level (SPL).
4. Anywhere receiving sound pressure level.
5. Enclosure having a reverberant sound field and directly transmitted sound pressure from
a source.
84.
Which does not describe a direct sound field?
1. Sound transmitted over an outdoor distance.

2. Sound pressure level measured within an anechoic laboratory chamber.
3. Sound pressure level created only by the source.
4. Reflected sound.
5. Line of sight transmitted sound.
85.
What is a reverberant sound field?
1. Sound transmitted over a large distance.

2. Sound passing through a structure.
3. What remains within an enclosure after source energy is absorbed by the building
structure.
4. Reflected sound.
5. Sound pressure level measured in an anechoic laboratory chamber.
86.
Which is correct for sound reverberation time?
1. Time between echoes.

2. How long a sound level continues.
3. Time lag between directly received sound and reverberated sound.
4. Time for a sound to decrease to zero in a room after source is switched off.
5. Time taken for a sound to decrease by 60 dB.
87.
A sound pressure level of 30 dB is:
1. Very loud.
2. Loud noise.
3. Acceptable for an office environment.
4. Almost imperceptible.
5. Taken as zero base level.
88.
Reverberation time is:
1. Typically one minute or longer.

2. A few seconds.
3. Produced by sound bouncing from multiple soft surfaces.
4. Not important.
5. Only needed in concert halls.
89.
1. Always many minutes.

2. Less than 0.001 s.
3. Uncomfortably loud noise.
4. Produced by sound bouncing from multiple hard surfaces.
5. Inaudible sound.
90.
1. Only heard in a cave.

2. An echo.
3. Noise generated by a reciprocating machine.
4. Not heard in a lounge room.
5. Due to drumming of sides of sheet metal air ducts.
91.
What is correct about an anechoic chamber?
1. Used to measure reverberant sound field.

2. Lined with hard surface materials to contain sound within room.
3. Has fully sound-reflecting surfaces.
4. Used to measure reverberant sound field.
5. Used to measure direct sound field.
92.
Which is correct about an anechoic chamber?
1. Lined with 100% absorbing surfaces.

2. Only has walls lined with sound absorbing foam wedges.
3. Not used to measure sound power level of a sound source.
4. Used to analyse sound frequencies in a building.
5. Must have a concrete floor.
93.
Which is correct about an anechoic chamber?
1. Cannot find realistic sound output from a machine.

2. One with a concrete floor, lined wall and lined ceiling, used to measure outdoor realistic
sound output from a source.
3. Only used for sound recording.
4. Used for testing musical instruments.

5. Has multiple echoes.
94.
1. Used to measure sound power level from acoustic sources such as fans and
compressors.
2. Must have no reverberant sound field.
3. Lined with fully absorbent foam wedges.
4. Sounds perfectly dull.
5. Used to measure reverberant field sound pressure level from acoustic sources such as
fans and compressors.
95.
1. It has no reverberant sound field.

2. Its walls, floors and ceiling are perfect sound absorbers.
3. Allows a spherical sound field from a centrally placed source.
4. Used for measuring reverberation time from a test item.
5. It is a laboratory to measure sound power level of an item.
Room absorption
96.
What do room surfaces do to sound fields?
1. Do not restrain the sound field.

2. Radiate sound from the room.
3. Reflect sound waves.
4. Create noise.
5. Nothing significant.
97.
How do materials absorb sound energy?
1. Molecular vibration.
2. Physical vibration to dissipate sound energy.
3. Equally at all sound pressure levels.
4. Only by means of holes and cracks in the material.
5. Building materials cannot absorb sound.
98.
How do materials absorb sound energy?
1. All materials absorb sound energy equally.

2. Only porous materials have any effect.
3. Selectively at different sound frequencies.
4. Selectively at different sound pressure levels.
5. Brick only absorbs sound at one frequency.
99.
Which of these is not correct about absorbing sound energy?
1. Dense materials absorb acoustic energy efficiently.

2. Highly porous materials are good sound absorbers.
3. The denser the material mass, the greater the sound absorption.
4. A 75 mm air cavity behind a sheet of plasterboard is a good sound absorber.
5. A plastered brick wall has a low sound absorption coefficient.
100. A plant room for a refrigeration compressor is 6 m 4 m in plan and 3 m high. It has
four brickwork walls, a concrete floor and a concrete roof. Select the surface absorption
coefficients for the frequency range 125 Hz to 4000 Hz. Calculate the room absorption
constant and the reverberation time for the plant room at each frequency. Do the
calculations manually and then enter the same data into the worksheet to validate the
results.
Reverberation time T 2.901 s at 125 Hz, 3.462 s at 250 Hz, 3.462 s at 500 Hz, 3.157 s at 1
kHz, 2.752 s at 2 kHz and 3.253 s at 4 kHz.
Room sound pressure levels

101. Sound travels through air in the form of:
1. Straight lines.
2. Electromagnetic radiation.
3. Sinusoidal alternating frequency.
5. Waves.
102. Sound does not cause:

1. Compression waves in air.
2. Physical vibration of glazing and thin steel sheet.
3. Variation of the barometric air pressure at the wave front.
4. Oscillation of the eardrum.
5. Stiff materials to vibrate.
103. Sound does not require:

1. A receptive eardrum.
2. Elastic transfer medium.
3. Compressible transfer medium.

4. Stiff material to pass through.
5. Energy to create it.
104. Which is true of sound?

1. Energy is used to create it.
2. Heat and sound are mutually convertible.
3. No energy is needed to generate sound waves.
4. Sound energy can be usefully recovered.
5. Sound waves are temperature dependent.
105. Which is not true about sound reception?

1. Ear response is nil.
2. Stimulation of brain to interpret into something meaningful.
3. Physical vibration of a microphone diaphragm to convert it into meaningful energy
pulses.
4. Nothing is needed as it just exists.
5. Sensitivity to very small variations in atmospheric pressure.
106. Reference point for sound level measurement is:

1. Absolute zero sound.
2. Lowest audible level by a domestic animal.
3. Smallest sound detectable by human ear.
4. Zero atmospheric pressure as found in space.
5. Inaudible level created in a test laboratory.
107. Atmospheric sound pressure waves are measured by:

1. Vacuum chamber.
2. Absolute pressure units, Pa.
3. Frequency.
4. Speed in air.
5. Relative pressure units.
108. Creation of sound uses:

1. Natural forces from the atmosphere.
2. Mechanically produced force.
3. Radiation energy.
4. Nothing is consumed, only converted.
5. Wind pressure.
109. Sound waves repeat at a frequency due to:

1. Absorption by porous surfaces.
2. Wind forces.
3. Multiple sources of sound.
4. Passage of blades in a rotary machine such as a compressor, pump or turbine.
5. Variations in air pressure.
110. Sound waves repeat at a frequency due to:

1. Bouncing from hard surfaces.
2. Multiple passageways through porous materials.
3. Variable wind forces.

4. Air temperature variation.
5. Interference from radio frequency waves.
111. A single-storey office building has floor dimensions of 40 m 30 m and a height of 3 m

to a suspended acoustic tile ceiling. The average height of the ceiling void is 1.5 m. A plant
room is adjacent to the roof void. There is a common plant room wall of 10 m 1.5 m high
in the roof void. The sound pressure level in the plant room is expected to be 61 dB. The
reverberation time of the roof void is 0.6 s. The plant room wall adjoining the roof void has
a sound reduction index of 13 dB. Calculate the sound pressure level that is produced
within the roof void as the result of the plant room noise. Comment on the resulting sound
pressure level.
SPL in roof is 32 dB; the large volume and short reverberation time assist in attenuating the
plant room noise.
112. A hospital waiting area has floor dimensions of 8 m 12 m and a height of 3 m to a

plasterboard ceiling. A packaged air conditioning unit is housed in an adjacent room. There is
a common wall of 15 m2 and sound reduction index of 35 dB to the two rooms. The sound
pressure level in the plant room is expected to be 72 dB. The reverberation time of the waiting
room is 1.3 s. Calculate the sound pressure level that will be produced in the waiting room.
33 dB.
113. A meeting room has floor dimensions of 8 m x 6 m and a height of 2.7 m to a suspended
tile ceiling. The reverberation time of the room is 0.7 s. A fan coil heating and cooling unit
creates a sound pressure level of 43 dB in the ceiling space. The acoustic tile ceiling has a
sound reduction index of 8 dB. Calculate the sound pressure level in the meeting room.
37 dB.
114. A hotel bedroom is 6 m long, 5 m wide and 2.8 m high and it has a reverberation time of
0.4 s. The air-conditioning plant room generates a sound pressure level of 56 dB in the
service space above the ceiling of the bedroom. The plasterboard ceiling has a sound
reduction index of 16 dB. Calculate the sound pressure level in the bedroom.
39 dB.
Sound power and pressure

115. State what is meant by sound power and sound pressure level. State the units of
measurement for sound power, sound pressure, sound power level and sound pressure
level.
116. Define the terms sound power level and sound pressure level.
117. Explain the term sound power level (SWL).

1. Number of Watts of acoustic energy output from a source.
2. Number of Watts of acoustic energy input at a source.
3. Calculates power in Watts of acoustic energy from a formula suitable for all sources.
4. Describes the peak variation and frequency of acoustic power output from a machine.
5. Relative scale for acoustic power of a source.
118. What does acoustic power generate?
1. A field of sound pressure waves around the source.

2. Noise.
3. Reverberant sound field.
4. A field of sound power waves around the source.
5. Sound power level in a room adjacent to where the source is located.
119. Sound pressure level within a plant room consists of:

1. Uncomfortable noise.
2. Noise produced by physical vibration.
3. Noise transmitted through the building structure.
4. Direct sound field.
5. Direct plus reverberant sound field.
120. What does a direct sound field do?

1. Increases in intensity further from the source.
2. Remains at a constant noise at any distance from the source while hearer remains in the
source plant room.
3. Decreases linearly with distance from source.
4. Falls with the inverse square of the distance from the sound source.
5. Doubles the value of the reverberant sound field.
121. Reverberant sound field is due to what?

1. Directly radiated noise from a machine.
2. Average value of the sound pressure waves bouncing around within the room.
3. Sound received by a room from structure transmission.
4. Background noise before plant is switched on.

5. Summation of all sound sources within a room.
122. Sound pressure level, SPL dB, within a room is:

1. Reverberant sound field.
2. Direct sound field.
3. Reflected sound.
4. Greatest noise source.
5. Summation of direct and reverberant sound fields.
Structure-borne noise
123. How can the structure of a building transmit noise?
1. Concrete-framed structures cannot as noise is dampened.
2. Steel and concrete structures absorb all acoustic energy.
3. Structures always absorb acoustic energy and dissipate it as heat.
5. Physical movement.
124. How does noise enter a structure?

1. It cannot.
2. Only through cracks and openings.
3. Air pressure waves vibrate structure.
4. Physical vibration from rotary or reciprocating plant in contact with steel or concrete
structure.
5. Through windows.
125. Sound transmission occurs:

1. From high SWL to low SPL.
2. Through dense concrete.
3. In the direction of airflow.
4. From a location of higher sound pressure level to a location of lower sound pressure
level.
5. From a location of higher sound power level to a location of lower sound power level.
126. Which is not a way to improve the sound insulation effectiveness of a single glazed
window?
1. Close it.
2. Seal all air gaps.
3. Leave window cracked open.
4. Seal gaps and double glaze.
5. Replace with thicker glass.
127. Sound insulation is:

1. Reticulation.
2. Attenuation.
3. Easy and low cost for sound frequencies below 1 kHz.
4. The same for all frequencies by all materials.
5. Temperature-dependent.
128. Which is not true about building materials?
1. Resonate at low frequencies, as low as 100 Hz.

2. Resonate at high frequencies, above 5 kHz.
3. All materials vibrate.
4. All have a natural frequency of vibration.
5. All attenuate sound.
Terminology
129. Explain the meaning of SWL:
1. Selective wind loading.
2. Sound wind level.
3. Sound watts level, meaning power.
4. Sound pressure level, meaning energy.
5. Sound watts loudness, meaning loudness power.
130. What does resonance mean?

1. Sound produced by a vibrating material.
2. Synchronous with 50 Hz alternating current frequency, such as a 3000 RPM motor.
3. Acoustic energy causing vibration.
4. Forcing frequency exceeds natural frequency of vibration of a material or plant item.
5. Forcing frequency equals natural frequency of vibration of a material or plant item.
131. What does natural frequency of vibration mean?

1. Undamped vibration.
2. Strike a tuning fork and it vibrates at its natural frequency, perhaps sounding a musical
note.
3. Bounce a coil spring and it vibrates at twice its natural frequency of vibration.
4. A frequency that cannot be mechanically produced.
5. A material or item can only vibrate at this frequency.
132. What does natural frequency of vibration mean?

1. Damped vibration.
2. Strike a guitar string and it vibrates at up to four times its natural frequency depending
on volume of sound box.
3. Bounce a coil spring and it vibrates at its natural frequency of vibration.
4. A frequency mechanically forced upon an item, such as by a motor.
5. A material never vibrates at this frequency.
16
Mechanical transportation
Builders work
1. List the builders work associated with lift installations. Show by means of sketches or
drawings where these items will be located and how they will be performed by the
construction team. At what stage of the building will the lift installation be constructed and
how will it be achieved?
Energy implications
2. Relate the HM Governments Carbon Plan 2011 to the use of mechanical transportation
within and between buildings. Can you identify any conflicts of intention? How could the
use of primary energy for mechanical transportation be reduced? Do you consider that
commercial buildings have become too high and wasteful of energy for transport? What
could be done about it? How could it be justifiable to travel less in our work to reduce
carbon emissions?
Escalator
3. Visit an escalator system, with the permission of the building manager if it is not a public
facility. Photograph (if possible), report and draw a detailed description of the installation,
space dimensions and suitability for the application. Comment on the quality of service
provided.
4. Which are correct about escalators?

1. Run continuously.
2. Reversible in flow direction.
3. Stop and start frequently to save energy.

4. Require electrical drive.
5. Provide sloping and horizontal travel.
5. Which is correct about lift and escalator installations?

1. Lift systems can be added to the building design after the important design decisions
have been agreed.
2. Escalators are just motorized stairways and do not need much design work.
3. Lift systems are an afterthought in the overall concept of the building.
4. Transportation systems do not cost much.
5. Mechanical movement systems for the buildings occupants are critical to the success of
the project.
6. Explain how transportation systems are employed within and between buildings to assist
the movement of people and goods. Include details of the main characteristics of the
systems, their performance and costs.
7. Sketch, draw or illustration from the Internet and publications, how drive systems for
mechanical transportation systems work. Clearly show their principles of operation, how
they use primary energy and where they impose loads on the building structure.
8. Give examples of mechanical transportation systems used in buildings. Take photographs

of installations available to you if permission is granted. Use the Internet and
manufacturers resources to illustrate current practices.
9. Comment on improvements which might be made in the current designs of mechanical

transportation systems used in buildings.
10.
Suggest some probable future developments that may occur for mechanical
transportation systems used in buildings, giving reasons.
11.
Discuss the statement, Having machines to move people through buildings contributes
significantly to obesity and lack of physical fitness.
12.
Compare the use of primary energy to operate mechanical transportation systems used
in buildings with alternatives and comment on the differences.
13.
Which are correct about transportation systems?
1. Allow people to become unfit, we should walk.

2. Are essential for several categories of building user.
3. Allow rapid movement around large sites.
4. Do not need much energy to operate.
5. Need no maintenance.
14.
Emergency electrical power systems:
1. Have massive banks of lead acid batteries to maintain electrical energy during a power
supply failure.
2. A diesel engine-driven electrical generator switches on at power supply failure to
provide emergency services.
3. Allow all lifts, lighting and air conditioning systems to continue operating without
interruption.
4. Are never tested.
5. Are used to supplement public network power supply at times of peak summer demand.
Lifts
15.
Explain with the aid of sketches, drawings or illustrations from the Internet, how high
speed electrically driven lifts operate and where they are used.
16.
Explain with the aid of sketches, drawings or illustrations from the Internet, how goods
and hospital lifts operate and where they are suitable.
17.
Discuss the statement, Having tall buildings where vertical travel can only be
accomplished by consuming primary energy, is not sustainable.
18.
Explain with the aid of sketches, drawings or illustrations from the Internet, how
hydraulic lifts operate and where they are suitable.
19.
Use a lift system in a building where you have permission to enter, and measure the
typical round trip time for a journey from the entrance foyer to the top of the building and
back to the foyer. Record the number of stops, passengers carried, type of lift system and
time taken by the door systems. Comment on the quality of service provided.
20.
Which are correct about lifts?
1. Lift capacity is designed to move the whole population of the building in or out within a
10-minute period.
2. Number and speed of lifts in an office building are designed to match the likely inflow
of people into the building.
3. Need negligible maintenance.
4. Lift cars have to be airtight.
5. Lift cars have an access hatch.
21.
The quality of a lift service is determined from:
1. Number of passengers carried in each car.

2. Highest car speed attainable.
3. Round trip time for one lift divided by the number of lifts available.
4. Passenger comfort.
5. Quietness of the lift system.
22.
Where could a double deck lift system apply?
1. Combined goods and passenger lift cars.

2. Commercial buildings of around 20 levels.
3. High speed long travel lifts.
4. Low speed short travel lifts.
5. Hospitals.
23.
1. Operate without electrical energy due to counterweights.

2. Do not take up much floor space.
3. Only run at a fixed speed.

4. Have computer control systems.
5. Are monitored by the building management system.
24.
1. Are located close to where people work in their offices.

2. Are bunched together centrally on high rise floors.
3. Take up considerable amount of floor space.
4. Form a central concrete core for a high rise building.
5. Are always slow to respond to push-button calls.
25.
1. Some are high speed lifts to bypass lower floors.

2. A tall building is zoned into lift service types.
3. Number and speed of lifts are not related to occupancy.
4. Maximum lift speed is around 30 km/h.
5. Lift cars must rock within their guide rails.
26.
Which are correct about lift drive arrangements?
1. Diesel engine drive through reduction gears, pulleys and cables.

2. Alternating current three-phase motors are used.
3. Oil tank, hydraulic pump and hydraulic ram within the lift shaft are used.
4. Variable speed direct current motors.
5. Something else.
27.
Which are correct about lift system control?
1. Push-button at each floor for every lift and passenger waits for one of them to stop.
2. Passenger just waits for the next car to arrive.
3. Every car stops at every floor.
4. Sequence switching to stop the next available car on that route.
5. Microprocessor control to optimize the service provided.
28.
Which are correct about lift maintenance?
1. All lift systems require weekly maintenance.

2. Lift systems are only worked on when they break down.
3. Hydraulically driven lifts have minimum maintenance.
4. Electrical lift systems experience guide-rail wear.
5. Electrical lifts require rope replacement, motor, control and drive system regular
maintenance.
29.
Lifts:
1. Are mainly for prestige.

2. A tall building is zoned into lift service types.
3. Number and speed of lifts are not related to occupancy.
4. Maximum lift speed is around 80 km/h.
5. Lift cars must rock within their guide rails.
Motor room
30.
Visit a lift motor room in a large building, with the permission of the building manager.
Photograph, report and draw a detailed description of the installation, room space
dimensions, control cabinets, motor and drive arrangement, ventilation and temperature
control systems.
31.
Which are correct about lift motor rooms?
1. There arent any, all the components are within the lift shafts.
2. The motor sits on top of each car and has a pulley at the top of the shaft.
3. An electrical lift motor room is situated at the top of each lift shaft.
4. A hydraulic lift motor room is at the base of the lift shaft.
5. Lift motor rooms are always halfway up the lift shaft.
32.
Which are correct about lift shafts and motor rooms?
1. Basement plants room for hydraulic lifts are self-contained and do not normally need air
conditioning, only ventilation.
2. Lift motor rooms can operate in any climate without any ventilation or cooling.
3. Lift shafts never have ventilation to outdoors.
4. Roof-level lift motor rooms must not exceed 40oC air temperature, although this is too
hot for personnel to work in.
5. Lift shafts and electrical motor rooms must have ventilation and temperature control.
33.
Which are correct about lift motor rooms?
1. AC and DC lift motors generate considerable amounts of heat energy.

2. The motor room must be a suitable working environment for the lift mechanics and
control technicians.
3. Electrical lift motor rooms can be noisy.
4. The electrical motor drives the lift cables with pulleys and wire ropes.
5. Lift car counterweight helps to minimize energy use.
34.
Lift shafts and motor rooms:
1. Basement plants room for hydraulic lifts are self-contained and need no ventilation.
2. Lift motor rooms can operate in any climate without any ventilation or cooling.
3. Lift shafts never have ventilation to outdoors.
4. Lift motors can work in any air temperature.
5. Lift shafts and electrical motor rooms must have ventilation and temperature control.
17
Question bank
A random selection of multiple choice questions from the range of subjects within the sixth
edition.
Acronyms
1. Which of these acronyms is correct?
1. ASHRAE means Australian Society for Heating, Refrigerating and Air Engineering.
2. AIRAH means American Institute for Refrigeration and Air Heating.
3. CIBSE stands for The Chartered Institution of Building Services Engineers.
4. BSRIA stands for British Services Refrigeration Institute for Air Conditioning.
5. CIC is the Council for Industry and Construction.
2. AR, BER, SER, DEC and iSBEM all relate to which?

1. Electrical engineering services and systems.
2. They are meaningless acronyms.
3. Types of zero carbon buildings.
4. Emission rating.
5. Types of energy audit.
3. What does BREEAM stand for?

1. Building Rehabilitation Electrical Energy Alternative Methodology.
2. Building Research Establishment Energy Audit Methodology.
3. Building Recycling Energy Effectiveness Association Member.
4. Brick Recycling Energy and Environment Assessment Method.
5. Building Research Establishment Environmental Assessment Method.

1. ASHRAE means American Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
Engineers.
2. AIRAH means Australian Institute for Refrigeration and Heating.
3. CIBSE stands for Council In British Scientific Engineering.
4. BSRIA stands for Building Services Refrigeration Institution for Air Conditioning.
5. CIC is the Construction Industry Confederation.

1. ASHRAE means African Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air Equipment.
2. AIRAH means Australian Institute of Refrigeration Air Conditioning and Heating.
3. CIBSE stands for Chartered Institute for British Scientific Engineering.
4. BSRIA stands for Building Services Research Institution for Air Conditioning.
5. CIC is the Construction Information Committee.

1. ASHRAE means Armenian Society of Heating, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
Engineering.
2. AIRAH means Austrian Institute for Refrigeration Air Heating.
3. CIBSE stands for Confederation of British Scientific Engineering.
4. BSRIA stands for Building Services Research and Information Association.
5. CIC is the Construction Industry Conference.
1. CIC is the Construction Industry Council.

2. EC means Engineers Confederation.
3. ODPM stands for Overall Design Primary Mandate.
4. RAEng is the Royal Army Engineering.
5. REHVA stands for Refrigeration, Engineering, Heating, Ventilating Association.

1. CIC is the Construction Industry Council.
2. EC means Engineering Council.
3. ODPM stands for Operational Design Permit Management process.
4. RAEng is the Royal Association of Engineers.
5. REHVA stands for Renewable Energy Heating and Ventilating Association.

1. CIC is the Construction International Confederation.
2. EC means European Confederation.
3. ODPM stands for Office of the Deputy Prime Minister.
4. RAEng is the Royal Aeronautical Engineers.
5. REHVA stands for Recherch Europe Harlanda Ventrique Appliqu.
10.
Which of these acronyms are correct?
1. CIC is the Confederation International for Construction.

2. EC means European Construction.
3. ODPM stands for Order Directive from the Prime Minister.
4. RAEng is the Royal Academy of Engineering.
5. REHVA stands for Federation of European Heating and Air Conditioning Associations.
11.
What does LEED stand for?
1. Low Energy Environmental Design.

2. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design.
3. Low Electrical Energy Demand.
4. Leading Electrical Energy Demonstration.
5. Leader in Energy Environment and Design.
12.
What is BREEAM?
1. Building Recyclers Associate Member.

2. A fish.
3. Registered trade mark of the Building Research Establishment.
4. Study organization for the flow of building-sourced debris in waterways.
5. A system demonstrating inefficient building design strategies.
13.
What is BREEAM?
1. Assessment of the environmental performance of a building.

2. Only used to analyse house designs.
3. Only applicable to new commercial building developments.
4. Energy assessment system for office buildings.
5. Completed building design solutions can be assessed for energy effectiveness.
14.
Under which conditions can BREEAM be applied?
1. Should be commenced at earliest preliminary design stage of a building.
2. Too late to use it once building is designed.

3. Cannot be applied to residences.
4. Must not be used to analyse existing buildings.
5. Cannot include health of indoor and outdoor environments for a building.
15.
What does BREEAM do?
1. Exposes inadequate design proposals.

2. Cannot produce an overall score for the building.
3. Give ratings awarded as fail, not recommended, minimum pass and recommended.
4. Certificate awarded can be used by building owner for promotional purposes.
5. A poorly rated building should remain confidential to the building owner.
16.
Which is not true about BREEAM?
1. Can be applied to industrial buildings.

2. Can be awarded to offices, homes, retail premises and schools.
3. Conducted by accredited raters.
4. Ratings awarded as pass, good, very good and excellent.
5. Too new and not popular with building owners as a poor rating reduces rental potential.
17.
What is LEED?
1. Lagging Energy Efficiency Download.

2. Leicestershire Energy and Environmental Design method.
3. Leeds, UK, energy analysis system for commercial building auditing.
4. Nothing to do with green building rating schemes.
5. Scheme devised by the Green Building Council, USA.
18.
Which is not correct about LEED?
1. A rating scheme only applying to new or green field building developments.

2. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design.
3. Provides ratings for houses, commercial, health, educational new and existing buildings.
4. A framework for assessing building performance.
5. Defines green buildings.
19.
What does ABGR stand for?
1. No meaning.
2. All Buildings Green Rationale.
3. All Building Greenhouse Rating.
4. Austrian Building Green Rating.
5. Australian Building Greenhouse Rating.
20.
Which is the correct meaning for ABGR?
1. Uses a standard multiplier for floor area and building type.

2. Applies to every type of building.
3. Based upon all energy consumption in a building for a year.
4. Absolute Building Green Rating.
5. All British General Rating system for all functions of a building.
Air conditioning
21.
Do air conditioning and lift systems lead to obesity?
1. Yes, absolutely.
2. Obesity is due to overeating only.

3. Obesity is due to working at computers too long each day.
4. Metabolism slows and we eat more in air conditioned environments.
5. Yes, modern facilities tend to reduce our physical activity and we eat less natural food.
22.
Which is not a current means of operating a humidifier?
1. Electrode or immersion heater steam boiler.

2. High pressure pumped water fog spray.
3. Spinning disk water atomizer.
4. Compressed air water atomizer spray.
5. Water tray in an AHU.
23.
Does air conditioning lead to obesity? Which of these may not be a valid argument?
1. Keeping home, vehicle and workplace at one temperature all year round promotes body
fat.
2. Cool air temperature encourages fat burning.
3. Thermal neutrality can only maintain the obesity status quo.
4. Warm air temperature decreases natural appetite.
5. Natural body temperature regulation from variable air temperature is a good thing.
24.
1. Recent research suggests thermal neutrality removes the need for natural body
temperature regulation activity to burn fat.
2. Obesity is due to lack of exercise.
3. Obesity is due to inadequate sleep.
4. Obesity is due to endocrine disruptive substances found in food.

5. Not the fault of air conditioning.
25.
1. Being too comfortable indoors makes us physically inactive.

2. We burn energy to combat the effects of the hot and cold environment.
3. In air conditioning, we become inactive.
4. In air conditioning, we eat more.
5. Stable thermal environment allows body to rest and suppresses appetite.
26.
Which is a valid justification for air conditioning?
1. Buildings packed to capacity with people, computer workstations and artificial lighting
usually need air conditioning in the UK.
2. The future habitability of planet Earth is assured whatever we may do to its natural
resources.
3. The pattern of energy use for the next 100 years of a buildings use has nothing to do
with its designers.
4. Building designers must ignore those few days in the year when hot humid weather
makes indoor conditions uncomfortable without mechanical cooling systems.
5. Correct design of glazing in commercial buildings for the UK always eliminates the
need for air conditioning.
Air quality
27.
We sense odours by:
1. Identifying smells;
2. Breathing onto others;

3. A measuring instrument;
4. Tasting them in our mouth;
5. Olfactory response.
28.
Satisfactory air quality may be deemed when:
1. 100% of the full-time occupants are satisfied;

4. Complaints cease.
5. Odours have been eliminated.
29.
Which of these may not be a cause for sick building syndrome?
1. Job-related stress and overwork.

2. Canteen food.
3. Excessive working hours.
4. Lack of exercise during the working day.
5. Perception of lack of personal support at work.
30.
Which of these may not be a cause for sick building syndrome?
1. Airborne fungi.
2. Noise.
3. Air filtration standard too high quality for the application.
4. Workstation ergonomics inadequate.
5. Boring or unsafe work.
31.
Which of these is not a contaminant of indoor air quality, IAQ?
1. Tobacco smoke.
2. Volatile organic compounds (VOC) from cleaning fluids.
3. Nitrogen.
4. Carbon monoxide.
5. Nitrogen dioxide.
32.
1. Pipe tobacco smoke.

2. Volatile organic compounds (VOC) from new furnishings and floor coverings.
4. Nitrogen trioxide.
5. Carbon dioxide.
33.
Where are oxides of nitrogen created?
1. Nitrogen is inert, it cannot oxidize.

2. Hydrocarbon combustion.
3. Electrolysis of air from electric spark or lightning.
4. Chemical reaction within lungs.
5. Leakage of nitrogen from high pressure liquid storage.

34.
Which of these are not a means for data transmission?
1. Cable conduit.
2. RS484.
3. 240-volt cables.
4. RS124.
5. Ethernet.
35.
Which of these is not a common standard for data transmission?
1. Wi-Fi.
2. RS484.
3. RS232.
4. RS300.
5. Comm-bus on a motherboard
36.
Which one of these should not be a feature of an intelligent building?
1. Window external louvers control solar gain from solar radiation sensor on each faade.
2. Car park ventilation fan speed varied in speed to respond to carbon monoxide level
within underground car park.
3. Lift sensing controls that minimize travel time for every passenger to each destination
by means of the users electronic tag worn at all times.
4. Each workstation has air conditioning, lighting and glare control that adjusts to each
specific user.
5. Manual key entry to building, window shade adjustment, light switches and no personal
control over air conditioning.
CO2 emissions
37.
Which is correct for the level of CO2 emissions for the UK?
1. 500 mega tonnes per year.

2. 500 tonnes per year.
3. 500 giga tonnes per year.
4. There arent any.
5. 500 million kilograms per year.
Density
38.
Which is correct about the density of humid air?
1. Decreases with increasing pressure.

2. Increases with increasing air temperature.
3. Varies with air temperature and pressure.
4. Not affected by humidity.
5. Increases as air velocity increases.
39.
Which is correct about the density of water?
1. Always 103 kg/m3.

2. 1013.25 m3/kg.
3. 101325 kg/m3.
4. 1.205 MJ/m3 K.
5. 1000 kg/m3 at 4oC.
40.
1. Cannot be measured.
2. Cannot be measured accurately.
3. Always relative to the specific gravity number.
4. 1000 times that of air.

5. Specific gravity is 1.0.
41.
1. 1.205 x 105 kg/m3.

2. 1 tonne/m3 at 4oC.
3. 1.012 x 103 kJ/m3.
4. 1.27 kJ/kg K.
5. 100 g/cm3.
42.
1. 11 g/cm3.
2. 1.2 x 103 kg/m3.
3. Specific gravity is 4.186.
4. 1000 tonne/m3 at 10oC.
5. 1 kg per litre.
Electrical
43.
What does inverter mean?
1. Alternating current phases are reversed.

2. It is an electronic soft starter for a three-phase motor.
3. Incoming 50 Hz alternating current is digitally reformed into an output frequency to a
motor in the range from 0 to 20000 Hz.
4. Incoming 50 Hz alternating current is digitally reformed into an output frequency to a
motor in the range from 0 to 50 Hz.
5. Alternating current is electronically converted into direct current to drive a motor.
44.
Why use a variable frequency inverter?
1. Motor runs quieter.

2. Less cost than a refrigeration capacity control system.
3. Saves energy as power consumption depends on motor speed.
4. Does not save anything and is a marketing gimmick.
5. Easier to control from a BMS.
45.
What are photovoltaic cells are used for?
1. Controlling artificial lighting systems.

2. Intruder detection.
3. Generating electricity.
4. Digital photography remote sensing.
5. Digital security camera data collector.
46.
What do we know about the energy effectiveness of wind turbine electricity generators?
1. They are 100% efficient.

2. Propeller blades are the least efficient design of turbine blade.
3. Power generation remains constant all day and night.
4. Wind velocity always turns the turbine.
5. Control system switches turbine generation on and off according to demand.
47.
What do we know about the energy effectiveness of wind turbine electricity generators?
1. They are very efficient at capturing free energy from the wind.
2. Propeller blades fly aeroplanes so must be very efficient turbines.

3. Annual average generation is around 35% of maximum potential.
4. Once installed, they last forever.
5. Wind turbines create no noticeable downside on the environment.
48.
How much greenhouse gas, carbon dioxide, comes from electricity?
1. None, it is the combustion of primary fuel to generate electricity that produce

atmospheric CO2.
2. 1.0 tonne CO2 per MWh.
3. Around 0.4 kg CO2/kWh.
4. Around 4 kg CO2/kWh.
5. Around 40 kg CO2/kWh.
49.
What does a CHP plant do?
1. Generates electricity for the national grid.

2. Provides emergency power when public supply fails.
3. Burns natural gas to generate hot-water heating.
4. Gas turbine engine drives an alternator in a public supply power station.
5. On-site gas turbine or reciprocating engine drives an alternator while engine cooling
water heats the building.
50.
What are photovoltaic cells used for on buildings?
1. Never used as it is an uneconomic embellishment.

2. What is a photovoltaic cell?
3. Alternative to roofing material.
4. Charging 12 volt emergency power supply batteries UPS.

5. On-site electricity generation with alternating current rectifiers, battery storage and
often used to meet some of the artificial lighting continuous demand.
51.
What is the meaning of inverter drive?
1. An electric motor installed in an inverted position.

3. Three-phase motor running in single phase.
4. Digitally driven motor.
5. Motor driven at variable alternating current frequencies.
52.
Which is correct about CCS?
1. Centralized carbon separation.

2. Too expensive to contemplate.
3. Potential to return most of carbon from flue gas back to the earth.
4. Good idea from the oil and gas industry.
5. A political nightmare.
53.
What is economic thickness of thermal insulation?
1. Found by calculation of minimum total cost.

2. When graph of capital cost of additional thermal insulation become horizontal.
3. When a graph of energy savings value reaches a peak.
4. Always occurs when payback from energy cost savings reaches two and a half years.
5. Thickest amount the building designer can accommodate.
54.
What are fluorinated hydrocarbons used for?
1. Swimming pool water treatment.

2. Biocide decontamination of cooling towers.
3. Ozone-depleting refrigerants.
4. Non-CFC foam insulation and furnishings.
5. Combustible gaseous fuel.
55.
A daytime use low energy primary school in northern England has walls, roof and floor
thermal transmittances below 0.2 W/m2 K. Windows are double glazed with a U value of 2
W/m2 K and natural ventilation is automatically controlled. A biomass condensing water
heater burning woodchip fuel provides low temperature under-floor and convector heater
central heating. The water heater fuel hopper is filled daily. Locally sourced forest regrowth
creates a carbon neutral building load. Spot the most significant of the problems.
1. Perfect scenario as heating creates no additional greenhouse gases.
2. Incomplete combustion of woodchip is an environmental hazard.
3. Daily maintenance duty makes plant operation inconvenient and costly.
4. Not a project widely applicable in the UK and produces odorous smoke that pollutes
nearby housing and commercial property; retrograde technology.
5. Basic design error of inability to control heat output from a continuously burning solid
fuel furnace in meeting a highly intermittent heat demand, leading to space overheating.
56.
A newly constructed daytime use low energy primary school in northern England was
anticipated to consume around 20 kWh/m2 floor area by electricity in accordance with design
standards. The first two years of operation showed electrical energy consumption of 80
kWh/m2. Spot the most significant probable cause of this non-compliance.
1. More electrical equipment installed than intended.
2. Less efficient electrical equipment installed than design standards.
3. Laptop computers, lights and data projectors remain switched on continuously.
4. The new building proves to be so warm and useful; it becomes fully used for
community events after school hours, evenings, weekends and school holidays.
5. Design data grossly under-estimates real usage.
57.
A newly constructed 15 kW propeller blade wind turbine cost 50,000. It is installed on
a site where wind is expected to provide an average usage efficiency of 35% over the whole
year. Potential energy generation value is 3000 per year. How many years will the wind
turbine take to recover its capital cost?
1. 15.
2. 10.
3. 16.
4. 17.
5. 35.
58.
Which is true about household gas consumption?
1. Sold in kWh units.

2. Sold in MJ units.
3. Varies with type of use and number in household.
4. Household use can be reliably predicted.
5. Predictable from local annual degree days.
59.
What is CCTV?
1. Computer closed television.

2. Computer connected total ventilation.
3. Closed circuit television.
4. Continuous circuit telephone version.
5. Circuit computer television.
60.
CFD stands for?
1. Comfort for disabled people.

2. Computational fluid dynamics.
3. Computer fluid dynamics.
4. Comfort frequency diagram.
5. Computer flow diagnostics.
61.
Which applies to atria?
1. Allows tall plants and trees to grow indoors.

2. Purely decorative feature.
3. Creates feeling of spaciousness in an otherwise cramped building site.
4. An entirely modern, twentieth-century, concept.
5. Creates draughty high ceilings.
62.
Which is not correct about atria?
1. Provides visual stimulus.

2. Often requires air conditioning.
3. Saves the cost of lift shafts.

4. Allows noise and glare to annoy sedentary workers.
5. May function as the return air path to the AHU.
63.
Which is the specific heat capacity of air?
1. Sensible heat content kJ/kg.

2. Total heat content kJ/kg.
3. 1.205 kJ/kg.
4. 1.012 kJ/kg K.
5. 4.186 kJ/kg K.
64.
Which is the specific heat capacity of air?
1. Ratio of absolute specific heat capacities.

2. Cannot be defined.
3. Varies with atmospheric pressure.
4. 1.012 kg K/W.
5. 1.012 kJ/kg K.
65.
Which is the specific heat capacity of water?
1. 1.013 kW/kg K.
2. 1.012 MJ/kg K.
3. 4.186 kg K/kW.
4. 4.186 kJ/kg K.
5. 4.2 kg K/kJ.
66.
Which is correct about the specific heat capacity of water?
1. Varies with water pressure.

2. 4.19 kW s/kg K.
3. A ratio.
4. 1.102 kJ/kg K.
5. Used to calculate the flow rate of heating and cooling system water.
67.
1. Decreases with increasing pressure.

2. Increases with increasing air temperature.
3. Varies with air temperature and pressure.
4. Not affected by humidity.
5. Increases as air velocity increases.
68.
1. 4.186 kg/m3 at 21oC, 60% relative humidity.

2. 1.013 kg/m3 at 20oC, sea level.
3. 0.802 m3/kg.
4. 1.205 kg/m3 at 20oC, 1013.25 mb.
5. 5.67 kg/m3.
69.
What does the exponential, e, mean?
1. A logarithm.
2. A variable number.
3. Always 10x, ten to the power x.
4. 2.718.
5. Has no meaning.
70.
1. Something which is raised to a power.

2. 10x
3. The sum of an infinite series.
4. Ratio of circumference to diameter of a circle.
5. 2.718.
71.
Which is correct about window shading?
1. Exterior solar blinds and shades eliminate solar heat gain through glazing.
2. Sedentary workstations alongside large areas of glazing may be unusable without solar
shading.
3. Solar radiation through glazing is the sole source of summer heat gain into a building.
4. Heat-absorbing coloured glass completely avoids the need for additional shading.
5. Air-conditioned buildings should have small windows.
72.
Which is correct about energy use in buildings?
1. Designers cannot predict future energy use of a building.

2. Energy modelling predicts design energy use by a building.
3. Retrofitting low energy systems into existing buildings is easily done in later years.
4. Future retrofitting of energy-saving systems can easily reduce an existing buildings
consumption to 25% of its design energy use.
5. The best that future retrofitting can hope to achieve is a 25% reduction in a buildings
actual energy consumption.
73.
What does an air curtain do?
1. Provides a security screen at an international airport flight passenger entrance.

2. A draught to overcome prevailing wind direction at a doorway.
3. Creates a downward or horizontal air stream across an open doorway.
4. Makes entering a building very draughty.
5. Wastes energy from fan power.
74.
What is the definition of designing domestic hot-water systems?
1. An exact science as all water flows are known to the designer.

2. Cold- and hot-water storage quantities allow for all simultaneous demand possibilities.
3. Provision of estimated storage and delivery quantities for randomly distributed demand.
4. A strategy to overcome any usage.
5. Finding the lowest cost system that will avoid most complaints.
Government policies
75.
What do you think of HM Governments Carbon Plan 2011?
1. Will shake up the EU.

2. Will cease further carbon dioxide pollution.
3. Will not save the world.
4. Makes the UK smarter than the USA.
5. Brave.
76.
Which is correct about International Energy Agency data?
1. Shows that all countries are reducing emissions.

2. Advertises good countries.
3. Rates countries according to their energy consumption.
4. Shows that global CO2 emissions are on target for compliance with the Kyoto Protocol.
5. Demonstrates what is really happening with world emissions.
77.
Which does HM Governments Carbon Plan 2011 do?
1. Has little effect on gas and petroleum consumption.

2. Diminishes energy use in buildings.
3. Prescribes how buildings are to be insulated and operated.
4. Is an alternative to the EU ETS.
5. Encourages reduction in CO2 emissions.
78.
Does taxing hydrocarbons reduce global CO2 emissions?
1. Of course it does, proven during recent 100 years of industrialization.

2. Forces the design of modest energy-using buildings.
3. Reduces personal transportation emissions.
4. Hasnt done so yet.
5. Taxation is a punishment for emitters.
79.
What is HM Governments Carbon Plan 2011 for?
1. Political gain within the UK.

2. Compliance with the Kyoto Protocol 1997.
3. Promotes green building design.

4. So that the UK performs better at reducing emissions than other EU nations.
5. To build more nuclear power stations.
80.
What is the point of HM Governments Carbon Plan 2011?
1. Political gain within the EU.

2. To remove carbon pollution.
3. Become the lowest energy cost nation.
4. To be ahead of the USA.
5. Reduce carbon emissions.
81.
Will HM Governments Carbon Plan 2011 achieve anything?
1. Counteract growth of emissions from China.

2. Remove atmospheric carbon dioxide.
3. No.
4. Make the UK ahead of the USA.
5. It already has.
Heat transfer
82.
Which correctly describes heat transfer?
1. Sensible heat transfer comprises all types.

2. Latent heat transfer raises temperature.
3. Sensible heat transfer is logged by a thermocouple and thermistor.
4. Latent heat transfer is hidden from view.
5. Sensible heat transfer only takes place through conduction and convection.
83.
Which correctly describes types of heat transfer?
1. Sensible heat transfer is the logical method.

2. Latent heat transfer occurs only in steam.
3. Radiation heat transfer is neither sensible nor latent.
4. Latent heat transfer is easily measured.
5. Sensible heat transfer takes place from an area of higher temperature to one of lower
temperature.
84.
Which is not correct about thermal transmittance?
1. Calculated from summation of all thermal resistances through a structure.

2. Unique value for a building material.
3. Different values for walls, floors and roofs to comply with building regulation
standards.
4. Reciprocal of the total thermal resistance of a building element.
5. Combines convective and radiant heat transfer.
85.
Which is correct about the Stefan Boltzmann constant?
1. Used to calculate convective heat transfer.

2. 4.186 kJ/kg K.
3. 1.012 kJ/kg K.
4. 5.67 x 10-8 W/m2 K4.
86.
Which describes a zero carbon building?
1. Supplied from solar power systems.

2. Forested timber, no glass, naturally heated and ventilated.
3. Consumes a minimum amount of energy for all uses.
4. Net exporter of electricity.
5. Probably no such thing.
87.
What are the energy benchmarks?
1. Best practice and normal for that building type.

2. Zero energy and worst example.
3. BREEAM zero score and LEED maximum allowed.
4. Asset Rating scale AG.
5. A 1950 heated and naturally ventilated office and a fully air-conditioned tower office.
88.
When designing the shape of a building, one should:
1. Maximize exposure to solar warming.

2. Ignore location, make it impressive.
3. Minimize solar overheating.
4. Say square in plan is always better for energy saving.
5. Minimize external surface area.
89.
Which is correct?
1. Building designers accurately calculate future energy use.

2. Architects do feedback studies of all their buildings.
3. New buildings always work perfectly as design predictions.
4. PROBE stands for probable recycling of built environment.

5. Only careful analytical review establishes how a new building achieves its objectives.
90.
What does the Greenhouse Rating of a building mean?
1. The higher the greenhouse gas production due to the building, the higher the greenhouse
rating.
2. A 10-star building produces no greenhouse gases.
3. Assessed greenhouse gas emission standard of a building.
4. Any new building, even if not painted green.
5. An emission standard applied to all types of buildings.
91.
Which is correct about low energy buildings?
1. A low energy building is one that requires the minimum amount of primary resource
energy to build it.
2. A low energy building may consume more energy to construct.
3. A low energy building consumes less energy during its 100+ years of use that an
equivalent building.
4. We have no idea what an equivalent building is for a specific site.
5. All buildings consume uncontrolled amounts of energy.
92.
Which is correct about low energy building designs?
1. Are always modern and look impressive.

2. Are always found to be ideally comfortable by users.
3. Must have large windows and glazed walling.
4. Must have small windows and high levels of thermal insulation.
5. Should consume a minimum of primary energy when compared with similar types and
sizes of buildings.
93.
What does sustainability mean for low energy buildings?
1. The mechanical and electrical services within this building all have a low maintenance
requirement.
2. All the water, sewerage, paper and plastic waste output from this building go to
recycling.
3. All the light bulbs and tubes from this building are recyclable.
4. Somebody has found a good argument why this design of building is less harmful to the
global environment than competitive designs.
5. This building has consumed, and will continue to consume, more of the Earths
physical resources than it can ever put back.
94.
Low energy buildings in a hot country such as Australia:
1. Cannot be achieved.
2. Must not have air conditioning.
3. Will always consume more primary energy than an equivalent building in northern
Europe.
4. Must have small windows.
5. Need perimeter shading with sun blinds and low transmission glazing.
95.
What does Green Star stand for?
1. This building only uses renewable energy sources.

2. No such thing as a green star.
3. A low mould-growth building.

4. Zero condensation risk.
5. Standard for environmental performance of the building.
96.
What does sustainability mean for low energy buildings?
1. No such thing as a modern sustainable building.

2. Everything used in the buildings service life comes from globally sustainable
resources.
3. This building is an example of good modern design practice.
4. All waste output from this building is recycled.
5. The building has been constructed from organically grown materials.
Refrigeration
97.
What might be a means of reducing the refrigeration system energy usage in a small
retail premises where food refrigeration, deep freezers and reverse cycle air conditioning
are all needed?
1. Install smallest capacity compressors possible.
2. Carry out frequent maintenance checks and parts replacement.
3. Switch reciprocating compressors off for as long as possible and maintain wide
temperature differentials.
4. Use same outdoor air cooled condenser for all three systems.
5. Variable refrigerant volume scroll compressor with software-controlled digital operation
programmable for all variations in year round duties.
98.
What does CFC stand for?
1. Carbon fibre construction.

2. Carbon fibre cycle.
3. Confederation of fan constructors.
4. Chlorinate fire control.
5. Chlorinated fluorocarbons.
99.
How is the coefficient of performance (COP) of a refrigeration system maximized?
1. Discharging waste heat to the atmosphere at the highest temperature.

2. Discharging waste heat to the atmosphere at the lowest temperature.
3. Evaporating refrigerant at the lowest possible temperature.
4. Evaporating refrigerant at the lowest possible temperature.
5. Using the smallest possible temperature increase between evaporation and condensation
of the refrigerant.
100. Which term is used to describe the thermal efficiency of a refrigeration cycle?
1. ODP.
2. COP.
3. E%.
4. RE.
5. Qr.
101. How is the coefficient of performance of a refrigeration cycle calculated?

1. Heat rejected divided by the compressor output power.
2. Heat absorbed divided by the refrigerating effect.
3. Refrigerating effect divided by the compressor input electrical power.
4. Heat absorbed plus heat rejected divided by compressor input power.

5. Compressor input power divided by condensing-evaporating temperature difference.
102. What is not a potential sink for heat rejected by the condenser of a refrigeration system?
1. Outside air.
2. River or sea water.
3. Sewer and surface water drain system flows.
4. Damp ground nearby.
5. Water circulation to other heat pumps requiring heating at the same time.
Temperature
103. What is Kelvin?
1. The engineer who designed the first steam engine.
2. Unit of heat.
3. Measure in kJ/kg s.
4. Temperature scale.
5. Absolute temperature.
104. Which is correct about Kelvin?

1. Where absolute zero gravity starts.
2. Something to do with temperature.
3. First name of Dr K. Celsius.
4. oC + 273.
5. Engineer of the first closed circuit piped heating system.
105. Which is correct about Kelvin degrees?

1. Celsius scale plus 180.
2. Are always negative values of Celsius degrees.
3. Symbol K.
4. Awarded by Kelvin University, Peebles, Scotland.
5. oC + 180.
106. Which is correct about Kelvin?

1. Name of a famous Scottish scientist.
2. Invented first bicycle in Scotland.
3. K = C + 273.
4. Kelvin McAdam invented tar macadam for road surfacing.
5. Degrees measured above absolute zero at -180oF.
107. Which is correct about Kelvin degrees?

1. Measurement of room air temperature.
2. Always used in heat transfer units.
3. Used to specify absolute temperature and temperature difference.
4. Fahrenheit plus 180.
5. Zero scale commences at -40oC.
108. Which is correct about Celsius?

1. Latin name of inventor of Roman hypocaust under floor heating system in 200 BC.
2. Fahrenheit minus 32.
3.
C=( F32 )
5
.
9
4.
C=( F+32 )
5
.
9
5.
9
C=( F 32 ) 180 .
5

1. Called oC units.
2. Kelvin degrees plus 273.13.
3. Kelvin minus 180.
4. Commonly used for cryogenic applications.
5.
C=( F180 )
5
.
9

1. Temperature scale in the centimetre, second, CGS, metric system.
2. Name of the Roman Senator in 35 AD who stabbed Caesar.
3. Normal body temperature is 41oC.
4. Defines normal human body temperature of 98.4 degrees.
5. Temperature scale in the metre, kilogramme, second, MKS, metric system.
Sustainability
111. What does sustainability mean for low energy buildings?
1. No such thing as a modern sustainable building.
2. Everything used in the buildings service life comes from globally sustainable resources.
3. This building is an example of good modern design practice.
4. All waste output from this building is recycled.

5. The building has been constructed from organically grown materials.

1. All the glass in this building comes from self-sustaining resources.
2. All the aluminium in this building comes from self-sustaining resources.
3. All the primary energy used by this building comes from self-sustaining resources.
4. All the concrete and reinforcing steel in this building comes from self-sustaining
resources and recycled materials.
5. None of these.

1. Buildings complying with agreed principles of economic, social, and ecological
sustainability.
2. No hydrocarbon primary energy used in the construction of this building.
3. Design and construction workers on this building all cycled to work.
4. All building materials were harvested from the site and ground beneath the site.
5. The building is entirely heated and cooled from solar and wind energy collectors on the
site.

1. The computers in this building are all fully recyclable into new products in future years.
2. No harmful chemicals or materials were used in the manufacture or maintenance of the
computers in this building.
3. This building is less damaging to the environment than the similar but older building
alongside.
4. In 100 years or more, this building can be crushed and all its construction materials
recycled for a similar building.
5. The computers in this building are all made from recycled materials.

1. This design is repeatable.
2. All the materials used in the construction of this building came from recycled resources.
3. Some of the materials used in the construction of this building came from recycled
resources.
4. The Board Room executive table within this building was made from floor boards
recycled from our previous demolished old-fashioned building.
5. This new building has some surface materials the owners can boast about as recycled.
Thermal comfort
116. What does thermal comfort PPD mean?
1. Personal preferences determined.
2. Personal preferences determination.
3. Has no meaning.
4. Percentile people dissatisfied.
5. Predicted percentage of dissatisfied people.
Ventilation
117. How is air leakage by a building measured?
1. Anemometer readings at every opening to outdoors.

2. Fill with smoke and measure time taken to fully disperse.
3. Cannot be done at all.
4. Large fan sucks air out of whole building at -50 Pa and flow measured.
5. Large fan pressurizes building at 50 Pa and flow measured.
118. The required air leakage rate from a new building is in the range:
1. Half to one air change per hour.
2. 0.25 air changes per hour.
3. 1 to 10 m3/h m2 at 50 Pa internal air pressure.
4. 10 to 100 m3/h m2 at 25 Pa internal air pressure.
5. Must be zero.
Volume
119. Which is correct about volume?
1. 1 cubic centimetre water occupies 1 litre.
2. 1 tonne of water occupies 1000 m3.
3. 1 m3 = 1000 litre.
4. 1 litre of water weighs 100 kg.
5. 1 litre of water weighs 10 kg.

1. 1 m3 air weighs around 100 kg.
4. 1 litre occupies 1 m2 area and 100 mm height.

5. 1 litre occupies 1 m2 area and 10 mm height.

1. 1 litre water is contained in a cube of 100 mm sides.
2. 1 litre air is contained in a cube of 1000 mm sides.
3. There is such a thing as a volume sensor for a control system.
4. 100 concrete blocks of 300 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm occupy a volume of 6 m3.
5. 1 tonne water occupies 10 m3.
122. What is the volume of a room 12 m long, 8 m wide and having an average height of 4
m?
1. 400 m3.
2. 62 m3.
3. 462 m3.
4. 384 m3.
5. 192 m3.
123. What is the correct length of a 1200 m3 sports hall of average height 4 m and width 12
m?
1. 25 m.
2. 10 m.
3. 250 m.
4. 120 m.
5. 12.5 m.
18
Understanding units
General knowledge questions and those covering measurement units.
Air conditions
1. Which is correct about the density of humid air?
1. 4.186 kg/m3 at 21oC, 60% relative humidity.
2. 1.013 kg/m3 at 20oC, sea level.
3. 0.802 m3/kg.
4. 1.205 kg/m3 at 20oC, 1013.25 mb.
5. 5.67 kg/m3.
Electrical
2. Which of these is the correct electrical units?
1. 1 MW =103 W.
2. 103 kJ = 103 kW/s.
3. 1 Watt = 1 volt x 1 ampere.
4. Electrical energy meters accumulate kW/h.
5. 103 W = 103 V x 103 A.

1. 103 kW/h = 103 x 3600 W/s.
2. kWh = energy.
3. 1 GJ = 106 V x 1 A.
4. 1 MJ = 106 V x 1 A.
5. 1 kJ/s = 103 V x 1 A.

1. 103 W = 103 V x 1 A.
2. 1 MWh = 103 Ws.
3. 1 kWh = 103 Ws.
4. 1 kWh = 1000 W/s.
5. 1 kWh = 1000 W/h.
Energy
5. Which is the specific heat capacity of air?
1. Sensible heat content kJ/kg.
2. Total heat content kJ/kg.
3. 1.205 kJ/kg.
4. 1.012 kJ/kg K.
5. 4.186 kJ/kg K.
Frequency
6. Which is the correct meaning for frequency?
1. Number of times an event is repeated.
2. Cyclic repetition of an event.
3. Number of complete rotations per unit time.
4. Statistical correlation.
5. Occasional reoccurrence.
7. Which is the correct meaning for frequency?
1. Alternating current rate of increase.

2. Electrical single or three phase.
3. Torque of a motor.
4. Air changes per hour.
5. Revolutions per minute.
8. Which is not correct in relation to frequency?

1. 3000 RPM = 50 Hz.
2. 1 Hz = 1 Nm/s.
3. High frequency fluorescent lamps work at 20,000 Hz.
4. VFD means variable frequency drive.
5. 60 Hz = 3600 RPM.
9. Which of these is the acceleration due to gravity?
1. 10 m/s2.
2. 30 ft/s2.
3. 186,000 miles per hour.
4. Gravity is static.
5. 9.807 m/s2.
10.
Which of these describes the acceleration due to gravity?
1. Calculated from a 1 kg weight free falling from a height.

2. Relative to distance from the Moon.
3. Constantly 9.807 m/s2.
4. Varies with height above sea level.

5. Inversely proportional to depth below sea level.
11.
1. Mass is measured in kilos.

2. 1 tonne = 106 kg.
3. 1 kg = 109 mg.
4. 103 kg/m3 = 1 kg/l.
5. 106 m = 1 km.
12.
Which of these are not the correct units?
1. 1 hour = 3600 seconds.

2. 60 hours = 3600 minutes.
3. 3.6 x 103 seconds = 1 hour.
4. 1 year = 8760 hours.
5. 1 hour = 360 seconds.
Heat transfer
13.
Which is correct about the Stefan Boltzmann constant?
1. Used to calculate convective heat transfer.

2. 4.186 kJ/kg K.
3. 1.012 kJ/kg K.
4. 5.67 x 10-8 W/m2 K4.
Mathematics
14.
1. A logarithm.
2. A variable number.
3. Always 10x, ten to the power x.
4. 2.718.
5. Has no meaning.
15.
1. Something which is raised to a power.

2
e=10 x .
3. The sum of an infinite series.

4.
e= 1 .
5.
e 1=2.718 .
Pressure
16.
Which of these equals one standard atmosphere at sea level?
1. 1.013 tonne/m2
2. 1 bar.
3. 10000 N/m2.
4. 1013.25 mb.
5. 106 N/m2.
17.
1. 1013 tonne/m2.
2. 105 bar.
3. 109 N/m2.
4. 14.7 lb/in2.
5. 106 N/m2.
18.
1. 1 x 105 Pascals.
2. 1.01325 x 105 N/m2.
3. 1 x 104 N/m2.
4. 30 m H2O.
5. 1013.25 mm Hg.
19.
1. 9.807 m H2O.
2. 29.35 m H2O.
3. 10.3 m H2O.
4. 101325 kJ/m2
5. 1.205 kg/m2
20.
Which of these is the correct units?
1. 1 atmosphere =103 b.
2. 1 Pascal = 1 N/m2.
3. Pascal is a unit of radiation measurement.
4. 1 kN/m2 = 1 b.
5. 1 mb = 103 N/m2.
21.
Which of these is the correct pressure units?
1. 1.01325 mb = 1 atmosphere.
2. 1 MN = 103 kN/m2.
3. 1 b = 1 kN/m2.
4. 13.6 mb = 13.6 N/m2.
5. 1 b = 105 N/m2.
22.
1. 1 mb = 1 N/m2.
2. 1 b = 103 mb.
3. 1 mb = 103 N/m2.
4. 103 kN/m2 = 1 b.
5. 1 mb = 106 b.
23.
1. 1 Nm = 1 Pa.
2. 1000 Pa = 1 atmosphere.
3. 1 kPa = 1 kN/m2.
4. 1 Pa = 1 mb.
5. 1 Pa = 1 N/m2.
24.
What are the units for pressure drop rate in a pipeline?
1. m head H2O/m run.

2. N/m2.
3. mb/m.
4. N/m3.
5. kN/m3.
25.
What does N/m3 stand for?
1. Nanometres per m2 pressure drop per metre run of pipe.

2. Neurons per cubic metre of room volume.
3. Newtons per square metre pressure drop per metre run of pipe or duct.
4. Newton per cubic metre is a density.
5. Nano-particles of Radon gas per cubic metre of air in a building.
26.
What does N/m3 stand for?
1. Normalized volumetric air change rate for a room.

2. Number of people in a building divided by building volume.
3. Volumetric coefficient.
4. Noise rating divided by room volume.
5. Pressure drop rate in a pipe or duct.
Temperature
27.
Which is correct about Kelvin?
1. Name of engineer who built Cornish beam engines in the 1800s.

2. Unit of heat.
3. Founded specific heat capacity definition.
4. Devised first comfort scale.
5. Absolute temperature.
Units
28.
Which of these has the correct units?
1. 1 Newton = 1 kg x 1 m/2.
2. 1 Joule = 1 kg x 1 m.
3. 1 Watt = 1 kg x g m/s2.
4. 103 Joules = 3600 kN/m2.
5. 1 Joule = 1 N/m2.
29.
1. 1 Joule = 1 Newton x 1 metre.

2. 1 Joule = 1 Watt/s.
3. 103 J = 1 kW/s.
4. 1 Watt = 103 Joule/s.
5. 1 MJ = 103 kW/s.
30.
1. 1 W = 1 Nms.
2. 1 W = 1 Js.
3. 1 W/s = 103 J.
4. 1 W = 1 Nm/s.
5. 1 kW/h = 103 J/h.

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Instructors Manual

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Ventilation and air conditioning

Drainage design assignment

Plant and service areas

Fixed fire fighting systems

Building Regulations Part L2A

Carbon capture and storage

4. What is the plant process for CCS?

2. Suction pump removes CO2 from flue exhaust.

5. Explain how the post-combustion capture of CO works.

8. How long does human-generated CO2 remain in the atmosphere?

Emission rating schemes

caused by human activities.

caused from human activities.

caused by human activities.

Which country annually increases carbon dioxide atmospheric emissions fastest?

What do we know about global greenhouse gases?

1. They are atmospheric gas given out by plants in a horticultural greenhouse.

Which is not correct for CO2 greenhouse gas?

1. Produced by ruminating animals.

What is approximately the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere at a few metres

above ground level?

What describes the variation in air temperature in the UK?

in emission reduction plant and systems difficult?

Why should building services engineers, architects and construction companies be

Which of these is correct?

1. Every large energy using site is registered with the EU ETS.

2. The EU ETS charges fees for allowance traders.

Which is correct about a carbon plan?

1. The most important atmospheric pollutant to be reduced is methane.

What is the level of CO2 emissions from the UK?

1. 500 tonnes per year.

their effects on the atmosphere?

Which of these is an EU ETS registered site?

1. District heating systems.

Which best describes the EU ETS?

1. Tax on energy use.

consumption of primary energy. Which of these possible scenarios is most likely?

consumption of primary energy. Which of these possible scenarios is most likely?

Which of these means of sustaining UK national supply and consumption of primary

energy reduces greenhouse gas emissions?

Reducing greenhouse gas emissions is a global objective. Which of these options

always satisfies this aim?

power generation always satisfies this aim?

Low emission buildings

Which is correct about a zero carbon building?

1. Cannot consume any fossil fuel energy.

How much energy does a green building use?

5. How is the air pressure sealing, or leaking, ability of a building found?

6. How are building air leakage audits conducted?

An air-conditioned green building for the Co-operative Retail Services HQ (CRS)

Low energy building designs in the UK:

1. Are always modern and look impressive.

4. Must have small windows and high levels of thermal insulation.

Low energy buildings in the UK:

3. Must appear to be old-fashioned.

systems raised internal heat gains.

Lightly insulated domestic hot-water pipes were found.

Window glare caused discomfort.

Under-heated areas had additional electrical heaters.

Converted rooms had acoustic, glare and air temperature problems.

2. Air dry-bulb temperature is measured by: