2016 03 08 16 33 51 PDF

MAJOR TEST (MT)
CODE
(JEE ADVANCED PATTERN)

Target : JEE(Main+Advanced) 2016
PAPER - 1
Course Name : JR,JP,JF
Date : 04-03-2016
Duration : 3 Hours
Max. Marks : 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
2.
The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
3.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4.
Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.
5.
The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6.
Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7.
Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.
8.
Write your Name, Roll No. in the space provide on this page of booklet.
B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS :

Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.
9.
Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken
the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS
in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
10. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball
point pen.
11. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
12. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
13. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the
ORS.
14. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will
be taken as final.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :
15. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Physics & Mathematics). Each part consists of Four
Sections.
16. For each question in SectionI , you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING

INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR
A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 81 questions.
17. For each question in SectionII , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding
to the correct choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative
marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
18. For each question in SectionIII , you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
19. For each question in SectionIV, you will be awarded 2 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer,
minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
Name of the Candidate
Roll Number
Resonance Eduventures Ltd.

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PART-I
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type

This section contains 10 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.
Zn metal reduces SO32 ions into H2S in presence of concentrated H2SO4. What weight of Zn is required for
reduction of 6.3 g Na2SO3 in presence of concentrated acid.
(A) 9.75 g
(B) 13 g
(C) 130 g
(D) 23 g
2.
Identify the INCORRECT statement

(A) Orbitals of a subshell have same value of ( n + ) but the orbitals having same (n + ) value may not
belong to same subshell.
(B) The orbital having value of = 2 will have 2 orientations in space.
(C) 3p and 3d orbitals have directional character.
(D) Orbits in Bohrs model are two dimensional in nature.
3.
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT

(A) The tendency to attract bonded pair of electron in case of hybrid orbitals follow the order : sp > sp2 > sp3
(B) Alkali metals generally have negative value of electron gain enthalpy.
(C) The oxidation number of S in Na2S4O6 is greater than in the case of Na2S2O3.
(D) The electronegativity values for 2p series elements is less than that for 3pseries elements on account
of small size and high inter electronic replusion.
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
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4.
Which of the following reactions of potassium superoxide supply oxygen gas in the breathing equipments
used in space and submarines ?
(1) Reaction of superoxide with nitrogen in the exhaled air.
(2) Reaction of superoxide with moisture in the exhaled air.
(3) Reaction of superoxide with carbon dioxide in the exhaled air.
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (2) only
(D) (1) and (2) only
5.
The increasing order of paramagnetism of :

(I) MnSO4.4H2O (II) FeSO4.7H2O (III) NiSO4.6H2O (IV) CuSO4.5H2O
(A) I < II < III < IV
(B) IV < III < II < I
(C) III < IV < II < I
(D) III < IV < I < II
6.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(A) Complex [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Br2 can show both hydrate as well as ionization isomerism.
(B) Complex [Co(NH3)5(H2O)](NO3)3 can show hydrate isomerism.
(C) Complex [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6] cannot show coordination isomerism.
(D) [Co(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]Cl can show both ionization as well as linkage isomerism.
7.
An ionic compound XY forms a crystal structure in which 'Y' atoms form ccp lattice and 'X' atoms are so
positioned that each 'X'-atom touches 6'Y'-atoms. If the nearest distance between two 'X'-atoms is 2 2 ,
then the density (g/cm3) of XY crystal is :
(Given : At. mass of X = 14, At. Mass of Y = 50, Avogadros number = 6 1023)
(A) 5 6
8.
(B)
20
3
(C)
5
6
(D)
5
3
In which of the following species, the configuration at the starred atom is changed if any change in configuration
of neighbour atom is carried out.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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9.
The product in given reaction is :
CH3 S N a

DMSO
(A)
10.
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which of the following compound does not gives positve tollens test :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type

which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
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11.
Which of the following is/are correct about critical conditions of real gas following Vander Waal's equation of
state.
(A) At critical point, there is no distinction between liquid and vapour state hence density of liquid become
equal to density of vapour.
2P
(B) At critical point , both V and 2 equal to zero.
T
V T
(C) Z = 3/8 for every gas at critical point, and gases are more compressible than ideal gas
(D) For the temperature less than TC, volume has three imaginary roots.
12.
Ammonia gas is prepared by :

(A) reduction of sodium nitrite or sodium nitrate by the reaction with zinc dust and sodium hydroxide.
(B) hydrolysis of calcium cyanamide.
(C) heating of (NH4)2Cr2O7
(D) heating ammonium chloride with slaked lime.
13.
A reaction takes place in three steps. The rate constant of the three steps are K1, K2 and K3 respectively.
K 1K 3
The overall rate constant K = K
.
2
The energy of activation for the three steps are 40, 30 and 20 KJ respectively. Therefore :
(A) Overall energy of activation is 10 KJ
(B) Overall energy of activation is 30 KJ
K1
(C) The reaction mechanism is 2A
K2
K
A* + A ; A *
product and overall order is one.
3
1
2 C ; C
(D) The reaction mechanism is A

B ; B
product and overall order is one
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aq. NaOH /
(X) + 3 CH3COONa
14.
The product X on oxidation with HIO4 gives :

(A) HCHO
(B) CH3CHO
(C) CO2
(D) HCOOH
15.
PhCOOH + CHI3
yellow ppt.
The structures of compound P & Q are :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) PhCCPh
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SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 17

In the valence bond theory, hybridisation of orbitals is an integral part of bond formation. Hybridisation consists
of mixing or linear combination of the "pure" atomic orbitals in such a way as to form new hybrid orbitals such
as sp, sp2, sp3, sp3d, sp3d2 etc.
16.
17.
Which one of the following molecular geometries (i.e. shapes) is not possible for the sp3d2 hybridisation ?
(A) Trigonal bipyramidal
(B) Octahedral
(C) Square planar
(D) Square pyramidal
Which of the following are isostructural ?

NO3,
(I)
(A) (I) and (IV)
CO32,
ClO3 ,
(II)
(III)
(B) (II) and (V)
SO3,
(IV)
(C) (III) and (IV)
XeO3
(V)
(D) (IV) and (V)

Selective precipitation of ions from a mixture in the form of salts which are partialy soluble can be done by
adding common ions drop by drop. Let us consider selective precipitation of Cl and CrO42 ions in the form
of AgCl and Ag2CrO4 from a mixture having 0.01 M Cl and 0.02 M CrO42. For this, salt having Ag+ (like
Ag(NO3)(s)) is added gradualy. Given Ksp of AgCl = 1010 and Ksp of Ag2CrO4 = 4 1014.
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18.
Minimum concentration of Ag+ ion at which precipitation of atleast one anion starts.
(A) 108
19.
(B) 1.41 106
(C) 2 106
(D) 2 1010
The percentage of one of the anion precipitated when another anion starts precipitation is (Given
(A) 98.7%
(B) 99.3%
(C) 97.6%
1
2
= 0.7)
(D) 92.7%

Synthesis of propellane takes placed by the following route.
OHC
20.
CHO
+ CH2O (1 eq.)
(x)
NaBH4
(y)
excess
SOCl 2

(z)
1) KCN
2) OH (partial hydriolysis)

3 ) KOBr /
(w)
Product (x) in the above reaction sequence is :
(A)
21.
1) base
2) heat
(B)
(C)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The product (w) is :
(A)
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SECTION - IV
True & False Type

This Section Contains 6 questions. Each statement is either true (T) or false (F).
22.
Mn(II) salt on fusion with potassium chlorate and sodium carbonate yields pink colour permangnate ions.
23.
G for the change, H2O (, 0.9 atm, 373 K) H2O (g, 0.9 atm, 373 K) is negative.
24.
H2O2 solutions are stored in dark coloured plastic or wax coated glass vessels often with negative catalysts
such as urea or sodium stannate added as stabilizers.
25.
[Ni(CO)4] > [Co(CO)4] > [Fe(CO)4]2 With respect to strength of M C, -bond. (M = Ni, Co or Fe)
26.
CH3
|
CH2=CHCH2Br is more reactive than CH2 CH C Br towards SN2 reaction.
|
CH3
27.
Sucrose has C1C2 glycosidic linkage between DGlucose & DFructose.
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PART- II
SECTION - I
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
28.
Ultraviolet light of wavelength 1 and 2 ( 2 1 ) when allowed to fall on hydrogen atoms in their ground
state is found to liberate electrons with kinetic energies E1 and E2 respectively. The value of planck's constant
can be found from the relation.
(A) h
1
2 1 E1 E 2
c
(B) h
1
1 2 E1 E 2
c
(C) h
E1 E 2 1 2
c 2 1
(D) h
E1 E 2 1 2
c 1 2
29.
The ratio of total acceleration of the electron in singly ionized helium atom and hydrogen atom according to
bohr model (both in ground state) is:
(A) 1
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 16
30.
A man can swim in still water with a velocity 5m/s. He wants to reach at directly opposite point on the other
bank of a river which is flowing at a rate of 4m/s. River is 15m wide and the man can run with twice the velocity
as compared with velocity of swimmer with respect to river. If he swims perpendicular to river flow and then
run along the bank, then time taken by him to reach the opposite point is :
(A) 3 sec
(B) less than 3 sec
(C) 5 sec
(D) 4.2 sec
31.
A man throws a packet from a tower directly aiming at his friend who is standing at a certain distance from
the base which is same as a height of the tower. If packet is thrown with a speed of 4m/s and it hits the
ground midway between the tower base & his friend than height of the tower is (g = 10m/s2)
(A) 5m
(B) 8m
(C) 3.2m
(D) 13m
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32.
If distance is measured in kilometer scale then the maximum permissible error will be :
(A) 10-3 on mm scale
(B) 106 on mm scale
3
(C) 10 on mm scale
(D) 107 on mm scale
33.
In the circuit shown in the figure C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C, C4 = 4C. Then select incorrect alternate :
C3
C1
C2
C4
(A) Maximum potential difference is across C1

(B) Minimum potential difference is across combination of C3 and C4
(C) Maximum potential energy stored in C1
(D) Minimum potential energy stored in C2
34.
Which of the following graph is correct between heat supplied and temperature for phase transformation of
water :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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35.
The work done by gas in process ABCDEFGHA is :
(A) 7P0V0
36.
(C) 9P0V0
(D) 9P0V0
A particle is projected from ground as shown in figure. Particle and wedge starts moving simultaneously.
Maximum height of inclined so that particle will not hit the inclined is : (g = 10 m/s 2)
(A)
37.
(B) 7P0V0
28
m
9
(B)
21
m
9
(C)
28
m
12
(D)
21
m
12
A small ring of mass m is connected with a particle of same mass by an ideal string & the whole
system in released as shown in figure.
friction between ring A and wire is 3/5, ring A
(SPACECoefficient
FOR ROUGH of
WORK)
will starts sliding when connecting string will make an angle with the vertical, then will be : (particle
is free to move and ring can slide only)
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) None of thesea
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answers Type
This section contains 5 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
38.
A wire shaped as a semicircle of radius a, is rotating about an axis PQ with a constant angular velocity
, with the help of an external agent. A uniform magnetic field B exists in space and is directed
LC
into the plane of the figure. (circuit part remains at rest) (left part is at rest)
(A) The rms value of current in the circuit is
Ba 2
R 2LC
Ba 2
(B) The rms value of current in the circuit is
2R 2LC
2 B2 a 4
(C) The maximum energy stored in the capacitor is
8R 2C
2B2a 4
(D) The maximum power delivered by the external agent is
4LCR
39.
AB is a light rigid rod, which is rotating about a vertical axis passing through A. A spring of force constant K
and natural length is attached at A and its other end is attached to a small bead of mass m. The bead can
slide without friction on the rod. At the initial moment the bead is at rest (w.r.t. the rod) and the spring is
unstrecthed. Select correct options :
K, l
m
B
Bead
(A) The maximum velocity attained by the bead w.r.t the rod is given by Vmax
m4 2
K m 2
m 4 K 2 2

(B) The maximum velocity attained by the bead w.r.t the rod is given by Vmax
2
m K
(C) The maximum extension in the spring is given by X max
2m 2
K m 2
(D) The maximum value of contact force between the bead and the rod is greater than mg
40.
Two refracting media are separated by a spherical interface as shown in figure. PP' is the principle axis. 1
and 2 are the refractive indices of medium of incidence and medium of refraction respectively. Then:
(A) If 2 > 1 then there cannot be a real image of real object.

(B) If 2 > 1 , then there cannot be a real image of virtual object.
(C) If 1 > 2 , then there cannot be a virtual image of virtual object
(D) If 1 > 2 then there cannot be a real image of real object
41.
A particle is moving in a straight line according to graph given below
then:
x
(B) 1m
(A)
x
(C)
(D)
t
42.
In a standing wave on a string.

(A) In one time period all the particles are simultaneously at rest twice.
(B) All the particles must be at their positive extremes simultaneously once in one time period
(C) All the particles may be at their positive extremes simultaneously once in a time period.
(D) All the particles are never at rest simultaneously.
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

In a flexible balloon, 2 moles of SO2 having initial volume of 1kl at a temperature of 270C is filled (SO2 is a
linear triatomic gas). The gas is first expanded to thrice its initial volume isobarically and then expanded
adiabatically so as to attain its initial temperature. Assuming gas is ideal and R =
43.
Change in internal energy of the gas in the isobaric process is :

(A) 2.5 104 J
44.
25
Jmol-1K-1.
3
(B) 1.2 106 J
(C) 3 105 J
(D) 0.5 103 J
(C) 35kJ
(D) 15kJ
Work done by the gas in the whole process is:

(A) 2kJ
(B) 3.2kJ

The circuit shown in the figure consists of two resistances R1 & R2 connected to two ideal voltmetres V1 & V2.
b
Assume that a voltmeter reads V E.d between its terminals. A time varying magnetic field B(t)
exists in a circular region of radius a and it is directed into the plane of the figure B(t) = B0t where B0 is a
positive constant of proper dimensions and t is the time
B
b
b
v1
R1
R2
v2
B (t )
A
45.
The emf induced in the circuit is

2
(A) 2 a B0
46.
a 2 B0
(C )
2
(B)
a B0
(B)
a 2 B0 R1
R2
(D)
a 2 B0
2
The reading of V1 is :
(A)
a B0
(C)
a 2 B0 R1
R1 R2
a 2 B0 R1
(D)
R1 R2

The earth does not have a uniform density; it is most dense at its centre and least dense at its surface. An
approximation of its density is ( r ) ( A Br ) , where A = 12,700 kg/m3, B 1.50 10 3 kg/m4 and r is the
distance from the centre of earth. Use R 6.4 10 6 m for the radius of earth approximated as a sphere,
Imagine dividing the earth into concentric, elementary spherical shells. Each shell has radius r, thickness dr,
volume dV and mass dm = ( r )dV . By integrating dm from zero to R the mass of earth can be found.
Knowing the fact that a uniform spherical shell gives no contribution to acceleration due to gravity inside it,
we can also find g as a function of r.
47.
48.
Mass of the earth is :

(A)
4
R 3 ( A BR )
3
(B) 4 R 3 ( A BR )
(C)
4
3
R 3 A BR
3
4
(D)
4
3
R 3 A BR
3
2
Acceleration due to gravity as a function of r is given by

(A)
4
Gr ( A Br )
3
(B) 4 Gr ( A Br )
(C)
4
3
Gr A Br
3
4
(D)
4
3
Gr A Br
3
2
SECTION - IV
True & False Type

This Section Contains 6 questions. Each question is either true (T) or false (F).
49.
When an electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state, its
kinetic energy increases, its potential energy decreases and its total energy remains constant.
50.
A nucleus at rest split into two nuclear parts having radii in ratio 1 : 2. Their velocity will be in the ratio 8:1.
51.
A sphere is rolling up on a rough incline plane. If suddenly the friciton becomes zero, the retardation of the
COM of the spehre will increase.
52.
A man is standing on a circular platform which is free to rotate about a fixed vertical axis. If the man starts
moving on the peripheri of the platform, the COM of the system (man + platform), Starts moving w.r.t. ground.
53.
A charged particle is kept at rest in a uniform magnetic field. If now the magnetic field starts increasing with
time, the particle may start moving.
54.
On charging a soap bubble, its radius increases because the excess pressure inside the bubble increases.
PART- III
SECTION - I

which ONLY ONE is correct.
55.
1 x 2 a 2 1 sin 1 sin 3 2 x cos 1 cos 2 a 2 1 0 .Find the set of values of a so that above
equation have roots of opposite in sign.

(A) [-2 , 3]
56.
(B) [-1 , 1]
(C) [-2 ,1]
(D)
L1 and L2 are two lines whose vector equations are
L1 : r cos 3 i
2 sin j cos 3 k

L 2 : r a i b j c k ,
Where
and are scalars and is the acute angle between L1 and L2 . If the angle ' 'is independent of
then the value of ' ' is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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57.
Let f(x) = ax2 + bx + c a, b,c R .If equation
2
conjugate complex numbers, then
(A) 0
58.
f x x 0 has imaginary roots & and , be
0 is
1
(B) real
(C) purely imaginary
(D) none of these
x 2 y2
1 with focii F1 & F2. If A be area of triangle PF1F2 then

Let P be a variable point of the ellipse
10 1
maximum value of A is
(A) 3
59.
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
x2 1
If I x
dx , then I equals
x2 1
(A)
1 4
1 4
x 1
x 1 c
2
2
(B)
(C)
x 4 1 sin 1 x 2 c
(D)
1 4
1
x 1 n x 2 x 4 1 c
2
2
x 4 1 2sin 1 x 2 c
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sec 2 x
60.
lim
x
(A)
61.
f t dt
2
x
16
equals
8
f 2
If 1 x 2
(A) 4
(B)
2
f 2
(C)
2 1
f
2
(D)
4f 2
dy
4
8
x 1 y , y 0 , then the value of y 8 is
dx
3
9
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
62.
Let P be any point in the first quadrant of a curve . Normal drawn to the curve at P meet x-axis at Q so that
PQ = 5.Also the curve passes through (0 ,5) .Then locus of P is
(A) A circle of radius 5
(B) An ellipse with eccentricity 1/5
(C) A hyperbola with coordinate axes as asymptotes
(D) none of these
63.
In ABC, cosA+ cosB + cos C = tanA.tanB.tanC, then the triangle will

(A) be acute angled
(B) be right angled
(C) be obtuse angled
64.
(D) not exist
3
, then the number of points, where f(x) is non-differentiable
2 2
If f(x) = max{tanx ,sin x. cosx} where x

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
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SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type

which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
65.
A hyperbola has focus at origin , its eccentricity is 2 & corresponding directrix is x + y + 1 = 0. The
equation of its asymptotes is/are:
(A) x + 1 = 0
66.
If f(x) =
(B)
x 1 0
(C) y 1 0
(D) y 1 0
| x 1|
then f(x) is
x2
(A) One - One in (2, )
(C) One - One in (, 0)
(B) One - One in (0, 1)

(D) One - One in (1, 2)
67.
If tangents at points A(x1, y1) & B(x2, y2) to the parabola y2 = 4x intersect at C(x3, y3), & 1, 2, 3 are
length of perpendicular on any tangent of given parabola from A, B, C respectively then(A) x1, x3, x2 are in G.P.
(B) y1, y3, y2 are in A.P.
(C) 1, 3, 2 are in H.P..
(D) 1, 3, 2 are in G.P.
.P.
68.
Number of real solutions of the equation (tanx + 1) (tanx + 3) (tanx + 5) (tanx + 7) = 33

(A) Will be 2 in the interval [- /2, /2]
(B) Will be 4 in the interval [- /2, /2]
(C) Will be 3 in the interval [- /2, )
(D) Will be 4 in the interval [- /2, )
69.
A circle centred at 'O' has radius 1 and contains the point A. Segment AB is tangent to the circle at A and
AOB = .If point C lies on OA and BC bisect the angle ABO then OC equal
(A) 1 sin
(B)
cos2
1 sin
(C)
1
1 sin
(D)
1 sin
cos 2
Corporate Office

SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

There are six families each having a husband, wife and a child. A group of three a man, a woman & a child
is said to form a trio.
70.
If 6 persons are selected, the probability that there will be two trio's in which exactly one trio is of the same
family is
(A)
71.
125
1547
(B)
25
221
(C)
30
1547
(D)
60
1547
If 3 persons are selected, the probability that there will be exactly 2 persons of the same family will be
(A)
45
68
(B)
45
136
(C)
27
91
(D)
18
119
Corporate Office

In a ABC ,P,Q,R are the feet of angle bisectors from the vertices to their opposite sides as shown in above
figure. PQR is constructed.
72.
If BAC = 120, Measure of angle RPQ will be

(A) 60
73.
(B) 90
(C) 120
(D) 150
If AB = 7 units, BC = 8units, AC = 5units. Then the side PQ will be

(A)
28
3
(B)
88
3
(C)
78
3
(D)
84
3
Corporate Office

L1 : 2x + y = 50, L2 : y = mx + 1 are two lines. A point (x, y) is said to be integral point if x, y .
74.
The greatest integral value of m for which the point of intersection of L1 and L2 has integral coordinate, is
(A) 5
75.
(B) 9
(C) 47
(D) 51
Square of the distance between the integral points of intersection of L1 and L2 for the greatest and the least
integral values of m is
(A) 5
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
Corporate Office

SECTION - IV
True & False Type

This Section Contains 6 questions. Each statement is either true (T) or false (F).
76.
log x 2 2 x log x 2 x 2 has no real solution.
77.
Let
rn
r r 1 be a root of ax
+ bx + c = 0, b, c are rational. The other root can be rational or
r 1
irrational.
78.
66
79.
If
C32 is not divisible by 66.

x2
a
y2
b
1 , b2 > a2 , then the equation of tangent at point (acos, bsin) is
80.
81.
Let coefficient of a4b2c2d6 in (a + b + c + d)14 is A. Then A is multiple of 12.
x
y
cos+ sin = 1.
a
b
C1n C 5 n C 2 n C 6 .... n C n 4 n C n 2 n C n 4
Corporate Office


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MAJOR TEST (MT)

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Course Name : JR,JP,JF

Max. Marks : 240

No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS :

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING

Name of the Candidate

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Straight Objective Type

Identify the INCORRECT statement

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT

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The increasing order of paramagnetism of :

(D) III < IV < I < II

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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The product in given reaction is :

Multiple Correct Answer Type

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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(B) At critical point , both V and 2 equal to zero.

Ammonia gas is prepared by :

product and overall order is one.

(D) The reaction mechanism is A

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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The product X on oxidation with HIO4 gives :

The structures of compound P & Q are :

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 17

(C) Square planar

(D) Square pyramidal

Which of the following are isostructural ?

(B) (II) and (V)

Paragraph for Question Nos. 18 to 19

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(B) 1.41 106

Paragraph for Question Nos. 20 to 21

Product (x) in the above reaction sequence is :

The product (w) is :

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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True & False Type

Sucrose has C1C2 glycosidic linkage between DGlucose & DFructose.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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(A) Maximum potential difference is across C1

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

The work done by gas in process ABCDEFGHA is :

(D) None of thesea

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(A) The rms value of current in the circuit is

(A) If 2 > 1 then there cannot be a real image of real object.

A particle is moving in a straight line according to graph given below

In a standing wave on a string.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 43 to 44

Change in internal energy of the gas in the isobaric process is :

(B) 1.2 106 J

(D) 0.5 103 J