Homework 2
Instructor: Dr. Thomas Cohen
Goldstein 1.22
Taking the point of support as the origin and the axes as shown, the coordinates are
(x1 , y1 ) = (l1 sin 1 , l1 cos 1 )
(1)
(2)
L=T V
(3)
The Lagrangian is
where
T
1
1
m1 (x 21 + y 12 ) + m2 (x 22 + y 22 )
2
2
1
1
2 2
m1 l1 1 + m2 (l12 12 + l22 22 2l1 l2 1 2 cos(1 + 2 ))
2
2
=
=
(4)
and
V
(5)
So,
1
1
L = (m1 + m2 )l12 12 + m2 l22 22 m2 l1 l2 1 2 cos(1 + 2 ) + m1 gl1 cos 1 + m2 g(l1 cos 1 + l2 cos 2 ) (6)
2
2
2-1
L
= m2 l22 2 m2 l1 l2 1 cos(1 + 2 )
2
(7)
L
L
= m2 l1 l2 1 2 sin(1 +2 )m1 gl1 sin 1 m2 gl1 sin 1 ,
= m2 l1 l2 1 2 sin(1 +2 )m2 gl2 sin 2
1
2
(8)
d L
= (m1 + m2 )l12 1 m2 l1 l2 2 cos(1 + 2 ) + m2 l1 l2 2 (1 + 2 ) sin(1 + 2 )
(9)
dt 1
d L
= m2 l22 2 m2 l1 l2 1 cos(1 + 2 ) + m2 l1 l2 1 (1 + 2 ) sin(1 + 2 )
(10)
dt 2
The Euler-Lagrange equations are
d L
dt 1
d L
dt 2
L
1
L
2
= 0
= 0
that is,
(m1 + m2 )l12 1 m2 l1 l2 2 cos(1 + 2 ) + m2 l1 l2 22 sin(1 + 2 ) + (m1 + m2 )gl1 sin 1 = 0 (11)
m2 l12 2 m2 l1 l2 1 cos(1 + 2 ) + m2 l1 l2 12 sin(1 + 2 ) + m2 gl2 sin 2 = 0 (12)
Goldstein 2.20
Kinetic Energy
Potential Energy
1
1
M x 21 + m(x 22 + y 22 )
2
2
= mgy2
2-2
(13)
(14)
Constraint:
G(x1 , x2 , y2 ) = y2 (x2 x1 ) tan = 0
(15)
1
1
L = T V = M x 21 + m(x 22 + y 22 ) mgy2
2
2
(16)
Lagrangian:
Constrained Lagrangian:
1
1
Lc = T V G = M x 21 + m(x 22 + y 22 ) mgy2 [y2 (x2 x1 ) tan ]
2
2
The Euler-Lagrange equation,
d L
L
= 0
dt x 1
x1
L
d L
= 0
dt x 2
x2
d L
L
= 0
dt y 2
y2
(17)
(18)
(19)
(20)
give
Mx
1 + tan = 0
(21)
m
x2 tan = 0
(22)
m
y2 + mg + = 0
(23)
Mx
1 + m
x2 = 0
(24)
(25)
(26)
(27)
(28)
The signs are consistent: as the particle descends the slope of the wedge, it moves to the left in
the lab frame, as the wedge moves to the right, conserving linear momentum in the horizontal
direction. Also, as m/M 0, we recover the solution for a particle moving down a stationary wedge:
x
1 = 0, x
2 = g sin cos , y2 = g sin2 (so that the acceleration of the particle along the incline is
p
x
22 + y22 = g sin ).
2-3
G
mg tan
= tan =
m
x1
1+ M
tan2 + 1
G
mg tan
=
= tan =
m
x2
1+ M
tan2 + 1
G
mg
=
==
m
y2
1 + M tan2 + 1
=
(29)
(30)
(31)
The accelerations found above are constant, so the velocity varies linearly with time. Assuming that
at t = 0, the wedge and particle both have zero velocity, the work done by the constraint force on the
wedge is
Z
W1 =
Fx1 dx1
=
=
1
Fx x
1 t2
2 1
!
1
mg tan
m
2
1+ M
tan2 + 1
m
g tan
m
M 1 + M tan2 + 1
!
t2
(32)
m 2
2
1
2
M g tan
=
t
2 1 + m tan2 + 1 2
M
(33)
t2
m
m
2
1+ M
1+ M
tan2 + 1
tan2 + 1
!
!
mg
g tan2
1
m
1+
t2
+
m
m
2
2
2
M
1 + M tan + 1
1 + M tan + 1
2
m
2
2
1
mg tan
1 m 1 + M g tan2 2
2
=
t
+
t
2 1 + m tan2 + 1 2
2 1 + m tan2 + 1 2
1
2 1
M
m2 2
2
M g tan
m
+M
tan2 +
2 t
(34)
We note that W1 +W2 = 0, confirming the fact that the total work done on the system by the constraint
forces in time t is zero. This is consistent with the fact that the constraint forces are internal to the
system, and the constraint G = 0 is independent of time.
2-4
Goldstein 13.4
h2
h
+ V +
( )
8 2 m
4i
(35)
L
( )
L
=0
(36)
that is,
d
dt
+
L
()
L
=0
(37)
()
L
=
=
4i
h
4i
h2
8 2 m
h2
=
2
8 2 m
h
= V
4i
=
(38)
h2
ih d
= 2 2 + V
2 dt
8 m
(39)
or
L
h
=
4i
(40)
(41)
(42)
Problem 1
(43)
y + y = 0
(44)
1
1
E = m(x 2 + y 2 ) + m 2 (x2 + y 2 )
2
2
(45)
Part a
The energy is
So,
dE
dt
= m(x
x + y y) + m 2 (xx + y y)
2
2
= m(x(
x) + y(
y)) + m 2 (xx + y y)
= 0
(46)
Part b
d
dt
= m(x
x y y) + m 2 (xx y y)
2
2
= m(x(
x) y(
y)) + m 2 (xx y y)
= 0
Hence is conserved.
Part c
It can be shown that for a holonomic mechanical system, the kinetic energy is always a bilinear form
of the generalized coordinates, making terms of the form L/ q necessarily linear in the generalized
velocities, whenever the potential is independent of the (generalized) velocity. In particular, for the
given Lagrangian,
L
x
L
y
= mx
(48)
= my
(49)
Since Q1 (x, y; ) and Q2 (x, y; ) are point transformations, they are independent of velocities. Therefore
the quantity
L Q2
L Q1
=
+
(50)
x =0 y =0
Q1
Q2
= mx
+ my
(51)
=0
=0
necessarily linear in the velocities, x and y.
2-6
Part d
As justified above, any invariant quantity resulting from the symmetry of the Lagrangian under a
point transformation is necessarily linear in the velocities. Since is a quadratic form in the velocities, we cannot find a point transformation which leaves the Lagrangian invariant and corresponds
to a Noetherian conserved current that is equal to . This proves that while every invariance of
a Lagrangian under a continuous point transformation yields an associated conserved quantity, the
converse is not necessarily true.
For holonomic mechanical systems, the stronger statement is: For every invariance of a Lagrangian
under a continuous point transformation, there is an associated conserved quantity linear in the generalized momenta, and vice versa.
Part e
For = 1, the system becomes an isotropic harmonic oscillator in 2D with the Lagrangian,
1
1
L = m(x 2 + y 2 ) m 2 (x2 + y 2 )
2
2
Due to rotational symmetry, the angular momentum
Jz = m(xy xy)
(52)
(53)
is an invariant, which is of the form . As Jz is linear in the velocities, it cannot be written as a linear
combination of E and (which have no linear terms in x and y at all).
Problem 2
Part a
The action is
Z
S=
Z
dt L =
dt dx L
(54)
The Lagragian density is not explicitly dependent on the field, but only on its derivatives. So, the
variation in the action is
Z
S = dt dx L
(55)
Z
=
dt dx L
(56)
Z
L
L
=
dt dx
(t ) +
(x )
(57)
(t )
(x )
Z
L
=
dt dx
( )
for = 0, 1
(58)
( )
Z
L
L
=
dt dx
(59)
( )
( )
Z
L
= dt dx
(60)
( )
2-7
since the first term in (60) can be converted to a surface integral over the boundary of the (1 +
1)-spacetime region, where = 0 over the boundary. So, Hamiltons principle S = 0 yields the
Euler-Lagrange equation
L
=0
(61)
( )
or
L
+
= 0
(62)
t (t )
x (x )
= (t2 c2 x2 )(x, t) = 0
(63)
Part b
From the inverse Lorentz transformations,
t = t0 + x0
c
0
x = x + ct0
(64)
(65)
we have
t0
x0
t x
+ 0
t0 t
t x
=
+ c
t
x
t
x
=
+ 0
x0 t
x x
+
=
c t
x
=
=
2
+ 2 2 c2
+ 2 2 c
2
t
x
t x
!#
2
2
2
22
2
+ 2
+
c2
c2
t
x
c t x
"
2
2 #
1 2
=
(1 2 )
2 c2 (1 2 )
2
t
x
"
#
2
1
2
2
1
=
c
as = 2
1
2
t
x
= L
(66)
(67)
(68)
(69)
(70)
Part c
x x
0
t0 dx0 dt0
dx dt = x
t
t
0
0
x t
c 0 0
dx dt
=
(71)
= 2 (1 2 )dx0 dt0
= dx0 dt0
(72)
So the volume element in (1 + 1)-spacetime Ris Lorentz invariant. Since the Lagrangian density is also
Lorentz invariant, therefore the action S = dt dx L is also a Lorentz invariant quantity.
Part d
The Euler-Lagrange equation is obtained by extremizing the action, i.e. via S = 0. As L, the (1 + 1)spacetime volume element as well as the Lagrangian density L are all Lorentz invariant quantities,
Z
Z
0
S = dt dx L = 0 S = dt0 dx0 L0 = 0 = S
(73)
Repeating the steps carried out in part (a) with all quantities replaced by their primed counterparts,
we arrive at the Euler Lagrange equation,
L0
L0
+ 0
=0
(74)
t0 (t0 )
x (x )
in the transformed frame. This proves that the Euler-Lagrange equations are form invariant, i.e. covariant.
In particular, using (67) and (68) we have
2
t02
2
x02
2
= 2 t2 + 2 2 cxt
+ 2 2 c2 x2
22 2
2 2 2
+
+ 2 2 cx2
t
c2
c xt
(75)
(76)
so that
2
2
2
c
t02
x02
= 2 (1 2 )t2 2 (1 2 )x2
=
2
2
2
c
t2
x2
2-9
(77)
(78)
Problem 3
t2
dt L0
t1
Z t2
1
d
dt
+ (A + ) x
mx 2 q 0
2
dt
t1
Z t2
d
dt L + q
q x
dt
t1
Z t2
Z t2
d
S+q
dt
q
dt x
dt
t1
t1
Z t2
Z t2
d
q
dx
S+q
dt
dt
t1
t1
Z t2
Z t2
S+q
d q
d
t=t1
(79)
(80)
(81)
(82)
(83)
(84)
t=t1
= S
(85)
So, under a time dependent gauge transformation, the action is left invariant, independent of the path.
2 - 10