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A

SET

BT - 15

Bio Technology

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

BT-15-A

1.

2.

x + 2y + pz = 0 has non zero solution is

1

(A) p =

(B) p = 0

(C) p = 2

(D) p = 1

2

2 0 1

The eigen values of the matrix are 0 1 0

1 0 3

(A)

(C)

3.

4.

5 5

,

2

2

1, 5, 5

1,

5+ 5 5 5

,

2

2

(D) purely imaginary

(B)

1,

u

u

x2 y2

If u ( x, y ) = 2

then x + y

is equal to

2

x

y

x +y

1

u

(A) 4u

(B)

(C) 2u

2

The Fourier series expansion of f ( x) = sin3 x

1

3

sin x sin3 x

(A)

(B)

4

4

3

1

sin x sin3 x

(C)

(D)

4

4

(D)

1

u

4

3

1

sin x + sin3 x

4

4

none

5.

(A) x2 + 2x + 3

(B) (1 + x)2

(C) x2 3x 4

(D) x2 + x

6.

(A)

(B)

2

2 y

2 y

=

c

is of the form

t 2

x 2

(D) none of these

7.

An electronic assembly consists of two subsystems A and B. From the past experience,

it is known that P(A fails) = 0.20, P(A and B fail) = 0.20 and P(B fails alone) = 0.15.

The probability that P (A fails / B has failed) is

3

2

4

(A)

(B) 0.15

(C)

(D)

7

15

7

Set - A

BT

8.

distribution function (PDF) is

(A) kekx

(B) ekx

(C) 0

(D) 1

9.

By intermediate value theorem one of the interval in which one root of the function

f(x) = x2 x 2 lies is

(A) (0, 1)

(B) (1, 0)

(C) (1, 3)

(D) None of these

10.

dy

= x 2 + y with the

dx

(A)

(C)

x 2 + x3

2

x 2 x3

1+ x + +

2 3

1+ x +

x2

2

x3

(D) 1 + x +

3

(B)

1+ x +

11.

character exhibits complete dominance whereas the second character exhibits codominance ?

(A) 12 : 3 : 1

(B) 9 : 3 : 4

(C) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1

(D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

12.

A carrier female for taysachs disease marries a man who is also carrier for the same

condition. What will be the probability that their first child is normal female ?

(A) 2/8

(B) 1/8

(C) 4/8

(D) 3/8

13.

In a dihybrid two genes A and B are located at a distance of 16 map units. If the dihybrid

is in repulsion phase, what will be the proportion of Ab gametes ?

(A) 84%

(B) 42%

(C) 21%

(D) 8%

14.

(A) Homogentisate oxidase

(B) hexoseaminidase

(C) Tyrosinase

(D) Pyruvate decarboxylase

15.

(A) 9 : 3 : 4

(B) 13 : 3

(C) 15 : 1

(D) 9 : 6 : 1

16.

prevent

(A) Ligation of the Okazaki fragments (B) Removal of the RNA primer

(C) Removal of the base mismatches (D) Repair of deaminated bases

Set - A

BT

17.

How many high energy bonds are required for the recruitment of 2nd amino acid in

Ribosomes in translation ?

(A) 3

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 6

18.

(A) 5I splice site : begins with GU, marks 5I end of intron

(B) Branch site : contains A that binds U2 ; branch site of lariat

(C) 3I splice site : begins with AG, marks 3I end of intron

(D) Trimer : consists of U4/U6 and U5, brings 5I splice site to branch site

19.

(A) HATs

(B) SWI/SNF

(C) TFIID

(D) XPA

20.

If an mRNA has 207 nts length, what will be the molecular weight of protein synthesized

from that mRNA ?

(A) 8.8 KD

(B) 7.6 KD

(C) 7.5 KD

(D) 8.7 KD

21.

Which of the following toxins inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis through the

depurination of a single adenine residue in 28 S ribosomal RNA (r RNA)

(A) Diptheria toxin

(B) Ricin

(C) -Sarcin

(D) Colicin E-3

22.

(A) Homoserine lactones

(B) phospho lactones

(C) Phosphoserine lactones

(D) Phosphoinositol lactone

23.

The process in which a molecule is transported into the cell while being chemically

altered is called

(A) Passive transport

(B) Group translocation

(C) Facilitated transport

(D) Active transport

24.

During the transformation in bacteria the exogonate DNA combines with endogonate

DNA to form a triple stranded structure. Which protein is involved in the formation of

double cross-over between exogonate and endogonate strands ?

(A) Rec B

(B) Rad 51

(C) Rec A

(D) Ruv A

25.

Proteins which are responsible for induction of lytic phase from lysogenic phase in

bacteriophases

(A) CI

(B) Cro

(C) Gag

(D) Pol

26.

(A) Rice

(B) Soya bean

(C) Tomato

Set - A

(D) Sorghum

BT

27.

(A) Purple and green sulphur bacteria (B) Purple non sulphur bacteria

(C) Green non sulphur bacteria

(D) sulphur oxidizing bacteria

28.

Halobacterium and other extremely halophillic bacteria have significantly modified the

structure of their proteins and membranes by

(A) increasing intracellular Na+ and K+ levels.

(B) increasing intracellular Ca++ levels.

(C) increasing extracellular Cl ions.

(D) increasing intracellular Cl ions.

29.

(A) Leucine

(B) Isoleucine

(C) Methionine

(D) Tryptophan

(A) tm RNA

(B) P RNA

(C) i RNA

30.

31.

(A) Actinomycin-D

(B) Gramicidin

(C) Streptomycin

(D) Valinomycin

32.

An alpha helix made up of 114 aminoacid residues. What will be the value of its axial

length and also length when polypeptide chain is fully extended?

(A) 171 , 410.4

(B) 171 , 171

(C) 410.4 , 171

(D) 410.4 , 410.4

33.

(A) -Oxidation pathway

(B) Oxidation pathway

(C) Oxidation pathway

(D) TCA cycle

34.

(A) excessive Ca++ absorption

(C) excessive Na+ absorption

35.

(D) excessive Mg++ absorption

(A) GABA

(B) Glycine

(C) Dopamine

(D) Glutamine

36.

Rb and P53 both are genes that function in regulating the cell cycle transition from

(A) S to G2

(B) G2 to M

(C) M to G1

(D) G1 to S

37.

(A) Hexokinase

(B) Phosphohexose isomerise

(C) Phosphofructo kinase

(D) Triose phosphate isomerise

Set - A

BT

38.

The difference in the Theoretical and practical time duration of protein folding is called

(A) Levinthal paradox

(B) C-Value paradox

(C) Raven paradox

(D) Rosss paradox

39.

haemoglobin ?

(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

(B) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate

(C) 2, 3 bis phosphoglycerate

(D) Phosphoenol pyruvate

40.

Three restriction enzymes A, B and C have six, eight and four base pairs as their

recognition sites respectively. The ratios of the number of fragments that will generate on

restriction digestion of a genomic DNA of E. coli are approximately

(A) 1 : 64 : 16

(B) 16 : 256 : 6 (C) 16 : 256 : 1 (D) 256 : 16 : 1

41.

The secretory IgM was electrophoresed on SDS PAGE under reduced and denaturing

conditions. The number of polypeptide bands detected on the gel is

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

42.

(A) Hemocatheresis

(B) Hemolysis

(C) Hemopoiesis

(D) Hemogenisis

43.

(A) TLR-2

(B) TLR-4

(C) MHC-II

(D) Fc R

44.

(A) Hematopoietic stem cell to lymphoid progenitor

(B) Lymphoid progenitor to pre B-cell

(C) Pro B-cell to Pre B-cell

(D) Immature B-cell to mature B-cell

45.

(A) Azurophilic granules of polymorphonuclear leucocytes

(B) Epithelial cells

(C) Lymphocytes

(D) Macrophages

46.

(A) Macrophages

(C) Helper T-cells

Set - A

(D) Dendritic cells

6

BT

47.

(A) B adrenergic receptor

(B) Myelin basic proteins

(C) Gluten

(D) Gastric H+ -K+ dependent ATPase

48.

Which cells first recognise grafted foreign tissue and starts the process of rejection ?

(A) Helper T-cells

(B) Macrophages

(C) Cytotoxic T-cells

(D) B-cells

49.

(A) Pyruvate kinase

(B) Citrate synthase

(C) Pyruvate decarboxylase

(D) Malate dehydrogenase

50.

The primer used for the amplification had the following composition. Calculate the

annealing temperature, A = 6, T = 4, G = 5, C = 5

(A) 60 C

(B) 50 C

(C) 70 C

(D) 40 C

51.

On an average each human chromosome contains 0.1 billion base pairs of DNA. The

carrying capacity of a yeast vector is 103 Kbp. How many molecules of YAC required for

inserting the chromosomal DNA ?

(A) 102

(B) 103

(C) 104

(D) 105

52.

(A) Mbo I , Sau 3A

(B) Hind III , Eco RI

(C) Xma I , Pst I

(D) Sma I, Xma I

53.

of lipids which results a structure called Pre-Pore complex. Which is a right statement for

Pre-Pore complex ?

(A) Pre-Pore complex has 3 diameter and it is electrically conductive.

(B) Pre-Pore complex has 4 diameter and it is electrically non conductive.

(C) Pre-Pore complex has 4 diameter and it is electrically conductive.

(D) Pre-Pore complex has 3 diameter and it is electrically non conductive.

54.

In a sequencing reaction, instead of d ATP, dd ATP was added, what will be the

consequence ?

(A) Normal DNA synthesis would occur

(B) No DNA synthesis would occur

(C) Synthesis would terminate randomly regardless of the nucleotide incorporated

(D) Synthesis would always stop at the position at which the first A was incorporated

55.

The structural analogue of folic acid which is widely used to control cancer

(A) Methotraxate (B) Nalidixic acid (C) Cisplatin

(D) Etoposide

Set - A

BT

56.

(A) BMR increases with increase of surface area

(B) Infants and growing children show high BMR

(C) In warm climates, the BMR is higher when compared to cold climates

(D) BMR increases in persons who do regular exercise

57.

(A) binding with 60S ribosomal sub unit

(B) inhibits peptidyl transferase

(C) inactivates elongation factor eEF2

(D) inhibits binding of aminoacylt-RNA to ribosomal complex

58.

(A) Cholic acid, chenodeoxycholic acid

(B) Deoxycholic acid, lithocholic acid

(C) Glycocholic acid, glcochenodeoxycholic acid

(D) Taurocholic acid, taurochenodeoxycholic acid

59.

Which of the following enzymes do not require template for the synthesis of DNA and

RNA ?

(A) DNA polymerase 5

(B) RNA pol 1

(C) reverse transcriptase

(D) terminal deoxy nucleotidyl transferase

60.

A restriction fragment obtained with a type II endonuclease was subjected to MaxamGilbert sequencing which results as shown in the autoradiogram below. What will be the

sequence of fragmented DNA ?

G

A+G

C+T

(A) 5ICATCGATCGTAATCG 3I

(C) 5I CATCGAGCTTAATCG 3I

Set - A

(B) 3ICATCGATCGTAATCG 5I

(D) 3I CATCGATCGAATTCG 5I

8

BT

61.

(A) carboxyl side of arginine or lysine

(B) amino side of arginine or lysine

(C) carboxyl side of tryptophan or phenylalanine

(D) amino side of tryptophan or phenylalanine

62.

following statement is correct for Diazolation ?

(A) Reaction occurs between the amino group of the support and the carboxyl group of

the enzyme

(B) A bifunctional or multi-functional reagent used to create bonding between the

amino group of the support and the amino group of the enzyme

(C) Bonding between the amino group of the support and a tryosyl or histidyl group of

the enzyme

(D) Use of cyanogen bromide, which can be applied to a support containing glycol

groups

63.

Which of the following is not used as crosslinking agent for immobilization of enzymes ?

(A) Hexamethylene di isocyanate

(B) Diazonium salt

(C) N-N` polymethyelene bis iodoacetinamide

(D) Cyanogen bromide

64.

avoided ?

(A) lag phase

(B) log phase

(C) stationary phase

(D) decline phase

65.

An organism grows under given conditions on a given substrate with max 0.75 h1 and

Ks with respect to substrate is 0.01 kg m3. What will be the growth rate of the organism

under the given conditions when the substrate concentration is 0.25 kg m3 ?

(A) 0.75 h1

(B) 0.76 h1

(C) 0.72 h1

(D) 0.73 h1

66.

For industrial production of vitamin B12 which of the following bacteria is used ?

(A) Propionibacterium freudeureichii (B) Clostridium acetobutylicum

(C) Leuconostoc mesenteroides

(D) Sarcina ventriculi

67.

(A) One molecule pyruvate, one mol of ATP, NAD(P)H2 and NADH2

(B)

(C)

(D) One molecule pyruvate, two mol of ATP, NAD(P)H2 and NADH2

Set - A

BT

68.

During the fermentation process of penicillinG, which of the following is not added to

medium ?

(A) Phenyl acetic acid

(B) Phenyl acetamide

(C) Phenyl ethylamine

(D) Phenoxy acetic acid

69.

(A) Radiation

(B) Filteration

(C) Chemicals

(D) Heat

70.

Column A

Column B

a.

Micromonospora purpurea 1.

Bacitracin

b.

Bacillus subtilis

2.

Polymyxin B

c.

Streptomyces aureofaciens

3.

Gentamycin

d.

Streptomyces spheroids

4.

Rifamycin

5.

Tetracyclin

6.

Novobiocin

(A) a 3, b 1, c 5, d 6

(B) a 6, b 4, c 1, d 5

(C) a 1, b 3, c 6, d 4

(D) a 6, b 3, c 4, d 1

71.

In plants proline is produced from ornithine under normal condition, however under

stress condition it is made directly from

(A) Aspartate

(B) Glutamate

(C) Glutamine

(D) Lysine

72.

(A) aroA gene

(B) Glutamine synthase gene

(C) ALS gene

(D) psbA gene

73.

Which of the following transcription factor is involved in the expression of the cold

responsive genes ?

(A) CBF1

(B) HSF

(C) Bxn

(D) Oct4

74.

Vincristine and Vinblastine are anti cancerous drugs which are obtained from

(A) Crocus sativus

(B) Chrysanthemum species

(C) Catharanthus roseus

(D) Atropa belladonna

75.

(A) Stimulate the production of secondary metabolites

(B) Induce somatic embryogenesis

(C) Enhance the biotransformation

(D) Induce androgenic embryos

Set - A

10

BT

76.

(A) Protoplasts

(B) Apical Meristem

(C) Axillary buds

(D) Cell suspension

77.

(A) Insitu conservation

(B) Exsitu conservation

(C) Protected area conservation

(D) Both insitu and exsitu conservation

78.

(A) 2,4-D

(B) Abscisic acid

(C) Gibberilic acid

(D) Benzyl adenine

79.

Artificial seeds (synthetic seeds) are produced from somatic embryos encapsulated with

(A) Sodium carbonate

(B) Sodium alginate

(C) Calcium alginate

(D) Sodium nitrate

80.

(A) Shoot induction

(B) Flower bud induction

(C) Root induction

(D) Dedifferentiation

81.

(A) Nuclear targetting and protection of 51 end of T-DNA

(B) Sensing phenolic Kinase and induction of phosphorylation

(C) Nicking and processing of T-DNA

(D) Coats the T-DNA strand protects it from degradation

82.

(A) Edible vaccines are antigens generated by bacteria

(B) Edible vaccines are pre made antibiotics that are produced in transgenic plants

(C) Edible vaccines stimulate mucosal immune system to produce secretary IgA at

mucosal surface

(D) Edible vaccines cannot uncoat the calcium ion binding sites on the coat protein of

the virus

83.

All the statements are true regarding RFLP and RAPD except

(A) RAPD is a quick method compared to RFLP

(B) RFLP is more reliable than RAPD

(C) Species specific primers are required for RAPD

(D) Radioactive probes are not required in RAPD

84.

Aquatic fern which is an excellent bio fertilizer also form symbiotic association with

Anabaena ?

(A) Salvinia

(B) Marsilea

(C) Azolla

(D) Pteridium

Set - A

11

BT

85.

(A) Micronutrients to the soil

(B) Humus to the soil

(C) Macronutrients to the soil

(D) Phosphorus to the soil

86.

(A) Beauveria bassiana

(B) Lecanicillum Spp

(C) Metarhizium Spp

(D) Aspergillus flavus

87.

Column A

a.

Trichoderma

b.

Plytopthera

c.

Bacillus thurengenesis

(A) a 3, b 2, c 1

(C) a 2, b 3, c 4

Column B

1.

Bioinsecticide

2.

Bacteriocide

3.

Biofungicide

4.

Bioherbicide

(B) a 3, b 4, c 1

(D) a 4, b 3, c 2

88.

process called

(A) Phytostimulation

(B) Phytostabilization

(C) Phytoextraction

(D) Phytochelation

89.

(A) It is rod shaped, Gram+ve, removes uranium.

(B) It is round shaped, Gram+ve, removes iron.

(C) It is round shaped, Gramve, removes uranium.

(D) It is rod shaped, Gramve, removes uranium.

90.

(A) Xanthan gum (B) furfural

(C) Lignins

(D) Polyacrylamide

91.

Once the sequences are obtained from next generation sequencing experiment, what is

the first thing to do ?

(A) Perform a bioinformatics analysis of your data

(B) Publish your results

(C) Further investigate the sequence of interest

(D) Check data using a different method

92.

(A) Portable data

(C) Sequence data bank

Set - A

(D) Sequence sequence data

12

BT

93.

Clustal W :

(A) Multiple sequence alignment

(B) Protein secondary structure prediction tool

(C) Data retrieving tool

(D) Nucleic acid sequencing tool

94.

(A) Detection of genes from genome

(B) Detection of TRNA gene

(C) Prediction of function of new gene

(D) Identification of functional motifs/domains of proteins

95.

(A) PROSPECT (B) EMBOSS

(C)

RASMOL

(D) BLAST

96.

(A) DNA fingerprinting

(B) DNA polymerase

(C) DNA probes

(D) DNA microarrays

97.

(A) identify open reading frames

(B) differentiate between eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA sequence

(C) find regulatory sequences

(D) look for DNA binding domains

98.

(A) Richard Durbans

(B) Dayhoff

(C) Michael Dunn

(D) Pearson

99.

If you were using proteomics to find out the causes of muscle disorder, which technique

is preferred ?

(A) Creating genomic library

(B) Sequencing the gene responsible for disorder

(C) Determining which environmental factor influences the expression of your gene of

interest annotating the gene sequence

(D) Developing physical map from genomic clones

100.

(A) 3 proteins in the database have same sequence as its protein

(B) Chance of similarities arose due to chance is over in 103

(C) There would be 3 matches that are good in database of this size by chance alone

(D) The match in aa sequence is perfect except for aa at 3 position

Set - A

13

BT

101.

(A) A section of eukaryotic gene that is translated into protein

(B) A section of eukaryotic gene that is not translated into protein

(C) A regulatory sequence that turns gene on and off

(D) DNA that has no genetic role but does maintain the physical structure of

chromosome

102.

(A) The gene density increases

(B) The number of introns increases

(C) Gene size increases

(D) An increase in number of chromosomes

103.

(A) Altering pH of the medium

(B) Inhibiting Respiration

(C) Altering intracellular pH by diffusing across cell membrane

(D) (B) and (C)

104.

For profiling mammalian cells the buffering capacity of the medium is increased by

(A) NaHCO3

(B) K2HPO4

(C) CaCO3

(D) MgSO4

105.

(A) Positively charged

(B) Negatively charged

(C) Neutrally charged

(D) Double positively charged

106.

In monolayer cultures, Gap junctions allow intra cellular exchange of ions and molecules

with

(A) 1100 D

(B) 900 D

(C) 500 D

(D) 2000 D

107.

(A) 290 mosmol/kg

(C) 410 mosmol/kg

(D) 180 mosmol/kg

108.

(A) HAT medium is a selective medium

(B) Aminopterin in the HAT medium blocks denovo pathway of nucleotide synthesis

(C) Salvage pathway requires aminopterin and thymidine

(D) Hypoxanthine is converted to guanine by HGPRT enzyme

109.

The most recent method for screening large synthetic antibody libraries

(A) ELISA

(B) Phage display (C) Bio display (D) RIA

110.

infraction.

(A) Lepirudin

(B) Interferron B (C) Alteplase

(D) Filgrastim

Set - A

14

BT

111.

Tumour cells can grow in suspension or in a semi solid agar gel because of

(A) loss of contact inhibition

(B) high telomerase activity

(C) reduced levels of Glycolysis

(D) increased levels of blood circulation

112.

(A) Tumour suppressor gene

(B) Onco gene

(C) DNA repair gene

(D) Structural gene

113.

Two homeodomain transcription factors which are the first proteins identified as

essential for both early embryo development and pluripotency maintenance in embryonic

stem cells

(A) TRA-1-60, TRA-1-81

(B) CD 349, frizzled-9

(C) SSEA-1, SSEA-4

(D) Oct-4, Nanog

114.

Which of the following interleukin is required for the development of basophils from

hematopoietic stem cells

(A) IL-3

(B) IL-12

(C) IL-1

(D) IL-9

115.

(A) Cohesive end site of phage Lambda

(B) Derivative of permissive CV-1 monkey cell line

(C) Cohesive initial stage of phage Lambda

(D) Derivative of non permissive CV-1 monkey cell line

116.

When heated above the melting point, sucrose forms a brown substance called

(A) Monellin

(B) Caramel

(C) Saccharin

(D) Alitame

117.

(A) Antimycin A

(B) Streptomycin D

(C) Novobiocin

(D) Erythromycin

118.

Human DNA contains 40% GC content, what will be the melting temperature ?

(A) 80.3 C

(B) 90.3 C

(C) 85.3 C

(D) 92.5 C

119.

The transcription of ribosomal RNA gene cluster by RNA Pol I in the nucleus generates

(A) 55 S Pre r RNA transcript

(B) 28 S Pre r RNA transcript

(C) 18 S Pre r RNA transcript

(D) 45 S Pre r RNA transcript

120.

(A) -1 antitrypsin

(B) Tissue plasminogen activator

(C) Interleukin-2

(D) K-Casein

Set - A

15

BT

Set - A

16

BT

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

BIO-TECHNOLOGY (BT)

SET-A

D

41

B

81

B

42

A

82

C

43

C

83

C

44

B

84

C

45

A

85

C

46

C

86

D

47

C

87

A

48

C

88

B

49

C

89

A

50

A

90

C

51

A

91

D

52

D

92

B

53

A

93

B

54

D

94

A

55

A

95

B

56

C

96

C

57

C

97

C

58

A

98

B

59

D

99

C

60

A

100

C

61

A

101

A

62

C

102

B

63

D

103

C

64

A

104

B

65

C

105

A

66

A

106

D

67

C

107

A

68

D

108

B

69

D

109

D

70

A

110

B

71

B

111

A

72

A

112

B

73

A

113

C

74

C

114

D

75

A

115

D

76

D

116

C

77

A

117

A

78

A

118

C

79

B

119

C

80

C

120

D

C

C

C

B

A

B

B

A

A

A

C

A

D

D

D

A

B

C

C

A

D

C

A

B

B

A

C

C

C

A

A

D

A

C

B

A

C

D

A

Booklet No. :

A

SET

CE - 15

Civil Engineering

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

CE-15-A

1.

2.

3.

(A) | A | 1

(B) | A | < n

(C) | A | = 0

(D) A1 exists

8 6 2

2 4 3

1

2

1

(A) 2

(B) 1

(C) 1

1

1

2

(A)

4.

l 2 + m2 + n 2

If C is the ellipse

(A) ab

5.

7.

(C)

l 2 + m2 + n 2

(D) 0

1

x2 y2

+ 2 = 1 then the value of 2 (xdy ydx) is

2

c

a

b

ab

(B)

(C) ab2

(D)

2

a2b

1

1

(A)

(B)

3

( s 2)

( s + 2)3

(C)

none

(D)

1 1

( 1) + cos2 x

8 16

(C)

2

( s 2)3

(D)

2

( s + 2)3

z2

at the pole z = 2 is

The residue of the function f ( z ) =

( z 1)2 ( z + 2)

(A)

8.

p

l+m+n

(B)

1

sin 2 x is

D 4

1 2

1

(B)

sin x

+ cos2 x

4

8

The value of

(A)

6.

(D)

1

2

2

5

9

(B)

1

2

(C)

4

9

(D) 0

If a random variable X has the PDF f(x) = (1 p)x1p, x = 1, 2, and 0 < p < 1. Then

the mean of X is

(A) p + 1

(B) p2 + p

(C) p

(D) 1

Set - A

CE

9.

with mean 2.0. The probability that the computer will function for a month without a

breakdown is

(A) e0.2

(B) e0.2

(C) 0.2

(D) 0

10.

f (xn)

f '(xn) is

(A)

(B)

f ' ( xn ) < 1

(C)

f ' ( xn ) > 1

(D)

11.

span. The area of shear force diagram from P to R will give

(A) deflection at R

(B) shear force at R

(C) load at R

(D) difference between bending moment values at P and R

12.

If the shear force at a section of a beam under bending is equal to zero, then the bending

moment at the section is

(A) zero

(B) maximum

(C) minimum

(D) minimum or maximum

13.

Of the four elastic constants, Youngs modulus, Bulk modulus, Rigidity modulus and

Poissons ratio, the number of constants required to be determined experimentally to

obtain the rest are

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D) four

14.

Two bars of different materials are of the same size and are subjected to same tensile

forces. If the bars have unit elongations in the ratio of 4:5, then the ratio of moduli of

elasticity of the two materials is

(A) 5:4

(B) 4:5

(C) 4:9

(D) 16:25

15.

The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 5 MPa (compressive) and 3 MPa

(tensile) respectively. The maximum shear stress at the point is

(A) zero

(B) 2 MPa

(C) 4 MPa

(D) 8 MPa

16.

(A) pure shear

(B) uniaxial stress only

(C) equal and opposite normal stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, which

are free of shear

(D) equal normal stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, which are free of

shear

Set - A

CE

17.

The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a rectangular beam section

to that of a circular beam section is in the proportion of

(A) 9:8

(B) 8:9

(C) 3:4

(D) 2:3

18.

(A) uniform hoop compression

(B) uniform hoop tension

(C) compression inside and tension outside

(D) compression outside and tension inside

19.

A solid circular shaft of 6m length is built in at its ends and subjected to an externally

applied torque 60 kN m at a distance of 2 m from the left end. The reactive torques at the

left end and the right end are respectively

(A) 20 kN m and 40 kN m

(B) 40 kN m and 20 kN m

(C) 30 kN m and 30 kN m

(D) 15 kN m and 45 kN m

20.

When both ends of a column are fixed, the crippling load is P. If one end of the column is

made free, the value of crippling load is

(A) P/16

(B) P/4

(C) P/2

(D) 4P

21.

If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire span,

then any section of the arch is subjected to

(A) normal thrust only

(B) normal thrust and shear force

(C) normal thrust and bending moment

(D) normal thrust, shear force and bending moment

22.

load at the centre. If the width and depth of the beam are doubled, then the deflection at

the centre of the beam will be reduced to

(A) 50%

(B) 25%

(C) 12.5%

(D) 6.25%

23.

(A) compatibility of deformations

(B) kinematically admissible strains

(C) equilibrium of forces

(D) safety

24.

(A) one

(B) two

(C) three

(D) zero

25.

The ratio of the moment-carrying capacities of a beam of a square section of size D and a

beam of circular section of diameter D is

(A) 3/8

(B) 8/3

(C) 16/3

(D) 3/16

Set - A

CE

26.

The maximum bending moment under a particular point load among a train of point

loads crossing a simply supported girded occurs when that load is

(A) at mid-span

(B) at one-third span

(C) at one-quarter span

(D) so placed that the load point and the point of CG of the train of loads are

equidistant from the mid-span

27.

intensity w/unit length all through the span, the bending moment at the fixed end is

(A) wL2/8

(B) wL2/2

(C) wL2/12

(D) wL2/24

28.

A fixed beam of 6 m span supports two point loads of 300 kN each at 2 m and 4 m from

one end. The bending moment under each load is

(A) 400 kN m

(B) 300 kN m

(C) 250 kN m

(D) 200 kN m

29.

(A) increase in water-cement ratio

(C) decrease in curing time

(D) decrease in size of aggregate

30.

(A) yield stress and ultimate stress respectively

(B) ultimate stress and yield stress respectively

(C) yield stress

(D) ultimate stress

31.

In the limit state method, balanced design of a reinforced concrete beam gives

(A) smallest concrete section and maximum area of reinforcement

(B) largest concrete section and maximum area of reinforcement

(C) smallest concrete section and minimum area of reinforcement

(D) largest concrete section and minimum area of reinforcement

32.

Minimum clear cover in mm to the main steel bars in slab, beam, column and footing

respectively, are

(A) 10, 15, 20 and 25

(B) 15, 25, 40 and 75

(C) 15, 25, 30 and 40

(D) 20, 35, 40 and 75

33.

The following two statements are made with reference to a simply supported underreinforced RCC beam :

I.

Failure takes place by crushing of concrete before the steel has yielded.

II. The neutral axis moves up as the load is increased.

Of the statements

(A) I and II are false

(B) I is true but II is false

(C) I and II are true

(D) I is false but II is true

Set - A

CE

34.

(A) a function of the short span

(B) a function of the long span

(C) independent of the spans

(D) dependent on both the spans

35.

A simply supported rectangular beam is uniformly loaded and is pre-stressed. The tendon

provided for pre-stressing should be

(A) straight, above centroidal axis

(B) straight, below centroidal axis

(C) parabolic, convexity upward

(D) parabolic, convexity downward

36.

The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and

superimposed load is

(A) 180

(B) 200

(C) 250

(D) 350

37.

(A) axial force in rafter

(B) shear force in rafter

(C) deflection in rafter

(D) bending moment in rafter

38.

(A) bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load

(B) shear force due to 2.5% of the column load

(C) 2.5% of the column load

(D) shear force and bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load

39.

(A) torsional moment

(B) shear force

(C) bending moment

(D) diagonal buckling

40.

The sections when arranged in the decreasing order of their shape factors are

(A) I, circular, diamond, rectangular (B) circular, I, rectangular, diamond

(C) diamond circular, rectangular, I

(D) diamond, I, circular, rectangular

41.

(A) fine sand size particles

(B) clay-size particles

(C) silt- size particles

(D) colloidal particles

42.

(A) 0.2

(B) 0.3

(C) 0.4

(D) 0.5

43.

The porosity of a certain sample was found to be 80% and its specific gravity is 2.7, the

critical hydraulic gradient is

(A) 0.34

(B) 0.92

(C) 1.0

(D) 1.5

Set - A

CE

44.

On analysis of particle size distribution of a soil, it is found that D10 = 0.1 mm, D30 = 0.3 mm

and D60 = 0.8 mm. The uniformity coefficient and curvature coefficient are respectively

(A) 8 and 3

(B) 2.67 and 1.125

(C) 2.67 and 3

(D) 8 and 1.125

45.

In a wet soil mass, air occupies one-fourth of its volume and water occupies one-half of

its volume. The void ratio of the soil is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

46.

The liquid limit (LL), plastic limit (PL) and shrinkage limit (SL), of a cohesive soil

satisfy the relation

(A) LL>PL<SL (B) LL>PL>SL (C) LL<PL<SL (D) LL<PL>SL

47.

A flow net under a sheet pile has Nf = 4, Nd = 8 and KH = 8 105 m/s and KV = 2 105

m/s. If the head loss through the soil is 2 m, the quantity of seepage per metre length of

the pile is

(A) 2 105 m3/s (B) 4 105 m3/s (C) 8 105 m3/s (D) 16 105 m3/s

48.

In a saturated clay with a unit weight of 20 kN/m3, if the water table is at ground surface,

the effective stress at 3 m depth in kN/m2, is

(A) 60

(B) 66

(C) 30

(D) 30

49.

A 2 m thick clay will be 90% consolidated in 6 years. The time required to achieve the

same degree of consolidation in a 8 m thick stratum of the same clay is

(A) 12 years

(B) 48 years

(C) 72 years

(D) 96 years

50.

The ratio of compactive effort provide in modified Proctor test to standard Proctor test is

(A) 2

(B) 2.5

(C) 3

(D) 4.5

51.

(1) failure occurs along the weakest plane

(2) the stress distribution on the failure plane is more uniform

(3) complete control of drainage is possible

(4) the stresses on the failure plane are directly measured

Of these statements,

(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

(C) 3, 4 and 1 are correct

(D) 4, 1 and 2 are correct

52.

In granular soils, the value of depends on the following factors :

(A) Degree of saturation

(B) State of compaction

(C) Coarseness of grains

(D) Particle shape and roughness of grain surfaces

Set - A

CE

53.

The total active thrust on a vertical wall 3 m height retaining a horizontal sand backfill

(unit weight = 20 kN/m3, angle of internal friction = 30), when the water table at the

bottom of the wall is

(A) 30 kN/m

(B) 35 kN/m

(C) 45 kN/m

(D) 75 kN/m

54.

The stability of upstream and downstream slopes of an earth dam has to be checked for

(A) steady seepage condition

(B) sudden drawdown condition

(C) steady seepage and sudden drawdown conditions respectively

(D) sudden drawdown and steady seepage conditions respectively

55.

The gross bearing capacity of a footing is 440 kN/m2. If the footing is 1.5 m wide and is

at a depth of 1m in a clayey soil which has a unit weight of 20 kN/m3, the safe bearing

capacity with a factor of safety of 3 is

(A) 133 kN/m2 (B) 140 kN/m2

(C) 160 kN/m2

(D) 420 kN/m2

56.

The ratio of ultimate bearing capacities of circular footing and a square footing founded

on the surface of a purely cohesionless soil (the side of the square footing being equal to

the diameter of the circular footing) is

(A) 0.75

(B) 1.0

(C) 1.33

(D) 1.75

57.

Ultimate settlement of footings on cohesive soils is best estimated using the data from

(A) plate load test

(B) consolidation test

(C) cone penetration test

(D) standard penetration test

58.

A 30 cm square bearing plate settles by 1.5 cm in a plate loading test on a cohesive soil

when the intensity of loading is 200 kN/m2. The settlement of prototype shallow footing

1m square under the same intensity of loading is

(A) 1.5 cm

(B) 3 cm

(C) 5 cm

(D) 16.67 cm

59.

The unconfined compressive strength of clay is 120 kN/m2. The skin friction capacity

(kN) of the pile for an adhesion factor of 0.6, is

(A) 671 kN

(B) 565 kN

(C) 283 kN

(D) 106 kN

60.

1.

a cohesive fill placed over a cohesionless soil deposit

2.

a cohesionless fill placed over a compressible cohesive deposit

3.

lowering of ground water table with resulting ground subsidence

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Set - A

CE

61.

(A) Viscosity of liquids increases with increase in temperature

(B) Viscosity of liquids decreases with increase in temperature

(C) Viscosity of gases decreases with increase in temperature

(D) Viscosity of liquids and gases does not change with temperature

62.

The velocities at two points in a pipeline are V and 3V. Both the points are at the same

elevation. The fluid density is . The flow can be assumed to be incompressible, inviscid,

steady and irrotational. The difference in pressures between the points is

(A) V2

(B) 2V2

(C) 4V2

(D) 8V2

63.

If the Reynolds number of pipe flow is 640, the friction factor of the pipe material is

(A) 0.16

(B) 0.1

(C) 0.016

(D) 0.01

64.

The ratio of head loss per unit length of a pipe flowing full to that of the same pipe

flowing half-full at the same mean velocity is

(A) 0.25

(B) 0.5

(C) 1

(D) 2

65.

In network of pipes

(A) the algebraic sum of head (pressure and datum) drops around each circuit is zero

(B) the algebraic sum of discharges around each circuit is zero

(C) the algebraic sums of head (pressure and datum) drops and discharges around each

circuit are zero

(D) the elevation of hydraulic gradient line is assumed for each junction point

66.

The thickness of laminar boundary layer on a flat plate at a point P is 1 cm and at a point

Q, 1 m downstream of P, is 2 cm. The distance of P from the leading edge of the plate is

(A) 0.33 m

(B) 0.67 m

(C) 1 m

(D) 1.25 m

67.

(A) gravity and frictional forces

(B) gravity and inertial forces

(C) inertial and frictional forces

(D) inertial and viscous forces

68.

(A) specific energy and specific force are minimum for a given discharge

(B) specific energy is maximum for a given discharge

(C) specific force is maximum for a given discharge

(D) specific energy and specific force are maximum for a given discharge

69.

In a channel the bed slope changes from a mild slope to a steep slope. The resulting

gradually varied flow profiles are

(A) M1, S2

(B) M2, S1

(C) M2, S2

(D) M1, S1

Set - A

CE

70.

section by a smooth transition, under unchoked flow condition, the water surface

(A) at the downstream section will rise (B) at the downstream section will drop

(C) at the upstream section will rise (D) at the upstream section will drop

71.

The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic jump in a horizontal rectangular channel is 5. The

Froude number before the jump is

(A) 5

(B) 15

(C) 35

(D) 120

72.

over the notch and an error of 1% in length of notch occurred, then the percentage of

error in discharge would be

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 1

73.

(A) 5

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 2

74.

another, the resulting flow pattern can be represented by a family of

(A) parallel straight lines

(B) circles

(C) parabolas

(D) hyperabolas

75.

(A) Pumps operating in series boost the discharge and pumps operating in parallel

boost the head

(B) Pumps operating in series boost the head and pumps operating in parallel boost the

discharge

(C) Pumps operating either in series or in parallel boost the discharge

(D) Pumps operating either in series or in parallel boost the head

76.

A line connecting points having equal time of travel of surface runoff to the catchment

outlet is an

(A) isochrone

(B) isovel

(C) isopleth

(D) isohyet

77.

(A) normal ratio

(B) double mass curve

(C) moving average

(D) Thiessen polygon

78.

A 6 h storm had 6 cm of rainfall at uniform rate and the resulting runoff was 3 cm. If the

index remains at the same value, the runoff due to 12 cm of uniform rainfall in 9

hours in the catchment is

(A) 9 cm

(B) 4.5 cm

(C) 6 cm

(D) 7.5 cm

Set - A

10

CE

79.

(A) moving-boat method

(B) electromagnetic method

(C) ultrasonic method

(D) slope-area method

80.

For a catchment with an area of 200 km2, the equilibrium discharge of the S curve

obtained by summation of 2 h unit hydrographs is

(A) 36 m3/s

(B) 100 m3/s

(C) 278 m3/s

(D) 400 m3/s

81.

peak of 100 m3/s. The unit hydrograph refers to a catchment area of

(A) 0.36 km2

(B) 3.6 km2

(C) 36 km2

(D) 360 km2

82.

A culvert is designed for a peak flow of 10 m3/s on the basis of rational formula. If the

storm of same intensity as used in the design but of duration thrice larger occurs, the

resulting peak discharge is

(A) 3.33 m3/s

(B) 5 m3/s

(C) 10 m3/s

(D) 30 m3/s

83.

(A) storage varies linearly with elevation

(B) storage varies linearly with the outflow rate

(C) storage varies linearly with time

(D) storage varies linearly with the inflow rate

84.

The volume stored in a saturated column of aquifer with a porosity of 0.3, cross-sectional

area of 2 m2 and of 4 m depth is

(A) 1.2 m3

(B) 2.4 m3

(C) 4 m3

(D) 8 m3

85.

If duty is 1200 hectares/cumec and base period is 120 days for an irrigated crop, then

delta is

(A) 0.864 m

(B) 0.432 m

(C) 1 m

(D) 10 m

86.

Lysimeter and Tensiometer are used to measure respectively, one of the following groups

of quantities

(A) evaporation and permeability

(B) capillary potential and evapotranspiration

(C) evapotranspiration and capillary potential

(D) velocity and vapour pressure

87.

(A) 10.25 m

(B) 47.5 m

(C) 90.75 m

(D) 111 m

Set - A

11

CE

88.

specific gravity 2.25 and resisting only hydrostatic force is

(A) 6.67 m

(B) 10 m

(C) 13.42 m

(D) 15 m

89.

According to Khosla s theory, the exit gradient in the absence of downstream cutoff is

(A) zero

(B) unity

(C) zero or unity (D) infinity

90.

(A) the land gradient is steep and the soil is easily erodible

(B) the soil is having low permeability

(C) the water table is low

(D) the crops to be grown have deep roots

91.

(A) results in reduction of pH of the treated water

(B) results in increase of pH of the treated water

(C) results in no change in pH of the treated water

(D) may cause an increase or decrease of pH of the treated water

92.

(A) Nitrates

(C) Sodium chloride

(B) Fluorides

(D) Calcium and Magnesium

93.

A water treatment plant treats 6000 m3 of water per day. If it consumes 20 kg chlorine

per day, then the chlorine dosage would be

(A) 3 mg/l

(B) 3.75 mg/l

(C) 4.25 mg/l

(D) 3.33 mg/l

94.

(A) 0.01 ppm

(B) 1 ppm

(C) 0.5 ppm

(D) 0.1 ppm

95.

(A) Jacksons turbidimeter

(B) Thermometer

(C) Hydrometer

(D) Osmoscope

96.

Which of the following operational problems relate to the functioning of rapid gravity

filter ?

1.

Inadequate media comprising filter bed

2.

Mud balls

3.

Negative head

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

Set - A

12

CE

97.

water ?

1.

Chlorine demand is reduced.

2.

Possibility of taste and odour formation is reduced.

3.

Possibility of formation of carcinogenic compounds is reduced.

4.

Chloramines are formed.

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 4 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

98.

The most suitable method of analysis of water distribution system for long and narrow

pipe system is

(A) Circle method

(B) Equivalent pipe method

(C) Hardy-Cross method

(D) Electrical analyser method

99.

(A) 5 10 years (B) 15 20 years (C) 30 40 years (D) 40 50 years

100.

Most suitable section of sewer for both combined and separate systems is

(A) semi-elliptical

(B) circular

(C) horse-shoe shaped

(D) egg shaped

101.

If the slope of sewer A is 1/400 and that of sewer B is 1/100, the velocity of flow in the

two sewers will have a ratio of (other parameters being same)

(A) 1:2

(B) 2:1

(C) 1:4

(D) 4:1

102.

During sewage treatment, effluent from which one of the following treatment units has

minimum amount of suspended solids ?

(A) Detritus channel

(B) Primary sedimentation tank

(C) Secondary sedimentation tank

(D) Activated sludge process aeration tank

103.

(A) change in alignment of sewer line

(B) change in size of sewers

(C) change in the elevation of ground level

(D) change from gravity to pressure system

104.

The unit in which both sedimentation and digestion processes of sludge take place

simultaneously is

(A) Skimming tank

(B) Imhoff tank

(C) Detritus tank

(D) Digestion tank

105.

A sewage sludge has a water content of 99%. The concentration of suspended solids in

the sludge is

(A) 10 mg/l

(B) 100 mg/l

(C) 1000 mg/l

(D) 10,000 mg/l

Set - A

13

CE

106.

1.

Noise pollution can be reduced using double glass window panes

2.

Glass absorbs noise

3.

The air trapped in the double glass system acts as an insulator and reduces the

noise

4.

The noise totally reflects back due to two layers of glass

Which of these statements are correct ?

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 4 only

107.

A water supply of 15,000 m3 per day is treated with 0.5 ppm of chlorine. The

requirement of 30% bleaching powder per day is

(A) 2.25 kg

(B) 4.5 kg

(C) 2.5 kg

(D) 25 kg

108.

(A) Carbon monoxide

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Sulphur dioxide

(D) Chloroflurocarbons

109.

(A) composting (B) incineration (C) pyrolysis

(D) land filling

110.

The secondary pollutant among the air pollutants, NO, SO2, soot and O3, is

(A) NO

(B)

SO2

(C)

soot

(D) O3

111.

(A) centrifugal force

(B) drainage

(C) sight distance

(D) off-tracking

112.

Consider the following statements :

I.

Viscosity of P will be lesser than that of Q at the same temperature

II. Penetration value of P will be more than that of Q under standard conditions

The correct option evaluating the above statements is

(A) Both I and II are TRUE

(B) Both I and II are FALSE

(C) I is FALSE and II is TRUE

(D) I is TRUE and II is FALSE

113.

In a flexible pavement

(A) vertical compressive stresses decrease with depth of the layer

(B) vertical compressive stress is maximum at the lowest layer

(C) tensile stresses get developed

(D) maximum stress induced by a given traffic load is dependent on the location of

load on the pavement surface

Set - A

14

CE

114.

(A) ability of roadway to accommodate traffic volume in terms of vehicles/hr.

(B) number of vehicles occupying a length of roadway at a given instant expressed as

vehicles/km.

(C) capacity of lane to accommodate the vehicles widthwise (across the road).

(D) maximum attainable speed of vehicle.

115.

At an intersection, the critical lane volume on the major road increases while that on the

minor road remains unchanged. The green time for the signal will

(A) increase for the major road and remain same for the minor road.

(B) increase for the major road and decrease for the minor road.

(C) decrease for both the roads.

(D) remain unchanged for both the roads.

116.

The bearings of lines OP and OQ are 20 30" and 342 20" respectively. The included

angle QOP is

(A) 321 50"

(B) 162 20"

(C) 69 30"

(D) 38 10"

117.

1.

errors due to earths curvature

2.

errors due to atmospheric refraction

3.

mistakes in taking levelling staff readings

4.

errors due to line of collimation

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

118.

(A) Bowditch rule

(B) transit rule

(C) working accurately latitudes

(D) either Bowditch rule or transit rule as applicable

119.

The plotting of inaccessible points in a plane-table survey can be done by the method of

(A) Interpolation (B) Radiation

(C) Intersection (D) Traversing

120.

adopted is 0.1% per 20 m length. The length of respective vertical curve is

(A) 800 m

(B) 200 m

(C) 100 m

(D) 400 m

___________

Set - A

15

CE

Set - A

16

CE

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

SET-A

C

41

C

81

D

42

D

82

A

43

A

83

A

44

D

84

D

45

C

85

C

46

B

86

C

47

B

87

C

48

C

88

B

49

D

89

A

50

D

90

D

51

A

91

D

52

A

92

B

53

A

93

A

54

D

94

C

55

C

95

D

56

A

96

A

57

B

97

B

58

C

98

B

59

B

99

A

60

D

100

A

61

B

101

D

62

C

102

A

63

B

103

C

64

C

104

C

65

A

105

D

66

A

106

A

67

A

107

D

68

A

108

B

69

C

109

A

70

B

110

A

71

B

111

B

72

C

112

D

73

C

113

A

74

B

114

D

75

B

115

A

76

A

116

D

77

B

117

C

78

D

118

B

79

D

119

C

80

C

120

D

C

B

B

A

C

B

B

D

A

A

D

D

A

D

A

D

B

B

D

A

C

C

B

D

B

D

B

B

D

B

C

A

B

B

D

B

D

C

A

Booklet No. :

A

SET

CH - 15

Chemical Engineering

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

This Question Booklet consists of 120 multiple choice objective type questions to be answered

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

Before answering the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet, please read the instructions printed

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

CH-15-A

1.

2.

have nontrivial solution is

(A) 1

(B) 0

(C) 8

(D) 4

If 5 and

(A) 2

3.

(C)

(D) 1

(B)

+2

(C)

(D) 1

(A)

5.

(B)

The percentage of error in the area of an ellipse when an error of +1 percentage is made

in measuring the major and minor axis is

(A)

4.

1 2 2

5 are eigen values of the matrix 1 2 1 then the third eigen value is

1 1 0

(B)

i j

(C)

2i + 3 j

(D)

(A)

x

sin2 x

4

(B)

x

cos 2 x

4

(C)

1

sin2 x

8

(D)

1

s2

(D)

1

sin2 x

4

1

6.

1

(A)

7.

8.

t is

(B)

(C)

2z +1

The residue at the pole 2 of the function z 2 z 2

3

3

1

(A) 5

(B) 2

(C) 2

(D)

1

s

5

3

independent is

1

1

(A) 0.7

(B) 2

(C) 0.4

(D) 3

Set - A

CH

9.

(A) 1st

(B) 3rd

(C) 4th

(D) 2nd

10.

If h is the step size and if f ( x) is given in the table then by Simpson 1/3rd method

x5

x0

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

y ( x)dx is equal to

x0

x1

x2

x3

x4

x5

y(x)

y0

y1

y2

y3

y4

y5

h

y0 + 2 ( y1 + y3 ) + 4 ( y2 + y4 ) + y5

2

h

y0 + 4 ( y1 + y3 ) + 2 ( y2 + y4 ) + y5

3

h

y0 + 2 ( y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 ) + y5

2

h

y0 + 2 ( y1 + y3 ) + 4 ( y2 + y4 ) + y5

3

11.

(A) 16 /d

(B) 8 /d

(C) 4 /d

(D) 2 /d

12.

(A) horizontal component of surface tension

(B) the Drag force

(C) vertical component of surface tension

(D) the viscous force

13.

(A) law of conservation of energy

(B) law of conservation of mass

(C) law of conservation of momentum (D) law of conservation of mass and energy

14.

(A) Reynolds number

(B) Weber number

(C) Euler number

(D) Froude number

15.

Dynamic similarity is

(A) the similarity of discharge

(B) the similarity of forces

(C) the similarity of stream line patterns (D) the similarity of location

Set - A

CH

16.

(A) equal to the weight of liquid displaced and acts vertically downwards

(B) the net force acting on a body due to the surrounding fluid

(C) the net force necessary to maintain equilibrium of the body

(D) equal to the weight of liquid displaced and acts vertically upwards

17.

(A) Froude number

(B) Weber number

(C) Euler number

(D) Mach number

18.

(A) K (Sg)0.5

19.

(B)

K (Sg)

(C)

K (Sg)2

(D) K (Sg)1.5

The ratio of point velocity to the maximum velocity in laminar flow through a pipe is

(A) 1 (r/R)2

(B)

1 (r/R)

(C)

(r/R)2

(D) (r/R)

20.

(A) potential head (B) kinetic head (C) not converted (D) pressure head

21.

(A) nonviscous flow

(C) turbulent flow

(D) in viscid flow

(A) the pressure is zero

(C) the total energy is zero

(D) the flow resistance is the maximum

A foot valve is a

(A) direction control valve

(C) pressure reducing valve

(D) back pressure valve

22.

23.

24.

For compressing and moving gases, the pressure difference produced is the maximum for

(A) Fans

(B) Vacuum Pumps

(C) Blowers

(D) Compressors

25.

(A) 2 cm

(B) 8 cm

(C) 72 cm

Set - A

(D) 6 cm

CH

26.

(A) 21/2

(B)

(C)

<1

(D) 2

27.

The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of any screen to that in the next smaller screen in

that series is

(A) 1.41

(B) 2

(C) 1.19

(D) 1.73

28.

29.

(B)

(C)

inversely proportional

directly proportional

(A) 20 %

(B) 80 %

(C) 10 %

(D) 2 %

30.

(A) the number of particles crushed

(B) the new surface created

(C) the hardness of the particles

(D) the surface area of the feed particles

31.

(A) cutting

(B) attrition

(C) impact

(D) compression

32.

Critical speed of a ball mill depends on (r is ball radius and R is mill radius)

(A) only on mill radius, R

(B) Only on ball radius, r

(C)

33.

Difference in R and r

(A) increase the cake porosity

(C) increase cake compressibility

(D) (R r)1/2

(D) Decrease cake compressibility

34.

(A) is constant

(B) increases

(C) is steady

(D) decreases

35.

(A) ML1

36.

(B)

L1

(C)

M1L

(A) parabola

(B) straight line (C) hyperbola

Set - A

(D) M1L1

CH

37.

(A) velocity head + pressure head, at suction

(B) velocity head + pressure head, at discharge

(C) velocity head + pressure head, at suction vapor pressure of liquid

(D) velocity head + pressure head, at discharge vapor pressure of liquid

38.

(A) Centrifugal pump

(B) Gear pump

(C) Screw pump

(D) Lobe pump

39.

Vane pumps

(A) operate at low efficiencies

(B) cannot provide variable displacement

(C) do not depend on centrifugal force for their operation

(D) can have large discharge under high pressures

40.

(A) the cake resistance

(B) the filter medium resistance

(C) the piping resistance

(D) All the above

41.

(A) Difference in densities

(B) Difference in terminal velocities

(C) Difference in particle sizes

(D) Difference in liquidsolid density

42.

(A) Low temperature, low pressure

C) High temperature, high pressure

43.

44.

45.

(D) High temperature, low pressure

(A) Charcoal

(B) Diamond

(C) Lampblack

(D) Soot

(A) Polyethylene (B) Silicone

(C) Bakelite

(D) polyester

(A) CF4

(B) CH2 = CHF

(D) C2F4

Set - A

(C)

6

C2F2

CH

46.

(A) Heating to boiling

(B) Cooling followed by moderate heating

(C) Cooling to 0 C

(D) Moderate heating followed by cooling

47.

(A) Copper

(B) Iron

(C) Nickel

(D) Silver

48.

(A) Sodium carboxy methyl cellulose (B) Sodium silicate

(C) Sodium tripolyphosphate

(D) Sodium sulfate

49.

(A) Oxidation of chlorine ions

(B) Reduction of sodium ions

(C) Oxidation of sodium ions

(D) Reduction of chlorine ions

50.

(A) CH4, CO2 and H2O

(B)

(C)

51.

52.

CH4, CO and N2

CH4, CO and H2

(A) CaCO3

(B) CaCl2

(C) Ca(OH)2

(D) NaHCO3

(A) Convection (B) Conduction

(C)

Radiation

53.

A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all made of the same material and having the

same mass, are available at a temperature of 250 C. When they are exposed to the

ambient air, which object will provide the lowest heat transfer rate ?

(A) circular plate

(B) cube

(C) sphere

(D) all will cool at the same rate

54.

(A) decreases with increasing temperature

(B) decreases with increasing apparent bulk density

(C) increases with increasing temperature but decreases with increasing apparent bulk

density

(D) increases both with increasing temperature and increasing apparent bulk density

Set - A

CH

55.

The maximum heat loss from a pipe occurs when the radius of insulation equals

(A) the ratio of thermal conductivity to heat transfer coefficient

(B)

(C)

56.

57.

(A) Prandtl number

(B)

(C)

Stanton number

Rayleigh number

(A) surface tension forces

(B)

(C)

both A and B

58.

When the Prandtl number is greater than unity, the thermal boundary layer

(A) and hydrodynamic boundary layer are identical

(B)

(C)

(D) disappears

59.

(A) parabolic with radius for both laminar and turbulent flows

(B)

(C)

60.

(A) is less common than drop wise condensation

(B)

(C)

is characterized by high heat transfer coefficients than that for drop wise

condensation

(D) is characterized by a thin liquid film forming over the entire surface

Set - A

CH

61.

(A) less than that of film wise condensation

(B)

(C)

62.

The total emissive power (E) of a gray body at a surface temperature of T is given by

(A) E = T4

63.

(B)

=1

(C)

(D)

>1

(B)

decrease

(D) none

A certain quantity of liquid is heated for 10 minutes by an electric resistor, which draws

3 amperes current at 200 volts. The liquid is continuously stirred by a paddle wheel,

which was operated by a 200 W rating motor. The amount of energy transferred to the

liquid is

(A) 480 kJ

66.

E = (1)T4 (D) E = T4

If some of the tubes in a heat exchanger are sealed, the effective heat transfer area will

(A) increase

65.

E = (1)T4 (C)

For the same process temperatures, the ratio of LMTD in parallel flow to the LMTD in

counter flow in liquidliquid heat exchanger is always

(A) <1

64.

(B)

(B)

360 kJ

(C)

800 kJ

(D) 240 kJ

The thermal efficiency of an ideal Rankine cycle is lower than that of a Carnot cycle

operating between the same temperature limits because

(A) energy rejection does not take place at constant temperature

(B)

(C)

67.

A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed reversibly from the initial state (P1, V1) to

the final state (P2, V2) according to the path, PVn = constant. The work done on the gas

(A) n(P1V1 P2V2)

(C)

Set - A

P(V1 V2 )

n

(B)

(D)

P2 V 2 P1V1

1 n

P(V1 V2 )

1 n

CH

68.

(A) increases

(B) does not change

(C) gets halved

(D) decreases

69.

internal combustion engines

P.

The combustion process is replaced by an equivalent energy addition process

Q. The working fluid is a mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapor

R. The exhaust process is replaced by an equivalent energy rejection process

S.

The working fluids have constant heat capacities

(A) P, R, S

(B) P, R

(C) R, S

(D) P, Q, R

70.

A 1ton air conditioning unit, with a seasonal energy efficiency rate of 10 is used for

1000 hr per year. If the cost of electricity is ` 5 per kWh, the annual cost of power

consumption by the air conditioner is

(A) ` 10000

(B) ` 5000

(C) ` 6000

(D) `12000

71.

(A) GR /RT

72.

(B)

G /RT

(C)

(A) S & H

(B) ln P & H

(C)

GE /RT

(D) G /RT

T&S

(D) T & H

73.

A system, going from P to Q, absorbs 100 kJ of heat and does 30 kJ of work. In the

return direction if the system does 30 kJ of work, what is the heat effect ?

(A) 70 kJ

(B) 100 kJ

(C) 40 kJ

(D) 130 kJ

74.

(A) Work conversion to heat impossible

(B) Heat conversion to work impossible

(C) Work conversion to heat is partial

(D) Heat conversion to work is partial

75.

(A) 28 kg

(B) 56 kg

(C) 14 kg

(D) 44 kg

76.

(A) temp

Set - A

(B)

(temp)1.5

(C)

10

(temp)2

(D) (temp)1

CH

77.

(A) Film thickness

(B) Diffusion coefficient

(C) Volumetric mass transfer coefficient

(D) Mass transfer coefficient

78.

(A) thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity

(B) momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity

(C) momentum diffusivity to mass diffusivity

(D) none of the above

Relative volatility is defined as ( y is mole fraction of more volatile component in vapour

and x that in the liquid)

79.

80.

81.

(A) y / (1y)

(B)

(C)

(1y) / y (1x)

(A) P = Volume/ pressure gradient

(B)

(C)

(B)

DAB

(C)

84.

(C)

DAB1.5

(D) DAB0.7

(A) NSt NSc2/3 = f/8

83.

P = 1/ Diffusivity

(A) DAB0.5

82.

y/x

(B)

pressure and out of contact with water is

(A) Bubble temperature

(B)

(C)

Dew temperature

have at azeotropic composition is

(A) 0

Set - A

(B)

(C)

11

(D) 2

CH

85.

If the activity coefficient crosses unity as mole fraction of more volatile component in a

binary mixture changes, the indication is that

(A) an azeotrope is formed

(B) the separation is easier

(C) the separation is difficult

(D) the system is ideal

86.

Absorption factor is

(A) Slope of the driving force line/ slope of the operating line

(B) Number of transfer units/ number of theoretical plates

(C) Slope of the equilibrium curve / slope of the operating line

(D) Slope of the operating line / slope of the equilibrium curve

87.

(A) Saturated liquid

(B) Saturated Vapour

(C) Vapourliquid mixture

(D) Unsaturated liquid

88.

If the vapour pressure of water retained by a solid is less than the vapour pressure of pure

water, then the water content is known as

(A) Critical Moisture content

(B) Free Moisture content

(C) Bound Moisture

(D) Equilibrium Moisture content

89.

specified separation by fractionation is known as

(A) Rayleigh equation

(B) Kremser equation

(C) McCabe equation

(D) Fenske equation

90.

(A) the bubble pressure

(B) the dew pressure

(C) Between bubble and dew pressures (D) above dew pressure

91.

Liquid A decomposes by an irreversible first order reaction and the halflife of this

reaction is 20 min. The time required for 75 % conversion is

(A) 30 min

(B) 35 min

(C) 40 min

(D) 25 min

92.

In a chemical reaction, it is observed that the rate increases 4-fold, as the concentration is

doubled. What is the order of the reaction ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 1.5

(D) 4

93.

(A) time1 (Concentration)

(B) time1 (Concentration)n

(C) time (Concentration)1n

(D) time1 (Concentration)1n

Set - A

12

CH

94.

(A) Temperature sensitive

(B) Temperature insensitive

(C)

95.

More Complete

then have a slope of

(A) KCAO

96.

99.

KCAO2

(C)

1/(KCAO)

(D) CAO

(B)

(C)

(D) 2

For identical CAO, FAO and XA, and for all positive reaction orders, the ratio of volume

of a CSTR to that of a plug flow reactor is

(A) <1

98.

(B)

For an isothermal gas phase reaction, A 2B +C, the fractional change in volume of the

system between complete and no conversion is

(A) 3

97.

(B)

>1

(C)

=1

N plug flow reactors in series, each with a volume of V/N will give the same conversion

as a single plug flow reactor of volume V, all else remaining the same. This is valid for

(A) first order reactions

(B)

(C)

(A) study the flow pattern in the reactor

(B)

(D) determine the flow rates

100.

(A) Activation Energy

(B)

Heat of reaction

(D) Temperature & pressure dependence

101.

For large values of the Thiele modulus (L(k/D)1/2), in case of solid catalyzed first order

reaction, effectiveness factor () is given by

(A) = 1

Set - A

(B)

1 / L(k/D)

(C)

13

= 1 / L(k/D)1/2

(D)

L(k/D)1/2

CH

102.

(A) Reproducibility

(B) Speed of response

(C) Sensitivity

(D) Range and span

103.

(A) decreases

(B) increases

(C) not affected

(D) varies with square of temperature

104.

(A) thermometer

(B) two capacity liquid level system

(C) Thermometer in a thermo well

(D) U-tube Manometer

105.

When a first order system(time constant T) is subjected to a ramp input(At) , the dynamic

error is

(A) (AT)0.5

(B) AT

(C) 0.5 AT

(D) 2 AT

106.

(A) Pressure

(B) Level

(C)

107.

(A) Low pressures

(C) Near atmospheric pressures

Flow

(D) Temperature

(D) Ionization current

108.

(A) between 0 and +90

(B) between 0 and 180

(C) between 0 and +180

(D) between 90 and +90

109.

(A) decreases decay ratio

(B) improves the stability of a system

(C) increases decay ratio

(D) decreases offset

110.

For a stable system, as per Bode stability criterion, the amplitude ratio at a phase angle of

(180)

(A) shall be greater than unity

(B) shall be equal to zero

(C) shall be less than unity

(D) shall be equal to unity

111.

(A) increasing sensitivity type

(C) constant sensitivity type

Set - A

(D) insensitive type

14

CH

112.

(A) Reduction

(B) Hydration

(C) Dehydration (D) Oxidation

113.

A piece of equipment has an initial value of ` 25000, a service life of 8 years and finally

a salvage value of ` 1000. What is the annual depreciation cost as per straight line

method ?

(B) ` 2500

(C) ` 2600

(D) ` 3000

(A) ` 2400

114.

(A) N : P : K

(B) N : P2O5 : K

(C)

N : P2O5 : K2O

(D) N : P : K2O

115.

(A) Naphthenes (B) Aromatics

(C) Paraffins

(D) Olefins

116.

(A) less atomic weight

(B) less atomic number

(C) more atomic weight

(D) more atomic number

117.

The angle subtended by a vertical line to the point directly overhead on the line of sight

of the sun is called

(A) latitude angle

(B) declination angle

(D) Incident angle

(D) Zenith angle

118.

Which method of depreciation computation will provide the lowest book value at all

times

(A) Straight line method

(B) Diminishing balance method

(C) Sinking fund method

(D) Sum of the years digit methods

119.

plant from a past date to a later time, is known as

(A) Cost Index

(B) Scale up factor

(C) Sixtenth factor

(D) Inflation index

120.

A cylindrical vessel needs to be designed to store a highly volatile liquid, under high

pressure. Which closure head do you recommend ?

(A) Hemispherical

(B) Torispherical

(C) Ellipsoidal

(D) Flat end

Set - A

15

CH

Set - A

16

CH

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING(CH)

SET - A

C

41

B

81

D

42

B

82

B

43

B

83

A

44

A

84

A

45

D

85

D

46

D

86

D

47

C

87

D

48

A

88

D

49

A

89

B

50

B

90

51

C

91

C

C

52

B

92

B

53

C

93

D

54

D

94

B

55

A

95

D

56

D

96

C

57

B

97

A

58

C

98

A

59

B

99

D

60

D

100

B

61

B

101

B

62

A

102

A

63

A

103

D

64

C

104

B

65

A

105

B

66

C

106

A

67

B

107

C

68

D

108

D

69

A

109

B

70

C

110

B

71

C

111

C

72

A

112

A

73

C

113

D

74

D

114

C

75

B

115

A

76

B

116

C

77

D

117

A

78

C

118

D

79

D

119

A

80

A

120

A

C

B

B

A

D

B

C

D

C

C

B

D

A

A

D

B

C

A

A

C

B

A

D

B

D

A

B

C

C

A

D

A

C

D

B

D

B

A

C

Booklet No. :

A

SET

CS - 15

Computer Science & Information Technology

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

CS-15-A

1.

2.

3.

The variance of a random variable having exponential distribution with parameter is

2

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) none

The value of the constant k so that the function

kx(1 x), 0 < x < 1

f ( x) =

otherwise

is a proper density function, is

0,

(A) 6

(B) 3

(C) 1/2

(D) 1/6

A signal received at a detector may be Gaussian N(200, 100) at time t. The probability

that the signal is larger than 230 micro volts, given that it is larger than 210 micro volts is

(A)

1 2

. e 2 z

.

. e 2 z

.

230

.

.

1 2

1 2

(B)

1 z2

e 2

. e 2 z

.

(C)

.

.

210

210

4.

5.

6.

7.

(D) None

1 z2

e 2

(A) |A| = 0

(B) |A| = n

(C) |A| = 1

(D) |A| 0

8 6 2

If the eigen values of the matrix A = 6 7 4 are 0, 3 and 15, then the eigen

2 4 3

values of the matrix B = 2 A + I are

(A) 8, 7, 3

(B) 1, 7, 31

(C) 0, 3, 15

(D) do not exist

f (x )

The condition for convergence of Newton Raphson iteration scheme x1 = x0 0 at

f ( x0 )

x = x0 is

(A)

f ( x0 ) f ( x0 ) 0

(C)

f ( x0 ) f ( x0 ) f ( x0 )

(B)

f ( x0 ) 1

By secant method the next approximation root for the function f ( x) = x 2 x 2 in the

interval (1, 2) is

(B) x1 = 2

(C) x1 = 0

(D) x1 = 3/2

(A) x1 = 1

4

8.

.

If f(x) is given in the following table then the value of .f(x)dx by Simpson 1/3 rule is

(A) 26

Set - A

x

f(x)

(B) 15

0

1

1

1

2

3

3

7

(C) 18

2

4

13

(D) 17.33

CS

9.

10.

If f(x) = (x 1)(x 2) is defined in the interval [1,3] the value of c at which the Lagrange

Mean Value is satisfied at

(A) c = 0

(B) c = 3 / 2

(C) c = 1

(D) c = 2

( x, y , z )

If x = v + w, y = w + u, z = u + v the value of (u, v, w) is

(A) 0

(B) 3

(C) 1

(D) 2

11.

The total number of possible records in a database table, if it contains two fields, a

5-letter name, and a 2-digit age, is

(A) 1188137600

(B) 3906252 1010

(C) 11881476

(D) 2600

12.

Number of ways a row of n houses can be painted with k colours such that no two

consecutive houses can have same colours

(A) n.(n-1).(n-2) (n+k-1)

(B) n.(n-1).(n-2) (n-k+1)

k-1

(C) (n-1)

(D) k.(k-1)n-1

13.

An urn contains 40 balls, namely 10 each of the colours Cyan, Magenta, Yellow and

Black. If 3 balls are picked up (repeat colours allowed) from the urn, how many different

colour combinations we can get ?

(B) 6! / (2.3!)

(C) 10C3

(D) 6C3

(A) 40C3

14.

(A) 90

(B) 560

(C) 1

(D) 0

15.

(A) an = an-1 + 4

(B) an = 3an-1 6

(C)

an = an-1 + 14

(D) an = 2an-1 1

16.

(A) equal to k

(B) not equal to k

(C) greater than or equal to k

(D) less than or equal to k

17.

(A) N2

(B) N!

(C) NP

(D) N(N-1)/2

2

18.

(A) It can be drawn such that edges do not cross

(B) There are more edges than the number of vertices

(C) Every vertex is connected by at least one edge

(D) It can not be drawn on a non planar surface

Set - A

CS

19.

(A) Dijkstras

(B) Borvkas algorithm

(C) Prims

(D) Kruskals

20.

If a graph A can be redrawn such that it looks exactly like graph B, then

(A) A is dual of B

(B) A and B are isomorphic

(C) A and B are isographs

(D) A is a line graph of B

21.

(A) the minimum set of vertices such that each edge of the graph is incident to at least

one vertex of the set

(B) the minimum set of vertices such each can be given a unique colour

(C) the minimum set of edges that join each vertex of the graph

(D) the minimum set of vertices such that each face of graph is touched by at least one

vertex of the set

22.

(A) a connected graph

(B) an acyclic graph

(C) a simple graph

(D) a bipartite graph

23.

(A) Induced subgraph

(B) Adjacency matrix

(C) Chromatic number

(D) Reachability matrix

24.

(A) The sky is blue

(B) 5 + 7 = 10

(C) a = 100

(D) 3 is a root of x2 9

25.

a b ( Has(Radha, a) Book(a) Has(Radha, b) Book(b) (a = b) ) is

(A) Radha has two books named a and b

(B) Radha has two books

(C) Radha has one book

(D) Radha does not have any books

26.

Consider the definition: A prime number is an integer greater than 1 and not divisible by

any number other than itself and 1. The equivalent logical expression is

(A) N (( N>1) m ((m>1) (m<N) (mod(N, m) = 0))) prime(N)

(B) N (( N>1) m ((m>1) (m<N) (mod(N, m) = 1))) prime(N)

(C) N (( N>1) m ((m>1) (m<N) (mod(N, m) = 0))) prime(N)

(D) N (( N>1) m ((m>1) (m<N) (mod(N, m) = 0))) prime(N)

27.

(A B) (B A) is equivalent to

(A) A B

(C) a tautology

Set - A

(B) a contradiction

(D) (A B) (A B)

4

CS

28.

A

B

F

Time

Identify the logical function that gives rise to the above timing diagram.

(A) F = A' B

(B) F = A' B + A B'

(C) F = A + B'

(D) F = A'B'

29.

1

1

1

The Boolean expression corresponding to the above K-map is

(A) XY + Y'Z

(B) YZ + X'Y

(C) ZX + X'Y

(D) XY + X'Y'

30.

(A) 16-to-1 multiplexer

(B) 8-to-1 multiplexer

(C) 4-to-1 multiplexer

(D) 2-to-1 multiplexer

31.

(A) the input changes on the positive edge of the clock

(B) the output changes on the positive edge of the clock

(C) the output changes when the input and the clock are high

(D) the output changes on the raising edge of the input

32.

(A) 53 bits

(B) 52 bits

(C) 47 bits

(D) 48 bits

33.

What is the minimum number of states possible in a sequential circuit with four flip-flops ?

(A) 1

(B) 16

(C) 2

(D) 15

34.

(A) 173

(B) 71

(C) 184

35.

(D) 72

A 32-bit processor

(A) has only 32-bit machine instructions

(B) has 32-bit address space

(C) can directly perform operations on 32 bit data

(D) must have 32-bit data bus

Set - A

CS

36.

(A) immediate addressing mode

(B) direct addressing mode

(C) implicit addressing mode

(D) relative addressing mode

37.

(A) Data bus only

(B) Address bus only

(C) Data and address busses only

(D) Data, address, and control busses

38.

(A) volatile memory

(C) ROM

(D) magnetic memory

39.

(A) a piece of software

(B) a combinational circuit

(C) a device to eliminate noise in I/O communication

(D) a special processor

40.

RISC instruction sets have smallest number of the following type of instructions :

(A) register to register

(B) machine control

(C) arithmetic

(D) memory to register

41.

blocks. What is the tag size assuming main memory size of 1 MB ?

(A) 6 bits

(B) 9 bits

(C) 5 bits

(D) 14 bits

42.

In a computer system the access time of main memory is 100 ns, and the access time of

cache is 5 ns. If the hit rate is 96%, what is the average access time ?

(A) 8.8 ns

(B) 8.6 ns

(C) 52.5 ns

(D) 9.0 ns

43.

(A) static RAM

(B) dynamic RAM

(C) register memory

(D) virtual memory

44.

(A) seek time

(B) rotational latency

(C) transfer time

(D) idle time

Set - A

CS

45.

int function add(int b, int a) { a = a + b; return a ;}

main() {

int a = 10 ;

int b = 20 ;

int sum1, sum2;

sum1 = add(a, b) ;

sum2 = add(a, b) ;

printf(%d%d\n, sum1, sum2) ;

}

What is the output ?

(A) 30 30

(B) 30 50

(C) 10 10

(D) 10 30

46.

Consider a stack having the elements 10, 30, 5, 50 with 50 being the top element. What

will be the values in the stack after performing the following operations ?

pop a ; pop b; pop c ; swap(b,c) ; push b ; push c ; push a;

(A) 50, 30, 5, 10

(B) 10, 30, 50, 5

(C) 10, 5, 30, 50

(D) 10, 30, 5, 50

47.

(A) auto

(B) register

(C) extern

(D) static

48.

Consider the following pseudo code where parameters are passed using call-by-name

technique :

int a, b, c ;

function g(x)

begin print b ; a = x + 1 ;

b = b + c ; print x ; end ;

main()

begin a = 1; b = 2; c = 3 ; x = 10 ;

g(a+b) ; print x ; print b ; end ;

What is the output if the above code is executed ?

(A) 2 3 10 5

(B) 2 3 3 2

(C) 2 9 10 5

(D) 2 9 9 2

49.

(A) zero return value

(B) stack overflow

(C) heap empty

(D) type mismatch

50.

(A) range of values

(B) list of operations

(C) type of values

(D) implementation

Set - A

CS

51.

int g[9] = {34, 0, 78, 2, 5, 90, 23, 1, 7}; int size = 9, t ;

for(int k=size/2; k >1 ; k--) {

t = g[k] ; g[k] = g[size-k] ; g[size-k] = t ;

}

(A) {7, 1, 23, 90, 5, 2, 78, 0, 34}

(B) {1, 23, 90, 5, 2, 78, 0, 34, 7}

(C) {34, 1, 23, 90, 5, 2, 78, 0, 7}

(D) {34, 0, 1, 23, 90, 5, 2, 78, 7}

52.

The steps involved in inserting a node pointed to by p1, after a node pointed to by p2 in a

linked list

(A) ptr = p1link; p1link = p2link; p2=ptr;

(B) ptr=p2link; p2link=p1link; p1link=ptr;

(C) p1link=p2link; p2link=p1;

(D) p2link=p1link; p1link=p2;

53.

For implementing priority queues, the following data structure gives better performance

(A) Array

(B) Linked list

(C) Heap

(D) Binary tree

54.

(A) B-tree

(B) minimum spanning tree

(C) AVL tree

(D) red-black tree

55.

In AVL tree, the height of right sub tree minus the height of left sub tree for every node

is

(A) greater than 1

(B) zero

(C) between -1 and 1

(D) less than one

56.

(A) Every node has either two or zero children

(B) All nodes store either 0 or 1

(C) It is a perfect binary tree

(D) The value in every node must always be less than the values in its children

57.

Algorithm analysis

(A) generates the source code from flowchart

(B) estimates the resources needed by an algorithm

(C) gives a procedure for developing efficient algorithms

(D) gives the result of executing the algorithm

58.

(A) O(N)

(B) O(N2)

59.

(C)

O(log2N)

(D) O(log10N)

(B) 2(N+1) 2(N-1)

(A) log2(N/2)

(C) log2(N+1)

(D) (N+1)/2

Set - A

CS

60.

1.5N3 50N2 + 1.1N log10N ?

(A) O(N3)

(B)

O(1.1N)

(C)

O(N2)

(D) O(log10N)

61.

Which is the best sort algorithm to use, if our list is already sorted except for the last two

elements ?

(A) Bubble sort (B) Heap sort

(C) Insertion sort (D) Quick sort

62.

(A) k > 0 n0 n > n0 f(n) k.g(n)

(B)

(C)

63.

Consider the problem of choosing the smallest number of coins that add up to 40 using

coin denominations 1, 5, 10, 20, 25. The denomination of the first coin chosen by a

Greedy algorithm

(A) 1

(B) 10

(C) 20

(D) 25

64.

What is the order of complexity of searching for an item among N items stored in a Hash

table of size M, assuming M >>N ?

(A) O(M+N)

(B) O(M)

(C) O(N)

(D) O(1)

65.

The following data structure is most suitable to implement depth-first traversal of a graph

without recursion

(A) Stack

(B) Array

(C) Queue

(D) Linked list

66.

In dynamic programming,

(A) the problem cannot be divided into sub problems

(B) sub problems are allowed to overlap

(C) recursion must be used

(D) our solutions normally have O(aN) complexity

67.

An NP-complete problem is

(A) always polynomial time

(C) NP and NP-hard

68.

(D) NP but not NP-hard

(A) { a ab abc ac abcc abccc }

(B) { a b ab abc abcc abccc }

(C) { ac abc acc abcc abccc }

(D) { abc ac abcabc acac acacac }

Set - A

CS

69.

(A) regular languages

(C) context-sensitive languages

(D) natural languages

70.

Given a computer program and an input, deciding whether the program finishes or runs

for ever is called

(A) Godels problem

(B) Turing problem

(C) Neumann problem

(D) Halting problem

71.

(A) complement

(B) union

(C) kleene star

(D) intersection

72.

(A) push a symbol on to the stack

(B) pop a symbol out of the stack

(C) traverse the stack

(D) leave stack without any change

73.

(A) grammatical structure

(B) lexical structure

(C) semantics

(D) abstract data structure

74.

(A) Assembler

(B) Loader

(C) Linker

(D) Compiler

75.

(A) e-waste management

(B) automatic memory management

(C) collection of source code lines containing errors

(D) automatic code management

76.

(A) Type checking, Lexical analysis, Syntax analysis, Register allocation

(B) Lexical analysis, Type checking, Syntax analysis, Register allocation

(C) Register allocation, Type checking, Lexical analysis, Syntax analysis

(D) Lexical analysis, Syntax analysis, Type checking, Register allocation

77.

(A) evaluation at link time

(B) evaluation at compile time

(C) replacing similar constants by one

(D) computing a constant at execution time

Set - A

10

CS

78.

(A) Memory used by the process

(B) Information about open files

(C) Processor state data

(D) List of processes waiting in the ready queue

79.

A TLB stores

(A) page table entries

(C) frequently executed instructions

(B) PCBs

(D) subroutine return addresses

80.

(A) fork

(B) Mutex

(C) Semaphore

(D) Monitor

81.

(A) deadlock prevention

(C) measuring deadlocked time

(D) deadlock avoidance

82.

(A) increasing the clock speed

(B) reducing degree of multi programming

(C) increasing disk storage

(D) reducing the number of pages allocated

83.

A hypervisor is

(A) an operating system

(C) a virtual operating system

(D) a super computer

84.

(A) preemption

(B) micro kernel

(C) multithreading

(D) virtualization

85.

(A) protection

(B) reducing turn around time

(C) deadlock prevention

(D) controlling thrashing

86.

(A) Login spoofing

(B) Denial of service

(C) Deadlock

(D) Buffer overflow

87.

(A) attached to only entities

(B) never attached to relationships

(C) attached to either entities or relationships

(D) a parameter with an independent existence

Set - A

11

CS

88.

X

Y

Z

A

F

K

Z

W

C

B

A

A

L

D

A

B

B

C

B

C

A

Which of the following tuples is in the natural join of the above two tables ? Assume

each tuple has schema (W, X, Y, Z).

(A) L A F K

(B) B B B A

(C) L C B A

(D) C C B A

89.

(A) writing SQL queries

(C) Preparing input screens

(D) Generating reports

90.

Person ID Person Name Age

100

Ramesh

12

John

25

101

Hema

21

What are the constraints violated by the above table ?

(A) Referential integrity only

(B) Entity and Domain integrities

(C) Referential and Domain integrities (D) Relationship integrity

91.

In a B+ tree of height H, the number of nodes to access, in the best case, to get the

address of the data record is

(A) 1

(B) H

(C) H+1

(D) logH

92.

What is the highest normal form to which the following table confirms ?

student (RollNo, name, subjectID, subjectName, marks)

(A) BCNF

(B) 2nd normal form

rd

(C) 3 normal form

(D) 1st normal form

93.

(A) it is efficient for all operations

(B) there is no fragmentation

(C) it doesnt require a directory

(D) it is simple to implement

94.

Course

RollNo

Name

DCE

10

S.Radha

DME

10

S.Radha

DCE

20

S.Radha

(A) {Name, RollNo}

(B) {RollNo, Course}

(C) {Course, Name}

(D) {Course, RollNo, Name}

Set - A

12

CS

95.

person(ID, name, account)

company(ID, name)

employed(pID, cID)

Identify the correct SQL statement that gives a bonus of Rs 10000 to all INTEL

employees

(A) SELECT person UPDATE account = account + 10000

WHERE (person.ID = company.ID) and (company.name = INTEL)

(B) SELECT person UPDATE account SET to account + 10000

WHERE (person.ID = company.ID) and (company.name = INTEL)

(C) UPDATE person SET account = account + 10000

WHERE (person.ID = employed.pID) and (company.name = INTEL)

and (company.ID = employed.cID)

(D) UPDATE person.account SET account = account + 10000

WHERE (person.ID = employed.pID) and (company.ID = employed.cID)

and (company.name = INTEL)

96.

You have ordered some groceries in the local super market and paid through your card.

The items are expected to be home delivered the next day, but it never happens. What

property of the transaction is violated ?

(A) Durability

(B) Consistency

(C) Isolation

(D) Atomicity

97.

(A) asking

(B) training

(C) brain storming

(D) prototyping

98.

(A) Feasibility analysis

(B) Requirements analysis

(C) Testing

(D) Process specification

99.

(A) various steps involved in program execution

(B) the output of a program

(C) the flow of control through the data structures

(D) transformation and transmission of data within the multiple stages of a system

100.

(A) cohesion is important

(B) effective communication is to be achieved

(C) the work involves diverse skills sets

(D) quick decision making is important

Set - A

13

CS

101.

(A) the cyclomatic complexity of the program

(B) the number of function points of the program

(C) the number of loops in the program

(D) the number of subroutines in the program

102.

(A) to correct the bugs discovered by the user

(B) to continuously modify the software to make it usable in a changing environment

(C) to modify software to detect and remove potential bugs

(D) to modify software to improve its performance

103.

(A) Mean Time To Failure

(B) Mean Time Between Failures

(C) Mean Time To Repair

(D) Mean Time Between Upgrades

104.

(A) algorithms

(B) software architecture

(C) data structure

(D) specifications

105.

(A) Spiral model

(B) Prototyping model

(C) Water fall model

(D) V model

106.

(A) 4

(B) 7

(C)

(A) MAC addresses

(C) Network port addresses

(B) IP addresses

(D) Host names

Size of an IP packet

(A) 1024 bits

(B)

(C)

107.

108.

109.

110.

111.

65536 bytes

65535 bytes

(D) 6

(A) Host name and IP address

(C) MAC address and IP address

(D) IP address and port address

(A) 1 network address

(C) 2 network addresses

(D) 1 network address and a port number

(A) Selective Repeat ARQ is the most efficient protocol

(B) Go Back N ARQ is better than Selective Repeat ARQ

(C) Stop-and-Wait ARQ is the most efficient protocol

(D) Stop-and-Wait ARQ is better than Go Back N ARQ but worse than Selective

Repeat ARQ

Set - A

14

CS

112.

(A) 80 bits

(B) 128 bits

(C) 512 bits

113.

(A) in efficient transmission of IP packets

(B) to find IP address, given the domain name

(C) to distribute IP addresses

(D) for congestion control

114.

(A) any networked device

(C) gateways

(D) networked computers only

115.

(A) the identity of the sender and the integrity of the message

(B) the identity of the sender only

(C) the integrity of the message only

(D) the identity of the receiver and the integrity of the message

116.

(A) increase its life time

(B) enable it to travel through the shortest path

(C) detect duplicate packets

(D) to limit its life time

117.

(A) internet

(C) an information system

(D) a computer network

An XML document

(A) is a structured document

(C) can not use HTML tags

(D) is not machine readable

118.

119.

(A) providing a server with a huge amount of virtual memory

(B) a single virtual server hosting multiple physical server machines

(C) providing fake servers

(D) a single hardware platform hosting multiple servers

120.

HTML is

(A) a scripting language

(C) a programming language

Set - A

(D) a markup as well as a scripting language

15

CS

Set - A

16

CS

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

TECHNOLOGY (CS)

SET-A

B

41

C

81

A

42

A

82

C

43

B

83

A

44

A

84

B

45

A

85

C

46

D

86

B

47

B

87

D

48

C

88

D

49

B

89

D

50

D

90

D

A

51

91

D

52

C

92

D

53

C

93

A

54

A

94

D

55

C

95

C

56

A

96

D

57

B

97

A

58

B

98

A

59

D

99

B

60

B

100

C

A

61

101

C

62

D

102

D

63

D

103

C

64

D

104

B

65

A

105

A

66

B

106

C

67

C

107

B

68

C

108

B

69

A

109

D

70

D

110

A

B

71

111

A

72

C

112

A

73

A

113

B

74

C

114

C

75

B

115

C

76

D

116

D

77

B

117

B

78

D

118

D

79

A

119

D

80

A

120

D

B

B

B

A

C

C

C

B

B

C

D

D

B

C

D

B

A

D

C

A

B

B

D

A

A

B

C

D

C

A

C

C

A

A

D

C

A

D

B

Booklet No. :

A

SET

EC - 15

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

EC-15-A

1.

2.

nontrivial solution if p =

(A) 0

(B) 1/2

(C) 2

(D) 1

2 2 1

If two eigen values of A = 1 3 1 are 2 and 3 then the third eigen value is

1 2 2

(A) 2

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 7

3.

.

2

The value of . x3 ex dx is equal to

(A)

1

2

(B)

1

3

(C)

3

2

(D)

2

3

4.

1

1

( i + 2 j + 3k )

(4i + 4 j + 12k )

(A)

(B)

186

176

1

(i + 2 j + 3k )

(C) 4i + 2 j + 3k

(D)

14

5.

1

1

1

1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2

2

x +y

y

y2

x2

6.

(A) bx + ay + b2 a (B) ax + by + ab2 (C) ax + by + a2b (D) does not exist

7.

(A)

8.

9.

1

3

(B)

1

9

z2

at the pole z = 1 is

( z 1)2 ( z + 2)

5

2

(C)

(D)

9

9

1 12 z 2

e

If the random variable Z has the probability density function f ( z ) =

then the

2

variance of Z is equal to

1

(A) 0

(B)

(C) 2

(D) 1

2

If there is no repetition in the ranks and if di , i = 1,, n then the rank correlation is given by

(A)

Set - A

(B)

(C)

2

d

1

n

2

i

(D)

6 di2

n(n 2 + 1)

EC

10.

when x = 0 is

x2

(A) 1 + x +

2

11.

(B)

(B)

(A) 10 mA

(B)

(A)

(C)

(D)

i1

[4 (t ) e u(t )] A

[4e u(t ) 4 (t )] A

0.4 mA

50

(C)

10 mA

0.4 mA

(D) 10 mA

I o ( s)

s

=

, If ii (t ) = 4 (t ) then io (t ) will be

I i (s) s + 1

(B)

(D)

[e u(t ) (t )] A

[4 (t ) 4e u(t )] A

t

maximum average power to a load impedance ZLwhen

(A)

15.

1+ x

100

100

14.

(D)

(C)

30 mA

13.

(C)

x2

2

Consider the network graph shown in the figure. Which one of the following is NOT a

tree of this graph

(A)

12.

x2

1 x +

2

dy

= x y with y = 1

dx

Z L = RS + jX S (B) Z L = RS

(C)

Z L = jX S

(D)

delivers

Z L = RS jX S

0.02 Va

2A

100

(A) 40V

Set - A

(B)

32 V

+

Va

50

(C)

3

40 V

(D) 32 V

EC

16.

Io

1H

1/3 F

Is

4

Io

The current ratio transfer function I is

s

s(s + 4)

(A)

(B)

s 2 + 3s + 4

(C)

s 2 + 3s + 4

s(s + 4)

(D)

s(s + 4)

(s + 1)(s + 3)

(s + 1)(s + 3)

s(s + 4)

17.

A parallel circuit has R=2 K, C=50 F and L=10 mH. The quality factor at resonance is

(A) 141.42

(B) 70.7

(C) 20

(D) 32.3

18.

I1

10

V1

(A)

19.

0.03 1

1 10

(B)

I2

30

10

1

0.03 1

(C)

V2

0.3 1

1 10

(D)

1

10

1 0.03

The differential equation for the current i(t) in the circuit of the figure is

3

i(t)

2H

1F

sin t

(A)

(C)

Set - A

d 2i(t)

dt 2

d 2i(t)

dt 2

di(t)

+ i(t) = cos t

dt

(B)

d 2i(t)

di(t)

+2

+ 3i(t) = sin t

2

dt

dt

di(t)

+ 3i(t) = cos t

dt

(D)

+3

+3

d 2i(t)

dt 2

+3

di(t)

+ i(t) = sin t

dt

EC

20.

6

3V

(A) -1.4 A

3A

9

(B)

2A

(C)

1A

(D) 1.4 A

21.

The condition for the electrical symmetry in the two port network is

(A) h12= h21

(B) AD BC = 1 (C) Z12 = Z21

(D) A = D

22.

In the ac network shown in the figure, the phasor voltage VAB (in volts) is

A

5

530 A

-j3

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

j3

B

(A) 0

(B) 530

(C) 12.530

(D) 1730

A p-n junction diodes dynamic conductance is directly proportional to

(A) The applied voltage

(B) The temperature

(C) Its current

(D) The thermal voltage

If = 0.981, ICO =6 A and IB=100 A for a NPN transistor, then the value of IC will be

(A) 2.3 mA

(B) 3.1 mA

(C) 4.6 mA

(D) 5.2 mA

In an integrated circuit, the SiO2 layer provides

(A) Electrical connection to external circuit (B) Physical strength

(C) Isolation

(D) Conducting path

A PIN diode is frequently used as a

(A) Peak clipper

(B) Voltage regulator

(C) Harmonic regulator

(D) Switching diode for frequencies up to 100 MHz range

In the monostable multivibrator as shown in Figure, R=100 k ohm and the time delay

T=200 m sec. Calculate the value of C.

+Vcc

8

Trigger

Input

R

7

555

6

5

0.1F

O/P

(A) 8.1 F

Set - A

(B)

2 F

(C)

5

3 mF

(D) 1.81 F

EC

28.

A diode that has no depletion layers and operates with hot carriers is called ____ diode.

(A) Schottky

(B) Gunn

(C) tunnel

(D) PIN

29.

(A) Forward biased

(B) Reverse biased

(C) Lightly doped

(D) Heavily doped

30.

For a JFET in the pinch off region as the drain voltage is increased the drain current

(A) Becomes zero

(B) Abruptly decreases

(C) Abruptly increases

(D) Remains constant

31.

In the circuit shown below Vref = 0 V, Vi = 1Vpp sine wave and saturation voltage of

12 V, determine threshold voltages VUT

R3=100 k

_

Vi

V0

R1=50 k

R2=100

Vref = 0 V

(A) VUT = 2 mV

(C) VUT = 26 mV

(B) VUT = 24 mV

(D) VUT = 26 mV

32.

(A) Displacement, temperature and magnetic flux

(B) Displacement, position and velocity

(C) Position, magnetic flux and pressure

(D) Displacement, position and magnetic flux

33.

(A) Lesser line Regulation

(B) High Load Regulation

(C) Low ripple rejection

(D) High ripple rejection

34.

In the Circuit shown below if R1= R2= R3 = R = RF/2, then find the value of V0

RF

R Va

2V

3V

(A) 7 V

Set - A

1V

(B)

R1

_

V0

R2

R3

3V

(C)

6

6V

(D) 8 V

EC

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

(A) Very Low

(B) Zero

(C) Very High

(D) Double of that of single ended difference amplifier

The values of voltage VD across a tunnel diode corresponding to peak and valley currents

are VP and VV respectively. The range of tunnel diode voltage VD for which the slope of

its I-VD characteristics is negative would be

(A) VD< 0

(B) 0 VD < VP (C) VP VD < VV (D) VD VV

The voltage gain of a given common source JFET amplifier depends on its

(A) Input impedance

(B) Amplification factor

(C) Dynamic drain resistance

(D) Drain load resistance

The pinch-off voltage of a JFET is 5 V. Its cut-off voltage is

(A) (5.0)1/2 V

(B) 2.5 V

(C) 5.0 V

(D) (5.0)3/2 V

A transistor has a current gain of 0.99 in the CB mode. Its current gain in the CC mode is

(A) 100

(B) 99

(C) 1.01

(D) 0.99

MOSFET can be used as a

(A) Current controlled capacitor

(B) Voltage controlled capacitor

(C) Current controlled inductor

(D) Voltage controlled inductor

What is the output waveform for the circuit shown if Vi is a sinusoidal waveform ?

(Vi = Vm sin t)

R

D

Vi

V0

VS

(A)

(B)

Vi

Vi

Vm

(VS+V)

(VS+V)

Vm

(C)

Vi

(D)

Vi

Vm

Vm

Set - A

EC

42.

If both emitter-base and collector-base junctions of BJT are forward biased the transistor is in

(A) Active region

(B) Saturation region

(C) Cut-off region

(D) Inverse mode

43.

(A) Electrons and holes

(B) Positive and negative ions on either side

(C) Neither electron nor ion

(D) No holes

44.

In the circuit shown, for achieving good stabilisation we should have [Rb= R1//R2]

VCC

RC

R1

V0

Vi

(A)

Re

1

Rb

(B)

R2

Ce

Re

Rb

1

Re

(C)

Rb

1

Re

(D)

Rb

1

Re

45.

For a transconductance amplifier the ideal values of input resistance (Ri) and output

resistance(R0) are

(A) Ri = , R0 = 0

(B) Ri = 0, R0 =

(C) Ri = , R0 =

(D) Ri = 0, R0 = 0

46.

output impedance

(A) 333 k

(B) 2.7

(C) 3

(D) 300

47.

An amplifier with midband gain A = 500 has negative feedback applied of value

= 1/100. Given the upper cut-off without feedback is 60 kHz with feedback it becomes

(A) 10 kHz

(B) 12 kHz

(C) 300 kHz

(D) 360 kHz

48.

(A) DC to AC convertor

(C) DC to DC convertor

(B) AC to DC convertor

(D) AC to AC convertor

49.

The resolution of a 5-bit ADC is 0.32 Volts. For an analog input of 6.4 V, what is the

output of the ADC ?

(A) 10100

(B) 10010

(C) 10011

(D) 10001

50.

D-FlipFlop is used as

(A) Delay Switch

(C) Toggle Switch

Set - A

(D) Differentiator

8

EC

51.

52.

(A) 63

(B) 64

(C) 6

(D) 62

For the logic circuit shown, the Boolean expression in its simplest form at the output A is

X

Y

A

Z

(A) A=X

(B)

A=Y

(C)

A=Z

(D) A= X+Y

53.

(A) 15 to +15

(B) 31 to +31

(C) 31 to +32

(D) 16 to +16

54.

The non complement output Qn of edge trigger JK-Flip-flop is 0. If J=1, what will be the

state of output Qn+1

(A) Cannot determined

(B) Zero

(C) One

(D) Race around

55.

(A) z(x + y)

(B) x y

(C) y(x + z)

(D)

z( x + y)

56.

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 4

(D) 7

57.

(A) is faster

(B) is more accurate

(C) uses fewer gates

(D) costs less

58.

A 4-bit Mod-16 ripple counter uses a J-K flip-flop. If the propagation delay of each flipflop is 50 ms, the maximum clock frequency is equal to

(A) 20 MHz

(B) 10 MHz

(C) 5 MHz

(D) 4 MHz

59.

(A) 6 Mod-13 counters

(B) 13 Mod-6 counters

(C) 1 Mod- 13 counter followed by 1 Mod-6 counters

(D) 13 Mod-13 counters

60.

The code used to reduce the error due to ambiguity in reading of a binary encoder is

(A) Octal code

(B) Excess-3 code

(C) Gray code

(D) BCD code

Set - A

EC

61.

What is the maximum frequency of a clock pulse at which a 4 bit ripple counter operates

reliably, with flip-flop delay of 40 ns and pulse width of strobe signal 25 ns

(A) 5.8 MHz

(B) 5.4 MHz

(C) 6.2 MHz

(D) 6.5 MHz

62.

(A) Increase the noise margin of the gate

(B) Decrease the output switching delay

(C) Facilitate a wired-OR logic connection

(D) Increasing the output impedance of the circuit

63.

Fourier transform of A

(A)

2A ()

(B)

A()

(C)

A() +

A

(D)

j

A () +

1

j

64.

A signal of maximum frequency 20 kHz is sampled at Nyquist rate, and then the time

interval between two successive samples is

(A) 25 s

(B) 2.5 s

(C) 50 s

(D) 20 ms

65.

x( )h(t )d , then

(B) both x(t) and h(t) are non- causal

(C) x(t) is causal and h(t) is non-causal (D) h(t) is causal and x(t) is non-causal

66.

The Nyquist rate for the signal, x(t) = 5 sin 200 t + 8 cos 500 t is

(A) 200 Hz

(B) 500 Hz

(C) 700 Hz

(D) 300 Hz

67.

(A) over sampled

(C) critically sampled

68.

(D) not sampled

(z + 1)

A system is described by H(z) =

, the final value of the system is

z(z 2)(z + 2)

(A) 1

(B) 1/4

(C) 4

(D)

69.

The trigonometric Fourier series representation of a function with half wave symmetry

consists of

(A) cosine terms only

(B) sine terms only

(C) odd harmonics

(D) even harmonics

70.

(A) linear for any value of b

(B) linear if b > 0

(C) linear if b < 0

(D) non-linear

71.

The impulse response of a system is h(n)= anu(n) . The condition for the system to be

BIBO stable is

(A) a is real and positive

(B) a is real and negative

(C) a> 1

(D) a < 1

Set - A

10

EC

72.

The DFT of a signal x (n) of length N is X (k). When X (k) is given and x (n) is

computed from it, the length of x(n)

(A) is increased to infinity

(B) remains N

(C) becomes 2N 1

(D) becomes N2

73.

z sin

(A)

2

z 2z cos + 1

z sin

(C)

2

z 2 z cos 1

74.

(B)

(D)

z sin

2

z + 2z cos + 1

z sin

z 2 + 2z cos 1

If x1(k) = 2nu(k), x2(k) = (k) and x3(k) = x1(k)*x2(k) then X3() is given by

1

1

(A)

(B)

j

1 2e

1 2e j

1

1

(C)

(D)

j

1 + 2e

1 + 2e j

5

75.

(t 6)dt =

2

(A) 1

(B)

(C)

(6)

(D) 3

76.

The system having input x(n) related to output y(n) as y(n) = cos (x(n)) is

(A) causal, stable

(B) causal, not stable

(C) non-causal, stable

(D) non-causal, not stable

77.

(A) Reduce the overall gain

(B) Reduce bandwidth

(C) Improve disturbance rejection

(D) Reduce sensitivity to parameter variation

78.

If the unit step response of a system is a unit impulse function, then the transfer function

of such a system is

(A) 1

(B) s

(C) 1/s

(D) s2

79.

I(s)

V(s )

in the signal flow graph shown in the figure is

I(s )

s

>

V(s)

>

>

1/s

(A)

Set - A

s2

s2 + s + 1

(B)

s2 s 1

s

(C)

11

s

s + 1/s

(D)

s

s2 + s + 1

EC

80.

corresponding to input 10 cos t will be equal to

(A) 5 sin t

(B) 5 sin t

(C) 20 cos t

(D) -20 cos t

81.

For a feedback control system of type 2, the steady state error for a ramp input is

(A) infinite

(B) constant

(C) zero

(D) indeterminate

82.

only if

(A) 0 < k < 784 (B) 1 < k < 64

(C) 10 > k > 660 (D) 4 < k < 784

83.

response of te2t u(t), the input must be equal to

1 2t

(A) 2e t u(t)

(B)

(C) e 2t u(t)

(D) e t u(t)

e u(t)

2

84.

(A)

(C)

(1 + 0.5s)

represents a

(1 + s)

lead network

(B) lag network

lag-lead network

(D) proportional controller

85.

The frequency at which the Nyquist diagram crosses the negative real axis is known as

(A) gain crossover frequency

(B) phase crossover frequency

(C) damping frequency

(D) natural frequency

86.

dB

12

20 dB/dc

100

(A)

(C)

87.

40

s(1 + 0.1s)

4

(1 + 00.1s)

(B)

(D)

4

s(1 + 0.1s)

20

(1 + 0.1s)

The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is given by

k(s + 2)

G(s) = 2

, the centroid and angle of root locus asymptotes are respectively

s(s + 2s + 2)

(A) Zero and + 90, 90

(B) 2/3 and + 60, 60

(C) Zero and +120, 120

(D) 2/3 and 90 and 90, +90

Set - A

12

EC

88.

1.

state model is unique

2.

state model can be derived from the system transfer function

3.

state model can be derived from time variant systems

(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(B) 1 and 2 are correct

(C) 2 and 3 are correct

(D) 1 and 3 are correct

89.

(A) proportional control

(C) derivative control

(D) none of these

90.

When zero-mean Gaussian process is given as input to LTI system, its output will be

(A) Zero-mean Gaussian process

(B) Gaussian process but not necessarily zero mean

(C) Zero mean process but not necessarily Gaussian

(D) Depends on the nature of h(t) of the system

91.

(A) DSB-SC

(B) SSB

(C) USB

(D) VSB

92.

(A) Amplitude modualtion

(B) SSB

(C) Frequency modulation

(D) Phase modulation

93.

(A) the RF stage

(B) mixer stage

(C) IF stage

(D) detector stage

94.

(A) Reduce Bandwidth

(C) Increase S/N ratio

(D) Reduce Power

95.

An SSB transmitter has a 24-V dc power supply. On voice peaks the current achieves a

maximum of 9.3 A. What will be its Peak Envelope Power ?

(A) 223.2 W

(B) 2.5 W

(C) 446.4 W

(D) 61.9 W

96.

(A) Better than direct base band transmission

(B) Poorer than direct base band transmission

(C) Better than CW amplitude modulation

(D) Poorer than CW amplitude modulation

97.

Which one of the following digital modulation scheme is not preferred when the channel

is non-linear?

(A) QAM

(B) BFSK

(C) BPSK

(D) MSK

Set - A

13

EC

98.

(A) 160 kbps

(B) 40 kbps

(C) 2.5 kbps

99.

(A) medium wave band

(B) shortwave band

(C) VHF band

(D) microwave region

100.

For M-ary PSK system the best trade-off between bandwidth efficiency and transmitted

power is given for a value of M equal to

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 16

101.

(A) Needs less power

(B) Needs less Bandwidth

(C) Needs simple circuitry

(D) Gives better S/N ratio

102.

(A) FDMA

(B) FDMA/TDMA (C) CDMA

(D) SDMA

103.

(A) gaurd bands

(B) adjust channels

(C) spectrum

(D) bandwidth

104.

(A) ASK

(B) FSK

(C) PSK

105.

(A) static field only

(B)

(C) both static and time varying fields (D)

(D) DPSK

electric fields only

106.

electromagnetic wave increases four times, the skin depth, will

(A) increase by a factor of 2

(B) decrease by a factor of 4

(C) remain the same

(D) decrease by a factor of 2

107.

(A) perpendicular in space

(B) parallel in space

(C) E is in the direction of wave travel (D) H is in the direction of wave travel

108.

(A) Et

(B) 2Et

(C) Zero

(D) Infinity

109.

For a transmission line terminated in its characteristic impedance, which of the following

statement is incorrect ?

(A) It is a smooth line

(B) The energy distribution between magnetic and electric field is not equal

(C) Standing wave does not exist

(D) Efficiency of transmission of power is maximum

Set - A

14

EC

110.

(A) Ez = 0; Hz = 0

(B) Ez = 0; Hz 0

(C)

Ez 0; Hz = 0

(D) Ez 0; Hz 0

111.

terminated at one end by +j 50 ohms, the VSWR produced in the transmission line will

be

(A) +1

(B) zero

(C) infinity

(D) 1

112.

(A) direction of energy flux density

(C) intensity of electric field

(D) intensity of magnetic field

113.

(A) High pass filter

(B) Low pass filter

(C) Band pass filter

(D) Low frequency radiator

114.

(A) 0

(B) 0.08

(C) 7.9

(D) 790

115.

(A) Source side of the left stub

(B) Load side of the right stub

(C) Both sides of the stub

(D) In between the two stubs

116.

(A) Real

(B) Inductive

(C) Capacitive

(D) Complex

117.

The intersection of the constant-r circle with positive real axis gives the position of

(A) average voltage on the line

(B) minimum voltage on the line

(C) maximum voltage on the line

(D) RMS voltage on the line

118.

(A) Number of half wave patterns

(B) Number of full wave patterns

(C) Number of zeros of the field

(D) Number of poles of the field

119.

between Ez and Ey is

(A) 30

120.

(B)

90

(C)

45

(D) 180

(A) higher

(B) lower

(C) same velocity

(D) cannot be decided

Set - A

15

EC

Set - A

16

EC

SET-A

1

D

41

81

B

C

2

A

42

82

B

A

3

A

43

83

B

C

4

B

44

84

B

B

5

D

45

85

C

B

6

C

46

86

D

C

7

C

47

87

D

A

8

D

48

88

A

C

9

D

49

89

A

B

10

B

50

90

A

A

11

51

91

D

A

A

12

52

92

A

A

C

13

53

93

D

A

A

14

54

94

D

C

B

15

55

95

C

A

A

16

56

96

B

A

B

17

57

97

A

B

A

18

58

98

D

C

B

19

59

99

A

B

A

20

60

100

D

D

B

21

61

101

D

B

C

22

62

102

D

B

B

23

63

103

C

A

A

24

64

104

D

A

A

25

65

105

C

B

C

26

66

106

D

B

D

27

67

107

D

B

C

28

68

108

B

B

C

29

69

109

A

C

B

30

70

110

D

D

B

31

71

111

A

D

C

32

72

112

A

B

A

33

73

113

A

A

A

34

74

114

C

A

B

35

75

115

B

B

A

36

76

116

C

B

A

37

77

117

B

B

C

38

78

118

C

C

A

39

79

119

A

A

C

40

80

120

B

D

B

Booklet No. :

A

SET

EE - 15

Electrical Engineering

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

This Booklet consists of 16 pages. Any discrepancy or any defect is found, the same may be

informed the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

EE-15-A

1.

2

2 1 1

If A = 0 1 0

1

(A) A 5A2 + 7A + 3I = 0

(C) A3 5A2 + 7A 3I = 0

3

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

i + 2j + 2k is

10

10

10

10

(B)

(C)

(D)

(A)

3

14

14

3

(u, v)

=

(x, y)

(A) (x y) (y z) (z x)

(C) xyz

If u = xy, v = x + y, then

x

x

(A) 8 cos 4x

(B)

sin 4x

8

(B) x + y + z

(D) (x y) (z y)(z x)

(C)

x cos 4x

(D) x sin 4x

(1)n 1

(1)n + 1

(A) f(x) =

sin nx

(B) f(x) =

sin nx

n

n

n=1

n=1

(1)n

1 (1)n

(C) f(x) =

sin nx

(D) f(x) =

sin nx

n

n = 1 n

n=1

u

u

= 0, u(x, 0) = 4ex is

The solution of 3 + 2

x

y

(A) u(x, y) = 4e

(C)

7.

(B) A3 + 5A2 + 7A 3I = 0

(D) A3 + 5A2 + 7A + 3I = 0

u(x, y) = 4e

3

y

2

(B)

3

x+ y

2

u(x, y) = 4e

3

y

2

2

.(z + 1) dz, where c : | z 1 | = 1 is

. (z2 1)

c

(A) i

8.

9.

(B)

i/2

(C)

2i

(D) i

If f(x) =

represents the probability density of a random

0

elsewhere

variable X, then k =

(A) 2/3

(B) 3/2

(C) 1/2

(D) 1

The correlation coefficient of twelve pairs of data having x = 730, y = 1017,

x2 = 44932, y2 = 86801 and xy = 62352 is

(A) 0.5674

(B) 0.68

(C) 0.83

(D) 0.857

Set - A

EE

10.

(A) 1.24

11.

(B)

0.2

(C)

1.02

(D) 1.1

(A) (n-1) nodes

(B)

n branches

(C)

12.

The power delivered by the current source in the circuit shown in Figure.

2

_

6V +

1.5A

4

(A) 9 W

13.

(B)

12 W

(C)

18.5 W

(D) 22.5 W

2

(A) 2 V

14.

+

_

2A

(B)

4V

(C)

8V

4V

(D) 12 V

1

_

6V +

(A) 0.5 A

Set - A

(B)

+

_ 2V

2A

1.0 A

(C)

3

1.5 A

(D) 2 A

EE

15.

The current through the circuit shown in Figure, if switch, S is closed at time, t = 0

2 k

S

_

5V +

16.

(A)

10 10 3 e 0.5 t

(B)

10 103 e2 t

(C)

7.5 103 e 2 t

(D)

The damping ratio of an under damped R-L-C circuit with step response is

(A)

17.

1 mF

(B)

L/C

2 L/C

(C) 2 R L / C

(D)

R

2 C/L

The Thevenin equivalent across X-Y for the circuit shown below :

X

1

20A

j3

j2

Y

18.

(A)

2 45o V, (1 + j1)

(B)

(C)

2 2 45o V, (1 + j1)

(D)

2 45o V, (1 + j1)

2 45o V, (1 j1)

Za

+

V1

Zb

V2

Zc

(A)

Z a + Z c

Z

c

(C)

Z a + Z c

Z

c

Set - A

Z b + Z c

_Z

Zc

Z b + Z c

c

(B)

Z a Zc

Z

c

Zb Z c

(D)

Zc Z a

Z

c

Z c Z a

Zc

Zc

EE

19.

In a 3-phase balanced system the phase voltages with a-b-c phase sequence are

Van = V p 0 o and Vbn = V p 120o . The line voltages are

(A)

Vab = V L 30 o , Vbc = V L 90 o

(B)

(C)

Vab = V L 30 o , Vbc = V L 90 o

(D)

20.

Two parallel conductors are separated by a distance, d carrying a current, I in the same

direction. The magnetic field along a line running parallel to the conductors and midway

between them is

(A) zero

(B) proportional to I

(C) proportional to d

(D) proportional to the permeability of the medium.

21.

N

N2

N

(B)

(A)

(C)

(D) N S

S

S

S2

22.

(A) non-linearly with electric field

(B) linearly with electric field

(C) linearly with the permittivity

(D) non-linearly with electric potential

23.

The capacitance of a coaxial conductor of length L, having inner radius, a, outer radius, b

and permittivity,

2 L

2 L

2 L

2 L

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

a

b

a+b

(a + b)/2

ln

ln

ln

2

b

a

24.

If x1 (t) is an odd signal and x2 (t) is an even signal then the condition to prove that the

product of the signals, y(t) is

(B) even and y( t) = y(t)

(A) odd and y(t) = y(t)

(C) odd and y( t) = y(t)

(D) even and y(t) = y(t)

25.

A continuous time signal x(t) is sampled and the periodic impulse train of period is

given by s(t) =

n =

(A)

(C)

26.

S ( j ) =

S ( j ) =

(ks )

(B)

S ( j ) = 2

n =

( ks )

(D)

n =

S ( j ) =

(ks )

n =

(s )

n =

transfer function of the circuit is

s +1

s 1

5s 1

5s + 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2

2

2

2

s + 3s + 2

s + 3s + 2

s + 3s + 2

s + 3s + 2

Set - A

EE

27.

(A)

x ( n) z

n =0

(B)

x(n) z

(C)

n =

x( n) z

n =

(D)

x ( n) z

n =1

28.

voltage side is 35 . The magnetizing reactance on the high voltage side is

(A) 0.35

(B) 3.5

(C) 350

(D) 3500

29.

(A) unity

(B) lagging

(C) leading

(D) zero

30.

The per unit I 2 R losses and per unit reactance of a transformer at 0.8 leading power

factor is 0.1 and 0.03, respectively. The per unit regulation of the transformer is

(A) 0.02

(B) 0.01

(C) 0.04

(D) 0.026

31.

In star-star connection of 3-phase transformer, the triplen harmonics are suppressed by using

(A) star connected tertiary windings (B) delta connected tertiary windings

(C) neutral conductor

(D) additional insulation for the phases

32.

If two 3-phase transformers with unequal voltage ratios are connected in parallel, the

result is

(A) circulating current on no-load

(B) no circulating current on no-load

(C) dead short-circuit

(D) equal no-load secondary emfs

33.

In a 6-pole wave wound dc machine the number of conductors is 70. The back pitch and

commutator segments, respectively, are

(A) 11and 35

(B) 12 and 34

(C) 13 and 35

(D) 14 and 34

34.

(A) 8

(B) 6

(C) 4

(D) 2

35.

(A) provide mechanical balance

(B) balance the flux produced by the poles

(C) provide path for the circulating currents

(D) overcome armature reaction

36.

480 and the current in each conductor is 40 A. Then the required brush shift in

mechanical degrees

(A) 9

(B) 7

(C) 5

(D) 3

37.

In a dc shunt generator critical field circuit resistance line is the line drawn

(A) above the OCC

(B) below the OCC

(C) tangent to the saturation curve

(D) tangent to the linear portion of OCC

38.

A 200 V dc motor takes a field current of 2 A to generate a back emf of 180 V. If the

field winding resistance is 80 , the resistance of the shunt field regulator is

(A) 10

(B) 20

(C) 100

(D)

180

Set - A

EE

39.

(A) are equal

(B) rotate with slip speed

(C) are opposite but rotate with synchronous speed

(D) rotate with the same rotor speed

40.

The mechanical power developed and the rotor copper losses of a 3-phase induction

motor in terms of slip, s are in the ratio of

(A) 1 s : s

(B) s : 1 s

(C) 1 + s : s

(D) (1 s)/s : s

41.

In a single-phase induction motor the slip with respect to forward and backward rotating

magnetic fields, respectively, are

(A) s and (1 s) (B) s and (1 + s) (C) s and (2 s) (D) (1 s) and (2 s)

42.

(A) zero

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

43.

generator, the coil span of the stator winding is

(A) /n

(B) (1 1/n)

(C) (1 + 1/n) (D) n (1 1/n)

44.

The ratio of air-gap line voltage from open-circuit characteristic and armature current

from short-circuit characteristic for a particular value of the field current in a

synchronous generator is

(A) synchronous reactance

(B) synchronous impedance

(C) unsaturated synchronous reactance

(D) unsaturated synchronous impedance

45.

When two synchronous machines are connected in parallel the synchronizing power

tends to

(A) accelerate the faster machine

(B) retard the faster machine

(C) retards the slower machine

(D) pull the faster machine out of step

46.

synchronous reactance of 5 and at an excitation voltage of 650 V is

(A) 52 kW

(B) 78 kW

(C) 104 kW

(D) 52 3 kW

47.

(A) connected load

(B) generated voltage

(C) field current

(D) load angle

48.

VE

V2

cos

, where V = generated

Xd

Xd

voltage, E = back emf, X d = direct axis synchronous reactance, and = load angle,

represents

(A) active power

(B) reactive power

(C) reluctance power

(D) total power

Set - A

EE

49.

(A) decrease with a negative slope

(B) increases with a positive slope

(C) remain constant

(D) becomes unstable

50.

A plant with 10 MW installed capacity produces an annual output of 6 106 kWh and

remains in operation for 2000 hours in a year. The Plant Use Factor is

(A) 0.33 %

(B) 3.33 %

(C) 15 %

(D) 30 %

51.

(A) A = B, C = D

(B) A = D, C = 0

(C) AB CD = 0

(D) A = C, B = D

52.

The sending end current and receiving end current of a medium transmission line are

(120 j 15) A and (180 j 90) A, respectively. The charging current is

(A) (300 j 105) A

(B) ( 60 + j 75) A

(C) (60 j 75) A

(D) 135 A

53.

The minimum potential gradient of a single-core cable with core diameter, d, internal

sheath diameter, D and the potential difference between the conductor and sheath, V is

2V

2V

V

V

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

D

D

D

D

D log e

d log e

d log e

D log e

d

d

d

d

54.

(A) reduce voltage fluctuations

(B) increase service reliability

(C) distribute power at low voltage

(D) distribute power to long distances

55.

The base kV and base MVA are halved and the per unit impedance new value is 0.5. The

per unit impedance of the original circuit element is

(A) 0.25

(B) 0.5

(C) 0.625

(D) 1.0

56.

(A) Z bus is symmetric, Ybus is diagonal

(B)

(C)

57.

(A) constant elements

(B) upper triangular constant elements

(C) first partial derivative elements

(D) second partial derivative elements

Set - A

EE

58.

In a power flow program the input and output data, respectively, at the k th load bus are

(A) Pk , Vk and Q k , k

(B) Pk , Q k and Vk , k

(C ) Vk , k and Pk , Q k

(D) Pk , k and Vk , Q k

59.

(A) overhead lines of large conductor size

(B) under ground cable of small conductor size

(C) overhead lines having less spacing between conductors

(D) overhead lines of higher voltages

60.

(A) supplying lagging kVA

(B) voltage control

(C) frequency control

(D) maintaining a higher voltage than at the sending end

61.

(A) tap changing transformer

(B) voltage regulating transformer

(C) phase-angle regulating transformer

(D) booster transformer

62.

The injected complex power for a given bus system, given Ybus, Zbus, bus voltage for

i = 1, 2, .n

n

(A)

YimVmVi

m =1

(B)

YimVmVi*

(C)

m =1

Z imVmVi*

m =1

(D)

Vm*Vi

im

m =1

63.

The voltage profile of a n-bus power system can be improved by controlling the

(A) load angles

(B) active power flows

(C) reactive power flows

(D) complex power flows

64.

1 1 1

T = 1 a a 2 , the matrix equation for positive, negative and zero sequence currents is

1 a 2 a

1

(A) V1, 2 ,0 = TVa ,b ,c

(B) V1, 2,0 = 3 TVa ,b ,c

1

(D) V1, 2,0 = TVa ,b,c

(C) V0,1, 2 = TVa ,b ,c

2

65.

Two 3-phase synchronous generators with reactance 60% and 40% feed a fault current of

1200 A up to short-circuit fault point. The short-circuit current is

(A) 1200 A

(B) 2400 A

(C) 4000 A

(D) 5000 A

Set - A

EE

66.

(A) voltage sag (B) voltage swell (C) over voltage (D) voltage flicker

67.

(A) 3-phase faults

(B) double line faults

(C) double-line-to-ground faults

(D) generator bus earth faults

68.

(A) over current relay

(B) differential relay

(C) distance relay

(D) Buchholz relay

69.

The voltage that appears across the contacts of the circuit breaker after the arc extinction

is called as

(A) arc voltage

(B) recovery voltage

(C) re-striking voltage

(D) extinction voltage

70.

(A) zero sequence currents

(B) positive sequence currents

(C) negative sequence currents

(D) both positive and negative sequence currents

71.

For a synchronous machine swing curve, the load angle swings between min and max ,

if the damping constant is

(A) equal to zero

(B) greater than zero

(C) less than zero

(D) equal to normalized inertia constant

72.

(A) 100 kM

(B) 250 kM

(C) 500 kM 800 kM

(D) Above 1000 kM

73.

(A) single-conductor with positive polarity

(B) two conductors with one positive and another negative polarity

(C ) two conductors having the same polarity with a ground return

(D) single conductor with negative polarity and ground as positive polarity

74.

(A) series connected thyristor based controller

(B) shunt connected thyristor based controller

(C) energy storage device

(D) combined seriesshunt connected controller

75.

(A) injects voltage by static series converters

(B) injects current by static shunt converters

(C) injects voltage and current by the static series and shunt converters

(D) provides real and reactive power compensation by static shunt compensator

Set - A

10

EE

76.

1 + sT

1 + sT1

(B) minimum phase system

(D) unstable system

(A) non-minimum phase system

(C ) system with transport lag

77.

The

closed-loop

transfer

function

of

unity feedback

K

R

G1 ( s) = and G2 ( s ) =

in the forward path is

s

RCs + 1

KR

RCs 2 + s

(A)

(B)

KRs 2 + s + RC

RCs 2 + s + KR

RC

KR

(C)

(D)

2

2

RCs + s + KR

RCs + s + KR

78.

error in the unit-step response is

1

(A) Zero

(B) 1 + K K

p

(C)

1

1 K pK

KpK

Ts + 1

(D)

system

with

K pK

79.

For a unity feedback system with a transfer function G(s) and input R(s), the steady state

error is

sR( s)

R( s )

1

R( s)

(A) lim

(B) lim

(C) lim

(D) lim

s 0 1 + G ( s )

s 0 1 + G ( s )

s 0 1 + G ( s )

s 0 s (1 + G ( s ))

80.

stable if

(A) K > 0

(B) 1 > K > 0

(C) 2 > K > 0

(D) K > 1

81.

The Nyquist plot of a unity feedback minimum phase system is drawn for different

values of gain, K. The system is stable if the plot

(A) does not enclose the ( 1 + j 0) point

(B) passes through the ( 1 + j 0) point

(C) encloses the ( 1 + j 0) point

(D) passes through the ( 2 + j 0) point

82.

For unity feedback control system, the magnitude of G(j1) at the phase cross-over

frequency, 1is measured as 2/3 from the Bode plot. The gain margin is

(A) 2/3

(B) 3/2

(C ) 4/9

(D) 9/4

83.

(A) improves steady state errors, reduces relative stability

(B) marginally improves steady state errors, increases relative stability

(C) reduces steady state errors, increases relative stability

(D) improves both transient response and steady state response

Set - A

11

EE

84.

(A) corner frequency in uniform scale

(B) corner frequency in logarithmic scale

(C) phase cross-over frequency in uniform scale

(D) phase cross-over frequency in logarithmic scale

85.

In the Bode plots, the magnitude and phase angle of the factor (1 + j T) are

1

1

, tan 1 T

(A) 20 log 1 + jT , tan 1

(B) 20 log

1 + jT

T

(C)

1 + jT , cos 1T

(D)

20 log

1

, 0

1 + jT

86.

For the state equation X& = AX where X = n-vector and A = n n constant matrix. Given

the initial state X(0), the solution of the state equation

(A) X (t ) = e At X (0)

(B) X (t ) = A 1 X (0)

(C) X (t ) = e At X (0)

(D) X (t ) = AT X (0)

87.

The mathematical model of a system is &y& + 3 y& + 2 y = u , where u = input, and y = output.

The matrix state equation for y = x 1 , is

1 x1

x&1 0 1 x1

x&1 0

(A) =

(B) =

x& 2 2 3 x2

x& 2 2 - 3 x2

(C)

88.

x&1 0

x& = 2

2

1 x1 1

+

[u ]

- 3 x2 0

(D)

x&1 0

x& = 2

2

(A) L1 ( sI A) 1

(B) ( sI A) 1

(C) L1 [( sI A)]

(D) L1 ( A sI ) 1

1 x1 0

+

[u ]

- 3 x2 1

89.

controllability is

(A) [A : AB]

(B) [B : AB]

(C) [AB : A]

(D) [AB : B]

90.

C = 1 2 matrix. The condition for observability is

(A) [CB : CAB] (B) [B : AB]

(C) B * : A* B *

(D) C * : A*C *

91.

92.

(A) quality factor of a coil

(C) capacitance of a capacitor

(D) inductance of a coil

The full scale range of PMMC voltmeter is 100 V and its sensitivity is 1000 /V. If the

meter reads 50 V, the current through the voltmeter is

(A) 0.05 mA

(B) 0.5 mA

(C) 5 mA

(D) 50 mA

Set - A

12

EE

93.

The power in a 3-phase load is measured by two watt meters. If one watt meter reads

zero, then the load power factor is

(A) Zero

(B) 0.5

(C ) 0.866

(D) unity

94.

(A) VA rating

(B) secondary winding current

(C) secondary winding voltage

(D) (secondary winding current)2 resistance of secondary winding

95.

(A) less expensive

(B) output reading is binary in nature

(C) output impedance is less

(D) installation is easy as panel meters

96.

The most accurate instrument for measuring phase difference between two signals is

(A) X Y plotter

(B) oscilloscope

(C) phase sensitive detector

(D) electronic counter/timer

97.

calculated maximum errors of 1 % and 2 %, respectively. The likely error in

calculated power is

(A) 3 %

(B) 0.022 %

(C) 1.5 %

(D) 0.22 %

98.

(A) only current coil is energized

(B) under compensation for friction

(C) over compensation for friction

(D) over loading of meter

99.

(A) light emitting diode

(B) zener diode

(C) field effect transistor

(D) bipolar junction transistor

100.

The region consisting of holes and electrons near the p-n junction of a diode is

(A) diffusion region

(B) neutral zone

(C) recombination region

(D) depletion region

101.

(A) collector-emitter breakdown voltage

(B) minimum collector-emitter voltage

(C) collector-base breakdown voltage

(D) emitter-base voltage

102.

region. The slew rate is

(C) 8 V/s

(D) 16 V/s

(A) 4 V/s

(B) 4 V/s

Set - A

13

EE

103.

1

2

1

RC

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2 RC

RC

2RC

2

104.

(A) a continuous set of discrete values

(B) 216 discrete values

(C) 210 discrete values

(D) 28 discrete values

105.

(A) IC 74150

(B) IC 74151

(C)

IC 74153

(D) IC 74157

106.

(A) time required following a sample

(B) time required for the switch to open

(C) transition time interval between sample and hold

(D) time from the hold command to the opening of the switch

107.

(A) NAND gates

(B) AND gates

(C) AND or OR gates

(D) Excusive-NOR gates

108.

(A) silver

(B) gold

(C) copper

(D) tin

109.

(A) base current and collector-emitter voltage

(B) collector current and base current

(C) collector current and saturation voltage

(D) collector current and collector-emitter voltage

110.

(A) positive gate current only

(B) negative gate current only

(C) positive or negative gate current

(D) sinusoidal gate current

111.

(A) below the latching current

(B) below the holding current

(C) equal to the reverse leakage current

(D) zero

Set - A

14

EE

112.

firing delay angle, and feeding a dc load, is

(A)

cos

(B)

cos

(C)

unity

(D)

cos 2

113.

firing delay angle of the SCRs is 45. The average output load voltage for continuous

current is

120

120

240

120 2

(C)

(D)

(A)

(B)

2

114.

The duty ratio of a step-up chopper with an output voltage of 200 V from a 80 V dc

source, is

(A) 0.4

(B) 0.5

(C ) 0.6

(D) 1.5

115.

The fundamental component of rms output voltage of a full-bridge single-phase squarewave inverter with Vdc as input voltage, is

(A)

Vdc

(B)

Vdc

(C)

4Vdc

2

(D)

4Vdc

3

116.

The starting torque of a V/f controlled inverter-fed 3-phase induction motor operating at

25 Hz as compared with the same motor operating at 50 Hz is

(A) more

(B) double

(C) equal

(D) less

117.

Regenerative breaking of ac-dc converter fed dc motor is possible when firing delay

angle of SCRs is

(A) 30

(B) 60

(C ) 90

(D) 120

118.

synchronous speeds are possible by

(A) injecting voltage into the stator

(B) injecting voltage into the rotor

(C) extracting voltage from the stator

(D) extracting voltage from the rotor.

119.

(A) DC voltage

(B) single-phase AC, 50 Hz

(C) 3-phase AC, 50 Hz

(D) single-phase AC, 25 Hz

120.

(A) separately excited dc motor

(B) DC series motor

(C) AC series motor

(D) 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor

___________

Set - A

15

EE

Set - A

16

EE

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

C

C

B

B

D

C

C

B

D

A

D

D

B

B

D

B

C

A

A

A

B

B

C

C

C

B

C

D

A

B

B

A

C

B

C

A

D

B

C

A

SET-A

41

C

81

42

B

82

43

B

83

44

D

84

45

B

85

46

A

86

47

C

87

48

B

88

49

A

89

50

D

90

51

B

91

52

B

92

53

A

93

54

C

94

55

A

95

56

C

96

57

C

97

58

B

98

59

A

99

60

B

100

61

C

101

62

B

102

63

C

103

64

D

104

65

D

105

66

A

106

67

C

107

68

D

108

69

B

109

70

D

110

71

A

111

72

C

112

73

C

113

74

B

114

75

A

115

76

B

116

77

D

117

78

B

118

79

A

119

80

C

120

A

B

D

B

B

C

D

A

B

D

B

D

B

A

B

D

B

C

B

D

A

C

B

D

D

B

A

A

D

C

B

A

C

C

C

A

D

B

B

B

Booklet No. :

A

SET

FT - 15

Food Technology

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

FT-15-A

FOOD TECHNOLOGY

1.

(A) 50 percent

(B) 45 percent

(C) 30 percent

(D) 20 percent

2.

Vitamins are classified as fat-soluble and water soluble and they perform specific

functions in human body. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin ?

(A) vitamin A

(B) vitamin D

(C) vitamin E

(D) vitamin B6

3.

(A) Copper is useful in iron absorption and collagen metabolism.

(B)

Magnesium is found useful as enzyme activator.

(C)

Manganese is used in body for cholesterol metabolism.

(D) Selenium is useful in oxygen transport.

4.

(A) Vitamin A is highly sensitive to acid, air and light.

(B)

Vitamin C and D are sensitive to alkalinity, air, light and heat.

(C)

Thiamin acts as co-enzyme in energy metabolism.

(D) Niacin helps in absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus.

5.

ISO prepared a document called ISO 9000 series in 1987 (modified in 1994) as a

guideline for all organizations on managing quality and standard. Its Indian equivalent is

called :

(A) IS 14000

(B) IS 12000

(C) IS 22000

(D) IS 2000

6.

The Ministry of Food Processing Industries was established in which of the following the

year ?

(A) 1988

(B) 2000

(C) 1996

(D) 2001

7.

(A) 5 102 Pa.s

(B) 150 102 Pa.s

(C)

250 102 Pa.s

(D) 350 102 Pa.s

8.

(A) Venturi tube

(B) Pitot tube

(C)

Orifice meter

(D) Lactometer

9.

There are two important types of time-dependent non-Newtonian liquids, namely shearthinning liquids and shear-thickening liquids. Shear-thinning liquids are also called

(A) Thixotropic fluids

(B) Dilatant liquid

(C)

Pseudoplastic

(D) Newtonian fluids

Set - A

FT

10.

(A) Ribbon mixers

dry powder and particulate foods

(B)

Paddle agitators

low or medium viscosity liquids

(C)

Z-blade mixers

high viscosity liquids and paste

(D) Sigma blade mixers low viscosity foods

11.

ingredients during processing. The process of removing liquids from solids is referred to

as

(A) Centrifugation (B) Filtration

(C) Expression (D) Extraction

12.

The benefits of size reduction of foods in food processing are as following, except

(A) A similar range of particle sizes allows more complete mixing of ingredients

(B)

Size reduction has little or no preservative effect

(C)

There is increase in the surface area to volume ratio of the food, which decreases

the rate of drying, heating or cooling

(D) Improves the efficiency and rate of extraction of liquid components

13.

Which of the following factors are considered important for the stability of an emulsion ?

(A) The viscosity of the dispersed phase

(B)

The type and quantity of emulsifying agent

(C)

The interfacial forces acting at the surfaces of the globules

(D) The differences between the densities of the dispersed and continuous phases

14.

(A) Proteins, carbohydrates, vitamins

(B)

Proteins, carbohydrates, fats

(C)

Proteins, sugars, minerals

(D) Fats, vitamins, minerals

15.

(A) Evaporation

- Milk

(B)

Dehydration

- Peas

(C)

Sun drying

- Grapes

(D) Reverse osmosis

- Orange juice

16.

(A) HDL cholesterol

(B) VLDL cholesterol

(C)

LDL cholesterol

(D) Triglycerides

17.

Aspartame is a low-calorie sweetener resulting from the combination of two amino acids.

The amino acids used are

(A) Alanine and glutamine

(B) Aspartic acid and glutamine

(C)

Aspartic acid and alanine

(D) Aspartic acid and phenylalanine

Set - A

FT

18.

(A) Bligh and Dyer technique

(B) Mojonnier method

(C) Soxhlet extraction

(D) Gerber method

19.

If moisture content of a food is 20% on wet weight basis. Calculate its moisture content

on dry weight basis ?

(A) 22 percent

(B) 25 percent

(C) 31 percent (D) 45 percent

20.

The baking performance of wheat flour improves when they are treated with maturing

agents. Among the maturing agents that may not be added in wheat flour for this purpose

is

(A) Chlorine dioxide gas

(B) Acetone peroxide

(C) Azodicarbonamide

(D) Potassium propionate

21.

Rigor mortis results in increase in lactic acid content in meat which is formed from

(A) Amylopectin (B) Amylose

(C) Glycogen

(D) Dextrins

22.

(A) Lactobacillus bulgaricus

fermented milk

(B) Aspergillus niger

amylases

(C) Rhizopus nigricans

gluconic acid

(D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

bread

23.

shows the following symptoms, except

(A) The child gives shriveled appearance

(B) The face looks thin and eyes are sunken

(C) Belly generally comes out

(D) The skin shows a number of folding as the fat and muscles are very less

24.

(A) Triticum aestivum

(B) Triticum monococcum

(C) Triticum durum

(D) Triticum turgidum

25.

(A) Lactic acid (B) Ascorbic acid (C) Pyruvic acid (D) Oleic acid

26.

Heat required to change, at constant temperature, the physical state of materials from

solid to liquid, liquid to gas or solid to gas is known as

(A) Sensible heat

(B) Specific heat

(C) Calorie

(D) Latent heat

27.

The dimensionless Reynolds number (Re) characterizes fluid flow. The Reynolds

number less than 2100 indicates

(A) Streamline flow

(B) Transitional flow

(C) Turbulent flow

(D) Unidirectional flow

Set - A

FT

28.

(A) Gear pump

(B) Rotary pump

(C) Centrifugal pump

(D) Reciprocating pump

29.

(A) Freezing

(B) Emulsification

(C) Pasteurization

(D) Blanching

30.

(A) Low temperature arrests growth of pathogens

(B) Low temperature arrests growth of psychrophiles

(C) Low temperature kills microbes

(D) Low temperature arrests growth of all microbes

31.

(A) Extensibility

(B) Elasticity

(C) Dough stability

(D) Water holding capacity

32.

(A) Drum dryer

(B) Fluidized bed dryer

(C) Spray dryer

(D) Bin dryer

33.

(A) 15 % TSS

(B) 25 % TSS

(C) 30 % TSS (D) 40 % TSS

34.

Water hardness influences the processed food quality. The hardness of water is measured

in parts per million of

(A) Calcium carbonate

(B) Calcium chloride

(C) Calcium sulphate

(D) Calcium oxalate

35.

(A) Emulsification

(B) Commination

(C) Homogenization

(D) None of these

36.

(A) Trough mixer

(B) Ribbon mixer

(C) Z blade mixer

(D) Cone mixture

37.

A process of exposing the raw fruits and vegetables to heat for a few minutes by

immersing in boiling water or with steam is known as

(A) Blanching

(B) Cooking

(C) Thawing

(D) Heating

38.

(A) Sterilization

beans

(B) Baking

biscuits

(C) Drying

peas

(D) Freezing

red meat

Set - A

FT

39.

(A) Cold shortening

rigor mortis has occurred

(B) Chilling injury

vegetables caused by low temperature which results in

loss of eating quality

(C) Rigor mortis

(D) Dew point

becomes saturated with moisture, making onset of

condensation

40.

Starch is made up of two distinct polymers, amylose and amylopectin. Waxy wheat

starch has been shown to lack measurable amount of

(A) Amylopectin

(B) Amylose

(C) Both amylose and amylopectin

(D) Neither amylose nor amylopectin

41.

Some of the physical characteristics of food are described below. Find the one, which is

incorrectly defined.

(A) Elasticity the rate at which a deformed food sample goes back to its original

condition after the deforming force is withdrawn.

(B) Gumminess the quantity to stimulate the energy required to disintegrate a semisolid food sample to a steady state of swallowing

(C) Chewiness the quantity to stimulate the energy required to masticate a semi-solid

food sample to a steady state of swallowing

(D) Friability the hardness of a food and its tendency to resist crack.

42.

In a food processing industry, several unit operations are carried out. Identify the one,

which is incorrectly defined ?

(A) Grading the assessment of a number of attributes to obtain an indication of

overall quality of a food

(B) Filtration the separation of liquid from solids by applied pressure

(C) Sorting the separation of foods into categories on the basis of a measurable

physical properties

(D) Ohmic heating direct electrical heating of foods

43.

Naturally occurring pigments in food are generally water-soluble. Identify the one, which

is oil soluble pigment.

(A) Anthocyanins (B) Betalaines

(C) Carotenes

(D) Curcumin

44.

Hard wheat tends to contain relatively low levels of starch and high levels of proteins,

while reverse is true for soft wheat. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) Durum wheat flours are best suited for pasta products.

(B) Wheat holds a unique place amongst cereals because upon mixing wheat flour with

water, an elastic matrix called gluten is formed.

(C) High protein flours are best suited for biscuits.

(D) Low protein flours are best suited for cakes and pastries.

Set - A

FT

45.

Different types of maize are classified on the basis of their protein content and the

hardness of the kernel. Much of the niacin in corn is in a bound form and this led to a

disorder in population where corn is the staple food. This niacin deficiency is known as

(A) Pellagra

(B) NTD

(C) Rickets

(D) Jaundice

46.

Oats have a relatively minor status among cereals because they are more difficult to

process and are unstable due to their high lipid content and lipase activity. Reports of the

possible blood cholesterol lowering effect of oat bran have increased the popularity of its

use for human food in developed countries. Which of the following constituents is held

responsible for cholesterol lowering effect of oat ?

(A) Beta amylase

(B) Beta glucan

(C) Lipase activity

(D) High Pentosans

47.

There is a considerable variation in the protein contents among the cereals. Which of the

following cereals contain highest percentage of protein content ?

(A) Brown rice (B) Sorghum

(C) Maize

(D) Pearl Millet

48.

following antinutritional substance is not found in appreciable quantity in cereals ?

(A) Tannins

(B) Phytates

(C) Polyphenols (D) Saponins

49.

Foods can be classified according to their pH values into low acid, medium acid, acid

and highly acid foods. Which of the following class of food does not have correct pH

value ?

(A) Low acid pH 5.0 and higher

(B) Medium acid pH 5.0 4.5

(C) Acid pH 4.53.7

(D) Highly acid pH 3.7 and below

50.

(A) Evaporation

(B) Simple distillation

(C) Fractional distillation

(D) Decantation

51.

The watery part of milk separated from curd during cheese making is extensively used in

the manufacturing of

(A) Lactic acid (B) Amines

(C) Protein

(D) Starch

52.

The element which is required in the largest amounts by the human body is

(A) Calcium

(B) Zinc

(C) Iodine

(D) Iron

53.

Typical temperatures for a range of food processing operations are indicated below.

Indicate which one of the following is a mismatch.

(A) Spray drying, Baking

200-250 C

(B) Extrusion cooking, UHT

140-150 C

(C) Canning

110-125 C

(D) Pasteurization, hot-air drying

50-100 C

Set - A

FT

54.

Enthalpy is the heat content or energy level in a system per unit mass, and its unit is :

(A) Joules/kg

(B) Joules/kg C

(C) W/m C

(D) None of the above

55.

A technique for separating proteins and nucleic acids on the basis of charge and

molecular size is known as

(A) Chromatography

(B) SE-HPLC

(C) RP-HPLC

(D) Electrophoresis

56.

An analytical procedure where the weight of a food constituent is measured after suitable

treatments is called

(A) Gravimetric analysis

(B) Titrimetric analysis

(C) Physical analysis

(D) Volumetric procedure

57.

Protein can be assessed in foods by several methods. Which one of the following method

is not used for protein estimation ?

(A) Kjeldahl method

(B) Formol titration

(C) Thermal combustion method

(D) Soxhlet method

58.

Which of the following organism play important role in the production of pickles ?

(A) Distiller yeast

(B) S. cerevisiae

(C) Lactobacillus plantarum

(D) Azatobacter

59.

(A) Milk

(B) Cereal grains

(C) Rabbit Meat

(D) Vegetables & fruits

60.

The total solids in khoa is

(A) 95 - 92 percent

(B) 85 - 82 percent

(C) 75 - 78 percent

(D) 65 - 72 percent

61.

(A) Ammonium chloride

(B) Diastase

(C) Zymase

(D) Ammonium sulphate

62.

In case of jelly the phenomenon of spontaneous exudation of fluid from a gel is called

(A) Cloudy jelly

(B) Foggy jelly

(C) Weeping jelly

(D) Synegy jelly

Set - A

FT

63.

Tomatoes are processed into a variety of products such as tomato juice, puree, paste and

ketchup. These products should have minimum prescribed total/tomato solid. Which of

the following product has incorrect percentage of solids.

(A) Tomato paste should have not less than 25 percent of tomato solids

(B) Tomato ketchup contains not less than 12 percent tomato solids

(C) Tomato puree contains not less than 20 percent tomato solids

(D) Tomato juice should have a total solids content of 5.66 percent

64.

Vinegar is a fermented product, which contains varying amounts of fruit acids, colouring

matter, salts and a few other fermentation products those impart a characteristics flour

and aroma to the product. It should contain at least

(A) 6 percent acetic acid

(B) 8 percent acetic acid

(C) 10 percent acetic acid

(D) 4 percent acetic acid

65.

(A) Thermal capacity

calorie/C

(B) Latent heat

calorie/gm

(C) Heat

Joule

(D) Specific heat

calorie/gm/C

66.

For a gram of water to change into gas, 540 calories is required. This energy

requirement is called

(A) Heat of solidification

(B) Heat of vaporization

(C) Heat of fusion

(D) Heat of evaporation

67.

(A) Ascorbic acid

antioxidant

(B) Benzoic acid

preservative

(C) Monosodium glutamate anticaking agent

(D) BHQ

antioxidant

68.

(A) TSS is the amount of sugars and water soluble substances present in fruit and

vegetables

(B) De-tartarisation is the elimination of sodium bi-tartrate from fruit beverages

(C) Pasteurization is the process of heat treatment used to reduce the total microflora,

especially pathogenic bacteria

(D) Decanter is the process of removal of suspended material from fruit juice

Set - A

FT

69.

Jam is a product with reasonably thick consistency, firm enough to hold the fruit tissues

in position and is made by boiling fruit pulp with sufficient sugar. It contains 0.5-0.6 %

acid and invert sugar in it should not be more than

(A) 40 percent

(B) 35 percent

(C) 25 percent

(D) 10 percent

70.

The finishing or end point of jam can be determined by the following methods, except

(A) Drop test

(B) Jel test

(C) Sheet test

(D) Refractometer test

71.

Which of the following fruit product has incorrect TSS in accordance with FPO

specifications ?

(A) Fruit jam

68 % TSS (minimum)

(B) Fruit jelly

65 % TSS (minimum)

(C) Marmalade 68 % TSS (minimum)

(D) Fruit preserve 68 % TSS (minimum)

72.

30 min causes greater changes to flavour and slightly greater loss of vitamins than HTST

method where milk is processed at

(A) 72 C for 15 s

(B) 90 C for 0.1 s

(C) 90 C for 0.01 s

(D) 90C for 1 s

73.

The process of drying in which ice is directly converted into vapours is known as

(A) Cabinet drying

(B) Sun drying

(C) Sublimation

(D) Tunnel drying

74.

(A) Hazard analysis and quality control point.

(B) Hazard analysis and critical control point.

(C) Hazard assessment and quality control point.

(D) Hazard assessment and critical control point.

75.

(A) Amylase

(B) Protease

(C) Lipase

(D) Zymase

76.

Which of the following is incorrectly matched for measuring the tenderness of food

items ?

(A) Pastry

Shortometer

(B) Bread

Compressimeter

(C) Apple

Texture analyzer

(D) Grape Jelly

Masticometer

Set - A

10

FT

77.

Night blindness is the problem faced by millions of people all over the world. It is caused

by Vitamin A deficiency. Which of the following is true for Vitamin A ?

(A) Vitamin A is synthesized by using beta-carotene, a chemical present in many

yellow fruits and vegetables.

(B) It is needed for our cardiovascular well-being

(C) It maintains healthy immune system

(D) All of the above

78.

(A) Cystine

(B) Isoleucine

(C) Lysine

(D) Valine

79.

The liquid separated in the process of milk coagulation by application of either rennet or

acid to precipitate casein is called

(A) Wash liquid

(B) Affluent liquid

(C) Whey

(D) Creamy fluid

80.

product is incorrectly matched for moisture or solid contents ?

(A) Biscuits

40 percent moisture

(B) Raisins

18 percent moisture

(C) Bread

20 percent moisture

(D) Honey

17 percent moisture

81.

which is sweeter than sucrose by

(A) about 1.3 times

(B) about 2.5 times

(C) about 2.0 times

(D) about 1.7 times

82.

About two percent of world population shows allergy called celiac disease to wheat grain

protein. Which of the following is that protein ?

(A) Globulin

(B) Gliadin

(C) Gluten

(D) Albumin

83.

Which of the following statement with respect to vitamin stability in foods is incorrect ?

(A) Vitamin A is normally not affected by heat processing but it is destroyed by UV

rays and air.

(B) Vitamin C is unstable to heat but destroyed by acids

(C) Vitamin D is increased in ultraviolet radiation

(D) B complex Vitamins are more heat stable

Set - A

11

FT

84.

Enzymes and other additives are used as processing aids. Rennet is used in one of

following the food products :

(A) Wine making

(B) Cheese manufacture

(C) Yogurt making

(D) Butter manufacture

85.

The milling process results in some loss of food value. The refinement of cereal grains

result in the loss of vitamin

(A) K

(B) E

(C) B

(D) C

86.

The food constituents undergo changes on processing. Milk fat in butter should be

(A) not less than 80%

(B) 65%

(C) 75%

(D) not less than 90%

87.

The food constituents provide us energy to work. The principal sources of food energy

are

(A) fats and protein

(B) proteins and carbohydrates

(C) carbohydrates and fats

(D) vitamins and carbohydrates

88.

Many diet related disorders occur in human beings. Kwashiorkor is a disease related to

(A) Fatty acid deficiency

(B) Vitamin deficiency

(C) Food energy deficiency

(D) Protein deficiency

89.

Food poisoning occurs due to inadequate processing or poor handling of processed food

articles. The most dangerous food poisoning organism is

(A) Salmonella spp.

(B) Clostridium perfringeus

(C) Staphylococcus aureus

(D) Clostridium botulinum

90.

Raw agricultural commodities are processed for certain advantages. Food preservation

has the principal aim of suppressing

(A) Enzymatic changes

(B) Nutritional changes

(C) Microbial changes

(D) All the above

91.

Parboiling is used in the Asian countries for grain processing. Parboiling technique is

generally applied to

(A) Rice

(B) Wheat

(C) Maize

(D) Millets

92.

(A) ISO 9001 - deals with product development & manufacturing

(B) ISO 9002 - companies doing only manufacturing

(C) ISO 9004 - deals with quality management and system

(D) All the above

Set - A

12

FT

93.

(A) Food with increased levels of health promoting substances

(B) Foods those are contained in well-designed packaging materials for consumer

acceptance

(C) Foods those are raised by organic farming

(D) None of the above

94.

(A) Animal fats tend to have less unsaturation and are therefore harder fats

(B) Coconut and palm kernel oil have short to medium chain saturated fatty acids

causing these to be solid at room temperature

(C) Fats are a concern because they have a high caloric density of 7 cal/g

(D) Fats are a medium of heat transfer and are used to thermally process number of

food products.

95.

A wet food product contains 70% water. After drying, it is found that 80% of original

water has been removed. How much mass of water is removed per kilogram of wet food ?

(A) 0.56 kg

(B) 0.60 kg

(C) 0.66 kg

(D) 0.76 kg

96.

The moisture content of a food product is 50% (wet basis). What would be the moisture

content on dry basis ?

(A) 100%

(B) 50%

(C) 60%

(D) 45%

97.

Test weight of rice grain is an important parameter of milling quality of rice. Which one

of the following is the correct range for full kernel weight of rice ?

(A) 15-29 mg

(B) 30-39 mg

(C) 40-49 mg

(D) 59-69 mg

98.

Fruit nectars are produced from fruit slurries or whole fruits by homogenization in the

presence of sugar, water and citric acid/ascorbic acid. The fruit contents in nectars should

be

(A) 25-50%

(B) 15-25%

(C) More than 50%

(D) 65%

99.

(A) Rheometer

(B) Viscometer (C) Pycnometer (D) Declinometer

100.

(A) Not less than 40 percent TS

(B) Not less than 36 percent TS

(C) Not less than 46 percent TS

(D) Not less than 56 percent TS

101.

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has been established to regulate food

processing industries. It has

(A) Eleven members including chairman

(B) Nine members including chairman

(C) Seven members including chairman

(D) Five members including chairman

Set - A

13

FT

102.

(A) Hunter lab colour meter

(B) Spectrophotometer

(C) Tintometer

(D) All the above

103.

Malting process allows malt amylase and proteinases to degrade starch and protein to

(A) glucose and peptone as well as peptides

(B) glucose and amino acids

(C) maltose and peptone as well as peptides

(D) maltose and amino acids

104.

(A) Anthrocyanin (B) Chlorophylls (C) Phycocyanin (D) Carotene

105.

There are several ways of arriving at the standards for product quality but four methods

are commonly used which are given below, except

(A) Company or voluntary standards (B) Legal standards

(C) Guided standards

(D) Industry standards

106.

How many high molecular weights subunits are contained in a single wheat cultivar ?

(A) 1-2 HMW-GS

(B) 3-5 HMW-GS

(C) 2-6 HMW-GS

(D) 4-5 HMW-GS

107.

Wheat gluten proteins are classified into gluten forming and non-gluten forming proteins.

The average percentage of gluten forming proteins in bread wheat cultivars is

(A) 40 percent

(B) 50 percent

(C) 60 percent

(D) 80 percent

108.

(A) Condensed milk - 0.80 aw

(B)

Jam

0.75 aw

(C)

Biscuits

0.30 aw

0.70 aw

(D) Bread

109.

(A) Effective at various pH conditions

(B) Its mechanism of activity is unknown

(C) Used in dried fruits, wine, lemon juice, fruit juices

(D) Active against bacteria but not active against fungi

110.

Falling number value is linked to amylase activity in wheat flour. Which of the following

falling number value is recommended in flour for bread making ?

(A) 500 sec

(B) 400 sec

(C) 600 sec

(D) 250 sec

Set - A

14

FT

111.

(A) 2+12

(B) 20

(C) 7+8

(D) 5+10

112.

(A) Penicillium camemberti

(C) Penicillium notatum

(D) Penicillium chrysogenum

113.

(A) Microbial changes

(B) Enzymatic changes

(C) Nutritional changes

(D) All the above

114.

Much of the niacin in corn is in a bound form and this led to a disorder in population

where corn is the staple food. This niacin deficiency is known

(A) Jaundice

(B) NTD

(C) Rickets

(D) Pellagra

115.

(A) B vitamin

(B)

Amino acid

(C)

Fatty acid

(D) Mineral

116.

(A) Vitamin C

Scurvy

(B) Thiamin

Beriberi

(C) Protein

Kwashiorkor

(D) Vitamin D

Marasmus

117.

(A) Retort Pouch

flexible packaging material

(B) Hedonic scale

food testing

(C) RDA

recommended dietary allowances

(D) Flavor

a blend of taste and smell

118.

Some vitamins also act as antioxidants. Identify such vitamins from the choices given

below:

(A) Vitamin C and E

(B) Vitamin A and B2

(C) Vitamin D and K

(D) Vitamin B-compex

119.

Vitamin A is present in

(A) Green vegetables

(C) Liver

120.

(B) Milk

(D) All the above

(A) Zein

(B) Albumin

(C) Conjugated proteins

(D) Gluten

___________

Set - A

15

FT

Set - A

16

FT

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

D

D

D

D

A

A

A

D

C

D

C

C

A

B

D

C

D

D

B

D

C

C

C

A

D

D

A

C

B

A

A

B

B

A

B

C

A

D

C

B

SET-A

41

D

42

B

43

C

44

C

45

A

46

B

47

D

48

D

49

C

50

A

51

A

52

A

53

B

54

A

55

D

56

A

57

D

58

C

59

A

60

D

61

D

62

C

63

C

64

D

65

C

66

B

67

C

68

B

69

A

70

B

71

C

72

A

73

C

74

B

75

A

76

D

77

D

78

A

79

C

80

C

81

82

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94

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100

101

102

103

104

105

106

107

108

109

110

111

112

113

114

115

116

117

118

119

120

A

C

B

B

C

A

C

D

D

D

A

D

A

C

A

A

A

A

C

B

A

D

B

A

C

B

D

D

D

D

B

A

D

C

A

D

C

A

D

B

Booklet No. :

A

SET

GG - 15

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

GG-15-A

1.

2.

(A)

x = y = 1, z = 1

(C)

y = z = 1, x = 1

0

either -1 or +1

(B)

1

neither 0 nor 1

( x, y)

=

( r , )

(C)

(D) none

(C)

zero

(D) a scalar

(A) solenoidal

5.

(B)

(D)

(A) 0

4.

x = z = 1, y = 1

(D) none

(A)

(C)

3.

(B)

If u ( x, y ) =

(A)

(B)

irrotational

u

u

x2 y2

then x + y

is equal to

2

2

x

y

x +y

2u

(B)

4u

(C)

1

u

2

(D)

1

u

4

6.

The real and imaginary parts of a complex analytic function are called

(A) even functions

(B) odd functions

(C) none of these

(D) harmonics

7.

(A)

(C)

8.

u

v

=

y

x

u v

=

y x

(B)

(D)

u

=0

x

u

=0

y

If the mean and variance of a binomial distributed random variable are 4 and 3

respectively then the probability distribution is

(A)

(B)

(C)

x

16 x

C16

x (1/ 4) (3 / 4)

(D)

None

Set - A

GG

9.

If the number of road accidents during the peak period of a day follow Poisson

distribution with 2 accidents on an average, the probability that on a given day there will

be atleast one accident is

(A)

10.

e2 2

1!

(C)

1 e2

(D) None

1 1z2

The variance of a standard normal distribution

e 2 is

2

(A) 1

11.

(B)

e2 2

1+

1!

(B)

(A) Sphere

(B) Ellipse

1

2

(C)

0.5

(D)

(C)

Spheroid

(D) Circular

12.

The densest central part of the earth which is composed of the inner and outer cores is

known as

(A) Hydrosphere

(B) Asthemosphere

(C) Lithosphere

(D) Barysphere

13.

(A) 12713 km

(B) 12756 km

(C)

6357 km

(A) 1.03 g/cm3

(B) 2.8 g/cm3

(C)

10.72 g/cm3

Isostasy refers to

(A) Gravitational equilibrium

(C) Plate tectonics

(D) Volcanic activity

14.

15.

(D) 6371 km

(D)

16.

(A) Earth quakes

(B) Thermal convection

(C) Tsunami

(D) Gravitation

17.

(A) Plate tectonics

(B) Diastrophism

(C) Continental drift

(D) Seafloor spreading

18.

(A) Gradual development of earth features

(B) Normal processes of sedimentation

(C) Evolutionary sequence indicated by fossils

(D) Radiometric datings

Set - A

5.52 g/cm3

GG

19.

An ice sheet that covers mountains and plains of large section of continent is called

(A) Continental Glacier

(B) Composite glacier

(C) Calving

(D) Cirque

20.

The causes for cyclonic storm wind circulation to be counter clockwise in the Northern

hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere is due to

(A) Deflation

(B) Bore

(C) Gravitation (D) Coriolis effect

21.

(A) Esperance, Australia

(B) West coast of India

(C) Tonga trench, New Zealand

(D) Near Andaman island

22.

Vast plains form deep layer of sediment lying 3500 m below sea level

(A) Submarine canyon

(B) Abyssal plain

(C) Guyot

(D) Trench

23.

The study of regular pattern of faces and angles between the faces and of the internal

structure of the mineral to which it is related, is called

(A) Crystallography

(B) Twinning

(C) Tenacity

(D) Palaeontology

24.

The _______ is the colour of the powdered mineral which is most readily seen by

scraping the mineral across a plate of unglazed hard porcelain.

(A) Streak

(B) Tenacity

(C) Cleavage

(D) lustre

25.

The following is a symbolic structure for the clay minerals and its representing structure

of

(A) Kaolin

(B)

Serpentine

(C)

Illite

(D) Montmorillonite

26.

The relative hardness (H) of quartz as per the arbitrary scale of ten standard minerals,

arranged in Mohs scale of hardness is

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 10

27.

(A) kidney shaped

(B) broad, flat crystal

(C) bunch of grapes

(D) long crystalslike fibres

Set - A

GG

28.

(A) native metallic elements such as pure copper, gold and silver.

(B) metallic ores such as sulphides and oxides

(C) silicates and carbonates

(D) sulphates and halides

29.

(A) increased stress

(B) increased temperature

(C) increased temperature or pressure

(D) both, increased temperature and pressure

30.

(A) fine to medium grained

(C) medium to coarse grained

(D) medium grained

31.

(A) Permeability

(B) Hydraulic gradient

(C) Porosity

(D) Hydraulic conductivity

32.

Rocks that are formed by the accumulation and compaction of fragments from preexisting rocks which have been disintegrated by erosion are called

(A) Igneous rocks

(B) Metamorphic rocks

(C) Extrusive rocks

(D) Sedimentary rocks

33.

(A) Visible and short wave infrared bands

(B) Thermal infrared data

(C) Radar data

(D) Near infrared data

34.

(A) Sedimentary rock

(B) Igneous rock

(C) Metamorphic rock

(D) Lime stone

35.

(A) Granite

(B) Mica schists

(C) Lime stones

(D) Shale

36.

(A) 30

(B) 60

(C) 45

(D)

Set - A

90

GG

37.

(A) a dense forest (B) a hillock

(C) a river

(D) a tall building

38.

(A) Planimeter

(B) Clinometer

(C) Tacheometer

(D) Omnimeter

39.

(A) Planimeter

(B) Clinometer (C) Ghat tracer (D) Pantograph

40.

(A) Repetition

(B) Reiteration

(C) Both A and B

(D) None

41.

The contours which are parallel and equidistant of an area, then that area should be

(A) Flat

(B) Steep slope (C) Gentle slope (D) Uniform slope.

42.

The most rapid method of orientation by the three-point method of plane tabling is the

(A) Tracing paper method

(B) Graphical method

(C) Trial and error method

(D) Both A and B

43.

(A) The curvature of the earth

(B) The large difference of elevations between various points

(C) Coverage is large

(D) Undulations of the topography

44.

If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is 1.870 m,

the R.L. of the forward station is

(A) 99.345 m

(B) 100.345 m

(C) 100.655 m (D) 101.870 m

45.

The process of revolving the telescope through 360 about its transverse horizontal axis

is known as

(A) Setting

(B) Focusing

(C) Transiting (D) Centering

46.

(A) Natural errors

(B) Personal errors

(C) Compensating errors

(D) Cumulative errors

Set - A

GG

47.

(A) Graphical scale

(B) Engineers scale

(C) Representative fraction

(D) Numerical scale

48.

(A) Cadastral map

(B) Atlas

(C) Wall map

(D) Globe

49.

(A) Conic

(B) Polyconic

(C) UTM

(D) Cylindrical

50.

(A) Topology

(B) Topography

(C) Photo-geology

(D) DEM

51.

(A) Land use / land cover classification

(B) Consists of elevation data with x, y coordinates

(C) Vector model of elevation

(D) Steroscopic view of an image

52.

The process of filling each cell of a new grid with the value of the corresponding cell or

cells in an original grid is termed as

(A) Resampling

(B) Affine

(C) Rubber sheeting

(D) Stretching

53.

Relational database is

(A) A database that is organized at different levels and uses the one-to-many

association between levels.

(B) A database that contains all data in a large table.

(C) A database that consists of a collection of tables and uses keys to connect the

tables.

(D) A database that is based on the built-in-connections across tables.

54.

Conformal Projection is

(A) One type of map projection that uses a cylinder as the projection surface.

(B) One type of map projection that uses a polyconic as the projection surface.

(C) One type of map projection that preserves local shapes.

(D) One type of map projection that retains certain accurate directions. It uses a plane

as the projection surface.

Set - A

GG

55.

(A) the value of a contour

(B) difference of value between consecutive contours

(C) horizontal shortest distance between consecutive contours

(D) slope of the contour line

56.

(A) the directional measure of slope

(B) the vertical distance between contour lines

(C) a graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction

between sunlight and landform features.

(D) that shows the direction that water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.

57.

(A) Area

(B) Shape

(C) Direction

(D) One of the above

58.

(A) Digital photogrammetry

(B)

(C)

Stereometer

(D)

Theodolite

Altimeter

59.

(A) An overlay method that preserves only those features that fall within the area

extent common to the input and overlay maps.

(B) A GIS operation, in which each point of a point map is assigned attribute data of

the polygon within which it falls.

(C) A GIS operation in which areas that are within a specified distance of selected map

features are separated from areas that are beyond.

(D) A polygon on-polygon overlay method that preserves all features from the input

and overlay maps extent defined by the input map

60.

If f is the focal length of an Aerial camera lens and H is the flying height above the

mean terrain then f/H is equal to

(A) Tilt

(B) Relief

(C) Vertical exaggeration

(D) Scale

61.

_______ measures (in geometric transformation) the deviation between the actual

location and the estimated location of the tie (control) points.

(A) Mean

(B) Mode

(C) Root Mean Square (RMS)

(D) Chi square

Set - A

GG

62.

Slivers defined as

(A) Overshoot arcs

(B) Undershoot arcs

(C) Very small polygons found along the shared boundary of the two input maps in

map overlay, often resulted from digitizing

(D) A polygon on-polygon overlay method that preserves all features from the input

and overlay maps

63.

(A) The directional measure of slope

(B) The vertical distance between contour lines

(C) A graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction

between sunlight and landform features.

(D) A grid that shows the direction water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.

64.

The raster data analysis operation that involves a focus cell and a set of its surrounding

cells

(A) Band ratioing

(B) NDVI

(C) Neighbourhood operation

(D) Classification

65.

Geo-referencing is

(A) The process of filling each cell of a new grid with the value of the corresponding

cell or cells in an original grid

(B) The process of using a set of control points to convert images from image

coordinates to realworld coordinates

(C) Selecting Bench Mark

(D) Referring to astronomical survey

66.

(A) A database that is organized at different levels and uses the one-to-many

association between levels

(B) A database that contains all data in a large table

(C) A database that consists of a collection of tables and uses keys to connect the

tables

(D) A database that is based on the built-in-connections across tables

67.

The Scattering process which explains about blue sky, red sunset etc. is known as

(A) Rayleigh

(B) Mie

(C) Non-selective

(D)

Selective

Set - A

GG

68.

(A) only visible part

(B) visible part and infrared regions of EM spectrum

(C) only infrared regions of EM spectrum

(D) Ultraviolet region

69.

The average spectrum reflectance values of an object observed for distinct wavelength

bands will indicate

(A) Mean spectral reflectance

(B) Spectral characteristics

(C) Spectral signature

(D) Spectroradiation

70.

(A) less than 0.7 micrometre

(B) 3 to 5.5 and 8 to 14 micrometre

(C) 3 to 35 micrometre

(D) above 35 micrometre

71.

(A) zero

(B)

(C) average

(D)

highest

varies with focal length of camera lens

72.

(A) 25% forward slope and 60% side lap

(B) 30% overlap

(C) 60% forward overlap and 25% side lap

(D) No overlap is required

73.

Aspect is defined as

(A) The directional measure of slope

(B) The vertical distance between contour lines

(C) A graphic method which simulates how the land surface looks with the interaction

between sunlight and landform features.

(D) A grid that shows the direction water will flow out of each cell of a DEM.

74.

Map overlay is

(A) A distance tolerance used to force points and lines to be snapped together if they

fall within the specified distance

(B) A GIS operation that combines the geometry and attributes of two digital maps to

create the output

(C) A GIS operation in which areas that are within a specified distance of selected map

features are separated from areas that are beyond

(D) An overlay method that preserves only features that fall within the area extent

defined by the input map

Set - A

10

GG

75.

(A) Linear response and non linear time variance

(B) Linear response and time variance

(C) Non-linear response and time variance

(D) Linear response and linear time variance

76.

Specific capacity of a confined well under equilibrium conditions and within the working

limits of drawdown

(A) Is constant at all drawdowns

(B) Decrease with the increasing drawdown

(C) Increases with drawdown

(D) Increases with decreasing drawdown

77.

(A) Is essentially same as the specific yield

(B) Is essentially same as the specific retention

(C) Is essentially same as the porosity

(D) Doesnt exist

78.

remains at the same value, a rainfall excess 12 cm in a 15 hour storm produces a runoff

in this catchment of

(A) 3 cm

(B) 4.5 cm

(C) 6 cm

(D) 7.5 cm

79.

The rain gauge station density as per BIS recommendation for plains is approximately

equal to one station per _______ sq.km.

(A) 130

(B) 260

(C) 390

(D) 520

80.

(A) Mass curve of rainfall

(C) Total rainfall of 24 hours period

(D) Hourly rainfall

81.

(A) Runoff curve

(B) Hourly rainfall of a storm

(C) Line joining points of equal rainfall

(D) Hydrograph

82.

Time taken for the runoff to be equal to rainfall in urban catchments is known as

(A) Basin time lag

(B) Rainfall duration

(C) Equilibrium time

(D) Peak flood time

Set - A

11

GG

83.

84.

(A) Unit Hydrograph

(B)

(C)

Rational formula

is equal to

(A) d/K

85.

(B)

K/d

87.

88.

91.

(D) Capillary moisture

(B)

(C)

Below HFL

(A) Pumping test

(B)

(C)

Topographical surveying

Soil test

(B)

Confined

(C)

Isotropic

(D) Anisotropic

Aquifer

(D) Hydrograph

(B)

(A) Nearest observation well

(B)

(C)

(D) Spring

Testing well

(A) Atmosphere

92.

(D) K*d

(A) Reservoir

90.

K+d

(A) Unconfined

89.

(C)

(A) Available moisture

(C) Hygroscopic water

86.

Runoff-Coefficient Method

(B)

Hydrosphere (C)

Blue Planet is the name given to the earth due to the presence of

(A) Ice

(B)

Ocean

(C)

(D)

Set - A

Water vapour

12

GG

93.

(A) Hydrosphere (B)

94.

96.

97.

98.

(B)

Calcium

100.

Humus

(D) Microbes

(B)

(C)

Only Bacteria

(A) Herbivores

(B)

(C)

Decomposers

Carnivores

considered is

(A) Ozone layer depletion

(B)

(C)

Air pollution

Global warming

(C)

17th July

(A) Autotrophs

(B)

(C)

(D) Petrophs

Heterotrophs

(B)

12-16%

(C)

8-12%

(D) 6-10%

The void ratio of a soil sample is 0.5, then porosity of the sample is

(A) 0.5

102.

(C)

(A) 14-20%

101.

Which of the following depends on autotrophs for both energy and raw materials to make

complex organic molecules ?

99.

(C)

(A) Soil

95.

Biosphere

(B)

1.0

(C)

0.33

(D)

0.25

The swelling nature of black cotton soil is primarily due to the presence of

(A) Kaolinite

(B)

(C)

(D) Vermiculite

Set - A

Montmorillonite

13

Illite

GG

103.

The liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil sample is 45% and 25% respectively. In the

liquid limit test of the soil sample, its water content varied from 5% to 25%. When the

number of blows increased from 10 to 100, the toughness index of the soil is

(A) 1.0

(B) 0.75

(C) 0.50

(D) 2.0

104.

(A) Field capacity

(B) Saturation capacity

(C) Moisture content at permanent wilting point

(D) Difference between field capacity and permanent wilting point within the root zone

of plants

105.

(A) Size

(B) Shape

(C) Size and Shape

(D) Size, Shape and Gradation

106.

The Critical void ratio is the void ratio at which volume change is

(A) Constant

(B) Zero

(C) Maximum (D) Minimum

107.

The optimum moisture content is the water content at which the dry density is

(A) Zero

(B) Minimum

(C) Constant

(D) Maximum

108.

(A) Gain of shear strength

(C) Erosion

(B)

(D)

Sedimentation

109.

Soils that are formed by disintegration of rocks in place under various actions are known

as

(A) Residual soils

(B) Alluvial soils

(C) Aeolian soils

(D) Colluvial soils

110.

According to Darcys law, as porosity (n) of soil sample increases, the seepage velocity

(Vs)

(A) increases

(C) decreases

111.

(B) constant

(D) independent of porosity

The function that defines the entry point and exit point of a C program is

(A) printf

(B) scanf

(C) main( )

(D) float c

Set - A

14

GG

112.

(A) Errors

113.

115.

119.

(B)

Structures

(C)

Arrays

(D) Pointers

(C)

(!) OR operator

(? :) Conditional operator

(B)

else

(C)

char

(D) switch-case

(C)

extern

(D) auto

(B)

register

(C)

&a

(D) %a

(B)

Loops

(C)

(B)

*a

Operators

(A) clrscr( )

120.

(B)

(A) a[ ]

118.

Data types

(A) stack

117.

(C)

(A) scanf

116.

Loops

(A) Functions

114.

(B)

(B)

add(a,b)

(C)

getch( )

(D) scanf( )

Fuzzy tolerance

(A) Distance tolerance used to force points and lines to be snapped together if they fall

within the specified distance.

(B)

A GIS operation that combines the geometry and attributes of two digital maps to

create the output.

(C)

Very small polygons found along the shared boundary of the two input maps in

map overlay, often resulted from digitizing.

(D) An overlay method that preserves only features that fall within the area extent

defined by the input map.

_____________

Set - A

15

GG

Set - A

16

GG

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

SET-A

D

B

41

81

C

C

42

82

A

B

43

83

A

B

44

84

C

A

45

85

D

D

46

86

C

C

47

87

A

D

48

88

B

D

49

89

A

A

50

90

C

C

51

91

D

A

52

92

B

C

53

93

D

C

54

94

A

B

55

95

B

D

56

96

C

D

57

97

D

C

58

98

A

C

59

99

D

D

60

100

C

C

61

101

B

C

62

102

A

C

63

103

A

C

64

104

A

B

65

105

C

B

66

106

A

A

67

107

B

B

68

108

A

C

69

109

C

B

70

110

C

A

71

111

D

C

72

112

A

A

73

113

B

B

74

114

A

B

75

115

C

B

76

116

B

A

77

117

B

B

78

118

D

D

79

119

B

A

80

120

B

C

A

D

C

D

A

C

C

B

C

D

B

D

D

D

B

B

C

A

C

C

C

D

D

B

D

B

A

C

C

B

C

A

B

A

B

D

B

A

Booklet No. :

A

SET

EI - 15

Instrumentation Engineering

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

EI-15-A

1.

2.

3.

(A) unique solution

(B)

(C)

(D) no solution

many solutions

2 0 1

The three eigen values of the matrix 0 2 0 are

1 0 2

(A) 0, 0, 3

(B) 1, 2, 3

(C) 1, i, i

(B)

7.

F = 2

1

sin 2x is

(D 2)2

1

sin 2x

4

x

cos2

cos 2x

2

(B)

(D) equal to bn

(C)

F =

1

(C)

4

cos 2x

(D) none

(D) none

p + q = 1 is

(A)

z = ax + by + c

(B)

z = x + y +c

(C)

z = ax + (1 a)2y + c

(D)

z = ax + (1 a ) y + c

If f ( z ) =

(A) 0

8.

(B)

(A)

6.

(A) .F = 0

5.

(D) 2, 2, 2

If f (x) is an odd function in the interval (L, L), then the Fourier coefficient an is

(A) 1

4.

trivial solution

z

then the residue of f ( z) at z = 2 is

( z + 1)( z + 2)

(B)

(C)

(D) 2

e x

f(x) = x! , > 0 is

(A) 2

Set - A

(B)

(C)

2

(D) 1

EI

9.

(A) 1 and 1

10.

(B)

0 and 1

(C)

1 and 0

(D) 2 and 2

dy

= x + y + x y and y(0) = 1 , then the value of y (0.025) by

dx

Eulers method is

(A) 0.025

11.

(B)

0.15 J

(C)

0.5 J

(B)

6 V

(C)

8 V

(B)

ZP > ZG

(C)

ZP = ZG

(B)

R only

(C)

L only

(B)

3969 mH

(C)

32 mH

(D) 12 V

(D) ZP = 2 ZG

(D) 63 mH

network is

17.

(D) 1.15 J

The maximum value of mutual inductance of two coils inductively coupled coils with

self inductance of L1 = 49 mH and L2 = 81 mH is

(A) 130 mH

16.

(D) none

A DC voltage source is connected across a series RLC circuit. Under steady condition,

the applied DC voltage drops entirely across the

(A) C only

15.

1.025

ZP only if

(A) ZP < ZG

14.

(C)

2 V dc and a 4 V peak to peak square wave is

(A) 2 V

13.

1.05

The energy stored in the magnetic field at a solenoid 30 cm long and 3 cm diameter

wound with 1000 turns of wire carrying a current of 10 A is

(A) 0.015 J

12.

(B)

0

1/2

(B)

(C)

1/2

, the two port

0

A circuit which resonates at 1 MHz has a Q of 100. Bandwidth between half-power point is

(A) 10 kHz

Set - A

(B)

100 kHz

(C)

3

10 Hz

(D) 100 Hz

EI

18.

A pressure gauge is calibrated from 0-50 kN/m2. It has a uniform scale with 100 scale

divisions. One fifth of a scale division can be read with certainty. The gauge has

(A) a resolution of 0.5 kN/m2

(B) threshold of 0.15 kN/m2

(C) resolution of 0.1 kN/m2

(D) dead zone of 0.2 kN/m2

19.

12 V in a 10 sec interval. The value of capacitance is

(A) 0.75 mF

(B) 1.33 mF

(C) 0.6 mF

(D) 1.67 mF

20.

(A) standard deviation

(B) precision index

(C) uncertainty

(D) average deviation

21.

In second order system the frequency of damped oscillation is 18 rad /sec. The value of

damping factor is 0.866. The natural frequency of oscillation is

(A) 15.6 rad/s

(B) 19.3 rad/s

(C) 36 rad/s

(D) 9 rad/s

22.

(C) is a linear system

23.

rejected if the probability of obtaining the deviation from mean is

(A) less than 1/2n

(B) greater than 1/2n

(C)

24.

(D) has a zero dead time

A measurement system with input x(t) and output of y(t) is described by the differential

equation is 3 +5y = 8x. The static sensitivity of the system is

(A) 0.60

(B)

1.60

(C)

1.67

(D) 2.67

25.

behaves as

(A) constant power source

(B) constant voltage source

(C) constant current source

(D) constant impedance source

26.

In a transducer, the observed output deviates from the correct value by a constant factor

the resulting error is called

(A) dynamic error

(B) hysteresis error

(C) non-conformity error

(D) sensitivity error

Set - A

EI

27.

A resistance potentiometer has a total resistance of 10 k and is rated 4W. If the range of

the potentiometer is 0 to 100 mm, then its sensitivity in V/mm is

(A) 1.0

(B) 2.0

(C) 2.5

(D) 25

28.

(A) a charge amplifier

(B) a differential amplifier

(C) an instrumentation amplifier

(D) a transconductance amplifier

29.

Two inductive transducers working on the principle of change of self inductance L are

connected in a push-pull arrangement. If the change of inductance of transducers is L,

the change of inductance of output terminal is

(A) L

(B) 2L

(C) 2L

(D) Zero

30.

to a constant acceleration of 5 g. The steady state output of the transducer will be

(A) zero

(B) 100 mV

(C) 0.5 V

(D) 5 V

31.

of magnetization results in change of

(A) permittivity

(B) permeability

(C) dimensions

(D) temperature

32.

A barium titanate crystal has a thickness of 2 mm. Its voltage sensitivity is 12 103 Vm/N.

It is subjected to a pressure of 0.5 MN/m2. Calculate the voltage generated

(A) 3 V

(B) 6 V

(C) 9 V

(D) 12 V

33.

(A) 101 mm to 103 mm of Hg

(C)

101 mm to 109 mm of Hg

(B)

101 mm to 106 mm of Hg

34.

(A) sinusoidal

(B) in the form of pulses

(C) modulated waveforms

(D) constant dc voltage

35.

If the temperature of a radiating body is 1500 C, the wavelength at which the maximum

radiant energy occurs is

(A) 2.8 m

(B) 1.63 m

(C) 1 m

(D) 4.5 m

Set - A

EI

36.

(A) Capacitive pickup

(B) Inductive pickup

(C) Piezoelectric pickup

(D) Hall effect pickup

37.

In a venturimeter the flow rate is 0.15 m3/s when the differential pressure is 30 kN/m2.

What is the value of flow when the differential pressure is 60 kN/m2 ?

(A) 0.212 m3/s

(B)

0.106 m3/s

(C)

0.3 m3/s

38.

A diaphragm has a natural frequency of 30 kHz. If both the diameter and thickness are

halved, the natural frequency is

(A) 15 kHz

(B) 240 kHz

(C) 60 kHz

(D) 120 kHz

39.

The torque in a rotating shaft is measured using strain gauges. The strain gauges must be

positioned on the shaft such that axes of the strain gauges are at

(A) 0 with respect to the axis of the shaft

(B)

(C)

40.

(A) Coriolis forces

(B) Buoyant force

(C) Centrifugal force

(D) Frictional force

41.

The input impedance (Zi) and the output impedance (Zo) of an ideal transconductance

amplifier are

(A) Zi = 0, Zo = 0 (B) Zi = 0, Zo = (C) Zi = , Zo = 0 (D) Zi = , Zo =

42.

A forward-biased silicon diode when carrying negligible current, has a voltage drop of

0.64 V. When the current is 1 A it dissipates 1W. The On-resistance of the diode is

(A) 1.0

(B) 0.64

(C) 0.74

(D) 0.36

43.

(A) Ri decreases and Ro decreases

(B) Ri decreases and Ro increases

(C)

44.

The first dominant pole encountered in the frequency response of a compensated op-amp

is approximately at

(A) 5 Hz

(B) 10 kHz

(C) 1 MHz

(D) 100 MHz

Set - A

EI

45.

An n-type semiconductor strain gauge has a nominal resistance of 1000 and gauge

factor of 100. The resistance of the gauge, when a compressive strain of 100 m/m is

applied, is

(A) 900

(B) 990

(C) 1100

(D) 1010

46.

110 V (rms) source supply. Calculate the DC and AC load currents

(A) 49.02 mA, 77 mA

(B) 77 mA, 49.02 mA

(C) 77 A, 49.02 A

(D) 49.02 A, 77 A

47.

An audio amplifier is designed to have a small-signal bandwidth of 20 kHz. The openloop low-frequency voltage gain of the op-amp is 105 and unity gain bandwidth is

1 MHz. What is the maximum closed-loop voltage gain for this amplifier ?

(A) 500

(B)

5 106

(C)

2 106

(D) 50

48.

(A) voltage controlled voltage source (B) voltage controlled current source

(C) current controlled voltage source (D) current controlled current source

49.

A 1st order low-pass Butter-Worth filter has a cut-off frequency of 1 kHz for

C = 0.01 F. Now, if the cut-off frequency has to change by a scaling factor of

0.625.What should be the value of resistor ?

(A) 15.9 k

(B) 25.44 k

(C) 9.95 k

(D) 25.47 k

50.

Three identical amplifiers with each one having a voltage gain of 50, input resistance of

1 k and output resistance of 250 are cascaded. The open circuit voltage gain of the

combined amplifier is

(A) 49 dB

(B) 51 dB

(C) 98 dB

(D) 102 dB

51.

(A) two npn transistors

(B) one pnp and one npn transistor

(C) two pnp transistors

(D) one pre-amplifier of npn transistor followed by amplifier of two transistor

52.

A unity gain buffer amplifier has a bandwidth of 1 MHz. The output voltage of the

amplifier for an input of 2 V sinusoid of frequency 1 MHz will be

(A) 2 V

Set - A

(B)

22 V

(C)

7

(D)

V

EI

53.

The output of an op-amplifier is 2V peak. The slew rate is 5 V/s. The input sinusoidal

which can be reproduced with no distortion has the maximum frequency of

(A) 398 kHz

(B) 398 Hz

(C) 1592 kHz

(D) 1592 Hz

54.

(A) = 1

(B) << 1

(C) >> 1

(D) = 0

55.

A differential amplifier having CMRR 50,000 has a differential mode gain of 500.

The common mode gain is

(A) 0.0001

(B) 0.1

(C) 0.001

(D) 0.01

56.

A combinational logic circuit which sends data coming from a single source to two or

more separate destinations is

(A) Decoder

(B) Encoder

(C) Multiplexer (D) Demultiplexer

57.

then the result is ______

(A) (00100)2

(B) (10100)2

(C) (11001)2

(D) (01100)2

58.

(A) m(2,3,6,7) (B) m(1,2,5,6,7) (C) m(0,1,4,5,7) (D) m(0,2,4,6)

59.

A 4 bit ripple counter and a 4 bit synchronous counter are made by flip-flops having a

propagation delay of 10 ns each. If the worst case delay in the ripple counter and

synchronous counter be R and S respectively, then

(A) R = 10 ns, S = 40 ns

(B) R = 40 ns, S = 10 ns

(C) R = 10 ns, S = 30 ns

(D) R = 30 ns, S = 10 ns

60.

An 8 bit successive approximation ADC has full scale reading of 2.55 V and conversion

time for analog input of 1 V is 20s. Conversion time for a 2 V input is

(A) 20 s

(B) 10 s

(C) 40 s

(D) 50 s

61.

When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL

instructions stored in/on the

(A) stack pointer

(B) accumulator

(C) program counter

(D) stack memory

62.

The full scale output of a DAC is 10 mA. If resolution is to be less than 40 A, then

required bits of the DAC are

(A) 10

(B) 8

(C) 9

(D) 12

Set - A

EI

63.

Prog : XRA A

MOV L,A

MOV H,L

INX

H

DAD H

After execution of this program the contents of HL pair is

(A) 0000H

(B) 0101 H

(C) 0002 H

(D) 0001H

64.

A sample and hold amplifier circuit is normally necessary before the following type of

A/D converter :

(A) successive approximation converter

(B) flash type converter

(C) voltage to frequency converter

(D) dual slope integrating converter

65.

Which of these interrupts of 8085 microprocessor will be recognized for both edge and

level triggered inputs ?

(A) INTR

(B) TRAP

(C) RST 7.5

(D) RST 6.5

66.

(A) disk drive and CPU

(B) disk drive and RAM

(C) disk drive and ROM

(D) disk drive and I/O

67.

(A) y[n] = n x[n]

(B) y[n] = x[3n]

(C) y[n] = x[ n]

(D) y [n] = x[n 3]

68.

(A) 2

(C) 2

(B) 2 2

(D)

69.

The Fourier series for a periodic signal is given as x(t) = cos (1.2t) + cos (2t) +

cos (2.8t), the fundamental frequency of the signal is

(A) 1.4 Hz

(B) 1.0 Hz

(C) 0.2 Hz

(D) 0.4 Hz

70.

Identify the transfer function corresponding to an all pass filter from the following :

1 s

1 + s

1

s

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

1 + s

1 s

1 + s

1 + s

Set - A

EI

71.

The region of convergence of the Z-transform of the discrete-time signal x[n] = 2n u[n]

will be

(A) |z| > 2

72.

(B)

(B)

75.

(B)

150 Hz

(C)

100 Hz

(D) 50 Hz

180 kHz

(C)

120 kHz

(C)

If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 0.5, the transmitted power

increases by

(B)

25 %

(C)

50 %

(D) 100 %

(C)

800 Hz

(D) 1200 Hz

!"# $

$

!"# %
$

$

(B)

is given by

600 Hz

In a Pulse Coded Modulated(PCM) signal sampled at fs and encoded into an n-bit code,

the minimum bandwidth required for faithful reconstruction is

(A) 2nfs

(B)

nfs/2

(C)

nfs

(D) fs

In a digital communication system employing Frequency Shift Keying (FSK) the 0 and 1

bits are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25 kHz respectively. These waveforms

will be orthogonal for a bit interval of

(A) 45 s

79.

(B)

(A) 400 Hz

78.

s(t) =

77.

A DSP convolves each discrete sample with four coefficients and they are equal to 0.25.

This must be an

(A) 12.5 %

76.

|z| >

maximum modulation frequency is 15 kHz. The bandwidth is closest to

(A) 60 kHz

74.

(C)

A digital filter has the transfer function H(z) = + 1/ + 0.81. If this filter has to reject

50 Hz interference from the input, then the sampling frequency of the input should be

(A) 200 Hz

73.

|z| < 2

(B)

50 s

(C)

200 s

(D) 250 s

(C)

PCM signal

(A) FM signal

Set - A

(B)

PAM signal

10

EI

80.

(A) enhance the information transmission rate

(B)

(C)

81.

In Kelvin double bridge two sets of readings are taken when measuring a low resistance,

one with the current in one direction and the other with direction of current reversed.

This is done to

(A) eliminate the effect of contact resistance

(B)

(C)

82.

83.

(A) the measurand

(B)

(C)

(A)

(C)

84.

(W1 W2 )

(W1 + W2 )

(W1 W2 )

W1 + W2

(B)

W1 + W2

(D)

(W1 W2 )

W1 + W2

A DC ammeter has a resistance of 0.1 and its current range is 0-100 A. If the range of

the ammeter is to extend to 0-500 A the meter requires which of the following shunt

resistance ?

(A) 0.010

85.

(B)

0.025

(C)

0.011

(D) 1.0

A coil has been designed for high Q performance at a rated voltage and a specified

frequency. If the frequency of operation is doubled and the coil is operated at the same

voltage, then the Q factor and the active power P consumed by the coil will be affected as

(A) P is doubled and Q is halved

(B)

(C)

Set - A

11

EI

86.

(A) eliminating the effects of inter-component capacitances

(B) shielding the bridge elements

(C) eliminating the effect of earth capacitances

(D) eliminating the effect of stray electrostatic fields

87.

(A) low Q coils

(B) medium Q coils

(C) high Q coils

(D) low and medium Q coils

88.

The deflection of an electron beam on CRT screen is 10 mm. Suppose the pre-accelerating

anode voltage is halved and the potential between deflecting plates is doubled, the

deflection of the electron beam will be

(A) 80 mm

(B) 40 mm

(C) 20 mm

(D) 10 mm

89.

The resonant frequency of an RLC series circuit is 1.5 MHz with the tuning capacitors

set at 150 pF. The bandwidth is 10 kHz. The effective resistance of the circuit is

(A) 4.7

(B) 9.4

(C) 14.75

(D) 29.5

90.

An average reading digital multimeter reads 10 V when fed with a triangular wave,

symmetric about the time axis. For the same input an rms reading meter will read

(A) 20 3

91.

(B)

10 3

(A) dynamo meter

(C) moving coil meter

(C)

20 3

(D) 10 3

(D) moving iron meter

92.

A 53 Hz reed type frequency meter is polarized with D.C. voltage. The new range of

frequency meter is

(A) 106 Hz

(B) 26.5 Hz

(C) 53 Hz

(D) 212 Hz

93.

Light load adjustments for induction type energy meters are usually done at

(A) 10% of full load current

(B) 5% of full load current

(C) 50 % of full load current

(D) 1% of full load current

94.

frequency of the square wave generated by it is

(A) 924 Hz

(B) 593 Hz

(C) 693 Hz

(D) 110 Hz

Set - A

12

EI

95.

A transfer function has two zeros at infinity. Then the relation between the numerator

degree (N) and denominator degree (M) of the transfer function is

(A) N = M + 2

(B) N = M 2

(C) N = M +1

(D) N = M 1

96.

G(s) H(s) =

&

(A) 6 dB

(B)

Zero

(C)

3.5 dB

(D) 6 dB

97.

An amplifier with resistive negative feedback has two left half plane poles in its openloop transfer function. The amplifier

(A) will be stable for all frequencies

(B) will always be unstable at high frequencies

(C) may be unstable, depending on the feedback factor

(D) will oscillate at low frequencies

98.

The proportional gain (K) of a PID controller can be expressed in terms of its

Proportional Band (PB) as

(A) PB

(B) 100 PB

(C) PB / 100

(D) 100 / PB

99.

The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer

'

function G(s) = is

(A) 15

(B)

30

(C)

45

(D) 60

100.

In the Bode plot of a unity feedback control system, the value of phase of G(jw) at the

gain crossover frequency is 120. The phase margin of the system is

(A) 120

(B) 60

(C) 60

(D) 120

101.

(A) a PI controller can be used

(B) an integral controller can be used

(C) a PID controller with large I and negligible D action can be used

(D) a PD controller can be used

102.

is oscillating at a frequency of Pu = 8 Hz. The Zeigler-Nichols setting for the proportional

controller is

(A) 5

(B) 10

(C) 8

(D) 1.25

Set - A

13

EI

103.

input single output system : x' =Ax + Bu, y = Cx + Du.

Which one of the following statements about the transfer function cannot be true if D 0 ?

(A) The system is unstable.

(B) The system is strictly proper.

(C) The system is low pass.

(D) The system is of type zero.

104.

Which of the following is commonly used to convert the angular position of shaft into an

electric signal ?

(A) Servo motor (B) Synchros

(C) Stepper motor (D) LVDT

105.

(I) Rule base

(II) Fuzzification

(III) Fuzzy inference

(IV) Defuzzification

(A) I-II-III-IV

(B) II-I-IV-III

(C) II-I-III-IV

(D) I-III-II-IV

106.

(A) On-Off control

(B) Proportional

(C) Derivative

(D) Integral

107.

A step index optical fiber, whose refractive indices of the core and cladding are 1.44 and

1.40 respectively, is surrounded by air. Its numerical aperture is

(A) 0.12

(B) 0.75

(C) 0.06

(D) 0.34

108.

Infrared spectrometry is used for the determination of the molecular structure of the

molecules having

(A) Ionic bonds

(B) Covalent bonds

(C) Metallic bonds

(D) Hydrogen bonds

109.

Find the distance between two successive positions of the movable mirror of Michelson

interferometer giving best fringes in the case of sodium source with lines of = 5890

and 5896 .

(A) 289 nm

(B) 282 nm

(C) 280 nm

(D) 308 nm

110.

What is the shortest wavelength of X-rays produced in an X-ray tube with accelerating

potential as 70 kV ?

(A) 0.015

(B) 0.018

(C) 0.017

(D) 0.019

111.

599.9 nm and 600.1 nm. The required resolution is

(A) 100

(B) 500

(C) 1000

(D) 3000

Set - A

14

EI

112.

A photo diode made of Ga-As has a band gap of 1.43 eV. Find the wavelength at which

it will start to operate

(B) 0.87 m

(C) 0.73 m

(D) 0.84 m

(A) 0.68 m

113.

The time interval between two successive R peaks in ECG is 0.8 s. Then, the heart rate is

(A) 12.5 bpm

(B) 72 bpm

(C) 60 bpm

(D) 75 bpm

114.

medium is called

(A) pumping

(B) optical resonator

(C) Q-switching

(D) trimming

115.

1 th

If half life of the radioactive radon is 3.8 days, then time at the end of which 20 of the

radon sample will remain undecayed is

(A) 3.8 days

(B) 16.5 days

(C) 33 days

(D) 76 days

116.

A He-Ne laser emit light of wavelength 672.8 nm has an output power of 2.3 mW/s.

How many photons are emitted each minute by the laser ?

(B) 4.2 1016 photons/min

(A) 4.6 1017 photons/min

(D) 5.6 1017 photons/min

(C) 9.8 1016 photons/min

117.

The cardiac output is measured with the help of indicator dilution method. The quantity

of indicator injected is 20 mg and the area under the die dilution curve is found to be

180 mg s/L. Find the cardiac output.

(A) 8.66 L/min (B) 8 L/min

(C) 6.66 L/min (D) 6 L/min

118.

(A) 1-D image

(B) 2-D image

(C) 3-D image

(D) All the above

119.

(A) as a reference for sound level measurement

(B) for studying heart muscle functioning

(C) for study of heart valve functioning

(D) for blood pressure measurement

120.

In an electromagnetic blood flow meter, the induced voltage is directly proportional to the

(A) square root of the blood flow rate

(B) blood flow rate

(C) square of the blood flow rate

(D) logarithm of the blood flow rate

__________

Set - A

15

EI

Set - A

16

EI

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

SET-A

A

41

81

D

B

42

82

A

C

43

83

C

C

44

84

A

C

45

85

B

C

46

86

A

B

47

87

D

C

48

88

A

A

49

89

C

C

50

90

D

51

91

B

B

52

92

C

C

53

93

C

A

54

94

A

B

55

95

D

D

56

96

B

D

57

97

A

B

58

98

C

C

59

99

D

B

60

100

B

A

61

101

C

D

62

102

A

B

63

103

A

C

64

104

B

A

65

105

C

B

66

106

D

B

67

107

B

D

68

108

A

A

69

109

C

C

70

110

C

A

71

111

B

A

72

112

D

D

73

113

A

B

74

114

C

C

75

115

B

A

76

116

D

D

77

117

A

B

78

118

C

C

79

119

C

A

80

120

D

A

D

C

A

B

D

C

B

B

A

D

C

A

B

C

C

B

A

D

B

C

D

A

A

B

C

D

D

B

A

C

D

B

D

A

B

A

C

C

D

B

Booklet No. :

A

SET

ME - 15

Mechanical Engineering

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

ME-15-A

1.

2.

1

(A) | A | 1

(B) | A |< n

(C) | A |= 0

(D) A exists

8 6 2

2 4 3

1

2

1

2

1

(A)

(B)

(C) 1

1

1

2

(D)

1

2

2

3.

p

p

(A)

(B)

l+m+n

l 2 + m2 + n 2

1

(C)

(D) 0

l 2 + m2 + n 2

4.

If C is the ellipse

(A)

5.

7.

1

sin 2 x is

D 4

1 2

1

sin x

+ cos2 x

(B)

4

8

The value of

(A)

6.

ab

x2 y2

1

+ 2 = 1 , then the value of (xdy ydx) is

2

2 c

a

b

ab

(B)

(C) ab 2

(D) a 2 b

2

1

1

(A)

(B)

3

( s 2)

( s + 2)3

The residue of the function f ( z ) =

(A)

Set - A

5

9

(B)

1

2

(C)

none

(D)

1 1

(1) + cos2 x

8 16

(C)

2

( s 2) 3

(D)

2

( s + 2)3

z2

at the pole z = 2 is

( z 1)2 ( z + 2)

4

(C)

(D) 0

9

ME

8.

If a random variable X has the PDF f ( x) = (1 p) x 1 p, x = 1, 2,.. and 0 < p < 1 .Then the

mean of X is

(A) p + 1

(B) p 2 + p

(C) p

(D) 1

9.

mean 2.0. The probability that the computer will function for a month without a

breakdown is

0.2

0.2

(A) e

(B) e

(C) 0.2

(D) 0

10.

(A)

f ( xn ) f ( xn ) f ( xn )

(C)

f ( xn ) > 1

f ( xn )

is

f ( xn )

(B)

f ( xn ) < 1

(D)

f ( xn ) f ( xn ) f ( xn )

11.

(A) At the point of contact

(B) On the common tangent at the point of contact

(C) On the common normal at the point of contact

(D) At infinity

12.

speed. The tension in the string will be

(A) Maximum at the point of contact

(B) Minimum when the stone is at half way down from the top

(C) Maximum when the stone is quarter way down from the top

(D) Maximum at the bottom of the circle

13.

A wheel of mass m and radius r is in accelerated rolling motion without slipping under a

steady torque T. If the co-efficient of friction between the two surfaces is , then the

normal force acting on the surface by the wheel is

T

(A) 0

(B) mg

(C) r

(D) T

14.

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) Infinite

15.

An automobile of mass m accelerates uniformly starting from rest. If the engine supplies

constant power P, which of the following relations is correct ?

(A)

16.

(B)

(C)

(D)

A ball of mass of 102 kg strikes on a wall and returns back in the same direction. If its

speed changes from 20 m/s to 10 m/s, the magnitude of impulse acting on the bullet is

(A) 0.1 Ns

(B) 0.3 Ns

(C) 30 Ns

(D) 1 Ns

Set - A

ME

17.

A swinging pendulum eventually stops because its energy is finally converted into

(A) Kinetic energy

(B) Heat energy

(C) Potential energy

(D) Electromagnetic energy

18.

A solid sphere of mass M, rolling down an inclined plane has a velocity v along the plane.

Total kinetic energy will be

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19.

(A) Homogeneous material

(B) Isotropic material

(C) Elastic material

(D) Crystalline material

20.

(A) Strain energy (B) Hysterisis

(C) Resilience

(D) Toughness

21.

(A) Cannot be determined

(B) Infinite

(C) 1

(D) Zero

22.

If a shaft is rotating at N rpm with a Torque T Nm, the power transmitted to the shaft in

Watts is

(A)

23.

(B)

diagram is

(A) rectangle

(B)

(C)

(D)

dM

= constant for the whole length. The shape of the shear force

dx

triangle

(C)

parabola

(D) hyperbola

24.

What is the ratio of longitudinal strain to hoop strain in terms of Poissons ratio (1/m)

m2

m2

2m 2

2m + 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2m + 1

2m 1

m 1

m 1

25.

A bar of circular cross section has a uniformly varying diameter from D to 2D. If

extension in the bar due to a tensile force is calculated assuming it as a cylindrical bar of

mean diameter, the Percentage error in the calculation will be close to

(A) 10

(B) 25

(C) 33

(D) 50

26.

elasticity is

E

E

E

E

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2

3

4

5

Set - A

ME

27.

A solid shaft of diameter 100 mm, length 100 mm is subjected to a torque T. The

maximum shear stress developed in the shaft is 60 N/mm2. If a through hole of 50 mm

diameter is made throughout the length of the shaft, What must be the torque applied to

keep the shear stress same as before ?

15T

3T

11T

7T

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

16

4

12

8

28.

The component of acceleration parallel to the velocity of the particle, at a given instant is

(A) Radial component

(B) Tangential component

(C) Coriolis component

(D) Net acceleration

29.

If the ratio of length of connecting rod to the crank radius increases, then

(A) Primary unbalanced forces will increase

(B) Primary unbalanced forces will decrease

(C) Secondary unbalanced forces will increase

(D) Secondary unbalanced forces will decrease

30.

A body of mass m and radius of gyration k is replaced by two masses m1 and m2 located at

distances h1 and h2 from the center of gravity of the original body. The condition for an

equivalent dynamic system is

(A) h1 + h2 = k

(B) h12 + h22 = k 2 (C) h1h2 = k 2

(D)

h1h2 = k 2

31.

The speed of an engine with a fly wheel varies from 210 rad/s to 190 rad/s. If the

corresponding change in Kinetic energy is 400 Nm, the inertia of the flywheel is

(A) 0.10 kgm2

(B) 0.20 kgm2

(C) 0.30 kgm2

(D) 0.40 kgm2

32.

In a 4 stroke IC engine, the turning moment diagram during the compression stroke is

(A) Positive throughout

(B) Negative throughout

(C) Positive during major portion of the stroke

(D) Negative during major portion of the stroke

33.

The number of pairs of teeth in contact in a gear and pinion if arc of contact is 31.4 mm

and module is 5 are

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 2

(D) 5

34.

The degrees of freedom of a planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute joints is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

35.

For an involute gear, the ratio of base circle diameter to pitch circle diameter is ( is the

pressure angle)

(A) cos

(B) sin

(C) cosec

(D) sec

36.

The ratio of maximum damping co-efficient to the critical damping co-efficient is called

(A) Magnification factor

(B) Logarithmic decrement

(C) Damping factor

(D) Damping co-efficient

Set - A

ME

= 2 , where = forced vibration frequency and

n

n = natural frequency, then transmissibility is

(A) >1

(B) <1

(C) =1

(D) 0

37.

38.

(A) Non-homogenity of shaft materials (B) Mis-alignment of bearings

(C) Fluctuation of speed

(D) Internal damping

39.

is

(A) 7 Hz

(B)

49 Hz

(C)

d2x

+ 49 x = 0 , the natural frequency

dt 2

7 Hz

(D) 9 Hz

40.

A system with natural frequency 100 Hz has a damping factor of 0.6. The frequency of the

damped system is

(A) 60Hz

(B) 80Hz

(C) 100Hz

(D) cannot be determined

41.

In a forced vibration system with viscous damping, the amplitude is maximum when

(A) Forced frequency is equal to natural frequency

(B) Forced frequency is slightly less than natural frequency

(C) Forced frequency is slightly greater than natural frequency

(D) zero

42.

If the static deflection of a shaft with a flywheel is 4 mm. Considering acceleration due to

gravity is 10 m/s2, the critical speed in rad/s is

(A) 50

(B) 20

(C) 10

(D) 5

43.

A single degree of freedom spring mass damper system is undergoing critically damped

vibrations. If mass is 5 kg and stiffness of spring is 20 N/m, the viscous damping

co-efficient is

(A) 10 Ns/m

(B) 20 Ns/m

(C) 4 Ns/m

(D) 8 Ns/m

44.

(A) at elastic limit

(C) at yield point

(D) below yield point

45.

Which of the following relation results in a conservative estimate with same factor of

safety ?

(A) Gerber relation

(B) Soderberg relation

(C) Goodman relation

(D) Euler relation

46.

(A) Twisting moment

(B) Bending moment

(C) Axial and compressive load

(D) Only compressive load

Set - A

ME

47.

(A) Coplanar and non-parallel shafts

(C) Co-planar and parallel shafts

(D) Non-coplanar and parallel shafts

48.

(A) Length, width and load

(B) Length, width and speed

(C) Viscosity, speed and load

(D) Viscosity, speed and bearing pressure

49.

While deriving Lewis equation, it is assumed that tangential tooth load acts on the

(A) Pitch point

(B) Tip of the tooth

(C) Root of the tooth

(D) Whole face of the tooth

50.

(A) Torsional stresses only

(B) Bending stresses only

(C) Constant bending and varying torsional stresses

(D) Varying bending and constant torsional stress

51.

(A) m2/s

(B) m/s2

(C)

Ns/m2

(D) N/m2

52.

A lubricating oil of viscosity 10 Poise is filled between two parallel plates that are 0.5 cm

apart. If the relative velocity between the plates is 2 m/s, then shear stress developed in

lubricating oil is

(A) 20 N/m2

(B) 200 N/m2

(C) 40 N/m2

(D) 400 N/m2

53.

What is the pressure inside a soap bubble over the atmospheric pressure, if the diameter is

1 cm ?

(A) 0.2 N/m2

(B) 0.1 N/m2

(C) 20 N/m2

(D) 10 N/m2

54.

The density of a liquid changes from 250 kg/m2 to 251 kg/m2, when the pressure on the

liquid changes from 4 MPa to 4.5 MPa. What is the average value of bulk modulus of the

liquid over the given pressure range ?

(A) 250 MPa

(B) 125 MPa

(C) 62.5 MPa

(D) 12 MPa

55.

A tank with four equal vertical faces of width w and height h is filled with a liquid. If the

force on any vertical side is equal to the force at the bottom, the value of h/t is

(A) 2

(B) 1.414

(C) 1

(D) 0.5

56.

Buoyant force is

(A) Lateral force acting on a submerged body

(B) Resultant force acting on a submerged body

(C) Vertical force acting on a body due to fluid surrounding it

(D) Vertical force acting on a submerged body

Set - A

ME

57.

(A) Velocity of flow

(B) Pipe diameter

(C) Type of fluid flowing

(D) Pipe condition and diameter

58.

For flow through a horizontal pipe, the pressure gradient opposite to the flow direction is

(A) Positive

(B) Negative

(C) Cannot be determined

(D) Depends on the fluid properties

59.

(A) Hydraulic grade line slopes upwards meeting the energy grade line at the exit of

flow.

(B) Energy grade line lies above the hydraulic grade line and they are separated from

each other by a vertical distance equal to velocity head.

(C) Hydraulic grade line and energy grade line are same.

(D) The hydraulic grade line slopes upwards meeting the energy grade at the exit of flow.

60.

50 Hz. If the alternator has 12 poles, the turbine should be regulated to run at which of the

following speeds ?

(A) 250 rpm

(B) 500 rpm

(C) 600 rpm

(D) 1000 rpm

61.

conductivity 0.1 W/mK. If the convective heat transfer co-efficient with the ambient

atmosphere is 5 W/m2K, the critical radius of insulation is

(A) 2 cm

(B) 4 cm

(C) 8 cm

(D) 50 cm

62.

T = 5 5 x + 5 x 2 + 15 x 3 (in oC) where x (in m) is the distance from one face of the wall. If

the slab material has thermal diffusivity of 2 10 3 m2/hr. The rate of change of

temperature at the other face of the wall is

(A) 0.1 C/hr

(B) 0.2 C/hr

(C) 0.3 C/hr

(D) 0.4 C/hr

63.

(A) Heat transfer is constant with respect to time

(B) Heat transfer is constant with respect to position

(C) The heat transfer is very negligible in the direction perpendicular to heat flow

(D) Heat transfer is very negligible in the direction of heat flow

64.

hA

hA

hA

=1

>1

<1

(A)

(B)

(C)

kP

kP

kP

65.

(D)

1<

hA

<2

kP

A stagnant liquid film of 0.4 mm thickness is held between two parallel plates. The top

plate is maintained at 40 C and the bottom plate is maintained at 30 C. If the thermal

conductivity of the liquid is 0.14 W/mK then the steady state heat flux (in W/m2)

assuming one dimensional heat transfer is

(A) 3.5

(B) 350

(C) 3500

(D) 7000

Set - A

ME

66.

Grashoffs number is

thermal diffusivity

(A)

mass diffusivity

(C)

buoyancy force

viscous force

(B)

sensible heat

latent heat

(D)

inertial force

surface tension force

67.

If the temperature of a solid surface changes from 27 C to 327 C, its emissive power

will increase in the ratio of

(A) 2 :1

(B) 4 :1

(C) 8 :1

(D) 16 :1

68.

1

(A) Product of emissivity of surface and

1

(C) Product of emissive power of surface and

69.

(A) 2 radians (B) radians

70.

(C)

2 steradians (D)

Flow configuration does not matter in a heat exchanger if

1. A liquid is evaporating

2. A vapour is condensing

3. Mass flow rate of one of the fluid is far greater

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3

steradians

(D) 1, 2 and 3

71.

In a new temperature scale, the boiling point and freezing point of water are given as 100

units and 300 units respectively. The reading of 0 units on the new scale corresponds to

(A) 0 C

(B) 50 C

(C) 100 C

(D) 150 C

72.

For a mixture of solid, liquid and vapour phase of a pure substance, the number of

intrinsic properties needed to describe the state are

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

73.

The amount of thermodynamic work to be done to inflate a balloon of volume 1m3 with an

internal pressure of 105 Pa. The amount of work done upon the atmosphere by the balloon

is

(A) 0

(B) 100 J

(C) 1 kJ

(D) 50 kJ

Set - A

ME

74.

An ideal gas expands isothermally from volume V1 to V2 and then compressed to original

volume V1 adiabatically. If initial pressure is P1 and final pressure is P3 and total work

done by the gas is W, then

(A) P3>P1, W>0 (B) P3<P1, W<0 (C) P3>P1, W<0 (D) P3=P1, W=0

75.

Air with enthalpy of 100 kJ/kg is compressed to a pressure and temperature where

enthalpy becomes 200 kJ/kg. The loss of heat from compressor is 40 kJ/kg. Neglecting

kinetic and potential energies, the energy required for air flow rate of 0.5 kg/s is

(A) 30 kW

(B) 50 kW

(C) 70 kW

(D) 90 kW

76.

If the time taken by a system to execute a process through a finite gradient is infinitely

large, the process

(A) becomes reversible

(B) remain irreversible

(C) become isothermal

(D) is adiabatic

77.

A Carnot cycle operates between two temperatures T1 and T2 (T1> T2). If 1 is the Carnot

efficiency when T1 is raised by T and 2 is the Carnot efficiency when T2 is decreased

by T , then which of the following is correct ?

(A) 1 = 2

(B) 1 > 2

(C) 1 < 2

(D) Unpredictable

78.

800 K and 8 kJ from another heat source at a temperature of 600 K. If it rejects heat at a

temperature of 100 K, the thermal efficiency of the engine is equal to

(A) 65%

(B) 75%

(C) 80%

(D) 85%

79.

the heat input into the engine for each MJ of energy removed from the cold body ?

(A) 420 kJ

(B) 567.89 kJ

(C) 666.67 kJ

(D) 778.46 kJ

80.

Find the loss of available energy associated with the transfer of 1000 kJ of heat from a

constant temperature system of 600 K to another at 400 K, when the atmospheric

temperature is 300 K

(A) 100 kJ

(B) 150 kJ

(C) 200 kJ

(D) 250 kJ

81.

1kg of water at room temperature is brought into contact with a high temperature thermal

reservoir. The entropy change in the universe is

(A) always positive

(B) equal to entropy change in the reservoir

(C) equal to zero

(D) equal to entropy change of water

Set - A

10

ME

82.

For a system existing at a constant volume and constant temperature, which of the

following parameter is criterion for equilibrium and stability of the system ?

(A) Entropy

(B) Gibbs function

(C) Helmholtz function

(D) Internal energy

83.

Saturated liquid at a higher pressure P1 having hf1 = 1000 kJ/kg is throttled to a lower

pressure P2. The enthalpy of saturated liquid and saturated vapour is 800 kJ/kg and

2800 kJ/kg respectively. The dryness fraction of vapour after throttling is

(A) 0.1

(B) 0.2

(C) 0.8

(D) 0.9

84.

(A) Pressure inside the boiler increases

(B) Heat is added before steam enters the low pressure turbine

(C) Average temperature of heat addition in the boiler increases

(D) Total work delivered by the turbine increases

85.

(A) Improve thermal efficiency

(B) Decrease moisture content in low stage to a safe value

(C) Decreases the capacity of the condenser

(D) Remove the waste heat of boiler

86.

(A) Hardness

(B) Ductility and strength in tension

(C) Corrosion resistance

(D) Creep resistance

87.

(A) = = = 90o

(B) = = 90o

(C)

= = 90o

(D)

90o

88.

(A) HSS

(B) Aluminium (C) Pure iron

(D) Stellite

89.

(A) Fatigue strength

(B) Work hardening

(C) Fracture strength

(D) Elastic constant

90.

(A) The closeness with which the measurement can be read directly from a measuring

instrument

(B) Difference between measured values and actual values

(C) Capacity to indicate the same reading again and again for a given measurement

(D) The smallest change that can be measured

Set - A

11

ME

91.

(A) Greater than the upper limit of hole

(B) Lesser than the upper limit of the hole

(C) Greater than the lower limit of the hole

(D) Lesser than the lower limit of the hole

92.

mm, has a mating shaft with clearance fit of minimum

0.000

clearance of 0.01mm. The tolerance on the shaft is 0.04. The maximum clearance in mm

between hole and shaft is

(A) 0.04

(B) 0.05

(C) 0.10

(D) 0.11

93.

(A) Slush casting

(C) Centrifugal casting

(D) Investment casting

94.

(A) Carbon content of molten metal

(B) Melting temperature of molten metal

(C) Inoculants addition

(D) Pouring temperature of molten metal

95.

(A) Less chance of gas porosity

(B) Uniform flow of molten metal in to the mould cavity

(C) Greater dimensional stability in casting

(D) Less sand expansion type casting defect

96.

A spherical molten metal drop of radius 4 mm was found to solidify in 10 seconds. A drop

of 8 mm will solidify in

(A) 14.14 s

(B) 20 s

(C) 18.30 s

(D) 40 s

97.

A rolling mill requires 30 kW per roll. Assuming a power loss of 5 kW, the total power

required for the mill is

(A) 35 kW

(B) 25 kW

(C) 65 kW

(D) 55 kW

98.

(A) Causes a steadily applied pressure instead of impact force

(B) Used to force the end of a heated bar into a desired shape

(C) Two halves of rotating die open and close rapidly while impacting the end of the

heated tube or shell

(D) Reduced diameter of a bar and in the process making it longer

Set - A

12

ME

99.

(A) Near plastic stage temperature

(B) Below recrystallization temperature

(C) Above recrystallization temperature

(D) Above Curie temperature

(A) Spinning

(B) Shot peening (C) Hemming

(D) Lancing

101. In an arc welding operation, the voltage and current are 25 V and 300 A respectively.

If the arc heat transfer efficiency is 0.85 and welding speed 8 mm/s, the net heat input

(in J/mm) is

(A) 64

(B) 797

(C) 1103

(D) 79700

102. Drooping characteristics are used in manual welding operation to

(A) keep voltage constant when arc length changes

(B) Current constant when arc length changes

(C) Temperature in the arc constant

(D) Weld pool red-hot

103. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) No flux is used in gas welding of mild steel

(B) Borax is the commonly used flux coating on welding electrodes

(C) Laser beam welding employs a vacuum chamber and thus avoids use of a shielding

method

(D) Alternating current can be used for GTAW process

104. Too low welding current in arc welding would result in

(A) Excessive piling up of weld metal, poor penetration, wasted electrodes

(B) Excessive spatter, under cutting along edges, irregular deposits, wasted electrodes

(C) Too small bead, weak weld and wasted electrodes

(D) Excessive piling up of weld metal, over planning without penetration of edges,

wasted electrodes

105. In a turning operation, if feed is doubled, to keep the same surface finish, the nose radius

should be

(A) Halved

(B) Kept unchanged

(C) Doubled

(D) Made four times

106. Which of the following statements about EDM are correct ?

(A) No relative motion occurs between tool and workpiece

(B) No tool wear occurs

(C) No power is consumed during metal cutting

(D) No direct contact occurs between tool and workpiece

Set - A

13

ME

107. If is the shear angle, is the friction angle and is the rake angle, which of the

following statements is correct according to Merchants analysis ?

(A) 2 + 2 =

(B) 2 + =

4

2

(C) 2 + 2 =

(D) 2 + =

4

4

108. Which of the following property is not a characteristic of Ceramic tools ?

(A) High hardness

(B) High compressive strength

(C) High thermal conductivity

(D) High brittleness

109. The demand and forecast for February are 12000 and 10275 respectively. Using single

exponential smoothening method, forecast for the month of March is (smoothening

co-efficient = 0.25)

(A) 431

(B) 9587

(C) 10706

(D) 13000

110. In forecasting using moving average method, the number of periods of data is independent

of

(A) Criteria of accuracy

(B) Impulse response

(C) Noise damping

(D) Total number of sales

111. Market demand for springs is 8,00,000 per annum. A company purchases these springs in

lots and sells them. The cost of making a purchase order is ` 1200. The cost of storage of

springs is ` 120 per stored piece per annum. The Economic order Quantity is

(A) 400

(B) 2828

(C) 4000

(D) 8000

112. Which of the following is a correct statement for graphical method in linear programming ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

One of the corner points of the feasible region is not the optimum solution

Any point in the positive quadrant does not satisfy the non-negativity constraint

The lines corresponding to different values of objective functions are parallel

113. For a standard transportation linear program with m sources and n destinations and total

supply equaling total demand, an optimal solution (lowest cost) with the smallest number

of non-zero xij values (amounts from source i to destination j) is desired. The best upper

bound for this number is

(A)

Set - A

mn

(B)

2 ( m + n)

(C)

14

m+n

(D)

m + n 1

ME

114. The expected time in an activity is based on the assumption that activity follows

(A) Poisson distribution

(B) Binomial distribution

(C) Beta distribution

(D) Alpha distribution

115. A maintenance facility has Poisson arrival rates, negative exponential service time and

operates on a first come first serve queue method. Break downs occur on an average of 3

per day with a range of 0 to 8. The maintenance crew can service and average of 6

machines per day with a range of 0 to 7. The mean waiting time for an item to be serviced

would be

1

1

(A)

day

(B)

day

(C) 1 day

(D) 3 days

6

3

116. A manufacturing firm has a fixed cost of ` 18,000. The variable cost consists of ` 8 per

unit and selling price is ` 13. Find the number of pieces to be produced to break even

(A) 1800

(B) 2400

(C) 3600

(D) 5400

117. In an assembly line when workstation times are unequal, the overall production rate of an

assembly line is determined by the

(A) Fastest station time

(B) Slowest station time

(C) Average station time

(D) Average of slowest and fastest station times

118. There are five jobs which are to be processed on a workpiece in a sheet metal shop. The

processing times for each of them are given below :

Job

A

B C

D E

Processing time

4

17 14

19 11

According to shortest processing time rule, the average number of jobs in the system each

day is

(A) 1.23

(B) 2.44

(C) 3.89

(D) 4.84

119. What are the key functions of a master schedule ?

(1) To generate material and capacity requirements

(2) To maintain valid priorities

(3) An effective capacity utilization

(4) Planning the quantity and timing of output over the intermediate time horizons

Select the correct answers from the above options

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

120. Which of the following layout is suitable for low demand and high variety product ?

(A) Group layout

(B) Process layout

(C) Product layout

(D) Static layout

_____________

Set - A

15

ME

Set - A

16

ME

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

SET-A

C

41

B

81

D

42

A

82

A

43

B

83

A

44

D

84

D

45

B

85

C

46

B

86

C

47

A

87

C

48

D

88

B

49

B

89

A

50

C

90

A

51

C

91

D

52

D

92

C

53

C

93

B

54

B

94

C

55

A

95

C

56

D

96

B

57

B

97

C

58

A

98

B

59

B

99

C

60

B

100

A

61

A

101

A

62

B

102

B

63

A

103

B

64

C

104

A

65

C

105

B

66

C

106

A

67

D

107

B

68

C

108

D

69

C

109

C

70

A

110

A

71

D

111

B

72

A

112

C

73

A

113

C

74

C

114

A

75

C

115

C

76

A

116

A

77

C

117

A

78

D

118

C

79

C

119

B

80

D

120

A

B

A

C

B

B

B

B

D

C

A

B

D

D

C

D

D

B

D

B

B

B

D

A

D

D

D

C

C

D

C

A

D

C

A

C

B

B

B

B

Booklet No. :

A

SET

MT - 15

Metallurgy

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

MT-15-A

METALLURGY (MT)

1.

are consistent is

(A) 3

(B) 2

(C) 0

(D) None

2.

The necessary and sufficient condition that the linear system of equations AX = B is

consistent when

(A) Rank ( AB) > Rank ( A)

(B) Rank ( AB) = Rank ( A)

(C)

3.

(D) None

(A) odd function

(C) neither even nor odd function

4.

The series

n =1

(D) discontinuous function

1

n2 + 1

(A) converges

(C) diverges

(D) oscillatory

5.

If 1 and 2 are normals to the surfaces 1 and 2 , then the angle between the

surfaces is

1.2

1. 2

(A) cos1

(B) tan1

| 1 || 2|

| 1 || 2|

(C) 0

(D) 90

6.

C

(A)

(C)

7.

(B)

2 Fds

(D) 0

(A)

Set - A

.Fds

x

cos x

2

F .nds

1

cos x is

(D + 2 )

(B)

x

sin x

2

(C)

2

sin x

(D)

cos x

MT

8.

9.

(A)

M N

=

x

y

(B)

(C)

M N

=

y

x

(D) None

If the mean and variance of a binomially distributed random variable are 3 and 2

respectively, then its probability distribution function is

2

(A) b(9, 3)

10.

11.

(B)

13.

1

b(12, 3)

(C)

1

b(9, 3)

(D) None

h

f ( xk , yk )

2

(A)

yk +1 = yk +

(C)

yk +1 = yk + hf ( xk , yk )

(B)

yk +1 = y0

(D)

None

h

f ( xk , yk )

2

(A) one Faraday (B)

12.

xM ( x, y ) + y N ( x, y) = 0

one Amp

(A) Electroplating

(B)

(C)

Electro polishing

Electro refining

Self diffusion

(A) is the migration of atoms in pure metals

(B)

(C)

14.

(A) slowest step of the deposition

(B)

(C)

Set - A

MT

15.

(A) Nickel

(B) Stainless steel

(C) Lead

(D) Aluminum

16.

(A) depletion of C

(C) depletion of Ni

(B) depletion of Cr

(D) increase of C

17.

(A) Zn gets deposited first

(B) both Zn and Cd get deposited

(C) Cd gets deposited initially

(D) no deposition occurs

18.

(A) cold worked

(B) cold worked and annealed

(C) solution quenched above 980 C (D) solution quenched below 980 C

19.

(A) low melting point

(B) high vapour pressure

(C) high electrical conductivity

(D) good adherence

20.

1

(A) G against T

(C)

21.

22.

23.

1

G against T 0.5

In an adiabatic process

(A) enthalpy remains constant

(C) heat transfer is zero

(B)

1

G against T 2

(D) G against T

(D) temperature

(A) RTlnK

(B) RlnK

(C) RTlnK

(D) RlnK

(A) volume

(B) chemical potential

(C) vapour pressure

(D) partial pressure

Set - A

MT

24.

25.

(A) heat capacity

(B)

(C)

When a gas in a vessel expands, its internal energy decreases. The process involved is

(A) adiabatic

26.

chemical potential

(B)

irreversible

(C)

isothermal

(D) reversible

(A) decreases

(B)

remains unaffected

(C)

increases

27.

28.

(A) decreases in total pressure

(B)

(C)

(A) ln 2/k

29.

30.

k/2

(C)

ln k/2

(D) ln 0.5/k

(A) slow

(B)

(C)

(D) non-spontaneous

always spontaneous

fast

(B)

Brick

(C)

Copper

(D) Water

(A) creeping

32.

(B)

(A) Air

31.

(B)

(D) turbulent

The ratio of the actual mesh dimensions of Taylors series to that of the next smaller

screen is

(A) 2

Set - A

(B)

(C)

5

1.5

(D) 2.5

MT

33.

(A) Carbonate ores (B)

34.

35.

37.

(B)

(C)

Arrhenius diagrams

(B)

(B)

(C)

(D) electrolytic

42.

(D) 30%

fire

fractional distillation

(B)

Zn

(C)

Ni

(D) Sn

(B)

Zirconium

(C)

Zinc

(D) Nickel

(C)

41.

35%

40.

Pourbaix diagrams

Flash smelting process is autogenous when the combustant contains about ____ Oxygen

(A) Lead

39.

(A) Pb

38.

Quartzite

(A) 20%

36.

(B)

H2SO4

ferrous ions

(A) activity

(B)

(C)

density

liquidus temperature

(A) spherical

(B)

(C)

(D) cubical

cylindrical

semi-spherical

Anode effect occurs in an electrolytic cell when normal Al2O3 level from _____ drops to

below 1%.

(A) 6-10%

Set - A

(B)

18-26%

(C)

6

27-32%

MT

43.

Nickel is produced directly from nickel mattes through the following converter :

(A) Peirce-Smith (B)

44.

47.

48.

(D)

LD

(B)

iron ore

(C)

sinter

(D) coke

(A) lime stone

46.

(C)

(A) flux

45.

Hoboken

(B)

iron ore

(C)

sinter

(D) coke

(A) combustion of coke

(B)

(C)

melting of slag

Sudden sinking of the stock in the blast furnace caused by collapse of scaffold, hanging

etc. is called

(A) channeling

(B)

(C)

slipping

pillaring

(A) charging coarse coke

(B)

(C)

49.

50.

(A) acid brick lining in the furnace

(B)

(C)

suppressed combustion

external heating

(A) high resistance to thermal shock and creep

(B)

(C)

Set - A

MT

51.

Carbon refractories

(A) dont resist temperature fluctuations

(B) have very low thermal and electrical conductivities

(C) dont burn/oxidize when exposed to air on heating

(D) are not attacked by slags as they are not wetted by melts

52.

(A) better combustion

(B) higher calorific value

(C) smokeless burning

(D) less erosion on furnace wall

53.

(A) anthracite

(B) lignite

(C)

bituminous

(D) peat

54.

(A) 1900

(B) 7500

(C) 900

(D) 4200

55.

(A) have low electrical conductivity (B) hard

(C) ductile under stress

(D) gases at room temperature

56.

During cooling of steel containing 0.8% carbon from 1000 C, pearlite occurs at _______ C.

(A) 910

(B) 480

(C) 768

(D) 723

57.

(A) shape and distribution of carbide in iron

(B) method of steel production

(C) carbon content

(D) alloying elements contents

58.

Case carburizing is the most widely used method for steel parts with

(A) high corrosion resistance

(B) high hardness

(C) low carbon content

(D) low tensile strength

59.

(A) body centered cubic

(C) face centered cubic

Set - A

(D) closed packed hexagonal

8

MT

60.

61.

62.

63.

(A) machinability

(B)

(C)

(D) strength

conductivity

(A) hardenability

(B)

(C)

(D) weldability

corrosion resistance

(B)

(C)

impact toughness

66.

(B)

Ferritic

(C)

Austenitic

cooled

(D) tempered

(B)

annealed

(C)

(A) increases

(B)

(C)

(D) decreases

remains unchanged

increase or decrease

(A) 3.5%

67.

hardenability

(A) normalised

65.

impact resistance

(A) Martensitic

64.

stress relieving

(B)

2%

(C)

1%

(D) 0.5%

(A) high speed tool steels

(B)

(C)

68.

(A) small and positive

(B)

(C)

Set - A

MT

69.

70.

71.

72.

(A) Alkali metals

(B)

(C)

Rare gases

(A) Schrodinger equation

(B)

(C)

De Broglie expression

74.

75.

Kirkendal effect

(A) De Broglie expression

(B)

(C)

Braggs law

Ficks law

Energy associated with an electron at absolute zero temperature (which is the maximum

value for that electron) is called _______ energy.

(A) fermi

73.

Transition elements

(B)

degenerate

(C)

ionisation

(D) electron

(A) Logarithmic graph paper

(B)

(C)

Wulff net

Which of the following property of a material is not affected by the grain boundaries

or crystal imperfections ?

(A) Impact strength

(B)

(C)

Yield strength

Hardness

A high reduction of cross sectional area of a metal (on application of tensile load)

indicates that the material has

(A) lost its malleability

(B)

(C)

76.

The thickness of the test specimen in BHN test should not be less than ______ times the

depth of impression.

(A) ten

Set - A

(B)

two

(C)

10

five

(D) seven

MT

77.

(A) Aluminium

78.

(A) cold working (B)

79.

(D) Lead

(D) nitriding

(A) increases

(B)

remains same

(C)

(D) decreases

80.

81.

(A) Wohler fatigue test

(B)

(C)

Radiography

(A) Aluminium

82.

Copper

(C)

Steel

(D) Iron

(B)

hard

(C)

ductile

(D) brittle

Recrystallisation of which of the following metals can occur even at room temperature ?

(A) Nickel

84.

(B)

(A) soft

83.

Ultrasonic testing

(B)

Iron

(C)

Zinc

(D) Copper

(A) does not cause work hardening

(B)

(C)

85.

Which type of rolling mill is suitable for the production of very thin strip in hard

materials ?

(A) Tandem

Set - A

(B)

Three high

(C)

11

Four high

(D) Cluster

MT

86.

87.

88.

89.

90.

(A) does not affect ductility

(B)

(C)

decreases ductility

(A) yield strength

(B)

(C)

hardness

92.

(B)

(C)

Which fuel gas is commonly used for hot machine scarfing of steel ?

(A) LD gas

(B)

(C)

Acetylene gas

A material which does not possess identical properties in all directions is called _______

material.

(C)

anisotropic

(B)

isotopic

(D) homogeneous

(B)

forged parts

(C)

wires

(A) Punching

93.

residual stresses

(A) plastic

91.

increases ductility

(B)

Spinning

(C)

Slitting

(A) slope of the plastic region of the stress strain curve

(B)

(C)

Set - A

12

MT

94.

Which of the following is mainly responsible for tertiary stage creep to occur ?

(A) Low stress and high temperature level

(B)

(C)

95.

96.

97.

(A) mid center

(B)

(C)

(A) annealing operation is must

(B)

(C)

(A) 2 : 1

98.

both ends

(B)

1.5 : 1

(C)

1:1

(D) 2.5 : 1

(A) facilitate the wetting by reducing the viscosity of the melt

(B)

(C)

99.

(A) Noncombustible electrode with helium and direct current

(B)

(C)

100.

(A) 1000-1500

Set - A

(B)

150-300

(C)

13

750-1000

(D) 1500-2000

MT

101.

Ultrasonic welding

(A) is useful for joining sections with different thicknesses

(B)

(C)

102.

103.

(A) Brass

(B)

(C)

Which joining process is used for joining two stainless steel foils of 0.075 mm thickness ?

(A) Arc welding (B)

104.

(B)

(B)

(B)

Cast iron

Copper rod

(C)

Flux rod

(D) Solder

oxidizing

(C)

neutral

(D) reducing

Laser

(C)

MIG

(D) TIG

maraging

(C)

high speed

(D) stainless

gas

(D) resistance

(A) arc

110.

(C)

Weld decay occurs in _______ steel when heated in the range of 510 C to 790 C

(A) plain carbon (B)

109.

Aluminium

(A) Thermit

108.

(B)

(A) carburising

107.

(A) Spelter

106.

(A) Titanium

105.

Aluminium

(B)

fusion

(C)

(A) Cast iron

Set - A

(B)

14

MT

111.

112.

The best moulding process for production of intricate castings weighing more than

100 tons is

(A) Cement moulding

(B)

(C)

Pit moulding

(A) Dry sand

113.

(B)

(B)

(B)

(C)

in-gates

(D) sprue

Lost wax

(C)

Scab

(C)

Swell

(D) Shift

permeability (C)

(B)

<1

(C)

10

(D) 20

(B)

pig

(C)

malleable

(D) nodular

(A) bottom gate

120.

risers

(A) grey cast

119.

(D) Injection

(A) > 20

118.

Pit

The property of sand due to which the sand grains stick together is known as

(A) cohesiveness (B)

117.

(C)

Casting defect which results in mismatching of the top and bottom part of the casting is

known as

(A) Sand wash

116.

Shell

(A) Centrifugal

115.

(B)

(A) pouring cup

114.

Ceramic moulding

(B)

chills

(C)

chaplets

(D) sprue

(A) dry sand

Set - A

(B)

15

MT

Set - A

16

MT

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

B

B

A

C

A

B

B

D

C

D

A

C

A

B

C

B

C

C

D

D

C

C

B

B

D

B

C

A

B

C

D

A

B

A

B

B

C

C

A

B

METALLURGY (MT)

SET - A

41

A

42

A

43

C

44

D

45

D

46

A

47

C

48

B

49

C

50

A

51

D

52

A

53

C

54

D

55

C

56

D

57

A

58

C

59

B

60

D

61

A

62

C

63

A

64

D

65

D

66

B

67

A

68

A

69

C

70

D

71

C

72

A

73

B

74

D

75

C

76

A

77

D

78

B

79

C

80

A

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

91

92

93

94

95

96

97

98

99

100

101

102

103

104

105

106

107

108

109

110

111

112

113

114

115

116

117

118

119

120

A

D

C

B

A

C

D

C

D

C

A

B

C

C

A

B

B

C

D

B

A

C

D

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A

C

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D

B

A

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D

D

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D

A

C

A

B

D

Booklet No. :

A

SET

NT - 15

Nano Technology

Duration of Test : 2 Hours

Name of the Candidate :

Date of Examination :

INSTRUCTIONS

1.

in 120 minutes.

2.

Every question in this booklet has 4 choices marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer.

3.

Each question carries one mark. There are no negative marks for wrong answers.

4.

informed to the Invigilator for replacement of Booklet.

5.

Answer all the questions on the OMR Answer Sheet using Blue/Black ball point pen only.

6.

on the OMR sheet carefully.

7.

OMR Answer Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination

Hall.

8.

Calculators, Pagers, Mobile Phones, etc., are not allowed into the Examination Hall.

9.

10. The seal of the Booklet should be opened only after signal/bell is given.

NT-15-A

1.

Select the equation that represents the equation of force equilibrium in the x direction.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

100 cos30 + F cos 75 P cos 15 = 0

F cos 75 + 100 cos 30 P cos 45 = 0

P cos 45 + F cos 75 + 100 = 0

2.

I.

the resultant of the coplanar parallel force system is equal to zero.

II. the system reduces to a couple equal to zero.

(A) I alone is correct

(B) II alone is correct

(C) both I and II are correct

(D) Neither I nor II is correct.

3.

Determine the x-coordinate of the location of the center of mass for the masses shown in

Figure.

(A) 0.45m

4.

(C)

0.96m

(D)

0.54m

Find the polar moment of inertia of a square of length a with respect to its

centroid.

(A) a4/6

5.

(B) 0.73m

(B)

a4/12

(C)

a4/3

(D) a4/9

If a force acts in space at a point A whose position vector is , the moment of the force

about the origin is given by

(A) x

(B) .

(C) x

(D) .

Set - A

NT

6.

A particle moving along a circle with variable angular speed will have

(A) tangential component of acceleration only

(B) normal component of acceleration only

(C) no acceleration

(D) both tangential and normal components of acceleration

7.

Centrifugal force is

(A) real force

(C) not an inertial force

(D) an inertial force

8.

A thin ring of mass M and radius R rolls down an incline from a height H without

slipping, the maximum attainable velocity V of its center will be_________

1/2

1/2

3

2

1/2

1/2

(D)

(A) V= (gH)

(B) V= (2gH)

(C) V= 3 gH

2 gH

9.

(A) external force acts on any one of the bodies

(B) external forces act on both the bodies

(C) no external force acts on either body

(D) each body exerts no force on the other body

10.

A disc is fixed at its center to the one end of a shaft of torsional stiffness Kt, the other end

of the shaft is fixed. If the mass moment of inertia of the disc about the axis of the shaft

is I, what is the natural frequency of the torsional system ?

(A) (Kt/I)1/2

(B) (KtI)1/2

(C) (I/Kt)1/2

(D) (2Kt/I)1/2

11.

The area under the stress strain curve (up to elastic limit) gives ________

(A) strain energy

(B) strain energy per unit volume

(C) modulus of elasticity

(D) bulk modulus

12.

In which cross section of a cantilever beam with an end point load, the maximum

bending stress occurs ?

(A) Cross section at free end

(B) Cross section at mid length

(C) Cross section at the fixed end

(D) Depends on the magnitude of the load

13.

The shape of Bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to uniformly

distributed load consists of __________

(A) rectangle

(B) parabola

(C) cubic curve (D) triangle

14.

According to the theory of simple bending, the variation of bending stress across a beam

cross section is ______________

(A) Linear

(B) Zero

(C) Parabolic

(D) Hyperbolic

Set - A

NT

15.

The rate of change of shear force along the length of a beam is equal to _________

(A) bending moment

(B) slope of the beam

(C) intensity of loading

(D) deflection of the beam

16.

(A) difference of normal stresses

(B) half the difference of normal stresses

(C) sum of the normal stresses

(D) half the sum of normal stresses

17.

For two shafts joined in series, which of the following is the same ?

(A) Shear stress (B) Torque

(C) Angle of twist (D) Stiffness

18.

The ratio of maximum bending stress to maximum shear stress on the cross section when

a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a torque T and bending moment M is _________

(A) M/T

(B) M/2T

(C) 4M/T

(D) 2M/T

19.

The planes of maximum shear stress lie at ________ to the planes of principal stresses.

(A) 45o

(B) 90o

(C) 270o

(D) 120o

20.

For the case of two perpendicular direct stresses with simple shear, the extremities of its

Mohrs stress circle diameter indicate ________

(A) maximum and minimum principal stresses

(B) maximum and minimum shear stresses

(C) maximum principal stress and maximum shear stresses

(D) minimum principal stress and maximum shear stresses

21.

A composite slab has two layers of different materials with thermal conductivity K1 and

K2. If each layer had the same thickness, the equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab

would be

K1 + K 2

2 K 1K 2

(D) K1K2

(C)

(A) K1 +K2

(B)

K 1K 2

K1 + K 2

22.

It is desired to increase the heat dissipation rate over the surface of an electronic device

of spherical shape of 5 mm radius exposed to convection with h=10W/m2K by encasing

it in a spherical sheath of conductivity 0.04 W/m K. For maximum heat flow, the

diameter of the sheath should be

(A) 18 mm

(B) 16 mm

(C) 12 mm

(D) 8 mm

23.

(A) added insulation will increase heat loss

(B) added insulation will decrease heat loss

(C) convection heat loss will be less than conduction heat loss

(D) heat flux will decrease.

Set - A

NT

24.

The average heat transfer coefficient of an electric heater which has heat flux

6000 W/m2, the surface temperature of 120 C is cooled by air at 70 C is

(A) 60

(B) 120

(C) 180

(D) 240

25.

A flat composite wall with three different materials whose thermal conductivity and

thicknesses are k1, k2, & k3 and x1, x2, & x3 respectively. The surface temperatures are t1,

t2, t3 & t4. The conduction through wall is

k 1A k 2 A k 3 A

(t1 t 4 )A

+

+

Q=

x

x2

x3

k1 k 2 k 3

(A) Q = 1

(B)

+

+

(t 1 t 4 )

x1 x 2 x 3

Q=

(C)

t1 t 4

k 1A k 2 A k 3 A

+

+

x1

x2

x3

Q=

(D)

t1 t 4

x

x1

x

+ 2 + 3

k 1A k 2 A k 3 A

26.

The radial heat transfer rate through hollow cylinder increases as the ratio of outer radius

to inner radius

(A) constant

(B) increases

(C) decreases

(D) decreases first and then increases

27.

A hollow cylinder of internal radius r1, external radius r2, and length L, the heat transfer

in radial direction is

2L log e ( t1 / t 2 )

2L( t1 t 2 )k

(A) Q =

(B) Q =

log10 r2 / r1

(r2 r1 )k

(C)

Q=

2L( t1 t 2 )

k (r2 r1 )

(D)

Q=

2L( t1 t 2 )k

log e r2 / r1

28.

(A) Biot number

(B) Euler number

(C) Reynolds number

(D) Reyleigh number

29.

Mean radius of a hollow sphere of outer and inner radii of 16mm and 9mm is equal to

(A) 12.5mm

(B) 14.4 mm

(C) 17 mm

(D) 12mm

30.

sphere, then the critical radius of insulation is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

31.

(A) Stefans law

(B) Kirchoffs law

(C) Weins law

(D) Planks law

Set - A

NT

32.

heat transfer coefficient is 25 W/m2 C, the heat transfer rate is

(A) 125W

(B) 500W

(C) 750W

(D) 1000W

33.

A furnace wall of thickness 1 m and of surface area 3 m2, is made of a material whose

thermal conductivity is 1 kJ/hr mC. The temperature of inner surface of the wall is

950 C and of outer surface is 150 C. Heat flow through the wall in kJ/hr

(A) 450

(B) 2400

(C) 2650

(D) 2850

34.

Three metal walls of the same cross-sectional area having thermal conductivities in the

ratio 1 : 3 : 5 transfer heat at the rate of 6000 kJ/hr. For the same wall thickness, the

temperature drops will be in the ratio.

1 1

1 1

: :1

(A) 1 : 1 : 1

(B) 1 : 3 : 5

(C) 1 : :

(D)

3 5

5 3

A wall of (surface area A, thickness x and conductivity k) contains hot fluid at

temperature T1 on one side and cold fluid at temperature T2 on the other side. The rate of

35.

(A)

(C)

1

x

1

+

+

h1A kA h 2 A

(T1 T2 )

(T1 T2 )(h 1 h 2 )

A ( x )

(B)

(D)

1

1

(T1 T2 + A

h1 h 2

x

T1 T2

1

1

x

+

+

h1A kA h 2 A

36.

pressure at the outer edge of the drum will be

R d

2 R 2 d

2 Rd

R d2

(A)

(D)

(B)

(C)

2

2

2

2

37.

(A) maximum attainable velocity

(B) terminal velocity

(C) velocity above which the flow ceases to be streamlined

(D) velocity at which flow is maximum

38.

Reynolds number for non-circular cross section in terms of V-mean velocity, v-kinematic

viscosity and P- ratio of cross sectional area to the wetted perimeter is

V.4P

V. P

V. P

VP

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4

2

Set - A

NT

39.

The flow of any fluid, real or ideal, must fulfill the following :

(A) Newtons law of viscosity

(B) Newtons second law of viscosity

(C) Velocity at boundary must be zero

(D) The continuity equation

40.

For a two- dimensional fluid element in x-y plane, the rotational component is given as

1 v u

1 u v

(A) z = +

(B) z =

2 x y

2 x y

1 u v

+

2 x y

Density of water is maximum at

(A) 0 C

(B) 4 C

(C)

41.

z =

(D)

z =

(C)

32 C

1 v u

2 x y

(D) 100 C

42.

If the velocity in a fluid flow does not change with respect to length of direction of flow,

it is called

(A) rotational flow

(B) incompressible flow

(C) uniform flow

(D) steady flow

43.

The cross sectional areas of a Venturimeter at inlet and outlet are A1 and A2 respectively.

If the pressure head h, and coefficient of discharge is Cd then the discharge is

2

(A)

Q = Cd

(C)

Q = Cd

A1 A 2

A1 A 2

2

A1 A 2

2

2gh

(B)

Q = Cd

(D)

Q = Cd

2A1 A 2

2gh

A 1A 2

2

2A1 A 2

A 1A 2

2

A1 A 2

2gh

2gh

44.

(A) Reynolds number

(B) Euler number

(C) Mach number

(D) Froude number

45.

Model analysis of aeroplanes and projectile moving at super- sonic speed are based on

(A) Euler number

(B) Mach number

(C) Froude number

(D) Reynolds number

46.

1

(B)

(A) FD = U 2 C D A

2

(C) FD = 2U 2 C D A

(D)

Set - A

1

U 2 C D A

4

FD = U 2 C D A

FD =

NT

47.

The thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance x from the leading edge over a

flat plate varies as

(A) x3/5

(B) x1/5

(C) x4/5

(D) x1/2

48.

The relation between co-efficient of friction (f) and Reynolds number (Re) for laminar

flow through a pipe is given by

4

8

12

16

(A) f =

(B) f =

(C) f =

(D) f =

Re

Re

Re

Re

49.

(A) Soaking pit

(B) Cupola

(C) Reheating furnace

(D) Open hearth furnace

50.

The time period of oscillation of a floating body, whose radius of gyration is k and metacentre height GM, is

(A)

T = 2

GM

gk 2

(B)

T = 2

gk 2

GM

(C)

T = 2

k2

GM g

(D)

T = 2

GM g

k2

51.

(A) About chemical equilibrium of system

(B) Law of conservation of energy of system

(C) Properties of atoms involved in the system

(D) Phase equilibrium

52.

(A) first law of thermodynamics

(B) zeroth law of thermodynamics

(C) second law of thermodynamics

(D) fouriers law

53.

(A) G = RT ln K

(C) G = RT ln K

(B) G = RT ln K

(D) G = RT ln K

(A) Raoults law

(C) Sieverts law

(D) Gibbs Duhem law

54.

Set - A

NT

55.

(A) Oxidation of metals

(B) Reduction of metal oxides

(C) Kinetics of the oxide reaction

(D) Value of partial pressure of oxygen for the reactions shown in a diagram

56.

(A) Opaque body

(B) White body

(C) Black body

(D) Transparent body

57.

(A) P F = C + 2

(C) P + F = C + 2

(B) F + C = P + 2

(D) P + C = F + 2

58.

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 5

(D) 10

59.

(A) dH = V.dP/S.dT

(C) dH = S.dT+P.dv

(B) dH = P.dv/T.dS

(D) dH = T.dS+V.dP

60.

(A) whose internal energy is zero

(B) whose enthalpy value is negative

(C) whose thermal conductivity is infinite

(D) which is not affected by its surroundings

61.

(A) Charles

(B) Ostwalds

(C) Dulong and Petit

(D) Vanderwaals

62.

(A) Its chemical potential

(B) Its enthalpy

(C) Its Cp

(D) Its Cv

63.

(A) Entropy

(B) Free energy (C) Activity

(D) Enthalpy

Set - A

NT

64.

In a heat engine following the carnot cycle and operating between a heat source at T1 and

Heat sink at T2, which of the following will lead to a maximum increase in efficiency

(assume that the extent of the change, T, is the same in all cases) ?

(A) Lowering T2 by T, keeping T1 constant

(B)

(C)

65.

The enthalpy change for a reaction is the same whether it takes place in one or several

stages. This statement refers to

(A) Kirchoffs law

(B) First law of thermodynamics

(C) Hesss law

(D) Second law of thermodynamics

66.

H0500= + 140 kJ mol1; S0500 = + 60 kJ K1 mol1

The above reaction at 500K is ______

(A) feasible

(B) not feasible

(C) forward and backward reaction are equally feasible

(D) feasibility cant be determined

67.

In the reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3 + 92.37 kJ, the formation of NH3 will be favoured by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

low temperature

high temperature

low pressure and high temperature

low temperature and high pressure

68.

(A) equilibrium constant increases

(B) reaction will shift to left

(C) reaction will shift to right

(D) equilibrium constant decreases

69.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Set - A

shift the equilibrium towards left

no change in equilibrium condition

equilibrium constant increases

10

NT

70.

temperature will

(A) shift the equilibrium towards left

(B) shift the equilibrium towards right

(C) no change in the position of equilibrium

(D) equilibrium constant remains unaltered

71.

(A) G = H - TS

(C)

72.

dP / dT = Hvap/TVvap

(D) A = U TS

G vs 1/T

(D) G0 vs 1/T

(B)

In the Ellingham diagram of oxides, the reaction that is parallel to the temperature axis is

(A) 2C + O2 = 2CO

(B) 2Zn + O2 = 2ZnO

(C)

74.

G = H + T [ (G) / dT]P

(A) G vs T

(C) G0 vs T

73.

(B)

C + O2 = CO2

In the Ellingham diagram of oxides, the position of formation _____ oxide is very low

(A) Fe

(C) Mg

(B) Ca

(D) Al

75.

(A) reduction of metal sulphides

(B) oxidation of metals

(C) kinetics of reaction

(D) reduction of metal oxides

76.

(A) unstable metal carbide is formed

(B) unstable carbon tetrachloride is formed

(C) reactions require very high temperature

(D) reactions require sub-zero temperature

77.

(A) mol2 m3 s2

(B) mol1 m3 s2

(C) mol1 m3 s1

(D) mol2 m3 s3

Set - A

11

NT

78.

(A) lower the annealing temperature and lower the amount of prior cold work

(B) higher the annealing temperature and lower the amount of prior cold work

(C) lower the annealing temperature and higher the amount of prior cold work

(D) higher the annealing temperature and higher the amount of prior cold work

79.

(A) decrease in dislocation strain energy

(B) increase in grain boundary energy

(C) decrease in grain boundary energy

(D) decrease in vacancy concentration

80.

(A) Below recrystallization temperature

(B) Above recrystallization temperature

(C) Not related to temperature

(D) Above melting point

81.

(A) 1

(B) 6

(C) 3

(D) 4

82.

The angle between the line vector and burgers vector of an edge dislocation is

(A) 180

(B) 120

(C) 90

(D) 0

83.

(A) [100]

(B) [111]

(C)

[210]

(D) [110]

84.

(A) easy glide

(B) cross-slip

(C) work hardening

(D) dynamic recovery

85.

(A) Temperature

(C) Degree of cold work

(B) Strain-rate

(D) Time

86.

(A) glide

(B) cross-slip

(C) cross-slip and climb

(D) climb

87.

(A) Proportional to d

(B) Inversely proportional to d

(C) Proportional to d

(D) Inversely Proportional to d

Set - A

12

NT

88.

89.

90.

(A) Elastic limit

(B) Yield limit

(C) Tensile strength

(D) No need to correct

The coordination number for a H.C.P. lattice is

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 12

(D) 8

(A) linear

(B) point

(C) surface

(D) volume

91.

(A) Burgers vector is parallel to an edge dislocation

(B) Burgers vector is perpendicular to screw dislocation

(C) Screw dislocation can undergo cross slip

(D) Screw dislocation can undergo climb

92.

(A) energetically favourable

(B) energetically unfavourable

(C) vectorially unbalanced

(D) likely to occur in Tin.

93.

(A) Aluminium alloy

(B) Cast Iron

(C) Mild Steel

(D) Cement

94.

The stacking fault energy of metal A is greater than that of metal B, then

(A) Width of stacking fault will be greater in metal A

(B) Width of stacking fault will be greater in metal B

(C) Cross-slip of screw dislocation will be easier in metal B

(D) Metal A will work harden more than metal B

95.

(A) Diamond

(B) Al

(C) Ge

(D) Si

96.

(A) P

(B) As

(C) In

(D) Sb

(A) Fe - 5% W

(B) Fe - 4% Cr (C)

97.

98.

Fe - 4% Si

(A) Polyethylene

(B) Polyester

(C) Cellulose nitrate

(D) PVC

Set - A

13

NT

99.

(A) decreases

(B) increases

(C) remains constant

(D) none of the above

100.

For soft magnetic materials magnetic coercivity and saturation magnetization should be

(A) low & low

101.

(B)

(C)

(A) F F F F

(B) H H H H

(C) H H H Cl

(D) H H H CH3

102.

(A) 111, 200, 220

(B) 110, 200, 211

(C) 111, 220, 311

(D) 100,110,111

103.

(A) soft material (B) hard material (C) burnt material (D) dry material

104.

(A) high temperature stability

(B) high mechanical strength

(C) low elongation

(D) low hardness

105.

(A) silica

(B) clay

(C)

106.

feldspar

(A) SiC

(B) SiO2

(C) Si3N4

(D) Al2O3

107.

(A) TiO2

(B) SiO2

(C) UO2

(D) ZrO2

108.

(A) lime

(B) soda

(C)

silica

109.

(A) a

(B) a/2

(C) a/(4/3)

(D) a/(4/2)

110.

If c is the velocity of light in vacuum, and v is the velocity of light in a material, the

index of refraction of the material, n, is given by

(A) n = c/v

(B) n = v/c

(C) n = (v/c)2

(D) n = (c/v) 2

Set - A

14

NT

111.

A very weak form of magnetism that is nonpermanent and persists only when an external

field is applied and manifests itself in a direction opposite to that of the applied field is

called

(A) Diamagnetism

(B) Paramagnetism

(C) Ferromagnetism

(D) Ferrimagnetism

112.

(A) Proportional to b

(C) Proportional to 1/b

(B) Proportional to b2

(D) Independent of b

113.

The property of a material varies with the orientation or the direction in case of a/an

_________ material

(A) Isotropic

(B) Anisotropic (C) Plastic

(D) Elastic

114.

Schottky Defect is

(A) anion and cation vacancy

(C) inclusion

(B) interstitial

(D) substitutional defect

115.

(A) monovalent

(B) divalent

(C) trivalent

(D) pentavalent

116.

Insulators have

(A) high dielectric constants

(C) high electrical conductivity

(D) none of the above

117.

(A) Properties of constituents

(B) Interface strength

(C) Fiber length, orientation, and volume fraction

(D) All the above

118.

(A) Optical microscope

(C) Rockwell tester

(B) AFM

(D) UTM

(A) PVD

(C) High Energy ball mill

(B) CVD

(D) Electrodeposition

119.

120.

(A) Nano-particle

(B) Nano-tube

(C) Nano-film

(D) Nano-crystal

____________

Set - A

15

NT

Set - A

16

NT

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

SET - A

B

41

B

81

C

42

C

82

D

43

D

83

A

44

D

84

C

45

B

85

D

46

A

86

B

47

C

87

A

48

D

88

C

49

A

89

A

50

C

90

B

51

91

B

C

52

92

C

B

53

93

B

A

54

94

A

C

55

95

C

B

56

96

C

B

57

97

C

D

58

98

A

A

59

99

D

A

60

100

D

C

61

101

D

A

62

102

A

A

63

103

A

B

64

104

A

D

65

105

C

C

66

106

A

D

67

107

D

C

68

108

C

D

69

109

C

B

70

110

C

C

71

111

B

B

72

112

C

B

73

113

C

C

74

114

B

D

75

115

C

A

76

116

C

C

77

117

B

B

78

118

C

D

79

119

C

D

80

120

B

B

C

D

D

C

B

D

C

C

C

C

A

C

B

C

C

C

B

A

C

A

C

C

D

D

B

A

D

C

A

A

B

B

A

D

A

D

B

C

B

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