Exam :

000-732
DB2 9 for z/OS Database Administrator

Title

Ver

: 11.20.07

000-732

QUESTION 1
If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT
OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A. The role
B. The schema name
C. The owner keyword
D. The current SQLID (if set)
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security
mechanism to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table
spaces, tables, indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The
ROLE "ERP_ROLE" has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related
tasks. When the user "DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed. Which of the
following statements are correct? (Select two answers)
A. None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B. The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C. When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D. Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated
and the privileges re-granted.
E. To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to
be dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION 3
A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no
audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5)
C. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA
CAPTURE CHANGES
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer
needed. Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?

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A. SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B. FREE Package (<collid>.<name of package>.<version id>)
C. DROP Package (<collid>.<name of package>.<version id>)
D. DROP PLAN (<plan name>) PKLIST (<collid>.<name of a particular package>.<version id>)
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC) invoked?
A. At DB2 startup.
B. When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C. When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D. During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the
DSNTIPP panel.
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A. DSN1.IMS
B. DSNR.IMS
C. DSN1.MASS
D. DSN1.SASS
Answer: C
QUESTION 7
An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1 with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to
update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated. Which of the
following will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A. REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B. Change TSOID1 's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C. Change TSOID1 's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D. Change TSOID1 's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method.
The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages
from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages. Which of the following
explicit system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to
also execute them?
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A. BINDADD
B. CREATEIN
C. BINDAGENT
D. CREATEDBA
Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain
queries?
A. STDSQL
B. OPTHINTS
C. PARTKEYU
D. DESCSTAT
Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the following catalog health query?
SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR, BTYPE, DNAME
FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD
WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A')
AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT *
FROM SYSIBM.SYSTADLES
WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR
AND NAME = PD.BNAME
AND TYPE = PD.STYPE);
A. For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there
should be a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B. For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias,
there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C. For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a
table that has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTASLES.
D. For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with
a VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the correct configuration in a two way DB2 datasharing group?
A. MVSA (DB2A, active log A, workfile A)
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MVSB (DB2B, active log B, workfile B)
Shared BSDS and catalog and directory
Coupling facility one
Sysplex timer one
B. MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A)
MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active Log B, workfile B)
Shared catalog and directory
Coupling facility one
Sysplex timer one
C. MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A)
MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory B)
Coupling facility one
Sysplex timer one
D. MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A)
MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active log B, workfile B, catalog & directory B)
Coupling facility one
Sysplex timer one
Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A DB2 V9 system that is in New Function Mode:
A. cannot fall back.
B. can fall back to Compatibility Mode.
C. can fall back to New Function Mode*.
D. can fall back to Compatibility Modet.
Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which parameter in WLM Application Environment controls the # of concurrent stored procedures
that can run in that particular environment?
A. NUMSRB
B. NUMTHR
C. NUMCTK
D. NUMTCB
Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which of the following buffer pool thresholds CANNOT be changed by the DBA?
A. Deferred write threshold (DWQT)
B. Immediate write threshold (IWTH)
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C. Vertical deferred write threshold (VDWQT)
D. Virtual buffer pool assisting parallel sequential threshold (VPXPSEQT)
Answer: B
QUESTION 15
There are dynamic SQL statements running in a subsystem that need to have their host variables
reoptimized at run-time, however the distribution of the values does not change very much
between execution. What is the most optimal bind parameter for these statements?
A. REOPT(NONE)
B. REOPT(ONCE)
C. REOPT(VARS)
D. REOPT(ALWAYS)
Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Given the following RUNSTATS utility statement:
RUNSTATS TABLESPACE DB2CERTDB.MYTBLSPC1
TABLE (MYTABLE1) COLUMN(ALL)
INDEX
REPORT YES
UPDATE ALL
HISTORY ALL which of the following statements is true?
A. Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of all indexes on table MYTABLE1.
B. Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index on table
MYTABLE1.
C. Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of each index associated with table
space MYTBLSPC1.
D. Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index associated with
table space MYTBLSPC1.
Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which statement best describes how multi-row fetch improves performance?
A. It reduces the amount of programming required.
B. It reduces the number of SQL statements issued.
C. It reduces the amount of data sent over a network.
D. It reduces the amount of I/O required to read a table.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 18
A DBA was examining the Log Statistics, Log Activity section in the OMEGAMON Performance
Expert Tool and noticed a large value in the field UNAVAILABLE OUTPUT LOG BUFF. This is an
important and critical performance metric. What does this performance metric mean?
A. The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too large so
memory was not utilized and wasted.
B. The active logs were not stripped by DFSMS and the active log data sets have to be
processed sequentially so many times.
C. The active log data sets were not placed on different volumes to reduce contention so a large
amount of I/O activity showed up in the OUTPUT BUFFER field.
D. The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too small so
application has to wait while DB2 was busy writing the Active log data sets.
Answer: D
QUESTION 19
An end-user indicates that the DRDA client application accessing DB2 for z/OS is very slow.
However, other local applications accessing the same tables are running fine. What would
indicate that this could be a DB2 problem?
A. Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 CPU time minus non-nested CLASS 2 CPU time. If the
value is high, it suggests a problem in the DDE address space.
B. Investigate the CLASS 3 suspension time. As class 3 time includes the time that DB2 spends
sending/receiving network messages, a high value is a possible indication that the network is
experiencing a slow-down.
C. Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 Elapsed time (ET) minus non-nested CLASS 2 ET. If the
value is high, this can only be caused by spending most time in the application, and therefore
the application should be investigated.
D. Check to see if the DB2 remote connection can become inactive at commit (Type 2 inactive).
If not, this leads to a high non-nested CLASS 1 ET and is likely the cause of the performance
problem. Inactive connections will use less CPU than threads that stay active all the time.
Answer: A
QUESTION 20
An application has been running in production for a longtime. The size of the objects involved has
not changed, but the application is running much slower than in the beginning. When should the
DBA consider manually REBINDing the application?
A. After REORGing the objects with inline statistics.
B. When dynamic SQL is used, but only after REORG and RUNSTATS has been performed.
C. Actually it is NOT recommended to perform manual rebinds but rather have DB2 perform
automatic rebinds.
D. If the size of the objects has not changed after gathering RUNSTATS data, the access path is
very unlikely to change, and therefore no REBIND is needed.
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Answer: A
QUESTION 21
The SPTH threshold is getting hit several times during the day. What does that mean?
A. The VPSEQT threshold was hit in the bufferpool.
B. The buff erpool is 50% tilled with changed pages.
C. Sequential pretetch is getting turned off at run time.
D. The system will start writing out pages synchronously.
Answer: C
QUESTION 22
The following query is embedded in a remote application. Which is the best choice for insuring
the query will be eligible for block fetching?
SELECT T1.COL3, T2.COL2, T2.COLS
FROM TABLE 1 T1 INNER JOIN TABLE2 T2
ON T1.COL3 = T2.COL3
ORDER BY T2.COL3
A. Remove the ORDER BY.
B. Add the clause FOR READ ONLY.
C. Change the ORDER BY T2.COL3 to T1.COL3 to avoid materialization.
D. Eliminate the join, and read the two tables in separate statements.
Answer: B
QUESTION 23
In the ACCESS_DEGREE column of the PLAN_TABLE it shows the number 10. What does this
indicate?
A. The degree of parallelism used at run time
B. The number of CPUs to be used in parallelism
C. The degree of parallelism chosen at bind time
D. The number of partitions accessed during execution
Answer: C
QUESTION 24
A DBA notices that at regular intervals there is excessive I/O wait time. Which activity might the
waits be corresponding with?
A. Timeouts
B. RID sorts
C. Deadlocks
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D. Checkpoints
Answer: D
QUESTION 25
What is connection pooling in DB2 for z/OS?
A. A generic term given to a technique that consolidates fragmented threads.
B. A DSNZPARM parameter that controls the total sum of threads coming to DB2 via the DDF.
C. A DB2 Connect EE parameter that controls the total sum of threads coming to DB2 via the
DDF.
D. A mechanism that separates the distributed connections (in DDF) from the threads (DBATs)
that do the work (in DBM1).
Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which statement related to monitoring DB2 virtual storage usage is correct?
A. Monitoring DB2 virtual storage usage maybe done using DB2 statistics trace class(1).
B. The only way to monitor DB2 virtual storage usage is by taking a dump of the DB2 address
spaces.
C. Monitoring DB2 virtual storage requires the use of an MVS monitor, like PMF. Only PMF has
detailed information about the virtual storage usage.
D. Monitoring DB2 virtual storage usage requires the use of a rather expensive DB2
performance trace and it is therefore recommended to only turn it on for a short period of
time.
Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which of the following cases would benefit most from RUNSTATS collecting histogram statistics?
A. An application using dynamic SQL suffering from data skew. One value occurs 99% of the
time.
B. An application using host variables and static SQL that is bound with REOPT (NONE) is
suffering from data skew.
C. An application using static SQL with host variables is bound with REOPT (ALWAYS). Certain
data ranges are heavily populated; others are sparsely populated.
D. An application using dynamic SQL where data is highly volatile. Histogram stats provide
statistics about the variation of the data over time which allows the optimizer to more
accurately determine a good access path.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 28
A DB2 package contains embedded static SQL that uses host variables and is not performing as
expected due to non-uniform distribution of table data. What action could be taken to cause DB2
to re-evaluate the selected access path for the package?
A. Rebind the package using REOPT(ONCE)
B. Rebind the package using REOPT(ALWAYS)
C. Execute RUNSTATS against the tables accessed by the package
D. Create one or more additional indexes on the tables accessed by the package
Answer: B
QUESTION 29
A DBA wants to improve an access path by collecting distribution statistics for non-indexed
columns using the RUNSTATS utility. Which of the following RUNSTATS options should the DBA
use?
A. COLGROUP
B. FORCEROLLUP
C. UPDATE ACCESSPATH
D. HISTORYACCESSPATH
Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Exception processing is an effect way to monitor DB2 subsystems for performance problems.
When exception processing is active, a DBA is informed when certain events occur, or when
specific thresholds have been exceeded. In which of the following options can a DBA
performance specialist set up exception processing?
A. RMF
B. Tivoli NetView
C. DB2 PE/OMEGAMON
D. DSNC DISPLAY STATISTICS
Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following plan table columns, with its corresponding value, indicates that an index
will be used to access the table?
A. ACCESSTYPE=N
B. ACCESS_DEGREE = 1
C. WHEN_OPTIMIZE = B
D. PRIMARY_ACCESSTYPE = D

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Answer: A
QUESTION 32
Which of the following set of statistics could indicate that an application is suffering from
excessive I/O wait time?
A. Accounting class 1 elapsed time of 2 minutes, accounting class 2 CPU time of 4 minutes,
accounting class 3 time of .5 seconds
B. Accounting class 1 elapsed time of 2 minutes, accounting class 2 elapsed time of 2 minutes,
accounting class 3 time of .5 seconds
C. Accounting class 1 elapsed time of 2 minutes, accounting class 2 elapsed time of 10
seconds, accounting class 3 time of .5 seconds
D. Accounting class 1 elapsed time of 2 minutes, accounting class 2 cu time of .5 seconds,
accounting class 3 time of 1 minute 50 seconds
Answer: D
QUESTION 33
In which case does a DBA need to increase the size of the EDM Pool (EDMPOOL DSNZPARM)?
A. There is a very low number of empty pages in the EDM Pool.
B. There is a very low number of stealable pages in the EDM Pool.
C. There is a very low number of SKPT and SKCT that are loaded from disk.
D. The database descriptor's size (DBD) has reached the limit of 25% of the Pool size.
Answer: B
QUESTION 34
A DBA issued a -DISPLAY DATABASE(DB5) command to see what table spaces, if any, are in a
restrictive status. Part of the output of the display shows that one of the table spaces TS1 is in
both COPY and STOP status. The DBA is instructed to remove ONLY the restrictive COPY state
and to ensure recoverability to currency of the table space. Which of the following steps should
the DBA take?
A. -START DATABASE(DB5) SPACENAM(TS1)
COPY TABLESPACE DB5.TS1 SHRLEVEL REFERENCE
B. COPY TABLESPACE D05.TS1 SHRLEVEL REFERENCE
-START DATABASE(DB5) SPACENAM(TS1)
C. -START DATABASE(DB5) SPACENAM(TS1)ACCESS(UT)
REPAIR SET TABLESPACE DB5.TS1 NOCOPYPEND
-STOP DATABASE(DB5) SPACENAM(TS1)
D. -START DATABASE(DB5) SPACENAM(TS1)ACCESS(UT)
COPY TABLESPACE DB5.TS1 SHRLEVEL REFERENCE
-STOP DATABASE(DB5) SPACENAM(T51)

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Answer: D
QUESTION 35
If a stopped REORG utility is terminated with the -TERM UTIL command during the SWITCH
phase, which of the following conditions apply?
A. All data sets that were renamed to their shadow counterparts are renamed to their original
names.
B. If the SWITCH phase does not complete, the REORG job can be rerun.
C. If the SWITCH phase does not complete, the image copy that REORG created is available
for use by the RECOVER utility.
D. All data sets that were renamed to their shadow counterparts are left in the same condition so
that the job can be rerun.
Answer: A
QUESTION 36
At the disaster recovery site, the DBA wishes to determine what archive datasets are registered
in the bootstrap dataset (BSDS). What online utility would provide this information?
A. DSNJU004
B. DSNJU003
C. DSN1PRNT
D. DSN1LOGP
Answer: A
QUESTION 37
A DB2 subsystem is experiencing a failure. During the backout phase of restart (phase 4),
changes are encountered for a table space that has had logging turn off (LOGGED NO). The
entire table space is:
A. marked as COPY PENDING.
B. placed on the logical page list.
C. recovered automatically at database start.
D. identified in the CRC record for the table space.
Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements regarding the RESTORE SYSTEM utility is correct in the
context of the utility usage in a disaster recovery test?
A. When multiple backups have been taken with BACKUP SYSTEM, there are no keywords on
RESTORE SYSTEM that allow the choice of which backup to be used.
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B. The RESTORE SYSTEM utility can only be used to recover a system from previously copied
DASD volumes taken during a BACKUP SYSTEM invocation.
C. Once the DB2 catalog and directory have been restored with RESTORE SYSTEM, health
checks can be executed on the catalog/directory while user data is being recovered.
D. RESTORE SYSTEM will always first restore DASD volumes copied during BACKUP
SYSTEM and then applies log records from the time the BACKUP SYSTEM was taken until
the end of the log.
Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Which of the following utilities should be run to check consistency between a base table and any
corresponding LOB tablespaces?
A. REPORT
B. CHECK LOB
C. CHECK DATA
D. CHECK INDEX
Answer: C
QUESTION 40
It has been determined that the current checkpoint frequency is too low. The frequency can be
increased by changing the DSNZPARM keyword CHKFREQ However, changing DSNZPARMs
can be cumbersome. What alternative is available?
A. Use the SET LOG command to modify the frequency
B. Update checkpoint freq value on installation panel
C. Decrease the commit frequency used by applications
D. Use the SET ARCHIVE command to increase the log frequency
Answer: A
QUESTION 41
A DBA notices that the underlying DB2 VSAM data set for a DB2-managed segmented table
space has gone into a large number of data set extents. To increase the primary allocation of disk
space for this table space, an ALTER TABLESPACE statement is executed. Which of the
following actions would cause the change in primary allocation to become effective?
A. The table space must be stopped and re-started.
B. The RUNSTATS utility must be executed against the table space.
C. The REORG TABLESPACE utility must be executed against the table space.
D. The STOSPACE utility must be executed against the DB2 stogroup associated with the table
space.
Answer: C
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QUESTION 42
Which of the following Real Time Statistics (RTS) statements is correct?
A. RTS is one of the DB2 operational utilities just like COPY, REORG, RUNSTATS &
RECOVER.
B. In a data sharing environment, RTS are collected and placed in the Coupling Facility
Statistics Structure (CFSS).
C. PTS are collected on an ongoing basis to help the DBA to determine if a tablespace needs a
COPY, REORG, or RUNSTATS.
D. RTS is a DB2 stored procedure called DSNACCOR which the optimizer invokes to determine
the Access Path of an SQL statement.
Answer: C
QUESTION 43
To minimize disruption from a coupling facility' failure in a data sharing environment, which of the
following is best to implement?
A. GOP duplexing
B. GOP simplexing
C. Separation of GBP and LOCK structures
D. Separation of LOCK and SCA structures
Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Given the following scenario:
A table is created in a table space with the LOGGED attribute.
The LOAD utility then loads 5 rows and creates an inline copy.
The QUIESCE utility is run for the same table space.
The table space is altered to NOT LOGGED.
Two rows are inserted to a table in the table space.
An image copy is then created by the COPY utility.
What is the earliest point to which the table space can be recovered by using only the RECOVER
utility?
A. The QUIESCE point after the LOAD.
B. The point where the table space was altered to NOT LOGGED.
C. The point where the inline copy is created by the LOAD utility.
D. The point where the image copy is created after the table space was altered to NOT
LOGGED.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 45
A DBA has been made aware of locking contention. What traces might be used to gather details
about the locking problems? (Select 2 answers)
A. An Audit Trace
B. A Monitor Class 5 trace
C. A Statistics Class 3 trace
D. An Accounting Class 3 trace
E. A Performance Class 1 trace
Answer: C, D
QUESTION 46
Which of the following options is NOT a valid status of a DB2 online utility?
A. Active
B. Stopped
C. Inactive
D. Terminated
Answer: C
QUESTION 47
A DBA notices through a DISPLAY command that there is an LPL status set for tablespace DB1
.TS1. Which of the following commands should the DBA issue to remove this status?
A. -START DATABASE(*)
B. -START DATABASE(DB1 .TS1)
C. -START DATABASE(DB1) SPACENAM(TS1)
D. -START DATABASE(DB1) SPAOENAM(TS1) REMOVE LPL
Answer: C
QUESTION 48
A DBA just completed loading a 5M row table using the LOAD utility with the LOG NO parameter.
Which of the following steps will ensure recoverability without using the log?
A. Make a copy of the data using the UNLOAD utility.
B. Reset the COPYPEND flag using the REPAIR utility.
C. Take a full image copy using the COPY utility with the parameter SHRLEVEL REFERENCE.
D. Take an inline image copy using the REORG utility with the parameter SHRLEVEL CHANGE.
Answer: C
QUESTION 49
A DBA is asked to unload data from a production table to refresh a copy of the same table in a
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development system. In order to avoid directly accessing the production table, the DBA decides
to use the UNLOAD utility to unload the production data from a recent copy of the table. What
type of copy CANNOT be used as input to the UNLOAD utility?
A. A concurrent copy
B. A MERGECOPY image copy
C. A copy taken by DSN1COPY
D. A REOPG inline image copy
Answer: A
QUESTION 50
Which BIND parameter will allow thread pooling from remote connections to occur?
A. VALIDATE (RUN)
B. RELEASE (COMMIT)
C. KEEPDYNAMIC (YES)
D. DYNAMICRULES (RUN)
Answer: B
QUESTION 51
Upon issuing the command:
-DISPLAY DATABASE(DB2DB) SPACENAM(DB2INDEX)
the index is discovered to have an advisory status of APEO*.
Which one of the following utilities is recommended to be run in order to remove this status?
A. COPY TABLESPACE
B. REPAIR VERSIONS
C. REORG TABLESPACE
D. RECOVER TABLESPACE
Answer: C
QUESTION 52
A DBA takes incremental copies each night for one week (7 days). During the week there is about
an 80% rate of change to the data. What is the most efficient step to be performed at the end of
the week to ensure that the time for a potential recovery to current is kept as short as possible?
A. Run another incremental copy
B. Run a MERGECOPY NEWCOPY(NO)
C. Run a new full copy SHRLEVEL(CHANGE)
D. Run a new full copy SHRLEVEL(REFERENCE)
Answer: D

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QUESTION 53
Which DB2 Command will remove all of the postponed abort units of recovery for a thread in the
shortest possible amount of time?
A. -CANCEL THREAD
B. -RECOVER POSTPONED
C. -RECOVER POSTPONED CANCEL
D. -RECOVER INDOUBT ACTION(ABORT)
Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Which of the following commands can be issued to determine if a remote user is executing a
stored procedure?
A. -DISPLAY DDF
B. -DISPLAY THREAD
C. -DISPLAY LOCATION
D. -DISPLAY PROCEDURE
Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Given the following CREATE TABLE statement:
CREATE TABLE PROJ
(PROJNO CHAR(6) NOT NULL,
PROJNAME VARCHAR(24) NOT NULL,
DEPTNO CHAR(3)
RESPEMP CHAR(6) NOT NULL,
PRSTAFF DECIMAL(5,2),
PRSTDATE DATE,
PRENDATE DATE,
MAJPROJ CHAR(6) NOT NULL,
PRIMARY KEY (PROJNO),
FOREIGN KEY (DEPT NO) REFERENCES DEPARTMENT (DEPTNO) ON DELETE
RESTRICT)) IN DB2DB01.PROJTS;
the PROJ table will be marked as unavailable until:
A. the tablespace PROJTS is STARTed.
B. a unique index is created on PROJ(PROJNO).
C. a unique index is created on DEPARTMENT(DEPTNO).
D. both the primary key index and foreign key index are created on table PROJ.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 56
A stored procedure needs to be written such that each execution of the procedure will capture
information into a DB2 table that is required for that execution. Once the execution of the
procedure is complete, the data is no longer needed. What type of DB2 table would be most
appropriate in this situation?
A. A clone table
B. A regular table
C. An auxiliary table
D. A global temp table
Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which of the following statements is true about a data partitioned secondary index?
A. It cannot be used for clustering.
B. It is defined as a partitioned index.
C. It controls the partitioning of data in the table.
D. Its leading columns must match the data partitioning.
Answer: B
QUESTION 58
In preparation to add a large amount of new data to a partitioned table space, a DBA discovers
that some partitions have reached their maximum allowable size while others no longer follow the
originally designed distribution of the data. What steps are available to a DBA that would get all
partitions back to a similar size and allow for the significant expected data growth?
A. Turn on automatic space management in DSNZPARM.
B. Increase the number of partitions and rebalance all data.
C. Increase primary and secondary allocation of all partitions.
D. Increase the DSSIZE of the partitions that reached their max.
Answer: B
QUESTION 59
A DBA needs to change the database that a table is defined in. What are the correct steps to
perform this?
A. Perform a DROP of the table and recreate it in the new database.
B. Perform an ALTER on database name and change it to the new target database name.
C. Perform an ALTER on the table definition and provide the new target database name.
D. Perform an ALTER of the tablespace definition and provide the new target database name.
Answer: A
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QUESTION 60
During the creation of an MQT, which of the following is true?
A. The MQT is created in a workfile.
B. An index is automatically created.
C. The population of the MQT is immediate and cannot be deferred.
D. The ability to allow automatic query rewrite can be turned off.
Answer: D
QUESTION 61
What happens when the piece size of an index is changed via an ALTER INDEX statement?
A. The next piece created gets the new piece size.
B. The index is placed in pageset rebuild pending status.
C. The ALTER statement fails because piece size can't be altered.
D. The index is usable but the new piece size will not take effect until the index is rebuilt.
Answer: B
QUESTION 62
When a user creates the following unique index on the EMPLOYEE table:
CREATE UNIQUE INDEX EMPNAME ON EMPLOYEE
SUBSTR(FIRSTNAME,1,1) CONCAT '.'CONCAT LASTNAME);
The employee table contains two rows with employee names "John Smith" and "Alex Smith". A
user attempts to insert the following values for columns FIRSTNAME, LASTNAME into the table.
Which of the following will be successfully inserted?
A. Joe Smith
B. Jack Smith
C. Barr Smith
D. Alfred Smith
Answer: C
QUESTION 63
When using an ALTER to add two different foreign key constraints to a dependent table, what
must be true?
A. Both foreign keys must be added on the same ALTER statement
B. A unique index must exist on the dependent table before adding the foreign key
C. Key data relationships must be validated prior to adding any primary or foreign key
D. The parent key and parent table unique index must exist before adding the foreign key
Answer: D
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QUESTION 64
An index needs to be created in support of a large sequential batch process that reads the
majority of data in CUST_ID order. Which type of index would best support this process?
A. A unique index on CUST_ID
B. A secondary index on CUST_ID
C. A clustering index on CUST_ID
D. A partitioned index on CUST_ID
Answer: C
QUESTION 65
A table row contains 100 columns wherein each row contains a group of three columns that may
be repeated up to 10 times. Which of the following is an appropriate database design
normalization technique to apply to this repeating group?
A. Create an independent table containing all 30 columns in the group.
B. Create a dependent child table containing one group of the three columns.
C. Keep the table as is and define all columns in the repeating group to be null able.
D. Vertically split the table into two tables, one with 70 columns and the other with the repeating
group.
Answer: B
QUESTION 66
When utilizing the CACHE 100 and ORDER options for identity columns and sequence objects,
what is the potential impact to the applications that use them?
A. Numbers may be unused.
B. Numbers may be out of sequence.
C. There is no impact to applications.
D. Numbers may be unused and out of sequence.
Answer: A
QUESTION 67
A new table with a row size of 500 bytes is created in a table space that was defined with the
following CREATE TABLESPACE statement:
CREATE TABLESPACE TS1
IN DB2DB1
USING STOGROUP SG1
BUFFERPOOL BP12
SEGSIZE 32
LOCKSIZE ANY
CLOSE YES
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FREEPAGE 50
PCTFREE 0
Assuming the new table is the only table in this table space, if the LOAD utility is used to load
100,000 rows of data, how many pages are loaded with data between each page of embedded
free space within the table space?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 49
D. 50
Answer: A
QUESTION 68
A DB2 table space is created and then loaded with 10GB of data. Given the following CREATE
TASLESPACE statement, how many D52-managed VSAM datasets will be created when this
statement is executed?
CREATE TASLESPACE TS00001
IN DB2DB1
USING STOGROUP DS2SG001
PRIQTY 10000000
SECQTY 720
SEGSIZE 64
LOCKSIZE ANY
SUFFERPOOL BP22
CLOSE YES;
A. 6
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1
Answer: D
QUESTION 69
To change the order of the index columns(COL1 COL2P COLS)to (COL2, COL1, COL3) in index
IX1 on table TAB1, which of the following statements must be executed?
A. REORDER INDEX IX1 (COL2, COL1, COL3)
B. ALTER INDEX REORDER IX1 (COL2, COL1, COL3)
C. ALTER INDEX IX1 (COL1, COL2, COL3) TO (COL2, COL1, COL3)
D. DROP INDEX IX1; CREATE INDEX IX1 ON TAB1 (COL2, COL1, COL3)...
Answer: D

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QUESTION 70
Which of the following indexes needs to be explicitly created when creating XML objects?
A. DOCID index on the Base table
B. NODEID index on the XML table
C. VALUES index on the XML table
D. VALUES index on the Base table
Answer: C
QUESTION 71
A table has a data-partitioned secondary index defined. In an effort to limit an index scan to just
one partition and avoid scanning all the partitions of the DPSI, one should consider which of the
following?
A. Using an access path hint
B. Reordering the columns in the table to improve index access
C. Using the ALTER statement to add the ENDING AT clause to the DPSI
D. Including the leading column from the partitioning key in the predicate
Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Given that the environment that uses EBCDIC as the default encoding scheme does not support
mixed and graphic data and has a table TEST.TABLE1 in ASCII format, the DBA issues the
following SQL statement:
SELECT * FROM TEST.TABLE1 WHERE COL1 = UX'4E2F'
Which of the following encoding schemes will be used for the value compared to COL1?
A. ASCII
B. CCSID
C. EBCDIC
D. UNICODE
Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Given two tables, A and B, a single row needs to be added to table B whenever one or more rows
are INSERTED into table A as an audit mechanism. Which type of trigger should a DBA create to
perform this function?
A. An after insert row trigger on table A that inserts a row into table B
B. A before insert row trigger on table A that inserts a row into table B
C. A before insert statement trigger on table A that inserts a row into table B
D. An after insert statement trigger on table A that inserts a row into table B

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Answer: D
QUESTION 74
Which types of indexes are allowed to be created on a partition-by-growth table space?
A. Only NPI's are allowed.
B. Only DPSI's are allowed.
C. All index types are allowed.
D. DPSI's and NPI's are allowed.
Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Three AFTER triggers (TRIG1 TRIG2, TRIG3) have been created on the same table and are
designed to run in sequential order TRIG1 through TRIG3. Each of these triggers were bound
with ISOLATION(CS), CURRENTDATA(YES) and EXPLAIN(NO). After their first use, there are
concerns about concurrency issues on returned data and questions about the access path of the
triggered SQL. What would be the minimum number of parameter changes needed to resolve the
concurrency issues?
A. Rebind all three triggers specifying ISOLATION(CS) and EXPLAIN(YES).
B. Rebind all three triggers specifying CURRENTDATA(NO) and EXPLAIN(YES).
C. Rebind all three triggers specifying ISOLATION(RR), CURRENTDATA(NO), and
EXPLAIN(ND).
D. Rebind all three triggers specifying ISOLATION(RS), CURRENTDATA(NO), and
EXPLAIN(YES).
Answer: B
QUESTION 76
Which of the following statements is correct about a clone table?
A. It will have the same PSID and OBID as the base table.
B. It will be structurally different (column names, data types, etc.) than the base table.
C. It will restrict the use of REORG with FASTSWITCH on the base table and the clone table.
D. It will be referred to by the same name and will not have different data than the base table.
Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Which of the following statements is correct regarding LOB support in DB2?
A. A table can only have one LOB column.
B. A composite index must be defined on the auxiliary table.
C. A LOB table space must be created to contain the LOB column in the same database
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containing the base table.
D. The auxiliary table must have two indexes, one index built on the primary key column and
another index built on the foreign key column.
Answer: C
QUESTION 78
When creating a range-partitioned table space, what determines the maximum number of
partitions and total table space size possible?
A. The NUMPARTS clause
B. The MAXPARTITIONS clause
C. The page size and DSSIZE
D. The buffer pool and lock size
Answer: C
QUESTION 79
In an effort to minimize the amount of disk space currently being used by an existing rapidly
growing production index created on a table with all fixed length rows, which combination of index
changes should a DBA specify on the ALTER INDEX SQL statement?
A. FREEPAGE 0 NOT PADDED
B. ERASE YES PIECESIZE 2G
C. BUFFERPOOL BP8K1 COMPRESS YES
D. NOT PADDED BUFFERPOOL BP8K1
Answer: C
QUESTION 80
Which of the following cannot be ALTERed on a DB2 tablespace?
A. SEGSIZE
B. COMPRESS
C. TRACKMOD
D. GBPCACHE
Answer: A
QUESTION 81
A DBA would like to append a new integer column (GECODE) to a materialized query table
(SUMSALES). Which of the following statements would need to be executed first?
A. ALTER TABLE SUMSALES SET MAINTAINED BY USER;
B. ALTER TABLE SUMSALES DROP MATERIALIZED QUERY;
C. ALTER TABLE SUMSALES DISABLE QUERY OPTIMIZATION;
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D. ALTER TABLE SUMSALES ADD COLUMN GECODE INTEGER;
Answer: B
QUESTION 82
A DBA creates a table and sequence using the following statements:
CREATE TABLE ORDER_MASTER
(ORDERNO INTEGER NOT NULL,
ALTORDER INTEGER GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY
(START WITH 1,
INCREMENT BY 5,
NO MAXVALUE,
NO CYCLE)
ROWADDED TIMESTAMP NOT NULL WITH DEFAULT)
IN DATABASE ORDDB;
CREATE SEQUENCE ORDER_SEQ
START WITH 1
INCREMENT BY 3
NO MAXVALUE
NO CYCLE
CACHE 0;
After these objects are created, the following insert is performed twice - once on member DB1A
of a datasharing group and then once on member DB1B of the same datasharing group.
INSERT INTO ORDER_MASTER (ORDERNO)
VALUES (NEXT VALUE FOR ORDER_SEQ);
What will be the values for ORDERNO and ALTORDER respectively for the second inserted row
for table ORDER_MASTER?
A. 1,1
B. 1,6
C. 4,1
D. 4,6
Answer: D
QUESTION 83
A distributed query from a z/OS client with the default encoding scheme of EBCDIC is issued
against an ASCII table. If an ORDER BY is specified in the query, in what encoding scheme is the
data returned and in what sequence is the result set returned respectively to the requester?
A. ASCIII, ASCII
B. EBCDIC, ASCII
C. ASCII, EBCDIC
D. EBCDIC, EBCDIC
Answer: B
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QUESTION 84
In order to potentially use all the space allowed in a table space before running out of extents,
what must be specified?
A. Set PRIQTY and SECQTY to their maximum values
B. Set MAXROWS to the highest allowed value
C. Set MGEXTSZ to the value YES
D. Set NUMPARTS to 4096
Answer: C
QUESTION 85
Which of the following is the best assurance for avoiding a table space scan when using a
ROWID in a simple single predicate of the form ROWID_COL = <value>?
A. Create an index on the ROWID_COL.
B. Use the RID function in the predicate.
C. A table space scan is not possible due to the implicit index on ROWID_COL.
D. Make sure the value is used in the same unit of work in which it was retrieved.
Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which of the following is one of the primary advantages of a normalized database design?
A. It will reduce the number of joins.
B. It improves the performance of the database
C. The number of tables in the database is reduced.
D. Logical data integrity is more easily maintained within the database
Answer: D
QUESTION 87
In which of the following catalog tables are the distribution statistics for an index on expression
stored?
A. SYSINDEXES
B. SYSCOLDIST
C. SYSKEYTGTDIST
D. SYSINDEXSTATS
Answer: C
QUESTION 88
A DBA has an index-controlled partitioning table and wants to convert to table-controlled
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partitioning. Which of the following could be part of the solution?
A. Recover partitioned index.
B. Perform a REORG REBALANCE.
C. Redefine the key columns used by DPSI.
D. Issue the ALTER TABLE ROTATE statement.
Answer: D
QUESTION 89
A table is defined with a primary key constraint on the ACCT_ID column. What happens when a
DROP INDEX is issued on the only unique index on ACCT_ID?
A. The DROP INDEX statement fails.
B. The primary key is also dropped
C. All foreign keys are also dropped.
D. The unique constraint is no longer enforced.
Answer: A
QUESTION 90
The DOCID column is implicitly defined in a table with XML columns with which one of the
following datatypes?
A. FLOAT
B. BIGINT
C. VARCHAR
D. VARBINARY
Answer: B
QUESTION 91
When creating a LOB table space, the page size of the buffer pool specified on the CREATE LOB
TABLESPACE statement may be:
A. 32KB only
B. 16KB or 32KB only
C. 8K8, 16K8, or 32K8 only
D. 4KB, 8KB, 16KB, or 32KB
Answer: D
QUESTION 92
What would be a good example of the use of an INSTEAD OF trigger?
A. An application will update a column in a view built on an inner join.
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B. An application needs to delete all rows of one specific type from a table.
C. An application will update a column in a table that participates in an outer join.
D. An application needs to SELECT information from a joined table without listing all columns.
Answer: A
QUESTION 93
What is the most efficient way to determine successful completion, end of file, and number of
rows returned after a multi-row fetch operation?
A. Use the GET DIAGNOSTICS statement.
B. Count the number of present values in the result set array.
C. Interpret the SQLCODE and SQLERRD3 fields of the SQLCA.
D. Use the GET DIAGNOSTICS FOR CONDITION 1 statement.
Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Which of the following DSNZPAPM parameters affects the creation, disconnection, recreation
and reuse of active DBAT threads for distributed connections?
A. IDFORE
B. CMTSTAT
C. CTHREAD
D. IDTHTOIN
Answer: B
QUESTION 95
Which option would collect the best statistics for optimization for the following statement, given a
skewed distribution of data values?
SELECT T1.EMPID FROM IBM_EMPLOYEE T1, IBM_OPENJOBS T2
WHERE T1.SPECIALTY= T2.AREAAND
T1.YRS_OF_EXPERIENCE > T2.YRS_OF_EXPERIENCE;
A. KEYCARD
B. COLGROUP
C. HISTOGRAM
D. FREQVAL NUMCOLS 1 COUNT 10
Answer: C
QUESTION 96
Which of the following can provide information that DB2 applications are suffering from the
system nearly at 100% busy?

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A. The DB2 accounting class(1,2,3) will provide clues.
B. Start a DB2 performance trace with the TDATA(CPU) option.
C. -DIS THD(*) TYPE(SYSTEM) will indicate that a thread has been waiting for CPU.
D. The DB2 statistics data will report the time DB2 applications were waiting for CPU.
Answer: A
QUESTION 97
Assuming an application is using KEEPDYAMIC(YES), does not re-prepare SQL statements after
a commit, and the system is not constrained by virtual storage, which of the following statements
is correct?
A. A global dynamic statement cache hit ratio of 0% and a local cache hit ratio of 100% provides
the best performance for such an application.
B. A global dynamic statement cache hit ratio of 100% and a local cache hit ratio of 0% is an
indicator that the application is performing well.
C. Set the CACHEDYN DSNZPARM to a value so that DB2 never needs to discard a statement
from the local cache. This will have a positive effect on the performance of this application.
D. Set MAXKEEPD=0 for autonomic management of the local cache usage. This allows DB2 to
automatically adjust for optimal distribution between local and global dynamic statement
cache usage.
Answer: A
QUESTION 98
When is the use of the PGFIX(YES) option for buffer pools recommended to reduce CPU
consumption?
A. When the buffer pool is doing a lot of castout I/O activity
B. When the buffer pool mainly consists mostly of read-only objects
C. When the buffer pool is I/O intensive, provided there is enough real storage to support page
fixing
D. When the buffer pool is doing a lot of read I/O, but little write I/O, provided there is enough
virtual storage to support page fixing
Answer: C
QUESTION 99
Which of the following is a Stage 1 and indexable predicate?
A. WHERE COL1 <>10
B. WHERE COL1 LIKE '%CDE'
C. WHERE :hv BETWEEN COL1 AND COL2
D. WHERE COL1 IS NOT DISTINCT FROM COL2
Answer: D
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QUESTION 100
Which of the following statements about index compression is correct?
A. Index compression only saves space on disk, not in the buffer pool.
B. The only type of index compression that exists is truncation of redundant data in non-leaf
index pages.
C. The compression dictionary for compressed indexes is stored above the bar, like dictionaries
for table spaces.
D. Index compression is only supported with the correct disk hardware because the index
compression is done by the storage subsystem.
Answer: A
QUESTION 101
Why is the following predicate a stage 2 predicate? WHERE SUBSTR(CHAR_CDL1,1,19) =
SUBSTR(CAST(CAST(546321857. AS DEC(19)) AS CHAR(20)),1,19)
A. Column expressions are a stage 2 process.
B. The CAST expressions makes the predicate stage 2.
C. DB2 character matching cannot exceed 18 characters.
D. Any numeric to character conversion forces the predicate to be stage 2.
Answer: A
QUESTION 102
RID list failure can be an important performance metric. What is the meaning of the following
performance key indicator? RID list processing was terminated - RDS limit exceeded
A. RID list processing terminated due to the 2 GB storage limit exceeded.
B. RID list processing terminated because the number of entries exceeded 26 million.
C. RID list processing terminated because either the number of RID entries was greater than the
maximum limit of 25% of table size or because the number of RID entries that can fit into the
guaranteed number of RID blocks was exceeded.
D. RID list processing was terminated because the index was not clustered and the RDS could
not sort the index entries.
Answer: C
QUESTION 103
The EDM pool (EDMPOOL DSNZPARM) is too small when:
A. the number of short prepares (QXSTFND) is low.
B. the number of FREE PAGES in the EDM POOL (QISEFREE) is very small.
C. an application receives SQLCODE -904 RC00C90089 Type 00000602 (EDM DBD space).
D. the ratio of the number of PTs not in the EDM POOL (QISEKTL) / the total number of PT
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requests (QISEKTG) is very high.
Answer: D
QUESTION 104
A DB2 system was migrated to a new release. A DBA wants to investigate if all applications using
static SQL can benefit from some of the access path enhancements in the new release without
impacting the way the application is currently run. What series of steps should be followed?
A. REBIND all plans and packages with REOPT(AUTO)and EXPLAIN(YES), and compare the
old and new access path.
B. REBIND PLAN(*), followed by BIND PACKAGE(*) into a separate collection using
EXPLAIN(YES), and compare the old and new access path.
C. REBIND PLAN(*) EXPLAIN(YES) into a separate collection, followed by BIND PACK4GE(*)
EXPLAIN(YES) into a separate collection, and compare the old and new access path.
D. REBIND all plans under a different name using EXPLAIN(YES), followed by BIND
PACKAGE(*) EXPLAIN(YES) into a separate collection, and compare the old and new
access path.
Answer: D
QUESTION 105
An application wants to have a copy of a prepared statement kept across a commit and available
in an applications local cache without having to search the global cache. Which option would
provide this?
A. REOPT(ONCE)
B. CACHEDYN=YES
C. REOPT(ALWAYS)
D. KEEPDYNAMIC(YES)
Answer: D
QUESTION 106
A DBA needs to load a table with several indexes and build the indexes in parallel to reduce the
elapsed time of the load utility. Which of the following load statements achieves the goal of the
DBA?
A. LOAD DATA INDDN >xxxx< INTO TABLE yyy
B. LOAD DATA INDON >xxxx< INTO TABLE yyyy SORTBLD
C. LOAD DATA INDDN >xxxx < INTO TABLE yjyy SORTDATA
D. LOAD DATA INDDN >xxxx < INTO TABLE yyyy EXTERNAL
Answer: A

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QUESTION 107
Which of the following tasks is NOT possible with Visual Explain?
A. Create an optimization hint
B. View the contents of a PLAN_TABLE
C. Dynamically EXPLAIN an SQL statement
D. View statements and activity in the dynamic statement cache
Answer: A
QUESTION 108
Which of the following does NOT apply for AVGPOWLEN statistic?
A. Helpful for rows with VARCHARs
B. Helpful for rows with BIGINT columns only
C. Helpful with segmented table space with many tables
D. Used by the REORG & LOAD utilities for space allocation
Answer: B
QUESTION 109
The key indicator "Prefetch disabled - No read engine" is an important performance metric. What
does it indicate?
A. The sequential prefetch threshold has been reached
B. A need to increase the # of read engines in the dsnzparm to a higher value
C. The size of the buffer is small thus does not accommodate minimum prefetch quantity
D. I/O subsystem contention that is not allowing prefetch to complete fast enough and all the
engines have requests queued waiting for completion
Answer: D
QUESTION 110
A DB2 statistics report shows a lot of incremental bind operations. Which of the following
situations can lead to incremental bind operations?
A. The use of the ACQUIRE(USE) BIND option
B. The use of the REOPT(ALWAYS) BIND option
C. The use of created global temporary tables
D. The use of the DYNAMICRULLS(RUN) BIND option
Answer: B
QUESTION 111
A DBA is suspicious that an application that calls a stored procedure needs to wait a long time on
WLM to get the stored procedure running in a WLM managed stored proc address space. Which
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trace is most appropriate to determine whether or not this is the case?
A. -STA TRA(ACCTG) CLASS(1,2,3)
B. -STA TRA(PERFM) CLASS(1,2,3)
C. -STA TRA(GLOBAL) CLASS(1,2,3)
D. -STA TRA(STATS) CLASS(1,2,4,5,6)
Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Based on the DB2 product documentation, for an environment where a transactional workload
with a regular, uniform pattern of activity' and peaks of activity are predictable, which is the best
general method (best being least use of resources to perform the monitoring) for performance
monitoring (i.e. no particular problem has been identified yet)?
A. Detailed Performance Monitoring
B. Periodic Performance Monitoring
C. Exception Performance Monitoring
D. Continuous Performance Monitoring
Answer: B
QUESTION 113
Which of the following address spaces are needed for a DB2 Stored Procedure to execute
successfully?
A. Distributed and Master
B. WLM Application Environment and Distributed
C. UNIX System Services and Resource Recovery Services
D. WLM Application Environment and Resource Recovery Services
Answer: D
QUESTION 114
Which of the following is true regarding the use of the RESTORE SYSTEM utility at a disaster
recovery site?
A. The copy pool target volumes must be restored.
B. DB2 must be started before any of the DB2 copy pools are recovered.
C. The tapes for all of the dump classes, associated with the DB2 copy pools, must be available.
D. The DFSMShsm environment must be restored to a point in time that is synchronized with the
restore of the BSDS datasets.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 115
The actual degree of parallelism used during the execution of a COPY or RECOVER utility:
A. is limited by the dsnzparm PARAMDEG (MAX DEGREE).
B. is limited by available virtual storage and by CPU.
C. is set by the value of the CURRENT DEGREE special register.
D. is always the degree specified on the PARALLEL keyword in the utility statement.
Answer: B
QUESTION 116
DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX was recovered to a prior point in time. An application table space has to
be recovered to the current point in time. What RECOVER option should be specified in order to
apply the necessary logs?
A. LOGONLY
B. TOLOGPOINT
C. ERROR RANGE
D. LOGRANGES NO
Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Which of the following commands can be used to purge incomplete UR thread related information
that DB2 retains because DB2 can not resynchronize with a two phase commit coordinator?
A. -RESET INDOUBT
B. -RESET GENERICLU
C. -CANCEL DDF THREAD
D. -RECOVER POSTPONED CANCEL
Answer: A
QUESTION 118
WLM is used to DIRECTLY manage which of the following types of threads?
A. Distributed threads
B. Allied threads utilizing CAP
C. Allied threads utilizing RRSAP
D. Allied threads utilizing TSO ATTACH
Answer: A
QUESTION 119
Which of the following is the purpose of Real Time Statistics (RTS)?

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A. To help analyze a particular DB2 PLAN.
B. To use as input for an accounting report.
C. To help the optimizer to determine the access path for an SQL statement.
D. To help determine if a DB2 object such as a table space needs COPY, REDRG, or
RUNSTATS.
Answer: D
QUESTION 120
The following scenario is done with a logged table space:
1. Full COPY of the table space.
2. Two inserts are done to a table in the table space.
3. A QUIESCE of the table space is done.
4. A point in time recovery is done to the last full copy.
Which of the following is true for a subsequent recovery?
A. The data inserted at point 2 can be retrieved by doing a recover to current.
B. The log records for the two inserts at point 2 will be ignored by a recover to current.
C. The data at point 2 will not be recovered by doing a point in time recovery to the QUIESCE at
point 3.
D. The data at point 2 can be recovered if LOGRANGES NO is specified in the RECOVER utility
control statement.
Answer: B
QUESTION 121
A DBA wants to determine if any table spaces in database (DBASE01) are in a state which
prevents updating. Which of the following commands provides this information?
A. -DISPLAY DATABASE(DSASE01) SPACENAM(*) lCOPY
B. -DISPLAY DATABASE(DBASE01) SPACENAM(ALL) UTRO
C. -DISPLAY DATABASE(DSASE01) SPACENAM(*) RESTRICT
D. -DISPLAY DATABASE(DSASE01) SPACENAM(ALL) RESTRICT
Answer: C
QUESTION 122
A data sharing environment contains two members, Ml and M2 on separate LPARs, L1 and L2
respectively with two coupling facilities C1 and C2. C1 contains the Lock and SCA structures and
C2 contains the GBP structures. The LOOK and SCA structures are NOT duplexed. Assume all
of the structures can reside on either C1 or C2 based on the CRFM policy PREFLIST. Member
M1 loses connectivity to C1. What immediate action is necessary in order to minimize loss of data
availability to the application?
A. Restart member M1 on L2.
B. Start all database objects in GRECP status.
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C. Change the CFRM policy to duplex the Lock and SCA structure.
D. No action is needed. The Lock and SCA structures are automatically rebuilt in C2.
Answer: D
QUESTION 123
Which of the following utilities can perform validity checks on each page of a user table space?
A. COPY
B. REPAIR
C. DSN1CHKR
D. DIAGNOSE
Answer: A
QUESTION 124
A table space with three partitions has a clustering index that does not match the partitioning key
and the table space partitions need to be rebalanced. What is the minimum number of times
REORG TABLESPACE must be executed so that data is rebalanced and all rows are in
clustering order?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
QUESTION 125
Given the following utility control statement
LOAD DATA
RESUME YES
SHRLEVEL CHANGE
INTO TABLE ADMF001.TABLE001
(ID_PARTITION POSITION(1) CHAR(1),
CD_PLANT POSITION(2) CHAR(9),
NO_PART_BASE POSITION(7) CHAR(9),
NO_PART_PREFIX POSITION(16) CHAR(7),
NO_PART_SUFFIX POSITION(23) CHAR(8),
NO_PART_CONTROL POSITION(31) CHAR(3)
If the LOAD utility is used to add an additional 100,000 rows of data into the ADMF001
.TABLE001 table, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Free space is not honored during the loading of data.
B. Data is loaded starting at the end of the existing data.
C. All loaded data is rolled back if the utility terminates abnormally.
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D. The BUILD phase will rebuild all indexes on the ADMF001.TABLE001 table.
Answer: A
QUESTION 126
At the disaster recovery site, the bootstrap dataset (BSDS) needs to be recovered. What would
be the location of a copy of the bootstrap dataset?
A. The current active log
B. The first file created by the archive log process
C. The second file created by the archive log process
D. The latest image copy of the tablespace SYSLRGNX
Answer: B
QUESTION 127
The output below is the result of a -DIS THD(*) command.
16.32.57 DB1G DISPLAY THREAD(*)
16.32.57 ST000090 DSNV401I DB1G DISPLAY THREAD REPORT FOLLOWS - 16.32.57
ST000090 DSNV4021 DB1G ACTIVE THREADS - NAME ST A
REQ ID AUTHID PLAN ASID TOKEN
BATCH T * 1 PUPPYDML USER001 DSNTEP3 0025 30
PT * 641 PUPPYDML USER001 DSNTEP3 002A 40
PT * 72 PUPPYDML USER001 DSNTEP3 002A 39
PT * 549 PUPPYDML USER001 DSNTEP3 002A 38
PT * 892 PUPPYDML USER001 DSNTEP3 002A 37
PT * 47 PUPPYDML USER001 DSNTEP3 002A 36
PT *612 PUPPYDML USER001 DSNTEP3 002A 35
Which of the following is true?
A. The originating thread is allied and non-distributed.
B. The threads with a STATUS=PT are in DEALLOCATION.
C. The parallel threads are in either IDENTIFY or SIGNON status.
D. The thread with TOKEN=40 is in a DRDA conversation with a two phase commit.
Answer: A
QUESTION 128
A logged table space is recovered with the TOLOGPOINT parameter specified, to a point in time
that is not a quiesce point. Which of the following options would be the final result?
A. Changes that are INCOMMIT will be rolled back.
B. The table space is recovered to a consistent state.
C. The LOGUNDO phase will be done simultaneously on all members.
D. A table space will stay in reordered row format even if it is recovered to a point in time when it
was in basic row format.
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Answer: B
QUESTION 129
A DB2 subsystem always generates 6 archive logs a day. This subsystem specifies a maximum
of 12 active logs and 30 archive logs be kept. In order to safely recover any object to currency
from an unplanned or planned outage, what is the MAXIMUM length of time between successive
image copies?
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 12 hours
Answer: B
QUESTION 130
A DBA is concerned that the degree of parallelism has been reduced for a specific query. Where
can the DBA identify the actual degree of parallelism used at run time?
A. In the PLAN_TABLE
B. In the DSN_STATEMNT_TABLE
C. In the output of a statistics trace
D. In the output of a performance trace
Answer: D
QUESTION 131
Unused physical space can be reclaimed from a LOB table space by using which of the following
methods?
A. REORG the LOB table space with DISCARD
B. REORG the LOB table space with SHRLEVEL NONE
C. REORG the LOB table space with SHRLEVEL REFERENCE
D. DELETE/DEFINE the VSAM dataset and then RECOVER the LOB table space
Answer: C
QUESTION 132
If there is a need to determine the actual checkpoint frequency and the start and end RBA for the
5 most current checkpoints, what DB2 utility should be run?
A. DSNJLOGF
B. DSNJU003
C. DSNJU004
D. DSN1COMP
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Answer: C
QUESTION 133
A DBA has only been given administrative authority of SYSOPR. Which of the following
commands cannot be issued?
A. -TERM UTIL (*)
B. -RECOVER POSTPONED
C. -START DATABASE (DSNDB01)
D. -DISPLAY THREAD TYPE (SYSTEM)
Answer: C
QUESTION 134
A DBA issued a -DISPLAY DATABASE(DB5) command to see what table spaces, if any, are in a
restrictive status. Part of the output of the display shows that one of the table spaces TS1 is in
both GRECP and LPL status. The DBA is instructed to remove both restrictive states. Which of
the following actions should the DBA take to correct the problem?
A. REORG TABLESPACE DB5.TS1
B. CHECK DATA TABLESPACE DB5.TS1
C. COPY TABLESPACE DB5.TS1 SHRLEVEL REFERENCE
D. -START DATABASE(DB5) SPACENAM(TS1)ACCESS(RW)
Answer: D
QUESTION 135
Which of the following items should a D02 data sharing group in the sysplex include?
A. One workfile to be shared between all members of the group
B. One BSDS dataset to be shared between all members of the group
C. One active log dataset to be shared between all members of the group
D. One DB2 catalog and directory to be shared between all members of the group
Answer: D
QUESTION 136
Which of the following is true for compatibility mode* (CM*)?
A. DN2 can fall back to v8.
B. Data sharing groups can have v8 members.
C. Changes made to the catalog during migration are undone.
D. Objects created in v9 new function mode can still be accessed.
Answer: D
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QUESTION 137
Which of the following DSNZPARMs would be used to specify the amount of DBD cache that can
be used by the environmental descriptor manager?
A. LDMPOOL
B. EDMDBDC
C. MAXDBAT
D. EDMSTMTC
Answer: B
QUESTION 138
Which of the following queries could be used to determine which ID's have been granted DBADM
authority?
A. SELECT DISTINCT GRANTEE
FROM SYSIEMSYSRESAUTH
WHERE AUTHHOWGOT = 'D';
B. SELECT DISTINCT GRANTEE
FROM SYSIBM.SYSDBAUTH
WHERE DOADMAUTH <>'';
C. SELECT DISTINCT GRANTEE
FROM SYSIEMSYSUSERAUTH
WHERE CREATEDBAAUTH c';
D. SELECT DISTINCT GRANTEE
FROM SYSIBM.SYSUSERAUTH
WHERE GRANTEE = 'DBADM';
Answer: B
QUESTION 139
Which of the following is a characteristic of a trusted context?
A. IP address
B. RACF profile
C. SNA password
D. Security software version
Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Which of the following statements on roles and trusted contexts is correct?
A. When a role is defined for a trusted context, the role always becomes the owner of any
created objects.
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B. When a role is defined for a trusted context, the role associated with the binder always
becomes the owner of created objects.
C. When a role is defined for a trusted context, the role specified in the OWNER option always
becomes the owner of created objects.
D. When a role is defined for a trusted context, the role always becomes the owner of created
objects, if the ROLE AS OBJECT OWNER clause is specified.
Answer: D
QUESTION 141
Which explicit collection privilege allows the user to name the collection in the BIND PACKAGL
command?
A. COPY
B. BINDADD
C. CREATE IN
D. BINDAGENT
Answer: C
QUESTION 142
What is the number of IBM provided exit routines a DB2 subsystem has for authorization?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A
QUESTION 143
A DBA has turned on audit trace. An application issues 3 inserts and then issues 1 COMMIT
against a table that was defined with the AUDIT CHANGES keyword. What will the audit trace
show?
A. All inserts
B. The last insert
C. The first insert
D. None of the inserts
Answer: C
QUESTION 144
An audit trace shows that TSO ID TSOID1 is creating views on audited table TB1 in DB2 DSN1.
Which of the following actions will prevent TSOID1 from creating views on TBl?

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A. Revoke SELECT authority for TBl from TSOID1.
B. Revoke REFERENCES authorityforT6l from TSOID1.
C. Revoke DBADM authority on database DSN1 from TSOID1.
D. Change TSOID1 's level of access for the DSNR class profile DSN1 BATCH to
ACCESS(READ).
Answer: A
QUESTION 145
An administrator has to permit access to DB2 system DSN1 to a user that has no access. The
user is granted SYSADM authority. What is the minimum level of RACF access to the subsystem
profile(DSN1 .BATCH) that will be required if the user wants to update tables from SPUFI?
A. NONE
B. READ
C. ALTER
D. UPDATE
Answer: B

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