civil engineering objective type questions

Objective solved questions civil engineering.

Free Solved Civil Engg Objective test
1. The head on a sharp-crested rectangular weir of height 1.6 m and crest length 1.2 m was incorrectly observed to be
0.13 m when it was actually 0.15 m. What was the percentage error in the computed value of flow rate?
(a) 0.5%
(b) 1.0%
(c) 2.0%
(d) 1.5%
Ans. (c)
2. Consider the following with respect to measurement of stream flow during flood:
l. Timing of the travel of floats released in the stream
2. Use of weir formula, for spillways provided on a dam
3. Calculation of flow through a contracted opening at a bridge
4. Using a current meter
Which of the above is/are reliable and accurate?
(a) 1
(b) 4 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
3. What is the most important design parameter used in designing a continuous flow rectangular sedimentation tank for removal of discrete particles?
(a) Length of the tank
(b) Surface overflow rate
(c) Depth of the tank
(D) Temperature of the water to be treated
Ans. (b)
4. Effluent from a wastewater treatment plant (flow rate = 8640 m3/d, temperature = 25 C) is discharged to a surface stream (flow rate = 1.2 m3/s,
temperature = 15 C). What is the temperature of the stream after mixing?
(a) 10C
(b) 15.77 C
(c) 20 C
(d) 24.99 C
Ans. (b)
5.. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Type of impurity) (Harm caused)
A. Excess of nitrates 1. Brackish water
B. Excess of fluorides 2. Goiter
C. Lack of iodides 3. Fragile bones
D. Excess of chlorides 4. . Blue babies
Code:
ABCD
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans. (c)
6. The concentration of OH- ion in a water sample is measured as 17 mg/L at 25 C. What is the pH of the water sample?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans. (d)

7. Which one of the following types of samples is relevantly employed for the design of wastewater treatment plant?
(a) Grab sample
(b) Composite sample
(c) Integrated sample
(d) Any sample
Ans. (a)
8. A drain carrying sewage of BOD = 200 mg/L and flow rate of 50 m3/s joins a river whose upstream BOD is 8 mg/L and flow rate is 500 m3/s.
Assume immediate and complete mixing of drain with the river. What is the estimated downstream BOD of the river flow?
(a) 20.4 mg/L
(b) 25.4 mg/L
(c) 104.4 mg/L
(d) 70.4 mg/L
Ans. (b)
9. A 12.5 mL sample of treated wastewater requires 187.5 mL of odor-free distilled water to reduce the odor to a level that is just
perceptible. What is the threshold odor number (TON) for the wastewater sample?
(a) 0.07
(b) 1.07
(c) 15
(d) 16.
Ans. (d)
10. Which one of the following parameters is not included in the routine characterization of, solid waste for its physical composition?
(a) Moisture content
(b) Density
(c) Particle size analysis
(d) Energy value
Ans. (d)
11. Which one of the following processes of water softening requires recarbonation?
(a) Lime-soda ash process
(b) Hydrogen-cation exchanger process
(c) Sodium-cation exchanger process
(d) Demineralization
Ans. (a)
12. Math List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Water/Wastewater treatment) (Operating problem)
A. Trickling filter 1. Negative head
B. Activated sludge process 2. Fly-breeding
C. Rapid gravity filter 3. Sludge bulking
D. Anaerobic sludge digester 4. pH reduction
Code:
ABCD
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b)
13. Consider the following treatment process units in a water treatment plant:
1. Coagulation
2. Disinfection
3. Sedimentation
4. Filtration
Which is the correct sequence of the process units in the water treatment plant?
(a) 2-4-3-1
(b) 1-4-3-2
(c) 2-3-4-1

(d) 1-3-4-2
Ans. (d)
14. Which one of the following tests of water/ wastewater employs Erichrome Black T as indicator?
(a) Hardness.
(b) COD
(c) Residual chlorine
(d) DO
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following pollutants are generally not removed in a sewage treatment plant?
(a) Inorganic suspended solids
(b) Dissolved organic solids
(c) Oil and grease
(d) Dissolved inorganic, solids
Ans. (b)
16. A clay sample, originally 26 mm thick at a void ratio of 1.22, was subjected to a compressive load. After the clay sample
was completely consolidated, its thickness was measured to be 24 mm. What is the final void ratio?
(a) 1.322
(b) 1.421
(c) 1.311
(d) 1.050
Ans. (d)
17. For a sandy soil with soil grains spherical in shape and uniform in size, what is the theoretical void ratio?
(a) 0.61
(b) 0.71
(c) 0.91
(d) 0.81
Ans. (c)
18. A soil has liquid limit = 35, plastic limit = 20, shrinkage limit = 10 and natural moisture content = 25%. What will be its liquidity index, plasticity
index and shrinkage index?
(a) 0.67, 15 and 25
(b) 0.33, 15 and 10
(c) 0.67, 25 and 15
(d) 0.33, 20 and 15
Ans. (b)
19. A cohesive soil yields a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 during a standard Proctor Compaction test. If the specific gravity is 2.65, what would
be its void ratio?
(a) 0.552
(b) 0.624
(c) 0.712
(d) 0.583
Ans. (b)
20. Consider the following:
1. Increase in shear strength and bearing capacity
2. Increase in slope stability
3. Decrease in settlement of soil
4. Decrease in permeability
Which of the above with respect to compaction of soil is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
21. Which one of the following toxic gases has physiological action as asphyxiant?
(a) SO2

(b) NO2
(c) Cl2
(d) CO
Ans. (a)
22. Assuming annual travel for each vehicle to be 20000 km, what is the quantity of NOx produced from 50000 vehicles with emission rate of 2.0
g/km/vehicle?
(a) 1800 tonnes
(b) 1900 tonnes
(c) 2000 tonnes
(d) 2100 tonnes
Ans. (c)
23. What are the air pollutants responsible for acid rain within and downwind areas of major industrial emissions?
(a) Hydrogen sulfide and oxides of nitrogen
(b) Sulfure dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide
(d) methane and hydrogen sulfide
Ans. (b)
24. Consider the following air pollutants:
1. NOx
2. PAN
3. CO2
4. CO
Which of the above air pollutants is/are present in an auto exhaust gas?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
25. Which one of the following conditions is valid in case of unconfined compression test in comparison to triaxial test?
(a) Minor principal stress = 0
(b) Minor principal stress = 0.5 major principal stress
(c) Minor principal stress = major principal stress
(d) Major principal stress = 3 minor principal stress
Ans. (a)
Civil Engineering MCQ
Multiple choice questions Civil Engineering
free mcqs for civil engineering
Multiple Choice Questions With Answers On Civil Engineering
1. Consider the following statements:
(1) Soil containing more than 30% of Calcium hydroxide is used for manufacture of sand lime brick.
(2) Carbon brick is made from crushed coke bonded with tar.
Which of the statements given is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)
2. What is the number of traditional bricks required for 10m 3 of brickwork with standard thickness of cement mortar (1 : 3 to 1: 5, as the case may
be)?
(a) 4750
(b) 4850
(c) 4950
(d) 5050
Ans. (d)
3. Consider the following statements on cement mortar in brick masonry:
(1) Cracking in brick masonry in most of the cases is due to differential movement of the structure.
(2) Rich mix cement mortar in brick masonry makes the structure unnecessarily rigid.
(3) Small quantity of hydrated lime in cement mortar reduces shrinkage cracks.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I

List-II

(Composition of raw material used in (Component of raw material)

Manufacture of cement)
A. 25%

1. Silica

B. 65%

2. Calcium oxide

C. 5%

3. Aluminum oxide

D. 5%

4. Ferrous and magnesium oxides

Code:
A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (a)
5. Match List-I with List-II in respect of ordinary Portland cement and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I

List-II

(Compound)

(Proportion)

A. Tricalcium silicate

1. 25 to 30%

B. Dicalcium silicate

2. 50 to 60%

C. Tricalcium aluminate

3. 6 to 8%

D. Tertra calcium aluminoferrite

4. 8 to 12 %

Code:
A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (c)
6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I

List-II

(Wood Element)

(Description)

A. Pitch

1. Innermost portion of the tree

B. Sapwood

2. Inner annual rings surrounding the pitch

C .Heart wood

3. Outermost annual rings

D. Cambium layer

4. Thin layer of sap between sapwood and inner banks

Code:
A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (a)
7. In respect of moisture content in wood, the fiber saturation point refers to which one of the
following?
(a) Free water present in the cells
(b) Free water present in cell walls and cell cavities
(c) No moisture present in cell walls and cell cavities
(d) No free water exists in cell cavities but cell walls and saturated
Ans. (d)
8. The moisture content of timber used in building frames can be
(a) 2% to 5%
(b) 8% to l2
(c) 12 % to 18%
(d) > 20%
Ans. (b)
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I

List-II

A. Dry rot

1. Attack of sapwood by fungus

B. Grey rot

2. Damage to wood fibers due to chemical decomposition

of wood
C. Wet rot

3. Destruction of cellulose of wood due to fungal attack

D. White rot

4. Destruction of lignin of wood due to fungal attack

Code:
A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (a)
10. For flatly laid single brick soling, what is the number of bricks required of nominal size 20cm x 10 cm x 10 cm, with 1.2cm wide cement mortar all
around and with allowing up to 1% wastage for 10 m2 area?
(a) 400
(b) 410
(c) 425
(d) 440
Ans. (c)
11. Consider the following statements:
1. In reinforced cement concrete, modular ratio is defined by the ratio (modulus of elasticity of steel) / (modulus of elasticity of concrete)
2. Modulus of rupture of cement concrete is a function of its characteristic compressive strength.
3. The characteristic compressive strength of M20 grade cement concrete at 7 days is 20 N/mm 2.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
12. What is the percentage of the fine aggregate of fineness modulus 2.6 to be combined with coarse aggregate of fineness modulus 6.8 for
obtaining combined aggregate of fineness modulus 5.4?
(a) 30%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Ans. (c)
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I

List-II

(Admixture)
1.

(Action in concrete)

Calcium lignosulphonate 1. Accelerators

B. Aluminum powders 2. Retarder

C. Tartaric acid

3. Air entrainer

D. Sodium silicate

4. Water reducer

Code:
A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (b)
14. Which factors influence the workability of concrete without sacrificing strength?
1. Fine aggregate
2. Quantity of mixing water
3. Maximum size of coarse aggregate
4. Shape of coarse aggregate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
15. The workability of concrete can be increased by which of the following?
1. Increasing the quantity of coarse aggregate without altering the total aggregate quantity.
2. Decreasing the quantity of coarse aggregate and at the same time correspondingly increasing the quantity of fine aggregate.
3. Using round aggregate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using, the code given below the lists:
List-I

List-II

(Equipment)

(Property)

A. Briquette testing machine 1. Compressive strength

B. Le Chatelier apparatus

2. Consistency

C. Vicat apparatus

3. Soundness

4. Tensile strength
Code:
A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (d)
17. When sand for construction work is stored at site in stacks of 61 cm height, what allowance due to sinkage and srinkage should be provided?
(a) 5%
(b) 7.5%
(c) 10%
(d) 12.5%
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of the following is the correct range of fineness modulus of medium sand usable in preparing cement mortar?
(a) 1.5 to 2.2
(b) 2.6 to 2.9
(c) 2.9 to 3.2
(d) 5.5 to 6.5
Ans. (b)
19. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Particle size and texture

Affects workability

2. Absorption and surface moisture

Affects mix proportions

3. Grading

Maximizes cement content

4. Bulk density

Significant for stability

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)
20. Consider the following statements:
1. Rise in temperature does not cause any change in the colour of cement concrete.
2. Curing minimizes the shrinkage of cement concrete when it sets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

21.

A stepped column carries loads as shown above. What is the maximum normal stress in the column at B in the larger diameter column?
(a) P/1.5A

(b) P/A
(c) 2P/1.5A
(d) 2P/A
Ans. (a)
22. A composite system where the components are of equal lengths is subjected to temperature rise.
Which one of the following stresses will be developed in the component having highest coefficient of linear expansion?
(a) Compressive stress
(b) Tensile stress
(c) Shear stress
(d) Zero stress
Ans. (a)
23. What is the nature of stress in a ceiling fan rod?
(a) Bending
(b) Tensile
(c) Compressive
(d) Shear
Ans. (d)

24.

What is the diameter of Mohrs circle of stress for the state of stress shown above?
(a) 20
(b) 14.14

(c) 10
(d) Zero
Ans. (d)
25. In a plane strain situation in xy plane, the displacements at a point are given as:
u = (2x+8y) x l0-6unit
v = (3x+5y) x 10-6 unit
What is the shearing strain?
(a) 9 x 10-6
(b) 7 x 10-6
(c) 5 x 10-6
(d) 3 x 10-6
Ans. (c)
26. Consider the following statements regarding cement concrete:
1. Bleeding indicates deficiency of coarser materials in the mix.
2. Segregation generally indicates poor aggregate grading.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
27. Consider the following statements:
Curing of concrete by steam under pressure
1. Increases the compressive strength of concrete.
2. Reduces the shear strength of concrete.
3. Increases the speed of chemical reaction.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only
Ans. (a)
28. Match the sequence of determination of components of a concrete mix as per Indian standard
method of mix design and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I

List-Il

A. Cement content

1. First step

B. Aggregate content 2. Second step

C. Water content

3. Third step

D. Water-cement ratio 4. Fourth step

Code:
A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (c)
29. In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, what is the number of independent stress
components in order to completely specify the state of stress at a point?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 9
Ans. (b)
30. The value of modulus of elasticity for a material in 200 GN/m 2 and Poissons ratio is 0.25.
What is its modulus of rigidity?
(a) 250 GN/rn2
(b) 320 GN/m2
(c) 125 GN/rn2

(d) 80 GN/rn2
Ans. (d)
31. A circular shaft is subjected to a bending moment Mb and a twisting moment Mt. What is the ratio of maximum shear stress and the maximum
bending stress?
(a) 2Mt/Mb
(b) Mt/Mb
(c) Mt/2Mb
(d)1.5Mt/Mb
Ans. (c)

32.

What is the total degree of indeterminacy (both internal and external) of the triangular planar truss shown in the figure above?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans. (b)

33.
What is the force in the vertical member CD of the pin-jointed frame shown above?
(a) 12 T (tension)
(b) 2 T (compression)
(c) 7 T (compression)
(d) 5 T (tension)
Ans. (d)
34. What is the ratio of load carrying capacity of a fixed beam to that of a cantilever beam of same span having same maximum bending moment
and loaded with uniformly distributed load throughout the span?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans. (a)
35. Consider the following statements:
1. The bending stiffness of a beam cannot be determined from the material characteristics and the dimensions of cross- section of the beam.
2. The boundary conditions of a structure are important in sketching its deflected shape qualitatively as well as for computing the displacement
quantitatively.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)
36. If a body carries two unlike principal stresses, what is the maximum shear stress?
(a) Half the difference of magnitude of the principal stresses
(b) Half the sum of the magnitude of principal stresses,
(c) Difference of the magnitude of principal stresses,
(d) Sum of the magnitude of principal stresses,
Ans. (b)
37. In a bi-axial strain system ?x and ?y, what is the maximum engineering shearing strain?

Ans. (b)
38. A symmetrical I section is subjected to shear force. The shear stress induced across the section is maximum at which location?
(a) Extreme fibers
(b) At the bottom of flanges in flanges
(c) At the bottom of flanges in web portion
(d) At the neutral axis
Ans. (d)
39. A simply supported beam AB of span L carries two concentrated loads W each a points L/3 from A and B. What is the S.F. in the middle one-third
portion of the beam
(a) W/2
(b) 2W
(c) W
(d) Zero
Ans. (d)

40. A beam is made of two identical metal flats soldered together. What is the ratio of stiffness of this beam to the stiffness of a beam in which the
two flats are not soldered and which acts independently?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans. (b)
41. Some structural members subjected to long time sustained loads deform progressively with time especially at elevated temperatures.
What is such a phenomenon called?
(a) Fatigue
(b) Creep
(c) Creep relaxation
(d) Fracture
Ans. (b)
42. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I

List-Il

A. Maxwells diagram

1. Displacement of joints in a truss

B. Hennebergs Method

2. Deflection by numerical procedure

C. Newmarks Method 3. Forces in bar members

D. WiIliot-Mohr diagram

4. Concept of substitute member

Code:
A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Ans. (c)
43. By which one of the following methods is an approximate quick solution possible for frames
subjected to transverse loads?

(a) By cantilever or portal -method

(b) By strain energy method
(c) By moment distribution method
(d) By matrix method
Ans. (a)
44. Which, one of the following is correct?
A statically indeterminate structure is the one which
(a) cannot be analyzed at all
(b) can be analyzed using equations of statics only
(c) can be analyzed using equations of statics and compatibility equations
(d) can be analyzed using equations of compatibility only
Ans. (c)

45.
What is the statically indeterminacy for the frame shown above?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 11
(d) 14
Ans. (c)

46.

What is the force in the member BC of the plane frame shown above?
(a) 10 kN tensile
(b) 10 kN compressive
(c) 5.76 kN compressive
(d) Zero
Ans. (b)
47. Which one of the following is correct?
When a load is applied to a structure with rigid joints
(a) there is no rotation or displacement of joint
(b) there is no rotation of joint
(c) there is no displacement of joint
(d) there can be rotation and displacement of joint but the angle between the members connected to the joint remains same even after application of
the load
Ans. (d)

48.
In the frame shown above, what is the horizontal reaction at left support?
(a) 15 kN
(b) 13 kN
(c) 7 kN
(d) 2 kN
Ans. (c)
49. Which one of the following is correct?
A determinate structure
(a) cannot be analyzed without the correct knowledge of modulus of elasticity
(b) must necessarily have roller support at one of its ends
(c) requires only statically equilibrium equations for its analysis
(d) will have zero deflection at its ends
Ans. (c)

50.

What is the reaction at the support D of the rigid-jointed structure shown above?
(a) 10 kN
(b) 20 kN
(c) 30 kN
(d) 40 kN
Ans. (d)