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Crack

SECTION I

This section contains 25 questions

Directions (Q. 1-6) : Answer the questions independently of each other.

(1) x > 5

(5) None of these

(2) (0, )

(4) [5, )

factors of S which are multiple of P , Q and R simultaneously.

(1) 1152

(2) 1440

(3) 1520

(4) 12960

(5) None of these

3. In an isosceles triangle, R is the radius of its circumscribed circle and r is the radius of its inscribed circle.

Find the distance between the centre of these two circles.

(1) 2R ( R - r )

(2) R ( R - 2r )

(3) R - 2 Rr

(4) R - 3r

4. Suppose a, b , c are the sides of a triangle and a 2 (b + c - a) + b 2 (c + a - b ) + c 2 (a + b - c ) = P , then

(1) P 3abc

(2) P 3 (a + b + c )

(3) P

6 3

abc

4

3

abc

4

(4) P

(5) P 3 3 (a + b + c )

5. The functions f ( x, y ) satisfy the following three conditions for every non-negative integer x, y .

(i) f (0, y ) = y + 1

(ii) f ( x + 1, 0) = f ( x, 1)

(iii) f ( x + 1, y + 1) = f ( x, f ( x + 1, y ))

(1) 4

2008

Total 2s are 2011

(2) (2

2011

) +3

(3) (2

2008

.2

..

) -3

(4) 2

22

-3

Crack CAT 1

3-x 3

2

(5) None of these

(1) 0 x < 1 -

39

8

x +1 >

1

2

(3) 4 x

(4) -1 x < 1 -

31

8

Directions (Q. 7 and 8) : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

An 8 8 chess board is decomposed into m non-overlapping or disjoint rectangles along the lines between

squares such that each rectangle consists of as many black squares as white squares and each rectangle has a

different number of squares.

(1) 7

(2) 8

(5) None of these

(3) 9

(4) 6

8. Find the maximum possible number of total squares in a rectangle which corresponds to the greatest value

of m.

(1) 16

(2) 18

(3) 20

(4) 22

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 9-25) : Answer the questions independently of each other.

9. A

function

is

defined

for

all

the

natural

numbers

and

satisfies

f (1) = 231

and

f (1) + f (2) + f (3) + K f ( n) = n f ( n) for all n > 1. Find the value of f (21).

(1) 441

(2) 121

(3) 21

(5) 1

(4) 11

10. 2 tractors, 3 camels and 4 bulls can plough a piece of farm in 6 h. 3 tractors, 4 camels and 2 bulls can plough

the same piece of farm in 3 h. 4 tractors, 2 camels and 3 bulls can plough the same piece of farm in 2 h. Then

a tractor, a camel and a bull can plough the piece of land in

(1) 8 h

(2) 9 h

(3) 12 h

(4) Data inconsistent

(5) None of these

11. Celeb communications is an SMS (Short Messaging Services) dedicated mobile phone company, which

offers special coupons/vouchers on every festive season at a very discounted price to all its customers. It

launches a special SMS coupon on the grand festival of Deewali worth Re 1. According to the scheme a

subscriber availing this coupon, can send total m SMSes in n successive days ( n > 1). On the first day of its

activation, he can send one SMS and 1/11 of the remaining ( m - 1) SMSes. On the second day, two SMSes

and 1/11 of the remaining SMSes; and so on. On the nth and last day,the remaining n SMSes can be sent. If

he does not utilise the quota of any particular day it gets automatically vanished. Also if he tries to send

more SMSes than that of stipulated quota of any day, he will be prohibited to do so. What is the value of

( m + n)?

(1) 11!

(2) 12!

(3) 99

(4) 110

(5) None of these

a +b +c

. Construct a

2

triangle with sides s - a, s - b , s - c. This process is repeated until a triangle can no longer be constructed

with the side lengths given. For which original triangles can this process be repeated indefinitely?

(1) Right angled

(2) Scalene

(3) Obtuse angle

(4) Equilateral

(5) None of these

12. A triangle with sides a, b and c is given. Denoted by s is the semi-perimeter, that is s =

Crack CAT 1

13. Let P1 , P2 , K P1993 = P0 be distinct points in the x - y plane with the following properties :

(i) both coordinates of Pi are integers, for i = 1, 2, K , 1993 ;

(ii) there is no point other than Pi and Pi + 1 on the line segment joining Pi with Pi + 1 whose coordinates are

both integers, for i = 0, 1 ..., 1992.

For some i , 0 i 1992, there exists a point Q with coordinates (q x , q y ) on the line segment joining Pi

with Pi + 1 such that both 2q x and 2q y are

(1) even integers

(2) odd integers

(3) irrational numbers

(4) negative even integers

(5) None of these

14. Let a 1 , a 2 , K , a n be a sequence of integers with values between 2 and 1995 such that

(i) Any two of the a i s are relatively prime.

(ii) Each a i is either a prime or a product of primes. Determine the smallest possible values of n to make sure

that the sequence will contain a prime number.

(1) 42

(2) 7

(3) 12

(4) 24

(5) 14

15. Find the minimum positive integer n such that there exists a function from the set Z of all integers to

{1, 2, K , n} with the property that f ( x) f ( y ) whenever| x - y | {5, 7, 12}.

(1) 6

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 5

(5) 4

16. Let a, b , c be the lengths of the sides of a triangle and

Let

p = a +b -c + b + c - a + c + a - b

q = a + b + c , then

(2) q = 2 p

(3) p > q

and

(1) p < a

(5) p q

1

(4) p q

1

1

+K+

1

1 1

1 1

1

1+

1+ +

1 + + +K+

3

3 6

3 6

1993006

where the denominators contain partial sums of the sequence of reciprocals of triangular number

n ( n + 1)

for n = 1, 2, K ,1996). Then, which of the following is correct?

( ie, K =

2

(1) S > 9999

(2) S > 1111

(3) S > 1001

(4) S > 1996

(5) None of these

2n + 2

is also an integer.

18. Find an integer n, where 100 n 1997, such that

n

(1) 256

(2) 234

(3) 946

(4) 998

(5) 729

19. For any positive integers m and n, (36m + n) ( m + 36n) can be equal to

(4) 272

(3) 236

(2) 2 64

(1) 232

(5) None of these

20. Determine the number of factors of the greatest integer n with the property that n is divisible by all positive

integers that are less than 3 n.

(1) 24

(2) 18

(3) 10

(4) 42

(5) 6

17. Given S = 1 +

21. D ABC is right angled at A. The circle with centre A and radius AB cuts BC and AC

internally at D and E respectively. If BD = 20 and DC = 16, determine AC.

(1) 3 102

(2) 6 26

(3) 2 103

(4) 5 119

A

E

B

Crack CAT 1

22. The lengths of the sides of triangle ABC are 60, 80 and 100 with A = 90. The line AD

divides triangle ABC into two triangles of equal perimeter. Calculate the length of AD.

(1) 2796

(2) 40

(3) 2880

(4) Cant be determined

(5) None of the above

23. There are ten prizes, five As, three Bs and two Cs, placed in identical sealed envelopes for the top ten

contestants in a mathematics contest. The prizes are awarded by allowing winners to select an envelope at

random from those remaining. When the eighth contestant goes to select a prize, what is the probability that

the remaining three prizes are one A, one B and one C?

1

1

1

1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4

3

2

6

(5) None of these

24. Between 6 am and 7 am when do the two hands of a clock coincide?

(1) 6 : 23 : 00

(2) 6 : 32 : 00

(3) 6 : 35 : 17

(5) 6 : 48 : 51

(4) 6 : 32 : 43

25. Find the number of ways of putting five distinct rings on four fingers of the left hand. (Ignore different sizes

of rings and the fingers).

(1) 1250

(2) 6720

(3) 5260

(4) 3250

(5) 1260

SECTION II

This section contains 25 questions

Directions (Q. 26-28) : Answer the questions on the basis of the following charts.

The pie charts show the details of the Bollywood people who received the nomination for filmfare award of the

year 2009 as on 20-09-2009.

PB (10%)

SI (4%)

BR (10%)

MH (6%)

OTH (4%)

Animation

(4%)

Musical

(14%)

Sci-fi

(6%)

ND (8%)

WB

(12%)

Comedy

(28%)

UP (46%)

Romantic

(30%)

Bollywood nominees

genre-wise

Bollywood nominees

by location

28%

30%

8-10

Bollywood nominees

by their experience (in years)

35

Percentage of Nominees

More

than 16 0-2

14-16

6% 6% 6 2-4

%

4-6

10%

12-14 2%

4%

6-8

8%

10-12

Horror

(18%)

30

25

20

15

10

5

0

0-5

Bollywood Nominees by their age

Genres, categories and ages all are exclusively divided into various divisions.

Crack CAT 1

26. If the 20% of the nominees in Comedy genre belonge to UP, then how many nominees of UP are not

nominated for Romantic genre?

(1) 101

(2) 111

(3) 110

(4) 100

(5) None of these

27. If the 50% of Animation, 20% of Horror, 40% of Musical, 60% of Sci-fi and 30% Comedy genre nominees

belong to the group of 10-12 years experience, then how many nominees in the Romantic genre belong to

the group of 10-12 years experience?

(1) 28

(2) 18

(3) 11

(4) 12

(5) Cant be determined

28. If 50% of the nominees from the age group of 25-30 years are nominated for the Horror, Musical, Romantic

and Comedy genres, then how much percentage of Sci-fi genres nominee belongs to the age group of 20-30

years?

(1) 10

(2) 30

(3) 60

(4) Data insufficient

(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 29-31) : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Just before the parliamentary election 5 national level partiesBJP, Congress, SP, BSP, JDU, sought the

permission from Election Commission to hold the rally in 3 different townsLucknow, Barabanki and

Sitapur. No two political parties can hold the election rally in the same town on the same day.

Rallies can be held within five days period from Monday to Friday. No political party will hold the rally in any

town for more than one day. Every political party is given a battalion of paramilitary forcesB 1 , B 2 , B 3 , B 4 and

B 5 in such a way that B 1 can protect BJP rally and JDU rally. B 2 can protect only BJP and Congress rallies. B 3

can protect only Congress and SP rallies. B 4 can protect only SP and BSP rallies. B 5 can protect only BSP and

JDU rallies. No political party will hold the rally without protection by a battalion of paramilitary forces.

Below is the table gives partial information about the rallies during the given period.

Day

Monday

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thrusday

Friday

Lucknow

Pol. Party

Battalion

Barabanki

Pol. Party

Battalion

SP

B3

B2

B4

Sitapur

Pol. Party

Battalion

B5

B1

SP

JDU

JDU

Congress

(1) BJP and BSP

(2) BJP and JDU

(3) JDU and BSP

(5) None of these

(1) B3 and B2

(2) B 4 and B2

(3) B 4 and B3

(5) None of these

(1) BJP and JDU respectively

(3) BJP and BSP respectively

(5) None of these

(4) Cant be determined

Directions (Q. 32 and 33) : Answer the questions based on the information given below.

On, Tw, Th, Fr, Fv, Sx, Sn, Et, Nn and Tn are the ten people belong to two different families. On, Fv, Sx, and

Nn are two couples whereas Tw, Th, Fr, Sn, Et and Tn are their children. Each couple has three children. They

are sitting in a row. No two members of the same family sit together. Tn sits in between Fr and Et. While Sx has

two sons. Et has two sisters while Tn has two brothers. On is the father of Th and Tn while Nn is the mother of

Sn and Et. The male heads of the two families sit on either ends of the row while the female heads of the two

families sit together exactly at the centre of the row.

Crack CAT 1

(1) Tw is son of Fv whose daughter is Sn.

(2) Th and Tw are the brothers of Tn.

(3) Sx is the wife of On and Tn is her daughter.

(4) Fr and Sn are the daughters of Fv whose wife is Nn.

(5) None of the above

33. In how many ways can these ten members sit in the row?

(1) 4

(2) 8

(3) 2

(5) None of these

(4) 6

Directions (Q. 34-38) : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

There are six TV groupsStar, Zee TV, NDTV, UTV, Sony Entertainment, Cartoon Network, each of them

have 10 channels. These channels are supposed to be shown in a very planned manner from Monday to

Saturday as given below.

Every day (from Monday to Saturday) exactly 10 channels are being shown.

Not more than four channels of a single TV group will be shown in any day.

On Monday 3 channels of NDTV and one channel of Star group is being shown.

On Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday, no three channels of any group are being shown.

On Wednesday, no any channel of UTV group is being shown but 4 channels of Sony Entertainment

are being shown.

Every day atleast one channel of Star group and NDTV is being shown.

Four channels of Cartoon Network are being shown on Thursday but not even a single channel of Zee

TV being shown on Thursday.

Among the six days (Monday to Saturday) only on the three days, including Monday and Friday,

channels of all the six groups are being shown.

Total number of channels of UTV, Sony Entertainment and Cartoon network shown on each of

Tuesday and Friday is equal to 6.

Sum of the number of channels of Star group being shown on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday and

the sum of number of channels of Zee TV being shown on Wednesday, Friday and Saturday is 6.

34. What is the difference between the number of channels of Star group being shown on Friday to the number

of channels of Sony Entertainment being shown on Monday?

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 1

(4) Cant be determined

(5) None of these

35. What is the difference between the number of channels of Sony Entertainment being shown on Wednesday

to the sum of the number of channels of Cartoon Network being shown on Tuesday and Friday?

(1) 1

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) Cant be determined

(5) None of these

36. What is the sum of number of channels of Star group being shown on Wednesday and number of channels

of Zee TV being shown on Monday?

(1) 7

(2) 6

(3) 9

(4) 8

(5) None of these

37. Which of the following is definitely true?

(1) Number of channels of Star group being shown on Monday is 4.

(2) Not more than 1 channel of Cartoon Network can be shown on Friday.

(3) Number of channels of UTV being shown on Tuesday and Friday are same.

(4) Total number of Zee TV channels being shown on Friday is more than the total number of Star group

channels being shown on Tuesday.

(5) Sum of number of Star group channels being shown on Wednesday and Thursday is 1 more than the

sum of number of Sony Entertainment channels being shown on Tuesday and Friday.

Crack CAT 1

38. If the number of UTV channels being shown on Thursday is greater than the number of Sony Entertainment

channels being shown on the same day, then which among the following is definitely true?

(1) Sum of number of Sony Entertainment channels being shown on Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and

Friday is 8.

(2) Number of NDTV channels being shown on each of Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and Friday is same.

(3) Number of UTV channels on Tuesday and number of Cartoon Networks channels on Friday are equal

and 3 in each case.

(4) Sum of number of channels of Star group being shown on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday is 1 more

than the sum of number of channels of UTV, Sony Entertainment and Cartoon Network being shown on

Wednesday.

(5) None of the above

Directions (Q. 39-42) : Answer the questions of the basis of the information given below.

Six trading partnersA, B, C, D, E and F formed a close group. They send and receive the orders and

consignments within the group only. The following bar graphs show the details regarding the number of

consignments sent by these partners, within the group during the last financial year. The first bar diagram

gives the details of total number of consignments received by A from his five trading partners in last financial

year and the second bar graph gives the details of the total consignments sent by these five trading partners

within the group (ie, excluding A) in the same financial year.

30

30%

30%

25

25

20

20%

20%

16

15

10%

0%

10

10%

0%

24

20

10

A consignment is always sent and received in the same financial year. Total consignments received by A in the

last financial year is 3000 and assume the total consignment sent by five trading partners within the group

(except A) is Q.

(1) 3500

(2) 3800

(5) None of these

(3) 4000

(1) E

(2) B

(3) C

(5) None of these

(4) 4200

(4) D

Additional information for questions 41 and 42 : It is also known that at least 25% of the total consignments

41. What is the max. possible number of persons who have sent more than 80% of their consignments to A?

(1) 2

(2) 1

(3) 4

(4) 3

(5) None of these

42. Which of the following can be the value of K if K % of the consignments sent by D are to A?

(1) 40

(2) 50

(3) 90

(4) 30

(5) Cant be determined

Directions (Q. 43-45) : Answer the questions based on the following information.

After the Parliamentary election 2009, in India, every State rushed to Delhi in order to grab maximum number

of chairs in various ministries.

A ministry (in Indian parliament) is run by the council of ministers of India consists of three different

categories which are as follows :

Union Cabinet Minister : The Union Cabinet Ministers of India are in-charge of a ministry.

10 Crack CAT 1

Minister of State (Independent charge) : A minister of State (Independent charge) is a junior minister in the

council of ministers in the Central Govt. who have independent charge of a ministry.

Minister of State (MoS) : A junior minister, supervised by the cabinet minister, usually task specific

responsibility in that ministry.

Let Union cabinet Minister, Min. of State (Independent charge) and Minister of State, be denoted by UCM, MSI

and MoS respectively. Let us consider, for a while, that in a single ministry there are three ministersUCM,

MSI and MoS. Various candidates wanted to become the minister so they will be selected by the Prime

Minister.

No MP can apply for more than one ministry.

The MP who secured maximum votes (voted by his/her constituency) in the list of applicants for a

particular ministry, will be appointed as UCM. Similarly, the MPs who secured second highest and

third highest votes will be appointed as MSI and MoS respectively.

These ministers belong to various States of India.

UCM

MSI

MoS

Aggregate Points

UP

26

28

15

MP

22

20

15

Bihar

17

16

11

99

JK

13

20

16

J&K

UK

9

8

6

10

18

6

90

MH

6

2

8

RJ

4

6

12

36

KN

4

1

6

TN

3

3

5

The above table shows the chairs (or berths) grabbed by the top 10 States in the Minister of Councils. Aggregate

points are awarded based on the number of UCM, MSI and MoS chairs. Each chair carries a certain positive

integral points.

The ranking of the States is based on the following order of priority

(2) The number of UCM chairs (more chairs, higher rank)

(3) The number of MSI chairs (more chairs, higher rank)

(4) The alphabetical order of states name (consider the first letter of Abbreviated Names)

Rank 1 is the highest and rank 10 is the lowest of all. Also

After the revelation that few newly anointed ministers have cheated in concerned election, eight

ministers have been sacked and all of the sacked ministers belong to the states mentioned above.

In a particular ministry, only one minister was sacked.

At least 3 UCM and 3 MSI chairs have been forfeited.

Only the MPs who are holding the UCM chairs and MSI chairs were found guilty of manoeuvring

(or manoeuvering) of votes in the concerned elections.

KN (Karnataka) gained at least 1 UCM chair after the revelation of manoeuvring in votes.

43. In case of forfeiture of a UCM chair, all the UCM chairs and MSI chairs are being taken up by these 10 listed

states only. What could be the maximum possible number of points that a state other than these 10 listed

states may have after the revelation of manoeuvring in votes?

(1) 33

(2) 35

(3) 29

(4) 37

(5) 28

44. What is the highest possible rank MH may attain, after the revelation of manoeuvring in votes?

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

(5) 3

45. If at least 1 chair was forfeited from each state and the total number of chairs obtained by each state

increased by at most 1 chair,then which of the following is definitely FALSE?

(1) A minimum of four states retained their original ranks after the revelation of scam (as mentioned in the

question).

(2) Maximum change in difference of points between any two states after and before the revelation of scam is 6.

(3) These 10 listed states can only be the states who obtained the chairs in Union Ministry (or minister of

councils).

(4) Both (1) and (3)

(5) None of the above

Crack CAT 1

11

Directions (Q. 46-50) : Answer the questions based on the following information.

As a chief guest for inauguration when I have been invited by Indias first ever multi car showroom, I came to

know that there were 4 brands of carsHonda, Maruti, Tata and GM. Also every brand was represented by 4

different class of carsclass B, class C, class D and class E. The following facts about these cars were also

known.

There were at least two cars of D class from Tata brand.

None of the brands include more than three cars from any class.

The number of cars from the class B was exactly half the number of cars from each of the other classes.

There was no car from the class B from Honda and apart from this, all brands, including Honda,

represented at least one car from each class.

Had there been one car less from Tata brand, then the number of cars from Maruti would have been

twice that from each of the other brands.

46. Which of the following combination is not possible?

(1) One car from the class D of Honda brand and one car from the class D of Maruti brand.

(2) Three cars from the class E of Maruti brand and one car from the class C of the Honda brand.

(3) Two cars from the class D of Maruti brand and one car from the class C of Honda brand.

(4) Two cars from class D of Maruti brand and two cars from the class C of Honda brand.

(5) All of the above

47. If there was only one car from class D of Maruti brand, which of the following is definitely not true about the

cars?

(1) There are three cars from the class E of Maruti brand.

(2) There are two cars from the class C of Maruti brand.

(3) There is one car from the class E of Honda brand.

(4) There is one car from the class C of Honda brand.

(5) All of the above

48. What can be said about the following two statements regarding the number of cars from the class E of Maruti

brand?

Statement A The number is atleast two.

Statement B The number is atmost three.

(1) Statement A is necessarily true, while statement B is not necessarily true.

(2) Statement B is necessarily true, while statement A is not necessarily true.

(3) Both statement A and statement B are necessarily true.

(4) Neither statement A nor statement B is necessarily true.

(5) None of the above

49. Which of the following cannot be determined uniquely from the given information?

(1) Number of cars from the class E of Honda company (or brand).

(2) Number of cars from the class C of Tata company.

(3) Number of cars from the class C of GM company.

(4) Number of cars from the class B of Honda company.

(5) All of the above

50. What is the number of cars from class D of Tata company?

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

(5) None of these

12 Crack CAT 1

SECTION III

Directions (Q. 51-55) : Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent

paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the

five given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

51. A. I like to think that Popeye had a positive effect on my upbringing. At least I preferred him as a role model

over Dillinger and other prominent citizens of the Depression.

B. He was good, he was powerful, and he was funny . ... I wrote Segar a fan letter in 1934 and received a

reply.

C. He was as basic and down to earth as mud. I yam what I am and that's all that I yam is a piece of

Philosophy that stands besides Aristotles Know thyself....I loved Popeye.

D. Popeye, to me, was the first super-hero. Not only did he possess super-strength but he exhibited super

honesty.

E. It was a drawing of Popeye and Wimpy with the inscription, To me fren Mort Walker. It has hung on

my wall for over 70 years filling the room with its friendly glow... Who knows what influences take a part

in making a man what he is?

(1) DCBEA

(2) DCABE

(3) EDCBA

(4) ACDEB

(5) ABDCE

52. A. For Geoffrey Canada,the non-profits longtime CEO, the imperative was clear.

B. So, in 2002, it changed its name and sharpened its focus.

C. Now, simply called the Harlem Children's Zone (HCZ), the agency linked its original mission to a very

concrete statement of the impact it intended to have : namely, that 3000 children, ages 0 to 18, living in

the zone should have demographic and achievement profiles consistent with those found in an average

US middle-class community.

D. To help the greatest possible number of kids lead healthy lives, stay in school, and grow up to become

independent, productive adults, Rheedlen would have to step up its performance.

E. Despite Rheedlen's many good programs, however , the prospects for Harlem's children appeared to be

getting worse, not better.

(1) EADBC

(2) CBDAE

(3) ABCDE

(4) BCDEA

(5) BADCE

53. A. I take your point, and in fact I agree that there are many examples of what you are talking about.

B. I certainly remember early on, after 9/11,what the impact was on the political culture here.

C. The question is how we interpret such an historical moment, and from our perspective, we certainly see

more evidence of damage than we see of people being able to wend their way through it without being

affected.

D. This is particularly important if we think about our own times, and what the War on Terrorism has

generated in terms of its impact.

E. This was a very serious thing, and we cannot be cavalier about the impact of this kind of dynamic.

(1) CAEBD

(2) AEBDC

(3) BEDAC

(4) DCBEA

(5) DBEAC

54. A. The aim is to help children think more creatively and expand their vocabulary.

B. A London-based enterprise, Philosophy Shop, is recruiting university graduates to teach philosophy in

12 primary schools in London and 10 elsewhere in the UK.

C. A survey of 105 10 -year olds demonstrated significant improvements in tests of verbal, numerical and

spatial abilities at the end of sixteen months of lessons compared to a control group.

D. In 2002 psychologists in Scotland studied the benefits of teaching philosophy to school children.

E. However, the Campaign for Real Education say schools should concentrate on teaching the 3 Rs in view

of the number of youngsters who leave school without a fundamental grasp of these basics.

(1) BEADC

(2) DECBA

(3) BADCE

(4) EDCBA

(5) ACBDE

Crack CAT 1

13

55. A. The rise in debt was the flipside of jobs being lost to the East.

B. Eventually, the credit bubble burst, As an economic strategy, It made little sense, even for the Burberrys

of this world.

C. Free trade driven by cost cutting feeds and nourishes credit bubbles. It does not benefit the workers, but

it has failed corporations too.

D. After seven years of debt-fuelled growth, stock markets are now lower than they were in 2000.

E. As more and more companies fled the West in search of cheaper production bases, the central banks

were obliged to keep interest rates low, to stimulate economic growth.

(1) EACBD

(2) EABDC

(3) CDABE

(4) EACDB

(5) BACDE

Directions (Q. 56-60) : There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From the pairs of words given

below, choose the pair that fills the blanks most appropriately.

56. Not only is much of Indias unfolding economic success not reaching many of its poor citizens but its

political ..... at home and abroad seem to make very little difference to their ..... lives.

(1) turmoils, abject

(2) successes, embittered (3) advancement, bettered (4) aspirations, battered

(5) will, daily

57. India and Pakistan should abandon the practice of arresting fishermen who ..... cross into their territorial

waters and instead ..... a mechanism for the informal repatriation of these innocents.

(1) wantonly, create

(2) mistakenly, discover

(3) inadvertently, install

(4) deliberately, constitute

(5) desperately, install

58. The special purpose vehicle for infrastructure projects has been proposed to impart a ..... to such core sector

projects as also to ensure the completion of such projects which remained ..... on account of paucity of

funds.

(1) breakthrough, shelved

(2) rick, passive

(3) thrust, stalled

(4) push, inconclusive

(5) force, dormant

59. Finally, even at the high levels that the stock market has reached these days, the question is as to whether

the stock market mechanism in India is good enough ..... of the nations economic health is far from .....

(1) augury, unanswered

(2) thermometer, decided

(3) indicator, ambiguous

(4) barometer, settled

(5) healer, stock market

60. State hospitality extended to a visiting foreign dignitary is often used symbolically to convey ..... messages

and very often pomp and ceremony serve to ..... sharp differences.

(1) sharp, hide

(2) loud, comouflage

(3) important, accentuate (4) subtle, mark

(5) hidden, hide

Directions (Q. 61-75) : Refer to the passages below and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE 1

Investigators of the Bermuda Triangle have long noted the existence of another mystery area in the worlds

oceans, southeast of Japan, between Japan and the Bonin Islands, specifically between two Jima and Marcus

Island, with a record and reputation indicative of special danger to ships and planes. Whether the ships

have been lost from underwater volcanoes or sudden tidal waves, this area, often called the Devils Sea,

enjoys at least officially an even more sinister reputation than the Bermuda Triangle in that the Japanese

authorities have proclaimed it a danger zone. This action came out often an investigation carried out by a

Japanese surface craft in 1955.

The Devils Sea had long been dreaded by fishermen, who believed it was inhabited by devils, demons and

monsters who seized the ships of the unwary. Aircraft and boats had disappeared in the area over a period

of many years, but during the time when Japan was at peace, nine modern ships disappeared in the period

14 Crack CAT 1

of 1950 to 1954, with crews totaling several hundred persons, in circumstances characteristic (extensive

air-sea searches, lack of wreckage or oil slicks) of the happenings in the Bermuda Triangle.

The Bermuda Triangle and the Devils Sea share a striking coincidence. The Bermuda Triangle includes,

almost at its western terminus, longitude 80 west, a line where true north and magnetic north become

aligned with no compass variation to be calculated. And this same 80W changes its designation when it

passes the poles, becoming 150E. From the North Pole south, it continues on, passing east of Japan, and

crosses the middle of the Devilss Sea. At this point in the centre of the Devilss Sea, a compass needle will

also point to true north and magnetic north at the same time, just as it does at the western border of the

Bermuda Triangle on the other side of the world.

The unexplained losses in the Japanese equivalent of the Bermuda Triangle were instrumental in inspiring

a government-sponsored investigation of the area, which took place in 1955. This expedition with scientists

taking data as their ship, the Kaiyo Maru No. 5, cruised the Devils Sea, ended on a rather spectacular note

the survey ship suddenly vanished with its crew and the investigating scientists!

The presence of one or more other areas of disappearance in the worlds oceans has led to some unusual

speculations. Theories concerning antigravity warps have been advanced, presupposing areas where the

laws of gravity and normal magnetic attraction no longer function in ways with which we are familiar.

Ralph Barker, author of Great Mysteries of the Air, noting that new developments in physics point to the

evidence of the existence of anti-gravitational particles of matter suggests the presence of anti-gravitational

or contra-terrene matter, of a nature completely contrary to those known on this planet ... of appalling

explosive character when [it] comes into proximity of matter as we know it ... embedded in localized areas

of the earth.... He offers the possibility that this matter may have arrived from space and become embedded

under the earths crust, sometimes under the land but more often under the sea.

Consideration of this theory offers a possible explanation of electronic and magnetic malfunction within

given areas but would not, however, explain the many losses of ships and planes within sight of land. One

remembers, in this connection, reports of other areas of magnetic anomaly over other bodies of water

throughout the world where the pull of something under the water is stronger than that of the North

Magnetic Pole.

A more detailed study of the Bermuda Triangle and other suspect areas was made by Ivan Sanderson and

discussed in his article The Twelve Devils Graveyards Around the World, written for Saga magazine. In

plotting ship and plane disappearances throughout the world, Sanderson and his associates first found that

the majority of these mysterious losses occurred in six areas, all of them having more or less the same

lozenge shape and coincidentally located between latitudes 30 and 40 north and south of the Equator and

including the Bermuda Triangle and the Devils Sea.

Developing his theory further, Ivan Sanderson established a network of twelve anomalies at

seventy-two-degree intervals around the world, centered more precisely at 36 north and south latitude,

making five in the Northern Hemisphere, five in the Southern and including the North and South poles.

The reason for the Bermuda Triangle being the most celebrated, he suggests, is that it is the most travelled

while the others, although located in less travelled areas, also give considerable evidence, of magnetic space

time anomalies.

The majority of these active areas lie due east of continental land masses where warm ocean currents going

north collide with cold currents going south. In addition to this current collision, these areas also represent

the nodal points where the surface ocean currents turn one way and the subsurface currents turn in another

direction. The great subsurface tidal currents sweeping tangentially, and influenced by different

temperatures, set up magnetic vortices, affecting radio communication, magnetism perhaps even gravity

and eventually, in special conditions, causing air and surface craft to vanish sailing or flying off into a

different point in time and space. An interesting sidelight on the erratic behaviour of these areas is

underlined by Sanderson in describing the astonishing early arrivals of carefully clocked-in air flights

where planes have arrived so far ahead of schedule that the only possible explanation would be that they

had a tail wind behind them blowing, for example, at 500 miles per hour. Such incidents may be the result

of unrecorded winds but they seem to occur most frequently within the Bermuda Triangle and other vortex

areas, as if these particular planes had encountered the anomaly but had skirted or been propelled safely

through the hole in the sky that had cost so many travellers their lives.

Crack CAT 1

15

(1) The Kaiyo Maru No. 5

(2) The Devils Sea

(3) An area of the ocean near Japan

(4) Devils Grave yard

(5) Sinister island

62. According to the passage, the theory that anti-gravity warps are responsible for disappearance in oceans

would be termed as

(1) inconclusive

(2) imaginative

(3) speculative

(4) baseless

(5) plausible

63. According to Ralph Barker, when contra-terrene matter comes in contact with matter, it has

(1) a vacuuming effect

(2) a paralysing effect

(3) a draining effect

(4) an explosive effect

(5) a wavy effect

64. Which of the following represents an area that is suggested to be an anomaly by Ivan Sanderson?

(1) 36 north latitude

(2) The equator

(3) The South Pole

(4) Asian gulf

(5) None of these

65. Which of the following is not said to be a feature of the active areas?

(1) Tangential subsurface tidal currents

(2) Antigravity warps

(3) Magnetic vortices

(4) Collison points for tidal currents of different temperatures

(5) None of the above

66. One may infer from the passage that the early arrivals in the Bermuda triangle can be attributed to

(1) unrecorded winds

(2) vortices

(3) holes in the sky

(4) space-time warps

(5) poler friction

67. An appropriate title for the passage would be

(1) The Bermuda Triangle some theories

(3) Anti-matter and Space-Time Warps

(5) Shocks of the nature

(4) The Bermuda Triangles disappearances

PASSAGE 2

The people of the Skagit love the Alpine scenery where their river is born. They climb the mountain peaks,

hunt in the hills, and fish in the icy streams and mourn the passing of the day when the river almost

overran its banks with steelhead and salmon.

When I was a lad, old-timer Rudy Clark told me, I used to have to whip the horse to make him cross. He

was terrified, trying to walk through the fish. But when we reached the other side, the spokes would have

thrown enough salmon up into the wagon to last the family for days. But what fish are left today,well,the

Indians get em.

The controversy surrounding fish and Indians is only one of many on Washington State's Skagit

River,which flows from the high wilderness of the Cascade Range into Puget Sound and the Pacific. Its

year-round ice-ridden tributary valleys are deep and cold. Yet, where its glacial waters reach the sea

scarcely a hundred miles away, the Skagit delta is one of the most fertile gardens of the globe.

Five million pounds of vegetable seeds were harvested here in 1976, including two-thirds of the best

spinach, beet, and cabbage seeds in the country. Lush dairy lands share the delta with loamy fields sown

with tulips, irises, daffodils, and strawberries. From the mountains that slope down from the feet of Skagit

glaciers come hundreds of millions of board feet of prime fir and cedar and hemlock.

Yet the Skagit has been proposed for federal protection under the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act. The

questions, then,if not the answers, are clear. How does one declare a river scenic or recreational when the

16 Crack CAT 1

people of its floodplain, with their farms and homes and highways, need more dams for flood protection?

When it already turns turbines at five major hydroelectric dams, and a higher one is on the drawing board?

How does one elect to preserve even more of the river's forests as wilderness when those already reserved

are coveted by the timber industry? When a thousand square miles of its mountains and lakes have recently

become national park, national recreation area, or federal wilderness? When the secrets of its fishing and

boating and climbing and camping have leaked out to a world hungry for recreation?

And add to that controversial coming of nuclear power to the Skagit. And the spectre of a horde of foreign

homesteaders, from such places as California, Connecticut,and Canadaanxious to buy, along with Skagit

drizzle and fog, some peace and quiet to calm the soul.

Big Beaver Valley is a forested cathedral, its columns giant cedars, its nave leads the eye upward towards

such altars as ice-mantled Mount Shuksan, and the white cone of volcanic Mount Baker, its crater smoking

as if with incense.

If Seattle City Light is to obtain another 270000 kilowatts of peaking power for what is already one of the

most electrified cities in the world, it must flood part of Big Beaver Valley by raising Ross Dam another 121

feet, adding to its already very high 400-foot waterhead.

Paul Kraabel and Tim Hill, councilmen of the city of Seattle are trying to decide whether they really want

more power for Seattle at such expense. Our City, Tim told me, owns the electric company and is made

up of people who constantly use more power. But also of people who love these mountains and valleys.

Besides, if the Federal Power Commission and City Council vote to raise Ross Dam, the flooding would

swallow up seven square miles of recreation land in Canada.That could provoke a lot of anti-Americanism.

I knew. An irate Canadian had already told me: We made a bad bargain with City Light ten years ago.

Traded miles of the Canadian Skagit for a pitiable payoff of $34,556 a year.

But that was before the environmental revolution of the late 1960's. In 1974-75, Norman Pearson, then

British Columbia's deputy minister of lands, tried to reverse the agreement.

The entire thing, he told me, is tangled up in politics. The best hope for the Skagit is for your Federal

Power Commission to heed the environmentalists and other agencies, kill the high dam project, and get our

two national governments off the hook.

However that international wound may fester, City Light is proposing to construct Copper Creek Dam on

the main stem of the river entirely within Washington State. Hundreds of Skagit floodplain farmers would

applaud.

In 1975, on this river, we lost more than 100 cattle in a flood, said Bob Hulbert, a supervisor of the Skagit

Conservation District. No loss of human life , thank God. But it was bad enough. The Copper Creek Dam

wouldn't really help all that much, though. Two Skagit tributaries are the real problems, the Sauk and the

Suiattle. And theyd be kept free of dams if they became scenic rivers.

If we can't get a dam on the Sauk, well have to build a major diversion channel for flood water, and raise

and strengthen our dikes. Either way, its going to cost a lot of money.

68. According to the passage, the Skagit River arises in the

(1) Alpine Mountains

(2) Glacier Park

(3) Cascade Range

(4) Newhalem Mountain

(5) Skagit delta

69. The underlined word means a land that

(1) is infertile

(2) has silt

(5) is yellow

70. The Skagit is said to provide an abundance of all of the following except

(1) vegetables

(2) timber

(3) electricity

(5) timber and electricity both

(1) arouse a sense of awe

(2) evoke nostalgia

(3) create an atmosphere of piety

(4) evoke a feeling of serenity

(5) expose the political ideology

Crack CAT 1

17

72. Which of the following types of wood is not said to be among those found in the Skagit?

(1) Cedar

(2) Teak

(3) Hemlock

(4) Fir

(5) Fir and Teak

73. By posing various questions related to federal protection of the river, the author seeks to suggest that the

federal protection of the river is

(1) not necessarily desirable as there are many practical aspects of the issue to be considered.

(2) a task that poses more questions than its answer.

(3) a task that will be based on difficult choices.

(4) a desirable but unlikely outcome as there is too much already invested in the area.

(5) a technical issue which requires flood water specialist to look into the matter.

74. The basic problem with raising Ross Dam is that

(1) it would antagonise Canadians.

(3) it would result in loss of farmland.

(5) All of these

(4) it harms the irrigation system.

(1) The construction of the Copper Creek Dam is being resisted by American farmers.

(2) The Sauk is situated in Canada.

(3) Dams are not built on rivers declared to be scenic.

(4) The flooding of the Skagit can only be stopped by damming the tributaries.

(5) Constructing dams requires public mandate.

Crack CAT 1

Answers with Explanations

SECTION I

1. (3) y = log x 5 =

log 5

log x

r

r + d = R 1 - 2

R + d

2

2

R r + d r + 2 Rrd + d3 - R2d + Rd2 - R3 + 2 Rr 2 = 0

and

x >0

\

x (0, ) - {1}

or

x (0, 1) (1, )

Hence, choice (3) is correct.

3

(2 R2 r - R2 r ) + d2 r + 2 Rrd + d3 - R2d

+ Rd2 - R3 + 2 Rr 2 = 0

2. (2) P = 2 3 5 7

Q = 24 36 58

R = 2 4 33 52 72

S = P Q R = 211 314 517 73

LCM of P, Q, R = 2 4 3 6 5 8 72

\ S = (2 4 3 6 5 8 72 ) (27 3 8 5 9 7)

d

I

D d

O

r

B

Fig. (i)

+ 2 Rr (d + R + r ) = 0

(d + R + r ) (d - R + 2 Rr ) = 0

2

(d + R + r ) [d2 - R (R - 2 r )] = 0

If

Since,

\

d + R + r = 0 d = - (R + r )

OI < OA, so d - (R + r )

d2 - R (R - 2 r ) = 0

d2 = R(R - 2 r )

d = R (R - 2 r )

r I

B

d2 (d + R + r ) - R2 (d + R + r )

R

O

- R3 - R2 r + 2 Rrd + 2 R2 r + 2 Rr 2 = 0

d +d R+d r -Rd

S = (7 + 1) (8 + 1) (9 + 1) (1 + 1)

= 8 9 10 2

= 1440

Hence, choice (2) is correct.

3. (2)

Fig. (ii)

A

two sides equal as AB = AC.

Let the incentre be I and the

circumcentre be O. Let the

distance IO be d; d is positive if

90 O

A and BC are on different sides

R

of O [fig (i)] otherwise d is

20

I

negative if A and BC are on the B

C

D

same side of O [fig(ii)].

Fig. (iii)

Let

OAB be q,

r

Then,

= sin q

R+d

r +d

and

= cos 2 q (r + d) = R cos 2 q

R

[Q DOC = 2 DAC]

r + d = R(1 - 2 sin2 q)

[Q cos 2 q = 1 - 2 sin2 q ]

a =b =c =1

Then, a2 (b + c - a) + b 2 (c + a - b ) + c2 (a + b - c) = P

3=P

But 3 abc = 3

Hence, choice (1) seems to be true.

Further consider a right triangle with

a = 3, b = 4 , c = 5

Then, P = 168, but 3 abc = 180

Again only choice (1) conforms to the relation between

P and a, b , c.

5. (4) f (1, n) = f (0, f (1, n - 1))

f (1, n) = f (1, n - 1) + 1

f (1, n) = f (1, n - 2) + 2

f (1, n) = f (1, n - 3) + 3

.

.

[using function (i)]

f (1, n) = f (1, 0) + n

f (1, n) = f (0, 1) + n

f (1, n) = (1 + 1) + n = n + 2

Crack CAT 1

Similarly,

[using function (iii)]

f (2, n) = f (1, f (2, n - 1))

[using function (i)]

f (2, n) = f (2, n - 1) + 2

\ f (2, n) = f (2, 0) + 2 n

[using function (ii)]

f (2, n) = f (1, 1) + 2 n

[using function (i)]

f (2, n) = 2 n + 3

Similarly,

[using function (iii)]

f (3, n) = f (2, f (3, n - 1))

f (3, n) = 2 f (3, n - 1) + 3

[Q f (2, n) = 2 n + 3]

Let

Un = f (3, n) + 3

\

f (3, n) + 3 = 2 f (3, n - 1) + (3 + 3)

f (3, n) + 3 = 2[ f (3, n - 1) + 3]

Un = 2(Un - 1 )

Also,

U0 = f (3, 0) + 3

[Q Un = f (3, n) + 3]

U0 = f (2, 1) + 3

[Q f ( x + 1, 0) = f ( x, 1)]

U0 = (2 1 + 3) + 3 = 8 [Q f (2, n) = 2 n + 3]

\

Un = 2 n + 3

f (3, n) + 3 = 2 n + 3

f (3, n) = 2 n + 3 - 3

Now,

f (4, n) = 2 f ( 4, n - 1 ) + 3 - 3

[Q f (3, n) = 2 n + 3 - 3]

f (4 , 0) = f (3, 1)

= 24 - 3

[Q f ( x + 1, 0) = f ( x, 1)]

[ f (3, n) = 2 n + 3 - 3]

= 13

To observe the pattern we would like to compute two

more terms.

f (4, 1) = 2 f ( 4, 0 ) + 3 - 3 [Q f (4 , n) = 2 f ( 4, n - 1 ) + 3 - 3]

f (4, 1) = 2(2

- 3) + 3

[Q f (4 , 0) = 2 4 - 3]

-3

22

f (4, 1) = 22 - 3 = 22

-3

Similarly, f (4, 2) = 2 f ( 4, 1 ) + 3 - 3

[Q f (4, n) = 2 f ( 4, n - 1 ) + 3 - 3]

24

f (4, 2) = 2(2

f (4, 2) = 22

24

2

22

f (4, 2) = 22

2.

[22

f (4, 2008) =

- 3) + 3

-3

-3

2

..

- 3 [Q f (4, 1) = 22 - 3]

-3

1

2

Squaring both sides, we get

6. (4) (3 - x) - ( x + 1) >

1

(3 - x) + ( x + 1) - 2 (3 - x) ( x + 1) >

4

-15

-2 (3 - x) ( x + 1) >

4

15

(3 - x) ( x + 1) <

8

15

2

- ( x - 2 x - 3) <

19

15

8

225

2

- ( x - 1) + 4 <

64

-31

2

- ( x - 1) <

64

31

2

( x - 1) >

64

31

| x - 1| >

8

31

31

< x < 1 1 +

8

8

(3 - x) - ( x + 1) < 0, which is inadmissible.

- ( x - 1)2 + 4 <

under the root signs are not negative, thus

Q 3 - x 0 x 3

- 1 x 3

and x + 1 0 x -1

Therefore, possible values of x are expressed as

below.

31

-1 x < 1 8

Hence, choice (4) is correct.

7. (1) Our requirement is that the number of black and

white squares be equal is equivalent to requiring that

the each rectangle has an even number of squares,

which is as follows.

2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 12 + 14 + 16 = 72 > 64

144444424444443

8

Therefore, m < 8, so max(m) = 7.

Hence, choice (1) is correct.

8. (3) There are 5 probable divisions of 64 squares into 7

unequal even numbers as follows

2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 12 + 22

2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 14 + 20

2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + 16 + 18

2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + 12 + 14 + 18

2 + 4 + 6 + 10 + 12 + 14 + 16

But since 22 = 2 11. There cant be 11 squares in a

single row as atmost 8 squares are possible in any row,

so first combination is ruled out. Thus there are only

four cases remaining.

Hence, maximum 20 squares can be found in any

such rectangle.

Hence, choice (3) is correct.

9. (5) By definition,

f (1) + (2) + K + f (n) = n2 f (n)

and f (1) + f (2) + K + f (n - 1) = (n - 1)2 f (n - 1)

Subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get

f (n) = n2 f (n) - (n - 1)2 f (n - 1)

n - 1

f (n - 1)

f (n) =

n + 1

(i)

(ii)

20 Crack CAT 1

20 19 18 17

3 2 1

K f (1)

22 21 20 19

5 4 3

2

f (21) =

f (1)

22 21

1

f (21) =

231

11 21

f (21) = 1

Hence, choice (5) is correct.

f (21) =

10. (4) Let a tractor can plough along in T hours, a camel can

plough alone in C hours and a bull can plough alone in

B hours.

Then,

2 3

4 1

(i)

+ + =

T C B 6

3

4 2 1

(ii)

+ + =

T C B 3

4 2 3 1

(iii)

+ + =

T C B 2

Adding all the above equations, we get

1 1 1

9 + + =1

T C B

1 1 1 1

(iv)

+ + =

T C B 9

Now, subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get

1 1 2 1

+ - =

T C B 6

1 1 1 1

But from Eq. (iv), + = T C 9 B

1 1 2 1

- - =

9 B B 6

1 1 3

- =

9 6 B

B = - 54 , which is impossible.

Hence, data is inconsistent.

Hence, choice (4) is correct.

11. (4) Let ar = number of SMSes still not sent at the start of

the rth day. (Please note that ar includes only those

SMSes which are officially available to be sent on the

rth day and afterward, it does not include any SMS

which was available at our disposal in previous day (s)

but has not been sent).

\

a1 = m and an = n (1 r n)\ an + 1 = 0

1

So,

ar + 1 = (ar - r ) (ar - r )

11

10

ar + 1 =

(ar - r )

11

10 ar - 11 ar + 1 = 10 r

10 ar = 11 ar + 1 + 10 r

10 ar + 100 r = 11 ar + 1 + 110 r

10 ar + 100 r = 11 ar + 1 + 110 r + 110 - 110

10 ar + 100 r = 11 ar + 1 + 110(r + 1) - 110

10 ar + 100 r - 10(110) = 11 ar + 1 + 110(r + 1)

- 110 - 10(110)

10 ar + 100 r - 10(110) = 11 ar + 1

+ 110(r + 1) - 11(110)

10

(ar + 10 r - 110)

ar + 1 + 10(r + 1) - 110 =

11

10

a2 + 10(2) - 110 =

[a1 + 10(1) - 110]

\

11

10

Similarly, a3 + 10(3) - 110 =

[a2 + 10(2) - 110]

11

2

10

= [a1 + 10 - 110]

11

10

Similarly, a4 + 10(4) - 110 =

[a3 + 10(3) - 110]

11

3

10

= [a1 + 10 - 110]

11

r -1

10

(a1 + 10 - 110)

\ ar + 10 r - 110 =

11

Since, a1 = m, an + 1 = 0 for every 1 r n + 1

n

10

an + 1 + 10(n + 1) - 110 = (a1 + 10 - 110)

11

n

10

10(n + 1) - 110 = (a1 - 100)

11

\

[an + 1 = 0]

m = 100 +

(n - 10) 11

10 n - 1

[a1 = m]

n

(n - 10) 11 n

must be

10 n - 1

an integral number.

Again, since 11 and 10 are coprime, so 10 n - 1 must

divide n - 10.

But 10 n - 1 > n - 10 so n = 10 and m = 100

Hence, choice (4) is correct.

Below is the visual explanation of the question is

given

Total

1/11 of the

Remaining

Known

SMS

remaining

SMSs for

Day no. of the

sent per

no. of SMS

the next

SMS sent

day/by

sent

day

that day

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

9

10/10

90

8

10/20

80

7

10/30

70

6

10/40

60

5

10/50

50

4

10/60

40

3

10/70

30

2

10/80

20

1

10/90

10

0

10/100

0

(a + b + c)

12. (4) Semiperimeter s =

. Therefore, sides of

2

(- a + b + c) (a - b + c)

another triangle are

,

,

2

2

(a + b - c)

. We may ignore the factor 1/2, since clearly

2

Crack CAT 1

triangle with sides 2 x, 2 y, 2 z can be constructed.

The advantage of considering the process as

generating (- a + b + c), (a - b + c), (a + b - c) from

a, b , c is that the sum of the sides remains unchanged

at a + b + c, so we can focus on just one of the three

sides. Thus we are looking at the sequence

a, (a + b + c) - 2 a, a + b + c - 2 (- a + b + c), ... . Let

d = 2 a - b - c. We show that the process generates the

sequence a, a - d, a + d, a - 3d, a + 5d, a - 11d, a + 21d,

... . Let the nth term be a + (-1)n and. We claim that

an + 1 = 2 an + (-1)n. This is an easy induction, for we

have a + (-1)n + 1 an + 1d = a + b + c - 2(a + (-1)n and)

and hence (-1)n + 1 an + 1d = - d - 2 (-1)n and, and hence

an + 1 = 2 an + (-1)n. But this shows that an is

unbounded. Hence, if d is non-zero, then the process

ultimately generates a negative number. Thus a

necessary condition for the process to generate

triangles indefinitely is that 2a = b + c. Similarly,

2b = c + a is a necessary condition. But these two

equations imply (subtracting) a = b and hence a = c.

So, a necessary condition is that the triangle is

equilateral. But this is obviously also sufficient.

Hence, choice (4) is correct.

13. (2) We consider the mid point of each side. We say that a

vertex ( x, y) is pure if x and y have the same parity and

impure if x and y have opposite parity. Since, the total

number of vertices is odd, there must be two adjacent

pure vertices P and Q or two adjacent impure vertices

P and Q. But in either case the mid point of P and Q

either has both coordinates integers, which we are

told does not happen, or as both coordinates of the

form an integer plus half, which therefore must occur.

Hence, choice (2) is correct.

14. (5) We can exhibit a sequence with 13 terms which does

not contain a prime: 2 101 = 202, 3 97 = 291,

5 89 = 445, 7 83 = 581, 11 79 = 869, 13 73 = 949,

17 71 = 1207, 19 67 = 1273, 23 61 = 1403,

29 59 = 1711, 31 53 = 1643, 37 47 = 1739,

41 43 = 1763. So, certainly n 14.

If there is a sequence with n 14 not containing any

primes, then since there are only 13 primes not

exceeding 41, at least one member of the sequence

must have at least two prime factors exceeding 41.

Hence, it must be at least 43.47 = 2021 which exceeds

1995. So, n = 14 is impossible.

Hence, choice (5) is correct.

15. (5) Each pair of 0, 5, 12 differ by 5, 7 or 12, so

f (0), f (5), f (12) must all be different, so n 3.

We can exhibit an f with n = 4. Define f (m) = 1 for

m = 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 (mod 24), f (m) = 2 for m = 2, 4, 6, 8,

10, 12 (mod 24), f (m) = 3 for m = 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23

(mod 24), f (m) = 4 for m = 14 , 16, 18, 20, 22,

0 (mod 24). Hence, n = 4.

Hence, choice (5) is correct.

16. (5) Let A2 = b + c - a, B2 = c + a - b , C2 = a + b - c. Then,

A2 + B2 = 2c. Also, A = B iff a = b . We have

( A - B)2 0, with equality iff A = B. Hence,

A2 + B2 2 AB and so 2( A2 + B2 ) ( A + B)2 or

4 c ( A + B)2 or 2 c A + B, with equality iff A = B.

Adding the two similar relations we get the desired

inequality, with equality iff the triangle is equilateral.

Hence, choice (5) is correct.

21

n (n + 1)

2

1

1

1

Then,

Sn =

+

+K+

T1 T2

Tn

1

1

1

Therefore,

= 2 Tm

m m + 1

Sn

1

Hence,

=1 2

(n + 1)

1 1 + 1/ n

So,

=

Sn

2

1

1

1

Hence,

+

+K+

S1 S2

Sn

1996 1 + 1 / 2 + 1 / 3 + ... + 1 / 1996

=

+

2

2

Now,

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

1

1+ + + + + + + + +K+

+

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

16

1 1

1

1

+K+

+ ... +

+

+

17

32

33

64

1 1

1

1

+K+

+ ... +

+

+

128 129

256

65

1 1

1

1

+ K+

+ ... +

+

>

512 513

1024

257

1

1

1

1 1

1

+

+ K+

1 + + + K+ = 6. So,

S1 S2

Sn

2 2

2

1996 6

=

+ = 998 + 3 = 1001

2

2

Hence, choice (4) is correct.

find h in {1, 2, ..., p - 2} for which 2 h = - 2 mod p, then

2 k = - 2 mod p for any h = k mod p. Thus we find that

2 k = - 2 mod 5 for k = 3 mod 4, and 2 k = - 2 mod 11 for

k = 6 mod 10. So, we might, then hope that 5 11 = 3

mod 4 and 2 13 = 6 mod 10. Unfortunately, it does

not! But we try searching for more examples.

The simplest would be to look at pq. Suppose first that

p and q are both odd, so that pq is odd. If k = h mod

p - 1, then we need h to be odd (otherwise pq would

have to be even). So, the first step is to get a list of

primes p with 2 h = - 2 mod p for some odd h < p. We

always have 2 p - 1 = 1 mod p, so we sometimes have

2( p - 1 )/2 = - 1 mod p and hence 2( p + 1 )/2 = - 2 mod p. If

p+1

is to be odd, then p = 1 mod 4. So, searching

2

such primes we find 3 mod 5, 7 mod 13, 15 mod 29, 19

mod 37, 27 mod 53, 31 mod 61. We require pq to lie in

the range 100-1997, so we check 5 29 (not = 3 mod 4),

5 37 (not =3 mod 4), 5 53 (not = 3 mod 4), 5 61 (not = 3

mod 4), 13 29 (not = 7 mod 12), 13 37 (not = 7 mod 12),

13 53 (not = 7 mod 12), 13 61 (not = 7 mod 12), 29 37

(not = 15 mod 28), 29 53 (not = 15 mod 28), 29 61

(not = 15 mod 28), 37 53 (not = 19 mod 36). So, that

does not advance matters much!

( p + 1)

) because we

2 p will not work (at least with h =

2

( p + 1)

cannot have 2 p =

. So, we try looking at

2 mod p - 1

2 pq. This requires that p and q = 3 mod 4. So,

22 Crack CAT 1

22 mod 43, 30 mod 59, 34 mod 67, 42 mod 83. So, we

look at 2 11 43 = 946, which works. Hence, the only

such number is 946.

Hence, choice (3) is correct.

Alternatively : Note that 2 divides 2 n + 2 for all n.

Also, 11 divides 2 n + 2 if and only if n 6 (mod 10),

and 43 divides 2 n + 2 if and only if n 8 (mod 14).

Since, n = 946 = 2 11 43 satisfies both congruences,

n divides 2 n + 2.

Please note that, one can prove that there are infinitely

2n + 2

is an integer. Also, any such n

many n such that

2

is even, since by a theorem of W . Sierpinski we cannot

2n + 1

have

as an integer unless n = 1.

2

Alternatively : The first step would be to choose

n = 2 p, for some prime number p. Unfortunately, this

cannot work by Fermats little theorem. So, let us try

setting n = 2 pq , with p, q different prime numbers. We

22 pq -1 + 1

as an integer and so must have

need

pq

-2 -2

= = 1.

p q

22q -1 + 1

and

Also, using Fermats little theorem,

p

22 p -1 + 1

. A small verification shows that q = 3, 5, 7 are

q

not good choices, so let us try q = 11. In this case we

22 pq -1 + 1

obtain p = 43, and so it suffices to show that

pq

is an integer for q = 11 and p = 43. This is immediate,

since the hard work has already been completed : we

22q -1 + 1

have shown that it suffices to have

and

p

- 2 - 2

22 p -1 + 1

=

= 1 in order to

as integers and

q

p q

Hence, 9 divides N, and hence 3 840 = 2520 divides

N. But we show that no N > 2000 can satisfy the

condition.

x3

Note that 2( x - 1)3 > x3 for any x > 4 . Hence, [ x]3 >

2

N

3

for x > 4 . So, certainly if N > 2000, we have n > .

2

Now, let pk be the highest power of k which does not

n

n3 N

exceed n. Then, pk > . Hence, p2 p3 p5 >

>

. But

k

30 60

since N > 2000, we have 7 < 11 < n and hence

p2 , p3 , p5, 7, 11 are all n. But 77 p2 p3 p5 > N , so N

cannot satisfy the condition. Therefore n = 420.

Now, 420 = 22 3 5 7, therefore number of factors of

420 = (2 + 1) (1 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1) = 24.

Hence, choice (1) is correct.

21. (2) Drop a perpendicular from centre A on BC, it will

bisect the chord BD.

A

E

10 10

B

F

20

BF = FD = 10

FAC = ABC

and so

AC FC

=

\

BC AC

A

y x

2 pq -1

+1

an integer. But as one can easily check,

pq

all these conditions are satisfied and the number

2 11 43 = 946 is a valid answer.

have

computer to search (approx 5 min to write a Maple program or

similar and a few seconds to run it).

(36m + n) and (m + 36 n) must each be powers of 2, as

per the given choices. Hence, 4 divides n and 4 divides

m

n

m

m. So,

< m.

and is a smaller solution with

2

2

2

Contradiction.

Hence, choice (5) is correct.

20. (1) Let N be a positive integer satisfying the condition and

let n be the largest integer not exceeding its cube root.

If n = 7, then 3 4 5 7 = 420 must divide N. But N

cannot exceed 83 - 1 = 511, so the largest such N

is 420.

16

90

x

10

26

AC2 = BC FC

AC2 = 36 26

AC = 6 26

22. (3) Let AB = 80, then BC = 60.

We know that

AB + BD + AD = BC + BD + CD 80 F

80 + BD + AD = 60 + BD

+ ( AC - AD)

AD = 40

CD = 60

E

60

(Q AC = 100)

Crack CAT 1

Now,

drop

the

two

perpendiculars DE on BC and A

DF on AB, as shown in the

diagram.

Since, FD || BC

F

AF

AD

\

=

BF CD

AF 40 2

=

=

B

BF 60 3

AF = 32 and BF = 48

A

Similarly, DE || AB

EC DC 60 3

=

=

=

\

EB DA 40 2

EC = 36 and BE = 24

2

BD = BE + BF (Q DE = BF )

1

4

24. (4) Time =

D

30

30

60 min

h=

55

55

= 32 min 43 s

23

There are 5 ways to choose in A, 3 ways to choose a B

and 2 ways to choose a C.

That is there are 30 ways (5 3 2) to choose A, B or C.

5 3 2 5 3 2

The required probability is 10

=

120

C3

But BD = BE + ED

2

\Required time = 6 : 32 : 43

B

25. (2) 4 5 6 7 8 = 6720

Hence, choice (3) is correct.

SECTION II

Solutions (Q. 26-28)

28 250

26. (1) Total nominees for Comedy genre =

= 70

100

20% of 70 = 14

46 250

Total nominees from UP =

= 115

100

\Total nominees from UP who are not nominated for

Comedy genre = 115 - 14 = 101

Hence, choice (1) is correct.

20% of Horror genre nominess = 9

40% of Musical genre nominees = 14

60% of Sci-fi genre nominees = 9

30% of Comedy genre nominees = 21

Total = 58

Total nominees with 10-12 years experience

28 250

=

= 70

100

\12(= 70 - 58) nominees in the Romantic genre belong

to the group of 10-12 years experience.

Hence, choice (4) is correct.

250 20

28. (5) Total nominees of age group of 25 - 30 =

= 50

100

\ 25 nominees belong to Horror, Musical, Romantic

and Comedy genre and rest 25 nominees belong to

Animation and Sci-fi genre.

But we know that in Animation and Sci-fi altogether

there are 10% (25 nominees) of the total 250.

So the remaining 25 nominees from the age group of

25-30 will be nominated for the 25 nominations of

Animation and Sci-fi.

Hence, all the nominations of Sci-fi genre belong to

the age group of 25-30 years.

So, the answer should be 100%.

Hence, choice (5) is correct.

In the context of Lucknow

B2 is already engaged on Wednesday (in Barabanki).

Also, B2 is not entitled to protect JDU. Therefore,

B2 will be protecting some rally on Monday in

Lucknow.

In the context of Sitapur

B4 can protect either SP rally or BSP rally. But B4 is

already engaged on Thursday, so B4 has to protect SP

rally on Wednesdey in Sitapur.

Again in Sitapur, on Thursday there will be either

B2 or B3 on duty and consequently the rally can be

held either by BJP, or Congress or SP.

But since SP and Congress are holding their rallies on

Wednesday and Friday respectively, so BJP is the only

party which will hold rally on Thursday and hence

the protection will be provided by B2 (not by B3 ).

Therefore,

Congress B3

BJP B2

SP B4

JDU B1

BSP B5

In the context of Barabanki

B3 cant be there on Tuesday as B3 is already engaged

in Lucknow.

B3 cant be there on Wednesday as B2 is there.

B3 cant be there on Thursday as JDU (ie, B1 / B5) is

there.

B3 cant be there on Friday as B3 is already engaged in

Sitapur.

24 Crack CAT 1

Now, since Congress rally is protected by either B2 or

B3 , but B3 is already engaged with SP rally, so only B2

is there to protect Congress.

Similarly, BJP rally can be protected by B1 as B2 is

already engaged with Congress rally. Further, since B1

cannot be engaged on Tuesday in Barabanki, so B1 will

protect BJP rally on Friday.

Now, we know that since JDU rally can be protected

only by either B1 or B5. But B1 is already engaged with

BJP, so JDU will be protected by B5.

Hence, the remaining combination of party and

battalion is BSP and B4 will fit in on Tuesday.

Therefore,

Case I

Star

Monday

10

Tuesday

10

Wednesday

10

Thursday

10

Friday

10

Saturday

10

10

10

10

10

10

10

Total

Case II

SP B3

Star

BSP B4

Congress B2

JDU B5

BJP B1

In the context of Lucknow

Since, B1 is already engaged on Friday with BJP rally

(in Barabanki), so JDU can be protected by B5.

Hence, B1 will be there on Wednesday.

Since, B5 protects JDU, so BSP will be protected by B4 .

Since, B4 protects BSP, so SP will be protected by B3 .

Since, B3 protects SP, so Congress will be protected by

B2 .

Hence, B1 will protect the remaining party-BJP on

Wednesday.

Lucknow

Barabanki

Rally

Rally Day Rally of Battali of

on

the Party

the

Number Party

Sitapur

Batta

Batta

Rally

lion

lion

of the

Num

Num

Party

ber

ber

Monday

Congress

B2

SP

B3

BSP

B5

Tuesday

SP

B3

BSP

B4

JDU

B1

Wednesday

BJP

B1

Cong

ress

B2

SP

B4

Thursday

BSP

B4

JDU

B5

BJP

B2

Friday

JDU

B5

BJP

B1

Cong

ress

B3

30. Choice (1)

31. Choice (2)

Solutions (Q. 32 and 33)

32. Choice (1)

33. Choice (2)

Zee

Car

NDTV UTV Sony

Total

TV

toon

Zee

Car

NDTV UTV Sony

Total

TV

toon

Monday

10

Tuesday

10

Wednesday

10

Thursday

10

Friday

10

Saturday

10

10

10

10

10

10

10

Total

Star

Zee

Car

NDTV UTV Sony

Total

TV

toon

Monday

10

Tuesday

10

Wednesday

10

Thursday

10

Friday

10

Saturday

10

10

10

10

10

10

10

Total

Number of Sony channels on Monday = 1 or 2

\Difference = 0 or 1

Hence, choice (4) is correct.

35. (1) Number of Sony channels on Wednesday = 4

Number of Cartoon channels on Tuesday and Friday

=2+3 =5

\Required difference = 5 - 4 = 1

Hence, choice (1) is correct.

36. (2) Number of Star channels on Wednesday = 4

Number of Zee TV channels on Monday = 2

\Required answer = 4 + 2 = 6

Hence, choice (2) is correct.

37. (4) Zee TV channels on Friday are greater than Star Plus

channels on Tuesday.

So, only statement 4 is true.

Hence, choice (4) is correct.

38. Choice (2)

Crack CAT 1

25

40. Choice (1)

Company

42. Choice (2)

Honda

Maruti

Tata

GM

Total

Hint : UCM, MSI and MoS carry 3, 2 and 1 points respectively.

Class

B

0

1

1

1

3

1

1

6

2

1

6

Total

1

1

6

4

8

5

4

SECTION III

Solutions (Q. 51-55)

51. (1) BE is a very strong link. EA is also a possible link.

Hence, choice (1) is correct.

52. (1) AD is a very clear link. However the para (paragraph)

cant start with sentence B.

Hence, choice (1) is correct.

53. (5) DBE is a very important link. Also, AC link talks about

more number of such historical moments or events.

Hence, choice (5) is correct.

54. (3) BA is a very obvious link. Besides DCE is also a

significant link.

Hence, choice (3) is correct.

55. (2) Finding a link EAB is very easy.

Hence, choice (2) is correct.

Solutions (Q. 56-60)

56. Choice (4)

57. Choice (3)

58. Choice (3)

59. Choice (4)

60. Choice (4)

Solutions (Q. 61-75)

61. Choice (2). In the first para, the author refers to expedition

in the devils sea as being inspired by unexplained

losses in the Japanese equivalent ..

62. Choice (3). Refer to para 5, first line some unusual

speculations.

63. Choice (4). Refer to para 5, of appalling explosive

character when...

64. Choice (3). Refer to para 8The areas are located between

36 north and 36 south latitude. Also, refer last para of

the sentence . including the north and the south

poles.

Confusion might arise from the fact that the sentence stated more

precisely at 36 north..again ; note that this refers to the area of 36

north to 36 south where 10 anomalies are located. It does not point

the exact location of an anomaly.

65. Choice (2). Refer to last para choice (2) is not mentioned.

66. Choice (4). Refer last sentencethe idea of unrecorded

winds is not taken to apply to the planes crossing the

Bermuda triangle. Rather they are attributed with

mysterious causes associated with anomalies - in the

context of the passage the cause mentioned is a time

warp.

67. Choice (2).The passage does not restrict itself only to be

the Bermuda Triangle-it looks at different such areas and

hypotheses or possible reasons.

68. Choice (3). Refer to para 3- flows from the high

wildness of the Cascade Range...

69. Choice (2). Local soil refers to a type of soil rich in clay,

sand slit.

70. Choice (4). Here, choice (4) is not mentioned in the

passage.

71. Choice (1). The valley and its features have been

compared to a cathedral and its characteristics to convey

the sense of awe and grandeur associated with cathedral.

72. Choice (2). Refer to para 4.(2) is not mentioned .

73. Choice (3). Refer to para 5 and para 6. The questions

reveal that there are too many difficult choices to be made

with no clear answer.

74. Choice (1). The dam would in fact, prevent flooding.

75. Choice (3). Choice (1) does not follow as the American

formers are all for it. No information relating to (2) has

been provided . As for (4), raising and strengthening dikes

is an option to constructing dams. Only (3) is valid as can

inferred from statement that theyd be kept free of dams

if they became scenic rivers.

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