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Common Admission Test

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SECTION I
This section contains 25 questions
Directions (Q. 1-6) : Answer the questions independently of each other.

1. The domain of y = log x 5 is


(1) x > 5
(5) None of these

(2) (0, )

(3) (0, ) - {1}

(4) [5, )

2. Let P = 23 3 5 57 7, Q = 2 4 3 6 5 8 , R = 2 4 33 52 72 and S = P Q R. Find the number of


factors of S which are multiple of P , Q and R simultaneously.
(1) 1152
(2) 1440
(3) 1520
(4) 12960
(5) None of these
3. In an isosceles triangle, R is the radius of its circumscribed circle and r is the radius of its inscribed circle.
Find the distance between the centre of these two circles.
(1) 2R ( R - r )

(2) R ( R - 2r )

(3) R - 2 Rr

(4) R - 3r

(5) None of these


4. Suppose a, b , c are the sides of a triangle and a 2 (b + c - a) + b 2 (c + a - b ) + c 2 (a + b - c ) = P , then
(1) P 3abc

(2) P 3 (a + b + c )

(3) P

6 3
abc
4

3
abc
4

(4) P

(5) P 3 3 (a + b + c )
5. The functions f ( x, y ) satisfy the following three conditions for every non-negative integer x, y .
(i) f (0, y ) = y + 1

(ii) f ( x + 1, 0) = f ( x, 1)

(iii) f ( x + 1, y + 1) = f ( x, f ( x + 1, y ))

Find the value of f (4, 2008).


(1) 4

2008

(5) [((2)2 )2 ... ] - 3


Total 2s are 2011

(2) (2

2011

) +3

(3) (2

2008

.2
..

) -3

(4) 2

22

-3

Total 2s are 2011

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Common Admission Test

6. Determine all real numbers x which satisfy the inequality


3-x 3
2
(5) None of these
(1) 0 x < 1 -

(2) 0 < x < 1 -

39
8

x +1 >

1
2

(3) 4 x

(4) -1 x < 1 -

31
8

Directions (Q. 7 and 8) : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
An 8 8 chess board is decomposed into m non-overlapping or disjoint rectangles along the lines between
squares such that each rectangle consists of as many black squares as white squares and each rectangle has a
different number of squares.

7. Find the greatest possible value of m.


(1) 7
(2) 8
(5) None of these

(3) 9

(4) 6

8. Find the maximum possible number of total squares in a rectangle which corresponds to the greatest value
of m.
(1) 16
(2) 18
(3) 20
(4) 22
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 9-25) : Answer the questions independently of each other.

9. A

function

is

defined

for

all

the

natural

numbers

and

satisfies

f (1) = 231

and

f (1) + f (2) + f (3) + K f ( n) = n f ( n) for all n > 1. Find the value of f (21).
(1) 441
(2) 121
(3) 21
(5) 1

(4) 11

10. 2 tractors, 3 camels and 4 bulls can plough a piece of farm in 6 h. 3 tractors, 4 camels and 2 bulls can plough
the same piece of farm in 3 h. 4 tractors, 2 camels and 3 bulls can plough the same piece of farm in 2 h. Then
a tractor, a camel and a bull can plough the piece of land in
(1) 8 h
(2) 9 h
(3) 12 h
(4) Data inconsistent
(5) None of these
11. Celeb communications is an SMS (Short Messaging Services) dedicated mobile phone company, which
offers special coupons/vouchers on every festive season at a very discounted price to all its customers. It
launches a special SMS coupon on the grand festival of Deewali worth Re 1. According to the scheme a
subscriber availing this coupon, can send total m SMSes in n successive days ( n > 1). On the first day of its
activation, he can send one SMS and 1/11 of the remaining ( m - 1) SMSes. On the second day, two SMSes
and 1/11 of the remaining SMSes; and so on. On the nth and last day,the remaining n SMSes can be sent. If
he does not utilise the quota of any particular day it gets automatically vanished. Also if he tries to send
more SMSes than that of stipulated quota of any day, he will be prohibited to do so. What is the value of
( m + n)?
(1) 11!
(2) 12!
(3) 99
(4) 110
(5) None of these
a +b +c
. Construct a
2
triangle with sides s - a, s - b , s - c. This process is repeated until a triangle can no longer be constructed
with the side lengths given. For which original triangles can this process be repeated indefinitely?
(1) Right angled
(2) Scalene
(3) Obtuse angle
(4) Equilateral
(5) None of these

12. A triangle with sides a, b and c is given. Denoted by s is the semi-perimeter, that is s =

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Common Admission Test

13. Let P1 , P2 , K P1993 = P0 be distinct points in the x - y plane with the following properties :
(i) both coordinates of Pi are integers, for i = 1, 2, K , 1993 ;
(ii) there is no point other than Pi and Pi + 1 on the line segment joining Pi with Pi + 1 whose coordinates are
both integers, for i = 0, 1 ..., 1992.
For some i , 0 i 1992, there exists a point Q with coordinates (q x , q y ) on the line segment joining Pi
with Pi + 1 such that both 2q x and 2q y are
(1) even integers
(2) odd integers
(3) irrational numbers
(4) negative even integers
(5) None of these
14. Let a 1 , a 2 , K , a n be a sequence of integers with values between 2 and 1995 such that
(i) Any two of the a i s are relatively prime.
(ii) Each a i is either a prime or a product of primes. Determine the smallest possible values of n to make sure
that the sequence will contain a prime number.
(1) 42
(2) 7
(3) 12
(4) 24
(5) 14
15. Find the minimum positive integer n such that there exists a function from the set Z of all integers to
{1, 2, K , n} with the property that f ( x) f ( y ) whenever| x - y | {5, 7, 12}.
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5
(5) 4
16. Let a, b , c be the lengths of the sides of a triangle and
Let

p = a +b -c + b + c - a + c + a - b
q = a + b + c , then
(2) q = 2 p
(3) p > q

and
(1) p < a
(5) p q
1

(4) p q

1
1
+K+
1
1 1
1 1
1
1+
1+ +
1 + + +K+
3
3 6
3 6
1993006
where the denominators contain partial sums of the sequence of reciprocals of triangular number
n ( n + 1)
for n = 1, 2, K ,1996). Then, which of the following is correct?
( ie, K =
2
(1) S > 9999
(2) S > 1111
(3) S > 1001
(4) S > 1996
(5) None of these
2n + 2
is also an integer.
18. Find an integer n, where 100 n 1997, such that
n
(1) 256
(2) 234
(3) 946
(4) 998
(5) 729
19. For any positive integers m and n, (36m + n) ( m + 36n) can be equal to
(4) 272
(3) 236
(2) 2 64
(1) 232
(5) None of these
20. Determine the number of factors of the greatest integer n with the property that n is divisible by all positive
integers that are less than 3 n.
(1) 24
(2) 18
(3) 10
(4) 42
(5) 6
17. Given S = 1 +

21. D ABC is right angled at A. The circle with centre A and radius AB cuts BC and AC
internally at D and E respectively. If BD = 20 and DC = 16, determine AC.
(1) 3 102
(2) 6 26
(3) 2 103
(4) 5 119

(5) Data is insufficient

A
E
B

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Common Admission Test

22. The lengths of the sides of triangle ABC are 60, 80 and 100 with A = 90. The line AD
divides triangle ABC into two triangles of equal perimeter. Calculate the length of AD.
(1) 2796
(2) 40
(3) 2880
(4) Cant be determined
(5) None of the above

23. There are ten prizes, five As, three Bs and two Cs, placed in identical sealed envelopes for the top ten
contestants in a mathematics contest. The prizes are awarded by allowing winners to select an envelope at
random from those remaining. When the eighth contestant goes to select a prize, what is the probability that
the remaining three prizes are one A, one B and one C?
1
1
1
1
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4
3
2
6
(5) None of these
24. Between 6 am and 7 am when do the two hands of a clock coincide?
(1) 6 : 23 : 00
(2) 6 : 32 : 00
(3) 6 : 35 : 17
(5) 6 : 48 : 51

(4) 6 : 32 : 43

25. Find the number of ways of putting five distinct rings on four fingers of the left hand. (Ignore different sizes
of rings and the fingers).
(1) 1250
(2) 6720
(3) 5260
(4) 3250
(5) 1260

SECTION II
This section contains 25 questions
Directions (Q. 26-28) : Answer the questions on the basis of the following charts.
The pie charts show the details of the Bollywood people who received the nomination for filmfare award of the
year 2009 as on 20-09-2009.
PB (10%)
SI (4%)

BR (10%)
MH (6%)
OTH (4%)

Animation
(4%)

Musical
(14%)
Sci-fi
(6%)

ND (8%)

WB
(12%)

Comedy
(28%)
UP (46%)

Romantic
(30%)

Bollywood nominees
genre-wise

Bollywood nominees
by location

28%
30%
8-10

Bollywood nominees
by their experience (in years)

35

Percentage of Nominees

More
than 16 0-2
14-16
6% 6% 6 2-4
%
4-6
10%
12-14 2%
4%
6-8
8%
10-12

Horror
(18%)

30
25
20
15
10
5
0

0-5

5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 over 35


Bollywood Nominees by their age

Total number of nominees for this years filmfare award = 250


Genres, categories and ages all are exclusively divided into various divisions.

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Common Admission Test

26. If the 20% of the nominees in Comedy genre belonge to UP, then how many nominees of UP are not
nominated for Romantic genre?
(1) 101
(2) 111
(3) 110
(4) 100
(5) None of these
27. If the 50% of Animation, 20% of Horror, 40% of Musical, 60% of Sci-fi and 30% Comedy genre nominees
belong to the group of 10-12 years experience, then how many nominees in the Romantic genre belong to
the group of 10-12 years experience?
(1) 28
(2) 18
(3) 11
(4) 12
(5) Cant be determined
28. If 50% of the nominees from the age group of 25-30 years are nominated for the Horror, Musical, Romantic
and Comedy genres, then how much percentage of Sci-fi genres nominee belongs to the age group of 20-30
years?
(1) 10
(2) 30
(3) 60
(4) Data insufficient
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 29-31) : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Just before the parliamentary election 5 national level partiesBJP, Congress, SP, BSP, JDU, sought the
permission from Election Commission to hold the rally in 3 different townsLucknow, Barabanki and
Sitapur. No two political parties can hold the election rally in the same town on the same day.
Rallies can be held within five days period from Monday to Friday. No political party will hold the rally in any
town for more than one day. Every political party is given a battalion of paramilitary forcesB 1 , B 2 , B 3 , B 4 and
B 5 in such a way that B 1 can protect BJP rally and JDU rally. B 2 can protect only BJP and Congress rallies. B 3
can protect only Congress and SP rallies. B 4 can protect only SP and BSP rallies. B 5 can protect only BSP and
JDU rallies. No political party will hold the rally without protection by a battalion of paramilitary forces.
Below is the table gives partial information about the rallies during the given period.
Day
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thrusday
Friday

Lucknow
Pol. Party
Battalion

Barabanki
Pol. Party
Battalion
SP

B3
B2
B4

Sitapur
Pol. Party
Battalion
B5
B1
SP

JDU

JDU

Congress

29. B1 and B 5 protected which political parties in Lucknow rally?


(1) BJP and BSP
(2) BJP and JDU
(3) JDU and BSP
(5) None of these

(4) Cant be determined

30. In Barabanki, SP and Congress rallies are protected respectively by


(1) B3 and B2
(2) B 4 and B2
(3) B 4 and B3
(5) None of these

(4) Data insufficient

31. In Sitapur, B1 and B 5 protected the rallies of


(1) BJP and JDU respectively
(3) BJP and BSP respectively
(5) None of these

(2) JDU and BSP respectively


(4) Cant be determined

Directions (Q. 32 and 33) : Answer the questions based on the information given below.
On, Tw, Th, Fr, Fv, Sx, Sn, Et, Nn and Tn are the ten people belong to two different families. On, Fv, Sx, and
Nn are two couples whereas Tw, Th, Fr, Sn, Et and Tn are their children. Each couple has three children. They
are sitting in a row. No two members of the same family sit together. Tn sits in between Fr and Et. While Sx has
two sons. Et has two sisters while Tn has two brothers. On is the father of Th and Tn while Nn is the mother of
Sn and Et. The male heads of the two families sit on either ends of the row while the female heads of the two
families sit together exactly at the centre of the row.

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Common Admission Test

32. Which of the following statements is definitely false?


(1) Tw is son of Fv whose daughter is Sn.
(2) Th and Tw are the brothers of Tn.
(3) Sx is the wife of On and Tn is her daughter.
(4) Fr and Sn are the daughters of Fv whose wife is Nn.
(5) None of the above
33. In how many ways can these ten members sit in the row?
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 2
(5) None of these

(4) 6

Directions (Q. 34-38) : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There are six TV groupsStar, Zee TV, NDTV, UTV, Sony Entertainment, Cartoon Network, each of them
have 10 channels. These channels are supposed to be shown in a very planned manner from Monday to
Saturday as given below.

Every day (from Monday to Saturday) exactly 10 channels are being shown.
Not more than four channels of a single TV group will be shown in any day.
On Monday 3 channels of NDTV and one channel of Star group is being shown.
On Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday, no three channels of any group are being shown.
On Wednesday, no any channel of UTV group is being shown but 4 channels of Sony Entertainment
are being shown.
Every day atleast one channel of Star group and NDTV is being shown.
Four channels of Cartoon Network are being shown on Thursday but not even a single channel of Zee
TV being shown on Thursday.
Among the six days (Monday to Saturday) only on the three days, including Monday and Friday,
channels of all the six groups are being shown.
Total number of channels of UTV, Sony Entertainment and Cartoon network shown on each of
Tuesday and Friday is equal to 6.
Sum of the number of channels of Star group being shown on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday and
the sum of number of channels of Zee TV being shown on Wednesday, Friday and Saturday is 6.

34. What is the difference between the number of channels of Star group being shown on Friday to the number
of channels of Sony Entertainment being shown on Monday?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) Cant be determined
(5) None of these
35. What is the difference between the number of channels of Sony Entertainment being shown on Wednesday
to the sum of the number of channels of Cartoon Network being shown on Tuesday and Friday?
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) Cant be determined
(5) None of these
36. What is the sum of number of channels of Star group being shown on Wednesday and number of channels
of Zee TV being shown on Monday?
(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 8
(5) None of these
37. Which of the following is definitely true?
(1) Number of channels of Star group being shown on Monday is 4.
(2) Not more than 1 channel of Cartoon Network can be shown on Friday.
(3) Number of channels of UTV being shown on Tuesday and Friday are same.
(4) Total number of Zee TV channels being shown on Friday is more than the total number of Star group
channels being shown on Tuesday.
(5) Sum of number of Star group channels being shown on Wednesday and Thursday is 1 more than the
sum of number of Sony Entertainment channels being shown on Tuesday and Friday.

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38. If the number of UTV channels being shown on Thursday is greater than the number of Sony Entertainment
channels being shown on the same day, then which among the following is definitely true?
(1) Sum of number of Sony Entertainment channels being shown on Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday is 8.
(2) Number of NDTV channels being shown on each of Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and Friday is same.
(3) Number of UTV channels on Tuesday and number of Cartoon Networks channels on Friday are equal
and 3 in each case.
(4) Sum of number of channels of Star group being shown on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday is 1 more
than the sum of number of channels of UTV, Sony Entertainment and Cartoon Network being shown on
Wednesday.
(5) None of the above
Directions (Q. 39-42) : Answer the questions of the basis of the information given below.
Six trading partnersA, B, C, D, E and F formed a close group. They send and receive the orders and
consignments within the group only. The following bar graphs show the details regarding the number of
consignments sent by these partners, within the group during the last financial year. The first bar diagram
gives the details of total number of consignments received by A from his five trading partners in last financial
year and the second bar graph gives the details of the total consignments sent by these five trading partners
within the group (ie, excluding A) in the same financial year.
30

30%

30%

25

25
20

20%

20%

16

15

10%

0%

10

10%

0%

24

20

10

A consignment is always sent and received in the same financial year. Total consignments received by A in the
last financial year is 3000 and assume the total consignment sent by five trading partners within the group
(except A) is Q.

39. What is the least possible value of Q?


(1) 3500
(2) 3800
(5) None of these

(3) 4000

40. Who has sent the least percentage of his consignments to A?


(1) E
(2) B
(3) C
(5) None of these

(4) 4200

(4) D

Additional information for questions 41 and 42 : It is also known that at least 25% of the total consignments

sent by B are to A and at most 40% of the consignments sent by E are to A.


41. What is the max. possible number of persons who have sent more than 80% of their consignments to A?
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3
(5) None of these
42. Which of the following can be the value of K if K % of the consignments sent by D are to A?
(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 90
(4) 30
(5) Cant be determined
Directions (Q. 43-45) : Answer the questions based on the following information.
After the Parliamentary election 2009, in India, every State rushed to Delhi in order to grab maximum number
of chairs in various ministries.
A ministry (in Indian parliament) is run by the council of ministers of India consists of three different
categories which are as follows :
Union Cabinet Minister : The Union Cabinet Ministers of India are in-charge of a ministry.

10 Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

Minister of State (Independent charge) : A minister of State (Independent charge) is a junior minister in the
council of ministers in the Central Govt. who have independent charge of a ministry.
Minister of State (MoS) : A junior minister, supervised by the cabinet minister, usually task specific
responsibility in that ministry.
Let Union cabinet Minister, Min. of State (Independent charge) and Minister of State, be denoted by UCM, MSI
and MoS respectively. Let us consider, for a while, that in a single ministry there are three ministersUCM,
MSI and MoS. Various candidates wanted to become the minister so they will be selected by the Prime
Minister.

Every MP has given a choice of ministry he/she wanted.


No MP can apply for more than one ministry.
The MP who secured maximum votes (voted by his/her constituency) in the list of applicants for a
particular ministry, will be appointed as UCM. Similarly, the MPs who secured second highest and
third highest votes will be appointed as MSI and MoS respectively.
These ministers belong to various States of India.

UCM
MSI
MoS
Aggregate Points

UP
26
28
15

MP
22
20
15

Bihar
17
16
11
99

JK
13
20
16

Name of the States


J&K
UK
9
8
6
10
18
6
90

MH
6
2
8

RJ
4
6
12
36

KN
4
1
6

TN
3
3
5

The above table shows the chairs (or berths) grabbed by the top 10 States in the Minister of Councils. Aggregate
points are awarded based on the number of UCM, MSI and MoS chairs. Each chair carries a certain positive
integral points.
The ranking of the States is based on the following order of priority

(1) Aggregate points (Higher points, higher rank)


(2) The number of UCM chairs (more chairs, higher rank)
(3) The number of MSI chairs (more chairs, higher rank)
(4) The alphabetical order of states name (consider the first letter of Abbreviated Names)
Rank 1 is the highest and rank 10 is the lowest of all. Also
After the revelation that few newly anointed ministers have cheated in concerned election, eight
ministers have been sacked and all of the sacked ministers belong to the states mentioned above.
In a particular ministry, only one minister was sacked.
At least 3 UCM and 3 MSI chairs have been forfeited.
Only the MPs who are holding the UCM chairs and MSI chairs were found guilty of manoeuvring
(or manoeuvering) of votes in the concerned elections.
KN (Karnataka) gained at least 1 UCM chair after the revelation of manoeuvring in votes.
43. In case of forfeiture of a UCM chair, all the UCM chairs and MSI chairs are being taken up by these 10 listed
states only. What could be the maximum possible number of points that a state other than these 10 listed
states may have after the revelation of manoeuvring in votes?
(1) 33
(2) 35
(3) 29
(4) 37
(5) 28
44. What is the highest possible rank MH may attain, after the revelation of manoeuvring in votes?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
(5) 3
45. If at least 1 chair was forfeited from each state and the total number of chairs obtained by each state
increased by at most 1 chair,then which of the following is definitely FALSE?
(1) A minimum of four states retained their original ranks after the revelation of scam (as mentioned in the
question).
(2) Maximum change in difference of points between any two states after and before the revelation of scam is 6.
(3) These 10 listed states can only be the states who obtained the chairs in Union Ministry (or minister of
councils).
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(5) None of the above

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Common Admission Test

11

Directions (Q. 46-50) : Answer the questions based on the following information.
As a chief guest for inauguration when I have been invited by Indias first ever multi car showroom, I came to
know that there were 4 brands of carsHonda, Maruti, Tata and GM. Also every brand was represented by 4
different class of carsclass B, class C, class D and class E. The following facts about these cars were also
known.

There were only 21 cars.


There were at least two cars of D class from Tata brand.
None of the brands include more than three cars from any class.
The number of cars from the class B was exactly half the number of cars from each of the other classes.
There was no car from the class B from Honda and apart from this, all brands, including Honda,
represented at least one car from each class.
Had there been one car less from Tata brand, then the number of cars from Maruti would have been
twice that from each of the other brands.
46. Which of the following combination is not possible?
(1) One car from the class D of Honda brand and one car from the class D of Maruti brand.
(2) Three cars from the class E of Maruti brand and one car from the class C of the Honda brand.
(3) Two cars from the class D of Maruti brand and one car from the class C of Honda brand.
(4) Two cars from class D of Maruti brand and two cars from the class C of Honda brand.
(5) All of the above
47. If there was only one car from class D of Maruti brand, which of the following is definitely not true about the
cars?
(1) There are three cars from the class E of Maruti brand.
(2) There are two cars from the class C of Maruti brand.
(3) There is one car from the class E of Honda brand.
(4) There is one car from the class C of Honda brand.
(5) All of the above
48. What can be said about the following two statements regarding the number of cars from the class E of Maruti
brand?
Statement A The number is atleast two.
Statement B The number is atmost three.
(1) Statement A is necessarily true, while statement B is not necessarily true.
(2) Statement B is necessarily true, while statement A is not necessarily true.
(3) Both statement A and statement B are necessarily true.
(4) Neither statement A nor statement B is necessarily true.
(5) None of the above
49. Which of the following cannot be determined uniquely from the given information?
(1) Number of cars from the class E of Honda company (or brand).
(2) Number of cars from the class C of Tata company.
(3) Number of cars from the class C of GM company.
(4) Number of cars from the class B of Honda company.
(5) All of the above
50. What is the number of cars from class D of Tata company?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
(5) None of these

12 Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test


SECTION III

This section contains 25 questions


Directions (Q. 51-55) : Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the
five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

51. A. I like to think that Popeye had a positive effect on my upbringing. At least I preferred him as a role model
over Dillinger and other prominent citizens of the Depression.
B. He was good, he was powerful, and he was funny . ... I wrote Segar a fan letter in 1934 and received a
reply.
C. He was as basic and down to earth as mud. I yam what I am and that's all that I yam is a piece of
Philosophy that stands besides Aristotles Know thyself....I loved Popeye.
D. Popeye, to me, was the first super-hero. Not only did he possess super-strength but he exhibited super
honesty.
E. It was a drawing of Popeye and Wimpy with the inscription, To me fren Mort Walker. It has hung on
my wall for over 70 years filling the room with its friendly glow... Who knows what influences take a part
in making a man what he is?
(1) DCBEA
(2) DCABE
(3) EDCBA
(4) ACDEB
(5) ABDCE
52. A. For Geoffrey Canada,the non-profits longtime CEO, the imperative was clear.
B. So, in 2002, it changed its name and sharpened its focus.
C. Now, simply called the Harlem Children's Zone (HCZ), the agency linked its original mission to a very
concrete statement of the impact it intended to have : namely, that 3000 children, ages 0 to 18, living in
the zone should have demographic and achievement profiles consistent with those found in an average
US middle-class community.
D. To help the greatest possible number of kids lead healthy lives, stay in school, and grow up to become
independent, productive adults, Rheedlen would have to step up its performance.
E. Despite Rheedlen's many good programs, however , the prospects for Harlem's children appeared to be
getting worse, not better.
(1) EADBC
(2) CBDAE
(3) ABCDE
(4) BCDEA
(5) BADCE
53. A. I take your point, and in fact I agree that there are many examples of what you are talking about.
B. I certainly remember early on, after 9/11,what the impact was on the political culture here.
C. The question is how we interpret such an historical moment, and from our perspective, we certainly see
more evidence of damage than we see of people being able to wend their way through it without being
affected.
D. This is particularly important if we think about our own times, and what the War on Terrorism has
generated in terms of its impact.
E. This was a very serious thing, and we cannot be cavalier about the impact of this kind of dynamic.
(1) CAEBD
(2) AEBDC
(3) BEDAC
(4) DCBEA
(5) DBEAC
54. A. The aim is to help children think more creatively and expand their vocabulary.
B. A London-based enterprise, Philosophy Shop, is recruiting university graduates to teach philosophy in
12 primary schools in London and 10 elsewhere in the UK.
C. A survey of 105 10 -year olds demonstrated significant improvements in tests of verbal, numerical and
spatial abilities at the end of sixteen months of lessons compared to a control group.
D. In 2002 psychologists in Scotland studied the benefits of teaching philosophy to school children.
E. However, the Campaign for Real Education say schools should concentrate on teaching the 3 Rs in view
of the number of youngsters who leave school without a fundamental grasp of these basics.
(1) BEADC
(2) DECBA
(3) BADCE
(4) EDCBA
(5) ACBDE

Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

13

55. A. The rise in debt was the flipside of jobs being lost to the East.
B. Eventually, the credit bubble burst, As an economic strategy, It made little sense, even for the Burberrys
of this world.
C. Free trade driven by cost cutting feeds and nourishes credit bubbles. It does not benefit the workers, but
it has failed corporations too.
D. After seven years of debt-fuelled growth, stock markets are now lower than they were in 2000.
E. As more and more companies fled the West in search of cheaper production bases, the central banks
were obliged to keep interest rates low, to stimulate economic growth.
(1) EACBD
(2) EABDC
(3) CDABE
(4) EACDB
(5) BACDE
Directions (Q. 56-60) : There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From the pairs of words given
below, choose the pair that fills the blanks most appropriately.

56. Not only is much of Indias unfolding economic success not reaching many of its poor citizens but its
political ..... at home and abroad seem to make very little difference to their ..... lives.
(1) turmoils, abject
(2) successes, embittered (3) advancement, bettered (4) aspirations, battered
(5) will, daily
57. India and Pakistan should abandon the practice of arresting fishermen who ..... cross into their territorial
waters and instead ..... a mechanism for the informal repatriation of these innocents.
(1) wantonly, create
(2) mistakenly, discover
(3) inadvertently, install
(4) deliberately, constitute
(5) desperately, install
58. The special purpose vehicle for infrastructure projects has been proposed to impart a ..... to such core sector
projects as also to ensure the completion of such projects which remained ..... on account of paucity of
funds.
(1) breakthrough, shelved
(2) rick, passive
(3) thrust, stalled
(4) push, inconclusive
(5) force, dormant
59. Finally, even at the high levels that the stock market has reached these days, the question is as to whether
the stock market mechanism in India is good enough ..... of the nations economic health is far from .....
(1) augury, unanswered
(2) thermometer, decided
(3) indicator, ambiguous
(4) barometer, settled
(5) healer, stock market
60. State hospitality extended to a visiting foreign dignitary is often used symbolically to convey ..... messages
and very often pomp and ceremony serve to ..... sharp differences.
(1) sharp, hide
(2) loud, comouflage
(3) important, accentuate (4) subtle, mark
(5) hidden, hide
Directions (Q. 61-75) : Refer to the passages below and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE 1
Investigators of the Bermuda Triangle have long noted the existence of another mystery area in the worlds
oceans, southeast of Japan, between Japan and the Bonin Islands, specifically between two Jima and Marcus
Island, with a record and reputation indicative of special danger to ships and planes. Whether the ships
have been lost from underwater volcanoes or sudden tidal waves, this area, often called the Devils Sea,
enjoys at least officially an even more sinister reputation than the Bermuda Triangle in that the Japanese
authorities have proclaimed it a danger zone. This action came out often an investigation carried out by a
Japanese surface craft in 1955.
The Devils Sea had long been dreaded by fishermen, who believed it was inhabited by devils, demons and
monsters who seized the ships of the unwary. Aircraft and boats had disappeared in the area over a period
of many years, but during the time when Japan was at peace, nine modern ships disappeared in the period

14 Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

of 1950 to 1954, with crews totaling several hundred persons, in circumstances characteristic (extensive
air-sea searches, lack of wreckage or oil slicks) of the happenings in the Bermuda Triangle.
The Bermuda Triangle and the Devils Sea share a striking coincidence. The Bermuda Triangle includes,
almost at its western terminus, longitude 80 west, a line where true north and magnetic north become
aligned with no compass variation to be calculated. And this same 80W changes its designation when it
passes the poles, becoming 150E. From the North Pole south, it continues on, passing east of Japan, and
crosses the middle of the Devilss Sea. At this point in the centre of the Devilss Sea, a compass needle will
also point to true north and magnetic north at the same time, just as it does at the western border of the
Bermuda Triangle on the other side of the world.
The unexplained losses in the Japanese equivalent of the Bermuda Triangle were instrumental in inspiring
a government-sponsored investigation of the area, which took place in 1955. This expedition with scientists
taking data as their ship, the Kaiyo Maru No. 5, cruised the Devils Sea, ended on a rather spectacular note
the survey ship suddenly vanished with its crew and the investigating scientists!
The presence of one or more other areas of disappearance in the worlds oceans has led to some unusual
speculations. Theories concerning antigravity warps have been advanced, presupposing areas where the
laws of gravity and normal magnetic attraction no longer function in ways with which we are familiar.
Ralph Barker, author of Great Mysteries of the Air, noting that new developments in physics point to the
evidence of the existence of anti-gravitational particles of matter suggests the presence of anti-gravitational
or contra-terrene matter, of a nature completely contrary to those known on this planet ... of appalling
explosive character when [it] comes into proximity of matter as we know it ... embedded in localized areas
of the earth.... He offers the possibility that this matter may have arrived from space and become embedded
under the earths crust, sometimes under the land but more often under the sea.
Consideration of this theory offers a possible explanation of electronic and magnetic malfunction within
given areas but would not, however, explain the many losses of ships and planes within sight of land. One
remembers, in this connection, reports of other areas of magnetic anomaly over other bodies of water
throughout the world where the pull of something under the water is stronger than that of the North
Magnetic Pole.
A more detailed study of the Bermuda Triangle and other suspect areas was made by Ivan Sanderson and
discussed in his article The Twelve Devils Graveyards Around the World, written for Saga magazine. In
plotting ship and plane disappearances throughout the world, Sanderson and his associates first found that
the majority of these mysterious losses occurred in six areas, all of them having more or less the same
lozenge shape and coincidentally located between latitudes 30 and 40 north and south of the Equator and
including the Bermuda Triangle and the Devils Sea.
Developing his theory further, Ivan Sanderson established a network of twelve anomalies at
seventy-two-degree intervals around the world, centered more precisely at 36 north and south latitude,
making five in the Northern Hemisphere, five in the Southern and including the North and South poles.
The reason for the Bermuda Triangle being the most celebrated, he suggests, is that it is the most travelled
while the others, although located in less travelled areas, also give considerable evidence, of magnetic space
time anomalies.
The majority of these active areas lie due east of continental land masses where warm ocean currents going
north collide with cold currents going south. In addition to this current collision, these areas also represent
the nodal points where the surface ocean currents turn one way and the subsurface currents turn in another
direction. The great subsurface tidal currents sweeping tangentially, and influenced by different
temperatures, set up magnetic vortices, affecting radio communication, magnetism perhaps even gravity
and eventually, in special conditions, causing air and surface craft to vanish sailing or flying off into a
different point in time and space. An interesting sidelight on the erratic behaviour of these areas is
underlined by Sanderson in describing the astonishing early arrivals of carefully clocked-in air flights
where planes have arrived so far ahead of schedule that the only possible explanation would be that they
had a tail wind behind them blowing, for example, at 500 miles per hour. Such incidents may be the result
of unrecorded winds but they seem to occur most frequently within the Bermuda Triangle and other vortex
areas, as if these particular planes had encountered the anomaly but had skirted or been propelled safely
through the hole in the sky that had cost so many travellers their lives.

Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

15

61. The Japanese equivalent of the Bermuda Trianglerefers to


(1) The Kaiyo Maru No. 5
(2) The Devils Sea
(3) An area of the ocean near Japan
(4) Devils Grave yard
(5) Sinister island
62. According to the passage, the theory that anti-gravity warps are responsible for disappearance in oceans
would be termed as
(1) inconclusive
(2) imaginative
(3) speculative
(4) baseless
(5) plausible
63. According to Ralph Barker, when contra-terrene matter comes in contact with matter, it has
(1) a vacuuming effect
(2) a paralysing effect
(3) a draining effect
(4) an explosive effect
(5) a wavy effect
64. Which of the following represents an area that is suggested to be an anomaly by Ivan Sanderson?
(1) 36 north latitude
(2) The equator
(3) The South Pole
(4) Asian gulf
(5) None of these
65. Which of the following is not said to be a feature of the active areas?
(1) Tangential subsurface tidal currents
(2) Antigravity warps
(3) Magnetic vortices
(4) Collison points for tidal currents of different temperatures
(5) None of the above
66. One may infer from the passage that the early arrivals in the Bermuda triangle can be attributed to
(1) unrecorded winds
(2) vortices
(3) holes in the sky
(4) space-time warps
(5) poler friction
67. An appropriate title for the passage would be
(1) The Bermuda Triangle some theories
(3) Anti-matter and Space-Time Warps
(5) Shocks of the nature

(2) Geographic anomalies and their causes


(4) The Bermuda Triangles disappearances

PASSAGE 2
The people of the Skagit love the Alpine scenery where their river is born. They climb the mountain peaks,
hunt in the hills, and fish in the icy streams and mourn the passing of the day when the river almost
overran its banks with steelhead and salmon.
When I was a lad, old-timer Rudy Clark told me, I used to have to whip the horse to make him cross. He
was terrified, trying to walk through the fish. But when we reached the other side, the spokes would have
thrown enough salmon up into the wagon to last the family for days. But what fish are left today,well,the
Indians get em.
The controversy surrounding fish and Indians is only one of many on Washington State's Skagit
River,which flows from the high wilderness of the Cascade Range into Puget Sound and the Pacific. Its
year-round ice-ridden tributary valleys are deep and cold. Yet, where its glacial waters reach the sea
scarcely a hundred miles away, the Skagit delta is one of the most fertile gardens of the globe.
Five million pounds of vegetable seeds were harvested here in 1976, including two-thirds of the best
spinach, beet, and cabbage seeds in the country. Lush dairy lands share the delta with loamy fields sown
with tulips, irises, daffodils, and strawberries. From the mountains that slope down from the feet of Skagit
glaciers come hundreds of millions of board feet of prime fir and cedar and hemlock.
Yet the Skagit has been proposed for federal protection under the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act. The
questions, then,if not the answers, are clear. How does one declare a river scenic or recreational when the

16 Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

people of its floodplain, with their farms and homes and highways, need more dams for flood protection?
When it already turns turbines at five major hydroelectric dams, and a higher one is on the drawing board?
How does one elect to preserve even more of the river's forests as wilderness when those already reserved
are coveted by the timber industry? When a thousand square miles of its mountains and lakes have recently
become national park, national recreation area, or federal wilderness? When the secrets of its fishing and
boating and climbing and camping have leaked out to a world hungry for recreation?
And add to that controversial coming of nuclear power to the Skagit. And the spectre of a horde of foreign
homesteaders, from such places as California, Connecticut,and Canadaanxious to buy, along with Skagit
drizzle and fog, some peace and quiet to calm the soul.
Big Beaver Valley is a forested cathedral, its columns giant cedars, its nave leads the eye upward towards
such altars as ice-mantled Mount Shuksan, and the white cone of volcanic Mount Baker, its crater smoking
as if with incense.
If Seattle City Light is to obtain another 270000 kilowatts of peaking power for what is already one of the
most electrified cities in the world, it must flood part of Big Beaver Valley by raising Ross Dam another 121
feet, adding to its already very high 400-foot waterhead.
Paul Kraabel and Tim Hill, councilmen of the city of Seattle are trying to decide whether they really want
more power for Seattle at such expense. Our City, Tim told me, owns the electric company and is made
up of people who constantly use more power. But also of people who love these mountains and valleys.
Besides, if the Federal Power Commission and City Council vote to raise Ross Dam, the flooding would
swallow up seven square miles of recreation land in Canada.That could provoke a lot of anti-Americanism.
I knew. An irate Canadian had already told me: We made a bad bargain with City Light ten years ago.
Traded miles of the Canadian Skagit for a pitiable payoff of $34,556 a year.
But that was before the environmental revolution of the late 1960's. In 1974-75, Norman Pearson, then
British Columbia's deputy minister of lands, tried to reverse the agreement.
The entire thing, he told me, is tangled up in politics. The best hope for the Skagit is for your Federal
Power Commission to heed the environmentalists and other agencies, kill the high dam project, and get our
two national governments off the hook.
However that international wound may fester, City Light is proposing to construct Copper Creek Dam on
the main stem of the river entirely within Washington State. Hundreds of Skagit floodplain farmers would
applaud.
In 1975, on this river, we lost more than 100 cattle in a flood, said Bob Hulbert, a supervisor of the Skagit
Conservation District. No loss of human life , thank God. But it was bad enough. The Copper Creek Dam
wouldn't really help all that much, though. Two Skagit tributaries are the real problems, the Sauk and the
Suiattle. And theyd be kept free of dams if they became scenic rivers.
If we can't get a dam on the Sauk, well have to build a major diversion channel for flood water, and raise
and strengthen our dikes. Either way, its going to cost a lot of money.
68. According to the passage, the Skagit River arises in the
(1) Alpine Mountains
(2) Glacier Park
(3) Cascade Range
(4) Newhalem Mountain
(5) Skagit delta
69. The underlined word means a land that
(1) is infertile
(2) has silt
(5) is yellow

(3) is rich in nutrients

70. The Skagit is said to provide an abundance of all of the following except
(1) vegetables
(2) timber
(3) electricity
(5) timber and electricity both

(4) lies alongside rivers

(4) ski slopes

71. The description of Big Beaver Valley is intended to


(1) arouse a sense of awe
(2) evoke nostalgia
(3) create an atmosphere of piety
(4) evoke a feeling of serenity
(5) expose the political ideology

Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

17

72. Which of the following types of wood is not said to be among those found in the Skagit?
(1) Cedar
(2) Teak
(3) Hemlock
(4) Fir
(5) Fir and Teak
73. By posing various questions related to federal protection of the river, the author seeks to suggest that the
federal protection of the river is
(1) not necessarily desirable as there are many practical aspects of the issue to be considered.
(2) a task that poses more questions than its answer.
(3) a task that will be based on difficult choices.
(4) a desirable but unlikely outcome as there is too much already invested in the area.
(5) a technical issue which requires flood water specialist to look into the matter.
74. The basic problem with raising Ross Dam is that
(1) it would antagonise Canadians.
(3) it would result in loss of farmland.
(5) All of these

(2) it would result in flooding.


(4) it harms the irrigation system.

75. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?


(1) The construction of the Copper Creek Dam is being resisted by American farmers.
(2) The Sauk is situated in Canada.
(3) Dams are not built on rivers declared to be scenic.
(4) The flooding of the Skagit can only be stopped by damming the tributaries.
(5) Constructing dams requires public mandate.

Crack CAT 1
Answers with Explanations
SECTION I
1. (3) y = log x 5 =

log 5
log x

r

r + d = R 1 - 2

R + d
2
2
R r + d r + 2 Rrd + d3 - R2d + Rd2 - R3 + 2 Rr 2 = 0

and
x >0
\
x (0, ) - {1}
or
x (0, 1) (1, )
Hence, choice (3) is correct.
3

(2 R2 r - R2 r ) + d2 r + 2 Rrd + d3 - R2d
+ Rd2 - R3 + 2 Rr 2 = 0

2. (2) P = 2 3 5 7
Q = 24 36 58
R = 2 4 33 52 72
S = P Q R = 211 314 517 73
LCM of P, Q, R = 2 4 3 6 5 8 72
\ S = (2 4 3 6 5 8 72 ) (27 3 8 5 9 7)

d
I

D d
O

r
B

Fig. (i)

+ 2 Rr (d + R + r ) = 0
(d + R + r ) (d - R + 2 Rr ) = 0
2

(d + R + r ) [d2 - R (R - 2 r )] = 0

If
Since,
\

d + R + r = 0 d = - (R + r )
OI < OA, so d - (R + r )
d2 - R (R - 2 r ) = 0

d2 = R(R - 2 r )
d = R (R - 2 r )

Hence, choice (2) is correct

r I
B

d2 (d + R + r ) - R2 (d + R + r )

R
O

- R3 - R2 r + 2 Rrd + 2 R2 r + 2 Rr 2 = 0

d +d R+d r -Rd

\ Required number of factors of


S = (7 + 1) (8 + 1) (9 + 1) (1 + 1)
= 8 9 10 2
= 1440
Hence, choice (2) is correct.
3. (2)

Fig. (ii)

Let the triangle be ABC having


A
two sides equal as AB = AC.
Let the incentre be I and the
qq
circumcentre be O. Let the
distance IO be d; d is positive if
90 O
A and BC are on different sides
R
of O [fig (i)] otherwise d is
20
I
negative if A and BC are on the B
C
D
same side of O [fig(ii)].
Fig. (iii)
Let
OAB be q,
r
Then,
= sin q
R+d
r +d
and
= cos 2 q (r + d) = R cos 2 q
R
[Q DOC = 2 DAC]

r + d = R(1 - 2 sin2 q)
[Q cos 2 q = 1 - 2 sin2 q ]

4. (1) Consider, arbitrarily, an equilateral triangle with


a =b =c =1
Then, a2 (b + c - a) + b 2 (c + a - b ) + c2 (a + b - c) = P
3=P
But 3 abc = 3
Hence, choice (1) seems to be true.
Further consider a right triangle with
a = 3, b = 4 , c = 5
Then, P = 168, but 3 abc = 180
Again only choice (1) conforms to the relation between
P and a, b , c.
5. (4) f (1, n) = f (0, f (1, n - 1))

f (1, n) = f (1, n - 1) + 1

f (1, n) = f (1, n - 2) + 2
f (1, n) = f (1, n - 3) + 3
.
.

[using function (iii)]


[using function (i)]

f (1, n) = f (1, 0) + n
f (1, n) = f (0, 1) + n

[using function (ii)]

f (1, n) = (1 + 1) + n = n + 2

[using function (i)]

Crack CAT 1

Similarly,
[using function (iii)]
f (2, n) = f (1, f (2, n - 1))
[using function (i)]
f (2, n) = f (2, n - 1) + 2
\ f (2, n) = f (2, 0) + 2 n
[using function (ii)]
f (2, n) = f (1, 1) + 2 n
[using function (i)]
f (2, n) = 2 n + 3
Similarly,
[using function (iii)]
f (3, n) = f (2, f (3, n - 1))
f (3, n) = 2 f (3, n - 1) + 3
[Q f (2, n) = 2 n + 3]
Let
Un = f (3, n) + 3
\
f (3, n) + 3 = 2 f (3, n - 1) + (3 + 3)

f (3, n) + 3 = 2[ f (3, n - 1) + 3]

Un = 2(Un - 1 )
Also,
U0 = f (3, 0) + 3
[Q Un = f (3, n) + 3]

U0 = f (2, 1) + 3
[Q f ( x + 1, 0) = f ( x, 1)]

U0 = (2 1 + 3) + 3 = 8 [Q f (2, n) = 2 n + 3]
\
Un = 2 n + 3
f (3, n) + 3 = 2 n + 3

f (3, n) = 2 n + 3 - 3

Now,

f (4, n) = f [3, f (4, n - 1)]


f (4, n) = 2 f ( 4, n - 1 ) + 3 - 3
[Q f (3, n) = 2 n + 3 - 3]

f (4 , 0) = f (3, 1)
= 24 - 3

[Q f ( x + 1, 0) = f ( x, 1)]
[ f (3, n) = 2 n + 3 - 3]

= 13
To observe the pattern we would like to compute two
more terms.
f (4, 1) = 2 f ( 4, 0 ) + 3 - 3 [Q f (4 , n) = 2 f ( 4, n - 1 ) + 3 - 3]

f (4, 1) = 2(2

- 3) + 3

[Q f (4 , 0) = 2 4 - 3]

-3
22

f (4, 1) = 22 - 3 = 22

-3

Similarly, f (4, 2) = 2 f ( 4, 1 ) + 3 - 3
[Q f (4, n) = 2 f ( 4, n - 1 ) + 3 - 3]
24

f (4, 2) = 2(2

f (4, 2) = 22

24
2
22

f (4, 2) = 22

2.

[22

f (4, 2008) =

- 3) + 3

-3
-3
2
..

- 3 [Q f (4, 1) = 22 - 3]

-3

Total 2011 twos

1
2
Squaring both sides, we get

6. (4) (3 - x) - ( x + 1) >

1
(3 - x) + ( x + 1) - 2 (3 - x) ( x + 1) >
4
-15

-2 (3 - x) ( x + 1) >
4
15

(3 - x) ( x + 1) <
8
15
2
- ( x - 2 x - 3) <

Common Admission Test

19

15
8
225
2

- ( x - 1) + 4 <
64
-31
2
- ( x - 1) <

64
31
2
( x - 1) >

64
31

| x - 1| >
8

31
31

< x < 1 1 +

8
8

However, it is clear that if x > 1, then


(3 - x) - ( x + 1) < 0, which is inadmissible.

- ( x - 1)2 + 4 <

Further we need to understand that the expressions


under the root signs are not negative, thus
Q 3 - x 0 x 3
- 1 x 3

and x + 1 0 x -1
Therefore, possible values of x are expressed as
below.
31
-1 x < 1 8
Hence, choice (4) is correct.
7. (1) Our requirement is that the number of black and
white squares be equal is equivalent to requiring that
the each rectangle has an even number of squares,
which is as follows.
2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 12 + 14 + 16 = 72 > 64
144444424444443
8
Therefore, m < 8, so max(m) = 7.
Hence, choice (1) is correct.
8. (3) There are 5 probable divisions of 64 squares into 7
unequal even numbers as follows
2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 12 + 22
2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 14 + 20
2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 16 + 18
2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 12 + 14 + 18
2 + 4 + 6 + 10 + 12 + 14 + 16
But since 22 = 2 11. There cant be 11 squares in a
single row as atmost 8 squares are possible in any row,
so first combination is ruled out. Thus there are only
four cases remaining.
Hence, maximum 20 squares can be found in any
such rectangle.
Hence, choice (3) is correct.
9. (5) By definition,
f (1) + (2) + K + f (n) = n2 f (n)
and f (1) + f (2) + K + f (n - 1) = (n - 1)2 f (n - 1)
Subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get
f (n) = n2 f (n) - (n - 1)2 f (n - 1)

n2 f (n) - f (n) = (n - 1)2 f (n - 1)

(n2 - 1) f (n) = (n - 1)2 f (n - 1)

n - 1
f (n - 1)
f (n) =
n + 1

(i)
(ii)

20 Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

20 19 18 17
3 2 1

K f (1)
22 21 20 19
5 4 3
2
f (21) =
f (1)
22 21
1
f (21) =
231
11 21
f (21) = 1
Hence, choice (5) is correct.

f (21) =

10. (4) Let a tractor can plough along in T hours, a camel can
plough alone in C hours and a bull can plough alone in
B hours.
Then,
2 3
4 1
(i)
+ + =
T C B 6
3
4 2 1
(ii)
+ + =
T C B 3
4 2 3 1
(iii)
+ + =
T C B 2
Adding all the above equations, we get
1 1 1
9 + + =1
T C B
1 1 1 1
(iv)
+ + =

T C B 9
Now, subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get
1 1 2 1
+ - =
T C B 6
1 1 1 1
But from Eq. (iv), + = T C 9 B
1 1 2 1

- - =
9 B B 6
1 1 3

- =
9 6 B
B = - 54 , which is impossible.
Hence, data is inconsistent.
Hence, choice (4) is correct.
11. (4) Let ar = number of SMSes still not sent at the start of
the rth day. (Please note that ar includes only those
SMSes which are officially available to be sent on the
rth day and afterward, it does not include any SMS
which was available at our disposal in previous day (s)
but has not been sent).
\
a1 = m and an = n (1 r n)\ an + 1 = 0
1
So,
ar + 1 = (ar - r ) (ar - r )
11
10

ar + 1 =
(ar - r )
11

10 ar - 11 ar + 1 = 10 r

10 ar = 11 ar + 1 + 10 r
10 ar + 100 r = 11 ar + 1 + 110 r
10 ar + 100 r = 11 ar + 1 + 110 r + 110 - 110
10 ar + 100 r = 11 ar + 1 + 110(r + 1) - 110
10 ar + 100 r - 10(110) = 11 ar + 1 + 110(r + 1)
- 110 - 10(110)

10 ar + 100 r - 10(110) = 11 ar + 1
+ 110(r + 1) - 11(110)

10 (ar + 10 r - 110) = 11 [ar + 1 + 10(r + 1) - 110]


10
(ar + 10 r - 110)
ar + 1 + 10(r + 1) - 110 =
11
10
a2 + 10(2) - 110 =
[a1 + 10(1) - 110]
\
11
10
Similarly, a3 + 10(3) - 110 =
[a2 + 10(2) - 110]
11
2

10
= [a1 + 10 - 110]
11
10
Similarly, a4 + 10(4) - 110 =
[a3 + 10(3) - 110]
11
3

10
= [a1 + 10 - 110]
11
r -1

10
(a1 + 10 - 110)
\ ar + 10 r - 110 =
11
Since, a1 = m, an + 1 = 0 for every 1 r n + 1
n

10
an + 1 + 10(n + 1) - 110 = (a1 + 10 - 110)
11
n

10
10(n + 1) - 110 = (a1 - 100)
11
\

[an + 1 = 0]

11 n(n - 10) = 10 n - 1 (m - 100)

m = 100 +

(n - 10) 11
10 n - 1

Since, m is an integer, therefore

[a1 = m]
n

(n - 10) 11 n
must be
10 n - 1

an integral number.
Again, since 11 and 10 are coprime, so 10 n - 1 must
divide n - 10.
But 10 n - 1 > n - 10 so n = 10 and m = 100
Hence, choice (4) is correct.
Below is the visual explanation of the question is
given
Total
1/11 of the
Remaining
Known
SMS
remaining
SMSs for
Day no. of the
sent per
no. of SMS
the next
SMS sent
day/by
sent
day
that day
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

9
10/10
90
8
10/20
80
7
10/30
70
6
10/40
60
5
10/50
50
4
10/60
40
3
10/70
30
2
10/80
20
1
10/90
10
0
10/100
0
(a + b + c)
12. (4) Semiperimeter s =
. Therefore, sides of
2
(- a + b + c) (a - b + c)
another triangle are
,
,
2
2
(a + b - c)
. We may ignore the factor 1/2, since clearly
2

Crack CAT 1

a triangle with sides x, y, z can be constructed iff a


triangle with sides 2 x, 2 y, 2 z can be constructed.
The advantage of considering the process as
generating (- a + b + c), (a - b + c), (a + b - c) from
a, b , c is that the sum of the sides remains unchanged
at a + b + c, so we can focus on just one of the three
sides. Thus we are looking at the sequence
a, (a + b + c) - 2 a, a + b + c - 2 (- a + b + c), ... . Let
d = 2 a - b - c. We show that the process generates the
sequence a, a - d, a + d, a - 3d, a + 5d, a - 11d, a + 21d,
... . Let the nth term be a + (-1)n and. We claim that
an + 1 = 2 an + (-1)n. This is an easy induction, for we
have a + (-1)n + 1 an + 1d = a + b + c - 2(a + (-1)n and)
and hence (-1)n + 1 an + 1d = - d - 2 (-1)n and, and hence
an + 1 = 2 an + (-1)n. But this shows that an is
unbounded. Hence, if d is non-zero, then the process
ultimately generates a negative number. Thus a
necessary condition for the process to generate
triangles indefinitely is that 2a = b + c. Similarly,
2b = c + a is a necessary condition. But these two
equations imply (subtracting) a = b and hence a = c.
So, a necessary condition is that the triangle is
equilateral. But this is obviously also sufficient.
Hence, choice (4) is correct.
13. (2) We consider the mid point of each side. We say that a
vertex ( x, y) is pure if x and y have the same parity and
impure if x and y have opposite parity. Since, the total
number of vertices is odd, there must be two adjacent
pure vertices P and Q or two adjacent impure vertices
P and Q. But in either case the mid point of P and Q
either has both coordinates integers, which we are
told does not happen, or as both coordinates of the
form an integer plus half, which therefore must occur.
Hence, choice (2) is correct.
14. (5) We can exhibit a sequence with 13 terms which does
not contain a prime: 2 101 = 202, 3 97 = 291,
5 89 = 445, 7 83 = 581, 11 79 = 869, 13 73 = 949,
17 71 = 1207, 19 67 = 1273, 23 61 = 1403,
29 59 = 1711, 31 53 = 1643, 37 47 = 1739,
41 43 = 1763. So, certainly n 14.
If there is a sequence with n 14 not containing any
primes, then since there are only 13 primes not
exceeding 41, at least one member of the sequence
must have at least two prime factors exceeding 41.
Hence, it must be at least 43.47 = 2021 which exceeds
1995. So, n = 14 is impossible.
Hence, choice (5) is correct.
15. (5) Each pair of 0, 5, 12 differ by 5, 7 or 12, so
f (0), f (5), f (12) must all be different, so n 3.
We can exhibit an f with n = 4. Define f (m) = 1 for
m = 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 (mod 24), f (m) = 2 for m = 2, 4, 6, 8,
10, 12 (mod 24), f (m) = 3 for m = 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23
(mod 24), f (m) = 4 for m = 14 , 16, 18, 20, 22,
0 (mod 24). Hence, n = 4.
Hence, choice (5) is correct.
16. (5) Let A2 = b + c - a, B2 = c + a - b , C2 = a + b - c. Then,
A2 + B2 = 2c. Also, A = B iff a = b . We have
( A - B)2 0, with equality iff A = B. Hence,
A2 + B2 2 AB and so 2( A2 + B2 ) ( A + B)2 or
4 c ( A + B)2 or 2 c A + B, with equality iff A = B.
Adding the two similar relations we get the desired
inequality, with equality iff the triangle is equilateral.
Hence, choice (5) is correct.

Common Admission Test

21

n (n + 1)
2
1
1
1
Then,
Sn =
+
+K+
T1 T2
Tn
1
1
1

Therefore,
= 2 Tm
m m + 1
Sn
1
Hence,
=1 2
(n + 1)
1 1 + 1/ n
So,
=
Sn
2
1
1
1
Hence,
+
+K+
S1 S2
Sn
1996 1 + 1 / 2 + 1 / 3 + ... + 1 / 1996
=
+

2
2

Now,
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1
1+ + + + + + + + +K+
+
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
16
1 1
1
1
+K+
+ ... +

+
+
17
32
33
64

1 1
1
1
+K+
+ ... +

+
+
128 129
256
65
1 1
1
1
+ K+
+ ... +

+
>
512 513
1024
257
1
1
1
1 1
1
+
+ K+
1 + + + K+ = 6. So,
S1 S2
Sn
2 2
2
1996 6
=
+ = 998 + 3 = 1001
2
2
Hence, choice (4) is correct.

17. (4) Let Tn = 1 + 2 + K + n =

18. (3) We have 2 p - 1 = 1 mod p for any prime p, so if we can


find h in {1, 2, ..., p - 2} for which 2 h = - 2 mod p, then
2 k = - 2 mod p for any h = k mod p. Thus we find that
2 k = - 2 mod 5 for k = 3 mod 4, and 2 k = - 2 mod 11 for
k = 6 mod 10. So, we might, then hope that 5 11 = 3
mod 4 and 2 13 = 6 mod 10. Unfortunately, it does
not! But we try searching for more examples.
The simplest would be to look at pq. Suppose first that
p and q are both odd, so that pq is odd. If k = h mod
p - 1, then we need h to be odd (otherwise pq would
have to be even). So, the first step is to get a list of
primes p with 2 h = - 2 mod p for some odd h < p. We
always have 2 p - 1 = 1 mod p, so we sometimes have
2( p - 1 )/2 = - 1 mod p and hence 2( p + 1 )/2 = - 2 mod p. If
p+1
is to be odd, then p = 1 mod 4. So, searching
2
such primes we find 3 mod 5, 7 mod 13, 15 mod 29, 19
mod 37, 27 mod 53, 31 mod 61. We require pq to lie in
the range 100-1997, so we check 5 29 (not = 3 mod 4),
5 37 (not =3 mod 4), 5 53 (not = 3 mod 4), 5 61 (not = 3
mod 4), 13 29 (not = 7 mod 12), 13 37 (not = 7 mod 12),
13 53 (not = 7 mod 12), 13 61 (not = 7 mod 12), 29 37
(not = 15 mod 28), 29 53 (not = 15 mod 28), 29 61
(not = 15 mod 28), 37 53 (not = 19 mod 36). So, that
does not advance matters much!
( p + 1)
) because we
2 p will not work (at least with h =
2
( p + 1)
cannot have 2 p =
. So, we try looking at
2 mod p - 1
2 pq. This requires that p and q = 3 mod 4. So,

22 Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

searching for suitable p we find 6 mod 11, 10 mod 19,


22 mod 43, 30 mod 59, 34 mod 67, 42 mod 83. So, we
look at 2 11 43 = 946, which works. Hence, the only
such number is 946.
Hence, choice (3) is correct.
Alternatively : Note that 2 divides 2 n + 2 for all n.
Also, 11 divides 2 n + 2 if and only if n 6 (mod 10),
and 43 divides 2 n + 2 if and only if n 8 (mod 14).
Since, n = 946 = 2 11 43 satisfies both congruences,
n divides 2 n + 2.
Please note that, one can prove that there are infinitely
2n + 2
is an integer. Also, any such n
many n such that
2
is even, since by a theorem of W . Sierpinski we cannot
2n + 1
have
as an integer unless n = 1.
2
Alternatively : The first step would be to choose
n = 2 p, for some prime number p. Unfortunately, this
cannot work by Fermats little theorem. So, let us try
setting n = 2 pq , with p, q different prime numbers. We
22 pq -1 + 1
as an integer and so must have
need
pq
-2 -2
= = 1.
p q
22q -1 + 1
and
Also, using Fermats little theorem,
p
22 p -1 + 1
. A small verification shows that q = 3, 5, 7 are
q
not good choices, so let us try q = 11. In this case we
22 pq -1 + 1
obtain p = 43, and so it suffices to show that
pq
is an integer for q = 11 and p = 43. This is immediate,
since the hard work has already been completed : we
22q -1 + 1
have shown that it suffices to have
and
p
- 2 - 2
22 p -1 + 1
=
= 1 in order to
as integers and
q
p q

If n 8, then 3 8 5 7 = 840 divides N, so N > 729 = 93 .


Hence, 9 divides N, and hence 3 840 = 2520 divides
N. But we show that no N > 2000 can satisfy the
condition.
x3
Note that 2( x - 1)3 > x3 for any x > 4 . Hence, [ x]3 >
2
N
3
for x > 4 . So, certainly if N > 2000, we have n > .
2
Now, let pk be the highest power of k which does not
n
n3 N
exceed n. Then, pk > . Hence, p2 p3 p5 >
>
. But
k
30 60
since N > 2000, we have 7 < 11 < n and hence
p2 , p3 , p5, 7, 11 are all n. But 77 p2 p3 p5 > N , so N
cannot satisfy the condition. Therefore n = 420.
Now, 420 = 22 3 5 7, therefore number of factors of
420 = (2 + 1) (1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1) = 24.
Hence, choice (1) is correct.
21. (2) Drop a perpendicular from centre A on BC, it will
bisect the chord BD.

A
E
10 10
B

F
20

BF = FD = 10

Now, since BAC = AFC


FAC = ABC

and so

\ D ABC is similar to DFAC


AC FC
=
\
BC AC
A
y x

2 pq -1

+1
an integer. But as one can easily check,
pq
all these conditions are satisfied and the number
2 11 43 = 946 is a valid answer.
have

Proving that it is unique is harder. The easiest way is to use a


computer to search (approx 5 min to write a Maple program or
similar and a few seconds to run it).

19. (5) Take m n and the smallest possible m. Now,


(36m + n) and (m + 36 n) must each be powers of 2, as
per the given choices. Hence, 4 divides n and 4 divides
m
n
m
m. So,
< m.
and is a smaller solution with
2
2
2
Contradiction.
Hence, choice (5) is correct.
20. (1) Let N be a positive integer satisfying the condition and
let n be the largest integer not exceeding its cube root.
If n = 7, then 3 4 5 7 = 420 must divide N. But N
cannot exceed 83 - 1 = 511, so the largest such N
is 420.

16

90

x
10

26

AC2 = BC FC
AC2 = 36 26
AC = 6 26

Hence, choice (2) is correct.


22. (3) Let AB = 80, then BC = 60.
We know that

AB + BD + AD = BC + BD + CD 80 F
80 + BD + AD = 60 + BD
+ ( AC - AD)

AD = 40

CD = 60

E
60

(Q AC = 100)

Crack CAT 1

Now,
drop
the
two
perpendiculars DE on BC and A
DF on AB, as shown in the
diagram.
Since, FD || BC
F
AF
AD
\
=
BF CD
AF 40 2

=
=
B
BF 60 3
AF = 32 and BF = 48
A
Similarly, DE || AB
EC DC 60 3
=
=
=
\
EB DA 40 2
EC = 36 and BE = 24
2

BD = BE + BF (Q DE = BF )

1
4

Hence, choice (1) is correct.


24. (4) Time =
D

30
30
60 min
h=
55
55

= 32 min 43 s

23

23. (1) There are 10C3 groups of three letters to be chosen.


There are 5 ways to choose in A, 3 ways to choose a B
and 2 ways to choose a C.
That is there are 30 ways (5 3 2) to choose A, B or C.
5 3 2 5 3 2
The required probability is 10
=
120
C3

But BD = BE + ED
2

Common Admission Test

\Required time = 6 : 32 : 43
B

Hence, choice (4) is correct.


25. (2) 4 5 6 7 8 = 6720

BD = 242 + 482 BD = 2880


Hence, choice (3) is correct.

Hence, choice (2) is correct.

SECTION II
Solutions (Q. 26-28)

28 250
26. (1) Total nominees for Comedy genre =
= 70
100
20% of 70 = 14
46 250
Total nominees from UP =
= 115
100
\Total nominees from UP who are not nominated for
Comedy genre = 115 - 14 = 101
Hence, choice (1) is correct.

27. (4) 50% of Animation genre nominees = 5


20% of Horror genre nominess = 9
40% of Musical genre nominees = 14
60% of Sci-fi genre nominees = 9
30% of Comedy genre nominees = 21
Total = 58
Total nominees with 10-12 years experience
28 250
=
= 70
100
\12(= 70 - 58) nominees in the Romantic genre belong
to the group of 10-12 years experience.
Hence, choice (4) is correct.
250 20
28. (5) Total nominees of age group of 25 - 30 =
= 50
100
\ 25 nominees belong to Horror, Musical, Romantic
and Comedy genre and rest 25 nominees belong to
Animation and Sci-fi genre.
But we know that in Animation and Sci-fi altogether
there are 10% (25 nominees) of the total 250.
So the remaining 25 nominees from the age group of
25-30 will be nominated for the 25 nominations of
Animation and Sci-fi.
Hence, all the nominations of Sci-fi genre belong to
the age group of 25-30 years.
So, the answer should be 100%.
Hence, choice (5) is correct.

Solutions (Q. 29-31)


In the context of Lucknow
B2 is already engaged on Wednesday (in Barabanki).
Also, B2 is not entitled to protect JDU. Therefore,
B2 will be protecting some rally on Monday in
Lucknow.
In the context of Sitapur
B4 can protect either SP rally or BSP rally. But B4 is
already engaged on Thursday, so B4 has to protect SP
rally on Wednesdey in Sitapur.
Again in Sitapur, on Thursday there will be either
B2 or B3 on duty and consequently the rally can be
held either by BJP, or Congress or SP.
But since SP and Congress are holding their rallies on
Wednesday and Friday respectively, so BJP is the only
party which will hold rally on Thursday and hence
the protection will be provided by B2 (not by B3 ).
Therefore,
Congress B3
BJP B2
SP B4
JDU B1
BSP B5
In the context of Barabanki
B3 cant be there on Tuesday as B3 is already engaged
in Lucknow.
B3 cant be there on Wednesday as B2 is there.
B3 cant be there on Thursday as JDU (ie, B1 / B5) is
there.
B3 cant be there on Friday as B3 is already engaged in
Sitapur.

24 Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

Therefore, B3 will be protecting SP on Monday.


Now, since Congress rally is protected by either B2 or
B3 , but B3 is already engaged with SP rally, so only B2
is there to protect Congress.
Similarly, BJP rally can be protected by B1 as B2 is
already engaged with Congress rally. Further, since B1
cannot be engaged on Tuesday in Barabanki, so B1 will
protect BJP rally on Friday.
Now, we know that since JDU rally can be protected
only by either B1 or B5. But B1 is already engaged with
BJP, so JDU will be protected by B5.
Hence, the remaining combination of party and
battalion is BSP and B4 will fit in on Tuesday.
Therefore,

Solutions (Q. 34-38)


Case I
Star
Monday

10

Tuesday

10

Wednesday

10

Thursday

10

Friday

10

Saturday

10

10

10

10

10

10

10

Total
Case II

SP B3

Star

BSP B4
Congress B2
JDU B5
BJP B1
In the context of Lucknow
Since, B1 is already engaged on Friday with BJP rally
(in Barabanki), so JDU can be protected by B5.
Hence, B1 will be there on Wednesday.
Since, B5 protects JDU, so BSP will be protected by B4 .
Since, B4 protects BSP, so SP will be protected by B3 .
Since, B3 protects SP, so Congress will be protected by
B2 .
Hence, B1 will protect the remaining party-BJP on
Wednesday.
Lucknow

Barabanki

Rally
Rally Day Rally of Battali of
on
the Party
the
Number Party

Sitapur

Batta
Batta
Rally
lion
lion
of the
Num
Num
Party
ber
ber

Monday

Congress

B2

SP

B3

BSP

B5

Tuesday

SP

B3

BSP

B4

JDU

B1

Wednesday

BJP

B1

Cong
ress

B2

SP

B4

Thursday

BSP

B4

JDU

B5

BJP

B2

Friday

JDU

B5

BJP

B1

Cong
ress

B3

29. Choice (2)


30. Choice (1)
31. Choice (2)
Solutions (Q. 32 and 33)
32. Choice (1)
33. Choice (2)

Zee
Car
NDTV UTV Sony
Total
TV
toon

Zee
Car
NDTV UTV Sony
Total
TV
toon

Monday

10

Tuesday

10

Wednesday

10

Thursday

10

Friday

10

Saturday

10

10

10

10

10

10

10

Total

Star

Zee
Car
NDTV UTV Sony
Total
TV
toon

Monday

10

Tuesday

10

Wednesday

10

Thursday

10

Friday

10

Saturday

10

10

10

10

10

10

10

Total

34. (4) Number of Star channels on Friday = 1


Number of Sony channels on Monday = 1 or 2
\Difference = 0 or 1
Hence, choice (4) is correct.
35. (1) Number of Sony channels on Wednesday = 4
Number of Cartoon channels on Tuesday and Friday
=2+3 =5
\Required difference = 5 - 4 = 1
Hence, choice (1) is correct.
36. (2) Number of Star channels on Wednesday = 4
Number of Zee TV channels on Monday = 2
\Required answer = 4 + 2 = 6
Hence, choice (2) is correct.
37. (4) Zee TV channels on Friday are greater than Star Plus
channels on Tuesday.
So, only statement 4 is true.
Hence, choice (4) is correct.
38. Choice (2)

Crack CAT 1

Common Admission Test

25

Solutions (Q. 46-50)

Solutions (Q. 39-42)

The given data can be represented in the table form as :

39. Choice (2)


40. Choice (1)

Company

41. Choice (4)


42. Choice (2)

Honda
Maruti
Tata
GM
Total

Solutions (Q. 43-45)


Hint : UCM, MSI and MoS carry 3, 2 and 1 points respectively.

43. Choice (1)

Class
B
0
1
1
1
3

1
1
6

44. Choice (3)

46. Choice (1)

47. Choice (2)

45. Choice (5)

49. Choice (1)

50. Choice (2)

2
1
6

Total

1
1
6

4
8
5
4

48. Choice (3)

SECTION III
Solutions (Q. 51-55)
51. (1) BE is a very strong link. EA is also a possible link.
Hence, choice (1) is correct.
52. (1) AD is a very clear link. However the para (paragraph)
cant start with sentence B.
Hence, choice (1) is correct.
53. (5) DBE is a very important link. Also, AC link talks about
more number of such historical moments or events.
Hence, choice (5) is correct.
54. (3) BA is a very obvious link. Besides DCE is also a
significant link.
Hence, choice (3) is correct.
55. (2) Finding a link EAB is very easy.
Hence, choice (2) is correct.
Solutions (Q. 56-60)
56. Choice (4)
57. Choice (3)
58. Choice (3)
59. Choice (4)
60. Choice (4)
Solutions (Q. 61-75)
61. Choice (2). In the first para, the author refers to expedition
in the devils sea as being inspired by unexplained
losses in the Japanese equivalent ..
62. Choice (3). Refer to para 5, first line some unusual
speculations.
63. Choice (4). Refer to para 5, of appalling explosive
character when...
64. Choice (3). Refer to para 8The areas are located between
36 north and 36 south latitude. Also, refer last para of
the sentence . including the north and the south
poles.

Confusion might arise from the fact that the sentence stated more
precisely at 36 north..again ; note that this refers to the area of 36
north to 36 south where 10 anomalies are located. It does not point
the exact location of an anomaly.

65. Choice (2). Refer to last para choice (2) is not mentioned.
66. Choice (4). Refer last sentencethe idea of unrecorded
winds is not taken to apply to the planes crossing the
Bermuda triangle. Rather they are attributed with
mysterious causes associated with anomalies - in the
context of the passage the cause mentioned is a time
warp.
67. Choice (2).The passage does not restrict itself only to be
the Bermuda Triangle-it looks at different such areas and
hypotheses or possible reasons.
68. Choice (3). Refer to para 3- flows from the high
wildness of the Cascade Range...
69. Choice (2). Local soil refers to a type of soil rich in clay,
sand slit.
70. Choice (4). Here, choice (4) is not mentioned in the
passage.
71. Choice (1). The valley and its features have been
compared to a cathedral and its characteristics to convey
the sense of awe and grandeur associated with cathedral.
72. Choice (2). Refer to para 4.(2) is not mentioned .
73. Choice (3). Refer to para 5 and para 6. The questions
reveal that there are too many difficult choices to be made
with no clear answer.
74. Choice (1). The dam would in fact, prevent flooding.
75. Choice (3). Choice (1) does not follow as the American
formers are all for it. No information relating to (2) has
been provided . As for (4), raising and strengthening dikes
is an option to constructing dams. Only (3) is valid as can
inferred from statement that theyd be kept free of dams
if they became scenic rivers.