DDR 2
DDR 3
VOLTAG
E
PINS
2.5
184
1.8
240
1.5
240
FSB
266/333/40
0 MHz
533/667/800M
Hz
1066/1333/1600/1866M
Hz
NTFS
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-5 V
+3.3 V
+5 V
+12 V
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we can connect 1
device for one cable
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SCSI(Small Computer
System Interface)
58,68 and 80pin
40.What is SCSI?
Small Computer System Interface
41.MODEM stands for? What is the function of modem?
MODEM stands for Modulation and Demodulation. MODEM is used to convert
digital signal to analog signal and vice versa.
42.Blue screen of death what might be problem?
It may be problem drivers compatibility or RAM problem or Bad sectors.
43.Edition of OS(XP, Vista & WIN 7)
XP
VISTA
XP-Home
home basic
XPhome
Professional
premium
Business
Enterprise
Ultimate
WINDOWS-7
Starter
home basic
home
premium
professional
business
enterprise
ultimate
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2GB
15 GB
15 GB
51.What are the bootable files for XP, VISTA & WINDOWS-7?
XP: NTLDR, Boot.ini
VISTA & WINDOWS-7: Bootmgr, winresume.exe and winload.exe
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69.What is defragmentation?
The process of moving data to the adjacent cluster is called defragmentation.
Defragmentation improves the performance of the disk.
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73.What is ICS?
ICS stands for Internet Connection Sharing which is used to share the internet.
74.Question about 'When I choose ''Shut Down'' from the Start Menu, my
computer restarts instead of shutting down
Answer : Change the registry setting:
>HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\software\microsoft\windows NT\current version\winlogon
Change
>PowerdownAftershutdown from 0 to 1.
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76.When I choose "Shut Down" from the Start Menu, my computer hangs at
the "Please Wait" screen
Answer:
Most likely, one or more of your drivers is not allowing itself to be unloaded.
This, supposedly, is less of a problem in Windows 98 and Windows Me than in
Windows 95 (most drivers are no longer unloaded when you shut down), but it still
seems to trip up Windows from time to time.
Try hitting Enter when it hangs to "wake it up."
Try holding Shift while clicking Ok in the "Shut Down" dialog - this might allow you to
shut down faster, and bypass whatever is causing your system to hang.
This can also happen if the sound file for Shutdown becomes corrupted. Double-click
on the Sounds icon in Control Panel and remove or change the sound event for
Shutdown.
77.When I boot the system, the fans turn on, but I see nothing on screen.
If no video or audio (no beeps or anything), check to be sure the PC speaker is
connected properly. If it is and you still are getting no feedback, then you may have a
bad motherboard or a device connected to it is faulty. Could be faulty RAM or a CPU.
Check the connections between all these devices and the motherboard. But,
nonetheless, since the computer is doing nothing, something is faulty at the
hardware level.
If no video, but static from the PC speaker, then you need to go after the
motherboard or key system device. Pretty much the same as above.
If you're getting a pattern of beeps from the PC speaker, then consult the beep codes
section for a clue as to where to start.
78.Scandisk says I have bad sectors, is this serious?
Answer:
Hard disks can form bad sectors over time if they become too old. If ScanDisk only
finds a few bad sectors, then ignore the problem since ScanDisk will prevent the
sectors from being used by your hard disk. If, however, you have a lot of bad sectors,
seriously think of replacing your hard disk before you lose all your data!
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80.Vista not recognizing external USB hard drive. How do I fix this?
Answer:
Three things I could think of to solve this:
1. Possible fix - download the "Reliability update for the USB stack in Windows Vista".
Search it in Google or Microsoft Vista support site.
2. Try connecting the external USB hard drive into an Add-in USB card.
3. Last resort - access your computer BIOS and disable all USB support for legacy
drives.
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85.What is networking?
Creating communication between connected devices on a network is called
networking.
86.What is protocol?
Protocol is a set of rules which are predefined for the purpose of
communication.
PROTOC
OL
DHCP
DNS
FTP
TFTP
HTTP
HTTPS POP3
IMAP
SERVER67
DATA-20
CLIENTCONTROL
PORT NO
68
53
-21
69
80
443
110
143
Every service protocol has its own service address which is known as Port no.
88.What is telnet?
Telnet provided access to a command-line interface (usually, of an operating
system) on a remote host
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Telnet
SM
23
25
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100.
101.
102.
103.
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104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
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112.
113.
114.
115.
What is the difference between hub and switch?
HUB
SWITCH
it is a broad cast device
it is a unicast device
it works at physical layer of OSI
it works at data link layer of OSI
model
model
max no of ports are 24
max no of ports are 48
it shares the bandwidth
it does not shares the bandwidth
116.
117.
What is bandwidth?
It is the capacity of the medium to carry the signal.
SWITCH
it works at data link layer of OSI
model
it works based up on MAC address
ROUTER
it works at network layer of OSI
model
it works based up on IP address
itStudents
cannot share
or transfer the
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118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
What is the max speed and distance supported by UTP cable and its
types?
1000Mbps and distance up to 100M.
Cat-1,cat2,cat-3,cat4,cat-5,cat-5e,cat6-,cat7
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124.
125.
What is the difference between broad band and base band signal?
Base band
Broad band
digital signals are transmitted by using Base
analog signals are transmitted by using Broad
band
band
In a baseband transmission, the entire
bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a
single signa
it is a bi-direction communication
126.
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128.
What are the private IP address for class A, class B and class C?
CLASS RANGE
A
B
C
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to
192.168.255.255
129.
130.
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131.
What is Wi-Fi?
Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity) is technically an industry term that represents a type of
wireless local area network (LAN) protocol based on the 802.11 IEEE network
standard
132.
133.
What is SSID?
A service set identifier (SSID) is a name that identifies a particular 802.11
wireless LAN
134.
135.
136.
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137.
MAC
it is a physical address
it is 48 bit hexa decimal address
it is permanent address
separated by -
138.
139.
140.
What is gateway?
The entrey and exit of the network
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142. What are the difference between 2003 and 2008 server?
2003
2008
no virtualization
virtualization is available
windows power shell is not
available
windows power shell is available
no RODC
RODC
IIS 6.0
IIS7.0
RIS
WDS
143.
What is domain?
Domain is a collection of devices with centralized administrator.
144.
145.
146.
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148.
What are the protocols for active directory and port nos?
Kerberos and LDAP are the protocol of active directory.
Ports no for Kerberos (88) and LDAP(389)
149.
What is Kerberos?
Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol which works on the
basis of "tickets" to allow nodes communicating over a non-secure network to
prove their identity to one another in a secure manner
150.
What is Sysvol?
The System Volume (Sysvol) is a shared directory that stores the server copy
of the domain's public files that must be shared for common access and
replication throughout a domain.
151.
152.
153.
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154.
155.
What is FSMO roles and how many types of FSMO Roles are there?
FSMO stands for Flexible Single Master Operation.
It has 5 roles and they are classified into two types forest wide and domain
wide
1.Schema master (forest wide), 2. Domain Naming Master (forest wide), 3.
PDC Emulator (domain wide), 4. PDC Emulator (domain wide), 5. RID Master
(domain wide).
156.
157.
158.
159.
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161.
162.
163.
164.
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165.
166.
167.
What is IIS?
IIS(Internet Information Service) is tool which is used for hosting of web sites.
Website is a collection of web pages.
168.
169.
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171.
What is networking?
Creating communication between connected devices on a network is called
networking.
172.
What is protocol?
Protocol is a set of rules which are predefined for the purpose of
communication.
PROTOC
OL
DHCP
DNS
FTP
TFTP
HTTP
HTTPS POP3
IMAP
SERVER67
DATA-20
CLIENTCONTROL
PORT NO
68
53
-21
69
80
443
110
143
Every service protocol has its own service address which is known as Port no.
174. What is telnet?
Telnet provided access to a command-line interface (usually, of an operating
system) on a remote host
175.
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Telnet
SM
23
25
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
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184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
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192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
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199.
200.
201.
What is the difference between hub and switch?
HUB
SWITCH
it is a broad cast device
it is a unicast device
it works at physical layer of OSI
it works at data link layer of OSI
model
model
max no of ports are 24
max no of ports are 48
it shares the bandwidth
it does not shares the bandwidth
202.
203.
What is bandwidth?
It is the capacity of the medium to carry the signal.
SWITCH
it works at data link layer of OSI
model
it works based up on MAC address
ROUTER
it works at network layer of OSI
model
it works based up on IP address
204.
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UDP
it is connection less
protocol
it is not reliable
it is faster
no acknowledgement
205.
206.
207.
208.
What is the max speed and distance supported by UTP cable and its
types?
1000Mbps and distance up to 100M.
Cat-1,cat2,cat-3,cat4,cat-5,cat-5e,cat6-,cat7
209.
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210.
211.
What is the difference between broad band and base band signal?
Base band
Broad band
digital signals are transmitted by using Base
analog signals are transmitted by using Broad
band
band
In a baseband transmission, the entire
bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a
single signa
it is a bi-direction communication
212.
213. What is subnet mask and what are the default subnet mask for class
A, class B and class C?
Subnet mask: it is used to identify the network bit and host bit of the network.
CLASS SUBNET MASK
A
255.0.0.0
B
255.255.0.0
C
255.255.255.0
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214.
What are the private IP address for class A, class B and class C?
CLASS RANGE
A
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
B
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to
C
192.168.255.255
215.
216.
217.
What is Wi-Fi?
Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity) is technically an industry term that represents a type of
wireless local area network (LAN) protocol based on the 802.11 IEEE network
standard
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218.
219.
What is SSID?
A service set identifier (SSID) is a name that identifies a particular 802.11
wireless LAN
220.
221.
222.
223.
IPV4
It is a logical address
it is a 32 bit binary address
it is temporary address
Separated by .
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MAC
it is a physical address
it is 48 bit hexa decimal address
it is permanent address
separated by -
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224.
225.
226.
What is gateway?
The entrey and exit of the network
227.
228. What are the difference between 2003 and 2008 server?
2003
2008
no virtualization
virtualization is available
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229.
What is domain?
Domain is a collection of devices with centralized administrator.
230.
231.
232.
233.
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What are the protocols for active directory and port nos?
Kerberos and LDAP are the protocol of active directory.
Ports no for Kerberos (88) and LDAP(389)
235.
What is Kerberos?
Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol which works on the
basis of "tickets" to allow nodes communicating over a non-secure network to
prove their identity to one another in a secure manner
236.
What is Sysvol?
The System Volume (Sysvol) is a shared directory that stores the server copy
of the domain's public files that must be shared for common access and
replication throughout a domain.
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
What is FSMO roles and how many types of FSMO Roles are there?
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242.
243.
244.
245.
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247.
248.
249.
250.
251.
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253.
254.
255.
What is DFS?
Distributed file system maintains the load balance between the file servers
and allows users to access the data on file severs
256.
257.
What is OU?
It is a logical container which contains active directory objects (users, groups,
computer etc..) It is also called sub tree and OU is the smallest scope or unit
to which you can assign group policy setting or delegate administrative
authorize.
258.
What is VPN?
A virtual private network (VPN) is a secure way of connecting to a private
Local Area Network at a remote location, using the Internet.
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259.
260.
261.
What is firewall?
Firewall which block unwanted and unauthorized access to the network and
system.
262.
What is IP Sec?
Short for IP Security, a set of protocols developed by the IETF to support
secure exchange of packets at the IP layer.
263.
264.
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265.
266.
file
What is packet?
A block of information with IP address
What is segment?
A segment is a defined portion or section of something larger such as a data
What is frame?
A block of information with MAC address
267.
268.
269.
270.
271. What are the main advantages and disadvantages of Fiber-Opticbased networks?
Advantage Data transfer rate is speed compared to other
272.
What is Internet?
It is a World Wide Collection of computer networks co-operating with
each other to
exchange data using
273.
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274.
275.
276.
277.
279.
280.
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281.
IPSec built-in
Shadow Copy
Basic and Dynamic Disk
IIS Ver 7
Group Policy
Xp Home Basic
no Remote desktop
NO
Offline folders
1 processor
workgroup member
NO
Encryption
NO GPO
No ASR
284.
Win 2k8
Active Directory Domain
Services
Xp Profosnal
Remote desktop
Offline folders
2 processor
Workgroup and domain member
Encryption
GPO
ASR
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285.
286.
287.
289. Which Control Panel tool enables you to automate the running of
server utilities and other applications?
The Task Scheduler enables you to schedule the launching of tools such as
Windows Backup and Disk Defragmenter.
290. When a child domain is created in the domain tree, what type of trust
relationship exists between the new child domain and the trees root
domain?
Child domains and the root domain of a tree are assigned transitive trusts. This
means that the root domain and child domain trust each other and allow
resources in any domain in the tree to be accessed by users in any domain in the
tree.
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292. What are some of the other roles that a server running Windows
Server 2008 could fill on the network?
A server running Windows Server 2008 can be configured as a domain controller,
a file server, a print server, a web server, or an application server. Windows
servers can also have roles and features that provide services such as DNS,
DHCP, and Routing and Remote Access.
293. Which Windows Server 2008 tools make it easy to manage and
configure a servers roles and features?
The Server Manager window enables you to view the roles and features installed
on a server and also to quickly access the tools used to manage these various
roles and features. The Server Manager can be used to add and remove roles and
features as needed.
294. What Windows Server 2008 service is used to install client operating
systems over the network?
Windows Deployment Services (WDS) enables you to install client and server
operating systems over the network to any computer with a PXE-enabled network
interface.
295. What domain services are necessary for you to deploy the Windows
Deployment Services on your network?
Windows Deployment Services requires that a DHCP server and a DNS server be
installed in the domain
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301. Can servers running Windows Server 2008 provide services to clients
when they are not part of a domain?
Servers running Windows Server 2008 can be configured to participate in a
workgroup. The server can provide some services to the workgroup peers but
does not provide the security and management tools provided to domain
controllers.
302. What does the use of Group Policy provide you as a network
administrator?
Group Policy provides a method of controlling user and computer configuration
settings for Active Directory containers such as sites, domains, and OUs. GPOs are
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303. What tools are involved in managing and deploying Group Policy?
GPOs and their settings, links, and other information such as permissions can be
viewed in the Group Policy Management snap-in.
305. How can you make sure that network clients have the most recent
Windows updates installed and have other important security features
such as the Windows Firewall enabled before they can gain full network
access?
You can configure a Network Policy Server (a service available in the Network
Policy and Access Services role). The Network Policy Server can be configured to
compare desktop client settings with health validators to determine the level of
network access afforded to the client.
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308. How the range of IP addresses is defined for a Windows Server 2008
DHCP server?
The IP addresses supplied by the DHCP server are held in a scope. A scope that
contains more than one subnet of IP addresses is called a superscope. IP
addresses in a scope that you do not want to lease can be included in an
exclusion range.
309.
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324. How can you force the client to give up the dhcp lease if you have
access to the client PC?
Ans: ipconfig /release
325. I cant seem to access the Internet, dont have any access to the
corporate network and on ipconfig my address is 169.254.*.*. What
happened?
Ans: The 169.254.*.* net mask is assigned to Windows machines running
98/2000/XP if the DHCP server is not available. The name for the technology is
APIPA (Automatic Private Internet Protocol Addressing).
326.
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331. Before installing your first domain controller in the network, you installed a
DNS server and created a zone, naming it as you would name your AD domain.
However, after the installation of the domain controller, you are unable to locate
infrastructure SRV records anywhere in the zone. What is the most likely cause of
this failure?
Ans : The zone you created was not configured to allow dynamic updates. The
local interface on the DNS server was not configured to allow dynamic updates.
332. You are administering a network connected to the Internet. Your users
complain that everything is slow. Preliminary research of the problem indicates
that it takes a considerable amount of time to resolve names of resources on the
Internet. What is the most likely reason for this?
Ans : DNS servers are not caching replies.. Local client computers are not caching
replies The cache.dns file may have been corrupted on the server.
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338.
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343. How to send message to remote user, computer, etc. using command
line?
Answer: use NET SEND command
Eg : NET SEND 10.0.0.1 "how are u"
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354. You need to view at network traffic. What will you use? Name a few tools ?
Answer: Monitoring network traffic too
355. How do I know the path that a packet takes to the destination?
Answer :use "tracert" command-line
356. What is the BOOTP protocol used for, where might you find it in
Windows networkinfrastructure?
Answer. Incomputing, Bootstrap Protocol , or BOOTP is aUDPnetwork protocol used
by a network client to obtain itsIP addressautomatically. This is usually done during
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363. What are GPO links? What special things can I do to them?
Answer.To apply the settings of a GPO to the users and computers of a domain,
site, or OU, you need to add a link to that GPO. You can add one or more GPO
links to each domain, site,or OU by using GPMC. Keep in mind that creating and
linking GPOs is a sensitive privilege that should be delegated only to
administrators who are trusted and understand Group Policy
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372. What are the additional tools found after installing a DC?
Active Directory User and Computers,
Active Directory Sites and Services,
Active Directory Domain & Trust,
Domain Controller Security Policy,
Domain Security Policy
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377. What main file is used for Active Directory backup andhow it is
made?
Answer: Active Directory backup is made using NTbackup utility. Thebackup is
made once with the system state and they are restoredalso together because
they depend on each other. The system statehas different components like:a)
The registryb) Boot files or startup files (files
required by the operating systemto start).c) The component servicesd) The
system volume or the SYSVOL folder this is a folder thatcontains files that are
shared on a domain.e) The Active Directory
378. Are you familiar with monitoring?
Answer:Yes, monitoring is a base activity of a system administrator,he/she
manages all the access rights and the server space, securityof the user accounts
is one of the most important things here. Alsoan administrator must make sure
that the users activity doesntaffect in any way the integrity of the server.
379. Can you explain to us about you experience in the past regarding
windows administration?
A:I have ten years of experience in this field, I was passionate about computers
since childhood and I installed many operating systems athome and inside
organizations including these versions of windows:95, 98, 98 SE, NT, Millenium,
2000, 2003 Server, XP, Seven, Vista. Ialso managed these systems and performed
maintenance, I worked with different applications from the windows environment.
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380. Whats a Windows profile? When would you delete one, and what
gets deleted?
If youre looking for someone to do desktop support, they should have at least a
vague idea of where the users data can be stored. Bonus points if they can
explain where common application settings are stored, what the Registry is, and
how roaming profiles work
381. When an end user says a file went missing, what do you do?
End users delete files all the time, but before you recover it from backup, first do
a search on the drive to make sure they didnt drag & drop it to another folder.
(Normally I dont give interview answers here, but that ones an exception.) Then,
after they explain that, Id ask them to cover things like VSS snapshots, end user
recovery in Explorer and how to restore from their favorite backup program.
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299.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the term that describes running a processor faster than its rating for
increased performance?
Over clocking
Over clocking is the practice of increasing the clock frequency of the frontside
bus to increase performance. Overclocking usually requires better than
standard cooling efforts to avoid damage to the processor
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300.
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301.
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302.
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303.
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Und.
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Which is used to store data and programs for repeated use? Information can
be added and deleted at will, and it does not lose its data when power is
removed.
Hard drive
Hard drive stores data on a magnetic medium, which does not lose its
information after the power is removed, and which can be repeatedly written
to and erased.
Und.
305.
Ans.
Exp.
Which motherboard socket type is used with the AMD Athlon XP?
Socket A
The Socket A (remember A for AMD) motherboard socket is used primarily
with AMD processors, including the Athlon XP.
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306.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
307.
What are the numbers of pins that can be found on DIMM modules used in
desktop motherboards?
DIMMs used in desktop-motherboard applications have one of three possible
pin counts. SDR SDRAM is implemented on 168-pin modules. DDR SDRAM and
16-bit RIMMs are implemented on 184-pin modules. DDR2 and DDR3 are
implemented on 240-pin modules with different keying. Dual-channel RIMM
modules have 232 pins. Modules with 200 and 204 pins are used in the
SODIMM line,
Ans.
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308.
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309.
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Und.
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310.
Ans.
Exp.
Which peripheral port type was designed to transfer data at high speeds over
a D-sub interface?
IEEE 1284
EEE 1284 standard defines the ECP parallel port to use a DMA channel and the
buffer to be able to transfer data at high speeds to printers.
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311.
Ans.
Exp.
Which motherboard form factor places expansion slots on a special riser card
and is used in low-profile PCs?
NLX
The NLX form factor places expansion slots on a special riser card and is used
in low-profile PCs.
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312.
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313.
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314.
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You have just purchased a motherboard that has an LGA775 socket for an Intel
Pentium 4 processor. What type of memory modules will you need for this
motherboard?
DIMM
Pentium 4 processors are always mated with memory mounted on DIMMs.
What type of expansion slot is preferred today for high-performance graphics
adapters?
PCIe
Although technically all slots listed could be used for video adapters, PCIe
excels when compared to the other options and offers technologies, such as
SLI, which only make PCIes advantage more noticeable.
Und.
315.
Ans.
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Platter
A conventional HDD contains discs called platters, on which data are stored
magnetically through read/write heads by way of a magnetic coating
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316.
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317.
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318.
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319.
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Und.
320.
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Und.
What are the five output voltages produced by a common PC power supply?
3.3VDC, +5VDC, 5VDC, +12VDC, and 12VDC
PCs power supply produces +3.3VDC, +5VDC, 5VDC, +12VDC, and 12VDC
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What kind of device uses unique physical traits of the user to authenticate
their access to a secure system or location?
Biometric device
Biometric input devices scan a physical trait of the user, such as voice,
fingerprint, and retina, for authentication purposes during attempts to access
computer systems and other property.
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322.
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Exp.
What kind of media is most commonly used when large amounts of data need
to be archived on a regular basis?
Tape
Although inefficient as an interactive medium, sequential tape-based storage
continues to be developed in increasing capacities. Tape remains the best
choice for frequently backing up large amounts of data for redundancy and
archival purposes.
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323.
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What can you use to convert video to a format that can be uploaded to the
Internet, among other things?
video capture card
A video capture card is used to convert raw video input to a format that can
be shared electronically. Although many TV tuner cards provide this
functionality, it is their video-capture component that gives them this
capability
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324.
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325.
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Und.
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326.
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Und.
327.
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What type of pointing device features a ball and buttons on the top and a flat,
steady surface on the bottom?
Trackball
A trackball is a sort of stationary mouse that has the ball for movement
detection on the top of the device along with the keys. The ball is actuated by
the thumb or fingers, not by moving the device along a flat surface or mouse
pad. Trackballs are ideal where desk space is limited. There is no such thing as
a trackpad.
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328.
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Exp.
When replacing a power supply, which of the following tends to vary among
power supplies and must be chosen properly to support all connected
devices?
Wattage
Power supplies are rated in watts. When you purchase a power supply, you
should make sure that the devices inside the computer do not require more
wattage than the chosen power supply can offer. The voltage is fairly standard
among power supplies and has nothing to do with the devices connected to
the power supply.
Und.
329.
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Und.
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330.
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Und.
331.
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Und.
332.
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Und.
333.
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Which interfaces allows audio to be sent out over the same cabling
infrastructure as video?
HDMI
HDMI is a digital interface and cabling specification that allows digital audio to
be carried over the same cable as video.
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Und.
335.
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Und.
336.
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Und.
337.
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Exp.
Where can you find the best degaussing tool for modern CRT monitors?
Built into the monitor
The built-in degaussing tool of the latest CRT monitors is designed to work
with the monitor in whom it is found. External degaussing tools, while
effective, can be a little hard on the delicate inner workings of the CRT.
Software alone cannot degauss a CRT monitor.
Und.
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339.
Ans.
Exp.
Which laptop input device was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of
laptops?
Point stick
The Touch point stick was released with the IBM ThinkPad series of laptops.
Which laptop accessory allows you to power your laptop from a car or
airplane?
DC adapter
DC adapter converts the DC output from a car or airplane accessory power
plug into the DC voltages required by your laptop.
Und.
340.
Ans.
Exp.
Which is the fastest and most modern interface used as an expansion method
for external peripherals, such as mice, web cams, scanners, and printers, and
is popular on laptops and desktops alike.
USB
USB is used most often in laptops as an expansion bus for external
peripherals. Although parallel and PS/2 allow for connection of external
peripherals, they are not as flexible or widely used for expansion as USB.
Und.
341.
Ans.
Exp.
Which kind of laptop was designed to look and function likes a paper
notebook?
Tablet
The tablet PC is a notebook with a flip-around screen that allows a user to hold
it like a large notebook and write notes directly on the screen with a special
stylus.
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342.
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Exp.
Und.
343.
Ans.
Which tab of the Display Properties dialog box in Windows XP has a button
that launches Power Options Properties, allowing you to enable hibernation
and set power schemes, among other things?
Screen Saver
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The Screen Saver tab of Display Options has a Power button in its Monitor
Power section that launches the Power Options Properties applet.
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344.
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345.
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Und.
346.
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Which laptop input device is a flat surface that you can slide across with your
finger to control the cursor?
Touchpad
The touchpad is an input device usually built into the laptop. It allows you to
control the mouse pointer by dragging your finger across the surface.
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347.
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Und.
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349.
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Und.
350.
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What type of device can help keep your computers running for a short period
of time in the event of a power outage?
Uninterruptable power supply (UPS)
UPS contains batteries that can keep your system running for a short period of
time in case of a power outage.
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351.
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Exp.
What feature does Windows Vista includes, which is a copy of your system
configuration that can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a
configuration error occurs.
Restore point
Windows Vista (and XP) can use restore points to roll back the system
configuration to a previous state.
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352.
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Exp.
When you make a normal backup of your files, what does Windows clear to
show that the file was backed up?
Archive bit
When you make a normal or incremental backup, the archive bit gets cleared,
indicating that the file was backed up.
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353.
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Exp.
One of your users claims that his hard drive seems to be running slowly. What
tool can you use to check to see how fragmented the hard drive is?
Disk Defragmenter
Disk Defragmenter will analyze the hard drive to determine how fragmented it
is and will allow you to defragment the hard drive. There is no Disk Analyzer
tool. Disk Cleanup can help you free up space by deleting unneeded files.
Checkdisk (Chkdsk) can help you find problems on the hard drive,
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355.
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Exp.
You open a computer case and discover an excessive amount of dust inside.
What should you do?
Use a computer vacuum to remove the dust.
A computer vacuum should be used to suck up dust and other small particles.
A regular vacuum generates electrostatic discharge (ESD) and should never
be used. Blowing into a computer case isnt recommended; if needed, you can
use compressed air to blow small bits of dust or debris out of a computer. Dust
can harm computer components.
Und.
356.
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Exp.
Und.
357.
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Which tool do you use to create a copy of all of the data on your Windows XP
computer?
The Backup utility is used to create copies of data on your computer.
Und.
358.
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Exp.
Last night after you went home, your Windows XP computer ran a normal
backup of your My Documents folder. Today you want to back up only the files
that youve made changes to since then. Which options can you choose to do
this?
Incremental, Daily
Both Normal and Copy will back up all files, not just those that have changed.
Incremental will back up all files that have changed since your last backup.
Daily will back up all files that have changed during that day.
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Which of the following tools can you use to delete temporary Internet files and
other unneeded files to free up disk space?
Disk Cleanup
Disk Cleanup can help you free up space by deleting unneeded files. Disk
Defragmenter will analyze the hard drive to determine how fragmented it is,
and will allow you to defragment the hard drive. There is no Disk Analyzer
tool. Checkdisk (Chkdsk) can help you find problems on the hard drive, but it
does not delete files.
Und.
360.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following utilities can scan the hard drive for physical errors?
Chkdsk
Chkdsk, which is now called Error Checking, will scan the hard drive for
physical errors.
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361.
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Exp.
Which of the following types of backups mark the files as being backed up?
(Choose all that apply.
Normal, Incremental
Normal and incremental backups clear the archive bit. Copy and differential
backups do not.
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362.
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Exp.
If the video on your laptop is not working, what should you do to troubleshoot
it?
Toggle the video function key., Try using an external monitor.
Two helpful things to try are toggling the video output function key (usually
Fn+F8) and plugging an external monitor into the laptop. Removing the
display is possible but not recommended. Powering the system off and back
on isnt likely to correct the problem.
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363.
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Und.
364.
Ans.
Every computer has a diagnostic program built into its BIOS called the
________.
POST
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Every computer has a diagnostic program built into its BIOS called the poweron self-test (POST). The BIOS is the software stored on the CMOS chip.
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365.
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366.
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Und.
367.
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What two devices are commonly used to cool components within a PC?
Fans Heat sinks
Heat sinks and fans are commonly used to cool components within a PC.
Compressed air can be used to blow out small particles or dust.
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368.
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Exp.
You are having problems with the video card in one of your computers. Where
could you check for troubleshooting information?
The video card manufacturers website, The manual that came with the card
Good sources of troubleshooting information are manufacturers websites,
product manuals, and training materials.
Und.
369.
Ans.
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370.
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The display on your laptop appears warped and fuzzy. You plug in an external
monitor, and the image on it is fine. What is the most likely cause of the
problem?
The LCD display
It has to be a problem with the LCD display. If it were the video card, then the
display would appear warped and fuzzy on the external monitor as well. While
many motherboards contain video circuitry, this answer is not specific enough.
If the video driver were corrupted, you would have the same problem on all
displays
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371.
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Exp.
What is the utility under Windows XP which is useful for troubleshooting error
conditions.
Dr. Watson
Windows 2000 and XP come with Dr. Watson, which is a debugger that can
help troubleshoot error conditions. Windows Vista replaced Dr. Watson with
Problem Reports and Solutions.
Und.
372.
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Exp.
Which laptop input device is a flat surface that you can draw on with your
finger to control the mouse pointer?
Touchpad
The touchpad is a mousing surface built into the laptop. It allows you to use
your finger to control the mouse pointer by drawing on the surface.
Und.
373.
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Exp.
Und.
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374.
Ans.
Exp.
You turn a computer on, but nothing shows up on the monitor. Instead of one
beep, you hear one long beep followed by three short beeps. What is the
problem?
Not enough information; you need to look up the beep code to determine the
problem.
It may well be that the video card is dead. Different BIOS manufacturers use
different beep codes, though, so youll want to look it up to be sure. If the
motherboards were dead or the BIOS werent functioning, you wouldnt get to
the POST routine, so you wouldnt get a beep code.
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375.
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Exp.
A user has an application that is constantly crashing. The user has rebooted,
and the application is still failing. What should you do?
Reinstall the application.
If an application is crashing, its likely that there is a missing or corrupted file.
The easiest way to fix this is to reinstall the application. Reinstalling Windows
isnt necessary.
Und.
376.
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Exp.
You turn a computer on and it doesnt boot up properly. From inside the case
you hear a rhythmic ticking sound. What is most likely the problem?
The hard drive
The only components that typically make noise are the ones that have moving
parts, such as fans and hard drives. In most cases, a rhythmic ticking sound
will be something thats generated by the hard drive.
Und.
377.
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Exp.
A user calls saying his laptop wont power on. He charged it all night so he
knows the battery is fine. What should you have him do first?
Plug the laptop in using an AC adapter and try to power it on.
If a laptop wont power up on battery, always try to use AC power. You never
know when a battery could have failed. If he had a spare and didnt have an
AC power cord, trying a spare might work, but trying AC power is the best bet.
There is no battery power switch on laptops.
Und.
378.
Ans.
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379.
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Exp.
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380.
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Und.
381.
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Exp.
While working on a users system, you discover a sticky note attached to the
bottom of the keyboard that has their username and password written on it.
The user is not around, and you need to verify that the network connection is
working. What should you do?
Page the user.
You should page the user and let her know she needs to verify access. You
also should tell her that you saw the sticky note and highly recommend that
she change her password to a new value and not write it down. Logging in to
the system using the information you found would be violating the privacy of
that user and should not be done. Further, logging in with someone elses
information makes you a potential scapegoat for any data that is corrupted or
missing until the user changes the password.
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383.
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Exp.
You have been trying to troubleshoot a users system all day when it suddenly
becomes clear that the data is irretrievably lost. Upon informing the customer
of this, he becomes so angry that he shoves you against a wall. What should
you do?
Try to calm the user down, and leave the site if you cannot.
Physical abuse violates respect and should be avoided at all costs. You should
try to calm the user down. If you cannot do this, you should leave the site
immediately and not return until it is safe to do so. You may also want to
report the incident to your management so that theyre aware of the situation.
Und.
384.
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Exp.
A customer tells you that the last technician who was there spent three hours
on the phone making personal calls. What should you do with this
information?
Inform your manager.
The customer is expressing a concern that she was not shown respect by a
technician from your company. You should apologize and make your manager
aware of the situation or concern. Unless you are a supervisor, which is not
implied in the question, you should not personally talk to the technician about
the issue.
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385.
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Exp.
Und.
386.
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Exp.
You arrive at the site of a failed server to find the vice president nervously
pacing and worrying about lost data. What should you do?
Inform him that youve dealt with similar situations and will let him know what
needs to be done as soon as possible.
You should always act with confidence and in a way similar to how you would
want to be treated if you were in the customers situation. Ignoring,
downplaying, or joking about the vice presidents obvious concern are very
poor choices
Which statement is true regarding upgrading a computer system?
When upgrading RAM, it is possible that you can upgrade RAM only.
Very often, computer systems prove to have an upgrade path for their RAM.
Also, upgrading the RAM is the least expensive upgrade compared to the
increase in performance that you can observe, up to a point
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388.
Ans.
Exp.
Which two of the following are todays best choices for video adapter
technology?
PCIe AGP
While installing a CPU, you apply gentle pressure to the surface of the CPU,
but it will not seat. When you examine the pins of the CPU to see if they are
straight, you find that a number of them are bent. Why are the bent pins not
the original problem?
The socket has a ZIF mechanism that must be released before inserting the
CPU.
You should never apply insertion pressure to a CPU. With ZIF sockets, you
release the lever on the side of the socket, and the CPU should drop right in,
sometimes with delicate urging but never with what could be considered
pressure.
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389.
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Exp.
Und.
390.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
391.
Which system resource allows an expansion card, for instance, to signal the
CPU that it requires some of the CPUs time?
IRQ lines
Interrupt request (IRQ) lines perform as stated in the question. The other three
resources have nothing to do with this action.
Ans.
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392.
Ans.
Exp.
On the primary IDE channel, if a single hard disk is attached, its jumper should
be set to _______
Single if available, otherwise Master
If there is a Single setting, it should be used. Otherwise, use Master. Slave is
never appropriate for a single drive. There is no such jumper setting as Boot.
Und.
393.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the name of the utility that allows you to check hardware resources
and alter them, if allowed?
A Device Manager
Only Device Manager allows you access to the resources being used by the
various hardware components. Task Manager and Control Panel allow you to
monitor and alter certain items but not hardware resources, as Device
Manager is designed to do
Und.
394.
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Exp.
Where can you obtain the service manual for a laptop computer?
From the manufacturers website
Laptop service manuals can be obtained from the manufacturers website. Its
very rare that paper service manuals are shipped with the laptop. Pressing F1
while in Windows will open Windows Help, and pressing F2 on many laptops
during the system boot will take you into the BIOS.
Und.
395.
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Exp.
Und.
396.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
397.
Ans.
Exp.
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398.
Ans.
Exp.
Which LCD component is responsible for providing the right kind of power to
the monitor?
Inverter
The inverter provides power to the backlight. The backlight provides light to
the LCD screen, and the screen displays the picture.
Und.
399.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
400.
Ans.
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Und.
401.
Ans.
Exp.
When upgrading the system BIOS, what is one way you may be able to
change the boot sequence?
By pressing F2 while the system is booting up
Pressing F2 on many laptops during the system boot will take you into the
BIOS. Pressing F1 while in Windows will open Windows Help. Inserting a boot
CD will not change the boot sequence. There is no BIOS key on the laptop.
Und.
402.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
403.
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Exp.
What should you do first to remove external devices from your laptop?
Click the Safely Remove Hardware icon
Before removing external hardware, you should click the Safely Remove
Hardware icon.
Und.
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404.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following is a digital connector for video that you may find on
video card?
DVI
DVI connector is for digital video. A VGA connector is for analog video. LCD
and CRT are monitor types.
Und.
405.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
406.
Ans.
Exp.
Your laptop has 2GB of installed memory and uses shared video memory. If
the video card is using 512MB, how much is left for the rest of the system?
1.5GB
If the laptop is using shared video memory, then the system memory is
shared with the video card. If the video card is using 512MB (half a gigabyte),
then there is 1.5GB left for the system
Und.
407.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
408.
You have just installed a new printer. After it is installed, it prints only garbled
text. Which of the following is likely the problem?
Incorrect print drivers
If a printer is using out-of-date or incorrect printer drivers, the printer may
produce pages of garbled text. The solution is to ensure that the most recent
printer drivers are downloaded from the manufacturers website
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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409.
Ans.
Exp.
What are the most common causes of crinkled paper coming out of a laser
printer?
The printers gears. The printer has an obstructed paper path are stripped.
The printers paper path is probably obstructed by something, or its gears
have been stripped by paper feeding incorrectly. Obstructions are usually
caused by paper from a previous jam. When cleaning out a paper jam, make
sure you get all the paper
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410.
Ans.
Exp.
You have a bubble-jet printer. Recently, papers are being printed with
excessive amounts of ink, and the ink is smearing. What is the most likely
cause of the problem?
A faulty ink cartridge
If an ink cartridge is faulty or develops a hole, it can release excessive
amounts of ink, which will lead to smearing. A corrupted printer driver would
result in printing garbage. Bubble-jet printers do not have a fuser. Excessive
humidity may cause smearing, but not too much ink being disbursed.
Und.
411.
Ans.
Exp.
You are troubleshooting a client system. The client has just installed a new
device, but the system now reports a resource conflict at I/O addresses
0x02E802EF. What is this address range normally used for?
COM4
Most devices attached to the computer system are assigned an I/O address
range. If two devices share even a single address, a conflict occurs. In this
case, COM4 uses the address range 0x02E802EF (also referred to as base-I/O
address 0x02E8) by default
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412.
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Und.
413.
What is the term for the concentric magnetic rings on the surface of a disk
platter?
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Track
Tracks are concentric rings formed magnetically in the factory or through lowlevel formatting. Tracks form the boundaries within which data is written to
the surface of a platter
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414.
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415.
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Und.
416.
Which of the following display types bombards the viewing screen with
electrons, making the device more susceptible to magnetic interference?
CRT
Displays based on cathode ray tube (CRT) technology excite phosphor dot
trios on the back of the viewing screen by shooting electrons from electron
guns, making the phosphors glow in red, green, or blue. By varying the
intensity of the bombardment among the three dot phosphors, millions of
colors per pixel are attainable. Magnetic interference can affect the aim of the
electron guns. LCDs and touchscreen panels do not use dot phosphors to
display images
What is the name of the standard that defines power management for laptop
computers?
ACPI
ACPI is the power management standard introduced in 1996. Its an extension
of the system BIOS that is responsible for managing power to devices in your
system.
Ans.
Exp.
417.
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Und.
418.
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Und.
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When chips heat and cool repeatedly, they can work their way out of their
sockets. This phenomenon is called what?
Chip creep
Chip creep is when the chip wiggles itself out of a socket. This can be caused
by the chip heating and cooling repeatedly. With most chips today held in by
clips, this is not usually a problem anymore.
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420.
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421.
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422.
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423.
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424.
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Und.
425.
What is the term for one of the segments of a track on the platter of a
magnetic disk?
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Sector
Tracks are segmented into sectors, each of which routinely stores up to 512
bytes of data. Sectors are created in the factory or during low-level
formatting. Clusters and allocation units are two terms for a collection of one
or more sectors. Clusters are formed during high-level formatting by an
operating system.
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426.
Ans.
Exp.
What type of adapter card would be used in the accelerated graphics port of
an ATX motherboard?
AGP video card
The AGP port is specifically designed to provide increased performance for
video cards. No other common device has been adapted for use in the AGP
port.
Und.
427.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following can help to improve the sharpness of display quality?
Increasing the refresh rate
Increasing the refresh rate serves to sharpen a displays image, as long as the
monitor supports the selected rate
Und.
428.
Ans.
Exp.
When turning on a newer CRT, you hear an extremely short buzzing sound.
The user says the monitor has always done that, and the CRT appears to be
okay. What caused the sound
The monitor is degaussing itself.
Newer CRTs have a self-degaussing feature that activates whenever the
monitor is powered on. This increases the quality of the image and reduces
the need to perform a manual degaussing
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429.
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Exp.
What is the piece of software that allows the operating system to talk to a
hardware device called?
Device driver
Device drivers are software applications that enable the operating system to
talk to hardware devices.
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430.
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Und.
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431.
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Und.
432.
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433.
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You are configuring a wireless router and want to limit who can access the
device. How can you limit access?
MAC filtering
You can limit the computers that have access to the wireless router through
MAC filtering. Only computers with specific MAC addresses will be allowed to
use the device. There is no IP filtering or DNS filtering. All routers will have an
SSID by default, but using an SSID does not specifically limit access
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434.
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435.
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Und.
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Which of the following terms refers to a single memory module playing the
role of two separate modules?
Double-sided
Double-sided memory uses additional pins on the modules to allow access to
only half the memory locations at a time. The memory controller switches to
whichever side it needs to access at any given moment.
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437.
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438.
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Und.
439.
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What is the name of the technology that allows the hard disk subsystem to
warn you of an impending failure before data loss occurs?
SMART
The Self Monitoring and Reporting Technology (SMART) was designed to warn
users and technicians that data loss is imminent. This early warning often
allows data to be backed up and a hard drive replaced before such data loss
occurs
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440.
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Und.
441.
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Exp.
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442.
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Exp.
Und.
443.
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Exp.
Und.
444.
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Und.
445.
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Exp.
Which of the following file attributes are available to files on a FAT32 partition?
Hidden, Read Only, Archive, System
FAT32 does not have as many options as NTFS, such as Encryption and
Compression. These attributes are available only on NTFS partitions
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446.
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Exp.
Und.
447.
Ans.
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448.
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OPERATING SYSTEM
Virtual memory is configured through which system tool?
System control panel
Virtual memory settings are accessed through the Performance tab or area of
the System control panel.
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449.
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450.
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451.
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452.
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Und.
453.
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Exp.
To back up the files on your disks in Windows, which Windows program can
you use?
Backup
The Backup utility is provided with all versions of Windows, but it has different
levels of functionality in the different versions
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454.
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Exp.
Und.
455.
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Und.
456.
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Which of the following partitions is specifically the partition from which the
operating system boots?
Active partition
The operating system boots from the active partition. Active partitions must
be primary partitions, but a primary partition does not have to be active (as
there can be up to four primary partitions per hard drive)
Which of the following Registry hives contains information about the
computers hardware?
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
There are five basic hives in the Windows Registry: HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT,
HKEY_CURRENT_USER, HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE, HKEY_USERS, and
HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE stores information about the
computers hardware. HKEY_CURRENT_MACHINE, HKEY_MACHINE, and
HKEY_RESOURCES do not exist.
Und.
457.
Ans.
Und.
458.
What type of backup will back up all selected files and then clear the archive
bit?
Normal
A normal backup will back up all selected files and then clear the archive bit,
letting the system know that the file was backed up. There is no Complete
backup option. Incremental will only back up files that have changed since the
last backup, and it does clear the archive bit. Copy backs up all files but does
not clear the archive bit. Windows 2000 (and XP/Vista), filenames can be no
longer than 255 characters. Under DOS, files were limited by the 8.3 standard
of 8 characters plus a 3-character file extension.
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Exp.
Und.
459.
Which of the following utilities will rearrange the files on your hard disk to
occupy contiguous chunks of space?
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Disk Defragmenter
Windows Disk Defragmenter rearranges files on your hard disk so they occupy
contiguous spaces (as much as possible). Windows Explorer lets you view and
manage files but not manage their location on the physical hard disk.
Scandisk will check the hard drive for errors, and Windows Backup backs up
files but does not manage their physical location
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460.
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461.
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Which of the following is the name of the graphical interface included with
Windows Vista?
Aero
The interface included with Windows Vista is called Aero.
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462.
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463.
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Und.
464.
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Und.
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Und.
466.
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Und.
467.
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Und.
468.
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Und.
469.
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In Windows Vista and XP, how do you access advanced startup options?
By pressing F8 during the first phase of the boot process
Pressing F8 during the first phase of the boot process brings up the Advanced
Startup Options menu in Windows.
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470.
Ans.
Exp.
Which advanced startup option in Windows 2000 would you use to be able to
return to a previously functioning environment?
Last Known Good Configuration
Last Known Good Configuration enables you to restore the system to a prior,
functional state if a change was made to the Registry that turned out to be
problematic.
Und.
471.
Ans.
In Windows 2000 and XP, which of the following files is specifically responsible
for enabling communication between the system hardware and the operating
system?
HAL.DLL
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Und.
472.
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Und.
473.
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What is the first step when installing Windows onto a system that doesnt
already have a functioning operating system?
Partitioning
New disk drives or PCs with no OS need to have two critical functions
performed on them before they can be used: partitioning and formatting.
These two functions are performed by two commands, FDISK.EXE and
FORMAT.COM, or by the Windows installation program itself.
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474.
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475.
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Und.
476.
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Exp.
icon, double-click the Control Panel icon, and then double-click the
Add/Remove Hardware icon.
Plug and Play will automatically detect new hardware and install the proper
software. If it is not successful, you can use the Add/Remove Hardware Wizard.
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477.
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Und.
478.
Ans.
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If Plug and Play does not work with a particular device on a Windows Vista
machine, what Control Panel utility can you use?
Add Hardware
When Plug and Play does not work, the Add New Hardware applet in the
Control Panel can be used in Windows Vista. In some earlier versions of
Windows, this same functionality was provided by the Add/Remove Hardware
Wizard.
Which utility that comes with Windows 2000 Professional is used to create an
image of an existing computer for network installation?
Sysprep
The Sysprep utility comes with Windows 2000 Professional and is used to
make an image of a computer. Ghost is a third-party utility made by Norton.
Sys image is not a known Windows utility, and RIS only comes with Windows
Server operating systems
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479.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
480.
If you have 256MB of RAM in a Windows 2000 machine, what is the minimum
recommended size for the swap file?
384MB
The minimum recommended swap-file size under Windows 2000 is 1.5 times
the amount of physical RAM: 1.5 x 256MB = 384MB.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
481.
Ans.
Exp.
Where would you configure a workstation to boot from the USB drive first and
hard drive only if there is not a bootable USB device attached?
NTLDR , C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\1st.txt , Boot.ini
Boot order is configured in the BIOS of the workstation and not in a Windowsrelated file.
Und.
482.
Ans.
You just clicked Start > Run. Which of the following can you type to open a
command prompt? (Choose all that apply.)
CMD, COMMAND
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483.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
484.
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Und.
485.
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You believe that your system files are corrupted in Windows XP. You run
System File Checker. What do you do to make System File Checker
automatically repair your system files if repair is needed?
Run SFC /SCANNOW.
The SFC command will run System File Checker. The /SCANNOW option will
scan files, and SFC automatically repairs files it detects as corrupted.
Und.
486.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
487.
Ans.
Which command can you use to convert a FAT partition to an NTFS partition?
CONVERT
Exp.
The CONVERT command is used to convert FAT partitions to NTFS. You cannot
convert NTFS to FAT, however.
Und.
488.
Ans.
Exp.
You are at a command prompt. Which command can you use to see whether
you have a network connection to another computer?
PING
The PING command tests to see whether you can reach a remote host on the
network.
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489.
Ans.
Exp.
You are at a command prompt. You want to make a file called WORK.DOC a
read-only file. Which command do you use to accomplish this?
ATTRIB +R WORK.DOC
The ATTRIB command is used to set file attributes. To add attributes, use the
plus sign (+). To remove attributes, use the minus sign (-). The Read-Only
attribute is designated by R. The problem, verifies full system functionality,
and documents your findings.
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490.
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491.
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Und.
492.
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Exp.
Und.
493.
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Und.
494.
Ans.
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The /r option not only locates bad sectors, but also recovers the data that is
found in them (the purpose for the /f option).
Und.
495.
Ans.
Und.
Which of the following options exist with COPY and not with XCOPY?
XCOPY can be thought of as an expanded version of COPY
496.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
497.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which option is used with PING to continue contacting the host until stopped?
t
To continue pinging the host until stopped, use the -t option.
498.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
499.
Ans.
Exp.
Which version of Windows Vista does not include offline folder capabilities?
Home Premium
The two biggest modifications to offline folders in Windows Vista are the
inclusion of the Sync Center and the restriction of offline file support to the
Business, Enterprise, and Ultimate versions.
Und.
500.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which option is used with PING to specify a buffer size other than the default?
l
To specify a buffer size to be used with PING, use the -l option.
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501.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
502.
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Exp.
Und.
503.
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Und.
504.
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Exp.
Which Control Panel applet is used to set the keyboard language layout in
Windows Vista?
Regional and Language Options
The Regional and Language Options is used in Windows Vista (and XP). In
Windows 2000, the applet was Regional Options.
Und.
505.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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Which of the following is the most common error in Windows, and it happens
when a program accesses memory another program is using or when a
program accesses a memory address that doesnt exist?
General protection fault
A general protection fault is the most common error in Windows. It happens
when a program accesses memory that another program is using or when a
program accesses a memory address that doesnt exist. Generally, GPFs are
the result of sloppy programming; they can often be fixed by clearing the
memory with a reboot.
Und.
507.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
508.
Ans.
Exp.
Which Control Panel applet is used to configure how Windows files are
searched?
Indexing Options
The Indexing Options applet is used to configure how Windows files are
searched.
Und.
509.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
510.
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Und.
511.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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512.
Ans.
Und.
Exp.
513.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
514.
Ans.
You have an application open in Windows 2000 that is not responding. Which
of the utilities can you use to forcibly close the nonresponsive application?
Task Manager will show you a list of running processes and applications and
allow you to close applications that are not responsive (or even ones that are
running normally).Installing and upgrading windows 7
Und.
515.
Ans.
Exp.
Which utility can you use to prepare a USB storage device so that you can
boot from it to install Windows 7 on a laptop computer that does not have a
DVD-ROM drive
Diskpart
You can use the Diskpart utility to prepare a USB storage device so you can
boot from it to install Windows 7.
Und.
516.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to deploy a new computer for software compatibility testing. This
computer needs to be able to boot into the Windows 7, Windows XP, and
Windows Vista operating systems. In which order should you install the
operating systems to meet this objective without having to edit boot entries
using Bcdedit?
Windows XP, Windows Vista, and then Windows 7.
You need to install Windows XP first, Windows Vista, and then Windows 7
because that is the order that Microsoft released them. This allows you to boot
among the three operating systems.
Und.
517.
Which versions and editions of Windows 7 can you install to take advantage of
the hardware resources on a computer that has 16 GB of RAM?
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518.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
519.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
520.
Ans.
Und.
521.
Ans.
Exp.
A user has a home computer with a cable Internet connection and no other
computers on his home network. Which methods can this person use to
upgrade from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate?
Windows Anytime Upgrade
A user can utilize Windows Anytime Upgrade with a home Internet connection
to upgrade from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate.
Und.
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522.
Ans.
Exp.
Which utilities can you use to transfer user encryption certificates from a
computer running Windows XP Professional to Windows 7 Professional?
Windows Easy Transfer , USMT
USMT can be used to transfer user encryption certificates from a computer
running Windows XP Professional to a computer running Windows 7
Professional. Windows Easy Transfer can be used to transfer user encryption
certificates from a computer running Windows XP Professional to a computer
running Windows 7 Professional.
Und.
523.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
Which must you download from Microsoft's Web site to obtain USMT 4.0?
WAIK
The WAIK contains USMT 4.0.
524.
You have a laptop computer that does not have a DVD-ROM drive. There are
no computers running Windows Server 2008 in your network environment. You
do not have access to Windows PE.
USB storage device. You can install Windows 7 using a USB storage device.
Windows PE is required to perform an installation from a network share.
You want to perform a fresh installation of Windows 7 on 10 laptop computers
that do not have DVD-ROM drives. You want to use a shared folder on your
network as an installation source. You plan to boot the laptop computers from
a USB storage device.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
525.
Ans.
Exp.
Which editions of Windows 7, when installed normally to a hard disk, can you
dual-boot with an installation of Windows 7 on a virtual hard disk (VHD) file?
Windows 7 Enterprise, Windows 7 Ultimate to dual-boot between a traditional
Windows 7 install and a VHD install, you need Windows 7 Enterprise and
Windows 7 Ultimate as the traditional installation.
You have a large number of desktop computers in your organization that have
Windows XP Professional installed. Each computer has multiple disk drives.
You want to perform a gradual migration to Windows 7 Professional, but you
still want to allow users to access older applications in Windows XP.
Und.
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526.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the steps should you take to enable these computers to support
dual-boot with the Windows 7 operating system?
Use Diskpart to shrink the existing volume. Install Windows 7 on the new
volume., Create a new volume using Diskpart.
You can use the Diskpart utility included with Windows Vista to shrink the
existing volume, allowing you to create a new volume on which you can install
Windows 7. You need at least two volumes to dual-boot between Windows 7
and Windows Vista.
Und.
527.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
528.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
529.
Ans.
Exp.
You have a group of computers running Windows Vista RTM. All computers are
members of a Windows Server 2008 domain. You want to upgrade these
computers to Windows 7. Which steps should you take on each of these
computers prior to attempting the upgrade?
Install Windows Vista SP1.
Only Windows Vista computers that are running Service Pack 1 or later can be
upgraded to Windows 7.
Und.
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You want to upgrade a computer running the x64 version of Windows Vista
Enterprise SP1 to Windows 7. To which of the following Windows 7 versions
and editions can you upgrade?
Windows 7 Ultimate x64, Windows 7 Enterprise x64
You can only upgrade a computer running Windows Vista Enterprise x64 to an
equivalent or better x64 edition of Windows 7.
Und.
531.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
532.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
533.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following installation sources can you use to perform an upgrade
of a computer running Windows Vista to the Windows 7 operating system?
Network share A DVD-ROM A USB storage device
Direct upgrades from Windows Vista to Windows 7 need to be initiated from
within Windows 7. You can start a direct upgrade from a USB storage device,
network share, or DVD-ROM. A user at your organization has purchased a
laptop that has Windows 7 Home Premium installed on it. The user wants to
protect their data using BitLocker and Bit Locker To Go.
Und.
534.
Ans.
Exp.
535.
Which edition of Windows 7 should you upgrade to allow the user to meet this
objective?
Windows 7 Ultimate
Windows 7 Ultimate and Windows 7 Enterprise are the only SKUs of Windows 7
that support Bit Locker and Bit Locker To Go.
Your organization has 50 computers running Windows Vista Enterprise x86
deployed. You recently upgraded the RAM in all these computers from 2 GB to
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Exp.
8 GB. You want to ensure that all 8 GB are usable when you deploy Windows 7
on the same hardware. Which of the following plans should you implement?
Migrate the computers to Windows 7 Enterprise x64.
Only an x64 edition of Windows 7 can address 8 GB of RAM. It is not possible
to upgrade from an x86 version of Windows Vista to an x64 version of
Windows 7. It is necessary to migrate to Windows 7 Enterprise x64 to satisfy
the question requirements.
Your organization has 50 computers running Windows XP Professional (x64)
that you want to replace with 50 computers running Windows 7 Enterprise
(x64).
Und.
536.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to automate the process of migrating
user profile data from the original computers to the replacement computers?
The User State Migration Tool (USMT) 4
USMT 4 and later can be used to automate the transfer user profile data from
computers running Windows XP Professional (x64) to Windows 7 Enterprise
(x64).
Und.
537.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
538.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
539.
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Und.
540.
Ans.
Exp.
Which methods can you use to deploy a customized Windows 7 image to 100
computers on your network while meeting three objectives: minimizing the
time to perform the installation, minimizing network traffic, and minimizing
the amount of physical resources required?
Install Windows 7 from a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
Windows 7 can be deployed to 100 computers using WDS. WDS allows you to
employ multicast transmissions, meaning that the operating system image
needs to be transferred across the network only once.
Installing with a DVD-ROM method would either require you to use multiple
DVD-ROMs to match the speed of a WDS multicast transmission, violating the
requirement to minimize physical resources, or it would take significantly
longer than a WDS deployment if you used only a couple of DVD-ROMs.
Und.
541.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
542.
Ans.
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543.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to deploy customized Windows 7
images automatically to client computers in your organization that have
Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)-compliant network adapters? (Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A Windows Deployment Services (WDS). System Center Configuration
Manager 2007
You can use System Center Configuration Manager 2007 and WDS to deploy
customized Windows 7 images automatically to client computers in your
organization that have PXE-compliant network adapters.
Und.
544.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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545.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
546.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following methods can you use to display the properties of a LAN
connection
In the Network And Sharing Center, click Change Adapter Settings. Doubleclick the LAN connection. In the Local Area Connection Status dialog box, click
Properties.
In the Network And Sharing Center, click Change Adapter Settings. Right-click
the LAN connection and choose Properties.
In the Network And Sharing Center, click Change Adapter Settings. Right-click
the LAN connection and choose Status. In the Local Area Connection Status
dialog box, click Properties.
This procedure accesses the Local Area Connections Properties dialog box.
This is an alternative method of accessing the Local Area Connections
Properties dialog box. Double-clicking the LAN connection opens the Local
Area Connection Status dialog box. Clicking Properties accesses the Local Area
Connections Properties dialog box.
Und.
547.
You are examining a DNS forward lookup zone to investigate problems with
name resolution. What type of resource record enables DNS to resolve a host
name to an IPv6 address?
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AAAA
An AAAA (quad-A) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address
548.
You want to ensure that only certain designated wireless laptops can connect
to your network. What do you need to enable?
MAC address control
The MAC address is unique to an interface and does not change. MAC ensures
that only computers whose wireless interfaces have one of the listed MAC
addresses can access a wireless network. Be aware that if a new computer
needs to access the network, or if you replace the wireless adapter in a
computer, you need to register the new MAC address in the WAP.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
549.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
550.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following commands, when used to set the Internet Protocol (IP)
address of a computer running Windows 7, will NOT lead to network
connectivity problems?
Netsh interface ipv4 set address name="Local Area Connection" static
172.16.47.24 255.255.192.0 172.16.0.1
Only the setting consisting of IP address 172.16.47.24, subnet mask
255.255.192.0, and default gateway of 172.16.0.1 has the host address and
the default gateway on the same network.
Und.
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Und.
552.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following command-line utilities can you use to display a copy of
the IPv4 and IPv6 routing tables on a computer running Windows 7?
Netstat
The command netstat -r can be used to display the IPv4 and IPv6 routing
tables of a computer running Windows 7. Your computer running Windows 7
has two network interfaces.
Und.
553.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the commands can you use to determine which IPv4 address is
assigned to each specific interface?
Ipconfig
You can use the Ipconfig utility to display Internet Protocol (IP) address
information, such as which IP address is associated with a specific interface.
You execute the Ipconfig command on a computer that runs Windows 7
Enterprise. You get the results shown in the exhibit.
Und.
554.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the commands would you execute to verify that the computer has
connectivity with the local area network?
ping 192.168.15.1
You can verify network connectivity by using the Ping command to probe the
default gateway address. If you get a response, your computer is connected to
the network. If you do not get a response, your computer has connectivity
problems.
Und.
555.
All of the client computers in your organization run Windows 7. You allow
employees to connect to their computers running Windows 7 remotely
through a Terminal Services Gateway Server on the perimeter network. As a
security measure, you want to limit these incoming remote desktop
connections to computers running Windows Vista and Windows 7. Which of
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Exp.
the following settings should you configure on the Remote tab of each
computer running Windows 7 to meet this goal?
Remote Desktop: Allow Connections Only From Computers Running Remote
Desktop With Network Level Authentication.
You should enable the Remote Desktop: Allow Connections Only From
Computers Running Remote Desktop With Network Level Authentication
setting. This will limit remote desktop connections to computers running
Windows Vista and Windows 7.
Und.
556.
Ans.
Und.
557.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to allow users to connect to their computers using Remote Desktop
without making them members of the local Administrators group. So which of
the following local groups should you add the user accounts to which you want
to grant this access?
Remote Desktop Users
You work for Fabrikam's Denmark subsidiary. The Denmark head office is
located in Copenhagen. There are branch offices in the towns of Billund and
Odense, which are connected to the Copenhagen office by a high-speed wide
area network (WAN). All users in your organization have computers running
Windows 7. Due to budget cuts, support staff is available only at the branch
office locations, two days per week. Help desk calls are routed to the
Copenhagen office at all other times. You need to be able to provide guidance
regularly to users in the branch offices to help them with complex tasks using
a complex in-house application. Which of the following operating system
components could you use to provide this help when talking users through
these tasks over the phone?
Remote Assistance
Remote Assistance allows you to see a user's screen when talking him through
complex tasks on his computer over the telephone, so it is the best option.
Und.
558.
Ans.
Router connects through an internal cellular modem to the Internet. You want
to allow your friend, who is visiting with her laptop, to connect to the Internet.
Both laptop computers are running Windows 7 and have wireless network
adapters. Which of the following items should you select on the Set Up A
Connection Or Network wizard on your laptop computer so that you can share
your Internet connection with your friend?
Set Up A Wireless Ad Hoc Network
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You should choose the Set Up A Wireless Ad Hoc Network item. This allows you
to set up an ad hoc wireless network through which you can share your
Internet connection.
Und.
559.
Ans.
Exp.
You have a laptop computer that has Windows 7 installed. The wireless
networks in one of the buildings you work in are configured not to broadcast
their SSIDs. Which of the following options in the Set Up A Connection Or
Network wizard can you use to connect your laptop computer's wireless
adapter to the hidden wireless network?
Manually Connect To A Wireless Network
Because a network that does not broadcast its SSID will not be automatically
detected by a computer running Windows 7, you will need to use the Manually
Connect To A Wireless Network option of the Set Up A Connection Or Network
wizard to enter the hidden network's SSID to make a connection.
Und.
560.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
561.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following Advanced Sharing Settings option should you configure
to ensure that shared resources on a client running Windows 7 are visible to
all other computers in the Home Group?
Network Discovery
Network Discovery allows the client to find other computers on the network. It
also allows other computers on the network to view resources shared by the
client.
Und.
562.
Ans.
You have used Runas with the /savecred option to save the credentials of an
administrator account on a client running Windows 7. You have finished
performing the tasks that you needed to and now want to remove those
credentials from the computer. Which of the following tools could you use to
do this?
Credential Manager
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You can use the Credential Manager to remove credentials saved using the
Runas command.
Und.
563.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to ensure that users are forcibly logged off from their computers
running Windows 7 if they remove their smart cards. Which of the following
policies and settings should you configure to accomplish this goal?
Interactive Logon: Require Smart Card: Enabled , Interactive Logon: Smart
Card Removal Behavior Properties: Force Logoff
You should configure the Interactive Logon: Smart Card Removal Behavior
Properties: Force Logoff policy setting because you want users logged off
when they remove their smart cards. You should configure the Interactive
Logon: Require Smart Card: Enabled policy because this requires users to log
on using a smart card.
Und.
564.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
565.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
566.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to configure a group of clients
running Windows 7 to use BranchCache in peer caching mode
Netsh , Local Group Policy Editor
You can use Netsh in the BranchCache context and the Local Group Policy
Editor to configure BranchCache on a client running Windows 7.
Und.
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567.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
568.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to configure administrator accounts
to always be prompted for credentials at a User Account Control (UAC) prompt
on a stand-alone computer running Windows 7 Enterprise?
Gpedit.msc , Secpol.msc
You can use Secpol.msc and Gpedit.msc to modify the UAC-related Group
Policies on a computer running Windows 7 Enterprise.
Und.
569.
Ans.
Exp.
A friend has brought you a computer running Windows 7 Ultimate. The friend
has local access but is unable to install software. Which of the following User
Account Control (UAC) policies should you change to resolve this problem?
User Account Control: Detect Application Installations And Prompt For
Elevation
You should configure the User Account Control: Detect Application Installations
And Prompt For Elevation policy. This policy, if disabled, will block the
installation of applications because access to elevation will be impossible.
Und.
570.
Ans.
Exp.
You are at home, connected to your home network. When you open the
Homegroup item in Control Panel, you see the message displayed in the
exhibit. Which of the following steps can you take to resolve this issue?
Use the Network And Sharing Center to change your current active network to
the Home network location.
You should set your current active network to the Home network location. You
can connect to a homegroup only when your computer is connected to a
network that has the Home network location.
Und.
571.
You want to allow users in your homegroup to be able to access a color laser
printer that is connected directly to a computer on which you have installed
Windows 7. You travel with your computer and you do not want to make
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Ans.
Und.
572.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
573.
Ans.
Exp.
You consult for a small business that uses eight computers running Windows 7
Professional in a workgroup. One user logs on to a large number of Web-based
invoicing systems. That user is being given a new computer but is reluctant to
switch computers because she is concerned that she may have forgotten
several of the user names and passwords to these Web sites, which are stored
on her current computer. What tool can you use to transfer these Web site
user names and passwords from the existing computer to the new computer?
Credential Manager
The Windows 7 Credential Manager stores user name and password data for
Web sites and other resources. You can back up the Credential Manager vault
and restore it on another computer as a way of transferring Web site user
name and password data
Und.
574.
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Ans.
Exp.
passwords to new ones as part of a new security procedure. What steps can
you take to update the stored passwords on your computer running Windows
7?
Edit the password settings in Credential Manager.
You can edit user name and password settings for remote computers using
Credential Manager.
Und.
575.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following BitLocker policies should you configure to ensure that
BitLocker To Go Reader is available on all FAT-formatted removable devices
protected with BitLocker?
Allow Access To BitLocker-Protected Removable Data Drives From Earlier
Versions Of Windows
The Allow Access To BitLocker-Protected Removable Data Drives From Earlier
Versions Of Windows policy allows you to ensure that BitLocker To Go Reader
is available on all FAT-formatted removable devices protected with BitLocker.
Und.
576. Kim Akers has set the file Brisbane.doc (which is hosted on an office file
server) to be available offline using her portable computer running Windows 7.
Kim goes home for the weekend and works on Brisbane.doc. Same Abolrous
comes into the office on the weekend and works on the copy of Brisbane.doc
stored on the office file server. Which of the following tools can Kim use to
resolve the conflict that occurs when she connects her computer to the office
network?
Ans. The Sync Center control panel
Exp. The Sync Center control panel can be used to resolve offline file sync conflicts.
Und.
577.
Ans.
Exp.
Your organization's Routing and Remote Access server has Windows Server
2003 R2 installed. Which of the following protocols can you use to connect to
the VPN server?
L2TP/IPsec ,PPTP
PPTP is supported by Routing and Remote Access servers running Windows
Server 2003 R2.. L2TP/IPsec is supported by Routing and Remote Access
servers running Windows Server 2003 R2.
Und.
578.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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Und.
580.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following VPN types support the VPN reconnect feature of
Windows 7?
IKEv2
The IKEv2 VPN type is the only VPN type that supports the VPN reconnect
feature in Windows 7.
Und.
581.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to enable BitLocker on several laptop computers that have Windows
7 installed but that do not have Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chips. Which of
the following must you do before you can use a universal serial bus (USB)
storage device as a startup key
Configure the Require Additional Authentication At Startup Group Policy.
To enable BitLocker on computers running Windows 7 that do not have TPM
chips, you need to configure the Require Additional Authentication At Startup
Group Policy. This policy allows you to use a USB storage key instead of a TPM
chip.
Und.
582.
Ans.
Exp.
Last week, a manager at the company you work for left his laptop computer,
which has Windows 7 Enterprise installed, on a train. The manager was able to
recover the laptop, but the event got the CIO thinking about the security of
data on portable computers. Which of the following technologies could you
deploy to the laptop computers running Windows 7 Enterprise in your
organization to ensure that unauthorized third parties would be unable to
recover any data or boot the computer into Windows if they found the
computer?
BitLocker
BitLocker allows you to encrypt the entire hard drive and to require that a
personal identification number (PIN) be entered before the computer boots
into Windows.
Und.
583.
You recently started work at Contoso, Ltd, as the manager of client computing.
You have learned that your predecessor used employee birthdates as the
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) startup personal identification number (PIN) for
computers on which BitLocker was deployed. Because this policy has become
common knowledge, the security measure has become less effective. You
want to change this so that future computers require a TPM PIN of 12 digits or
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Exp.
greater. Which of the following strategies could you pursue to accomplish this
goal?
Configure the Minimum PIN Length For Startup Policy Group Policy.
You should configure the Minimum PIN Length For Startup Policy Group Policy.
This will allow you to specify a minimum TPM PIN length for all new
deployments of BitLocker but will not change the PIN length for existing
BitLocker deployments.
Und.
Exp.
you can configure a computer to require both a TPM PIN and a specially
configured USB flash drive using the Manage-bde command-line tool.
Und.
Und.
584.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
585.
Ans.
You are configuring a virtual private network (VPN) connection as shown in the
exhibit. This VPN should support the VPN Reconnect feature of Windows 7.
Which of the following types of VPN should you select to support this feature
IKEv2
Exp.
Und.
586.
Ans.
Exp.
587.
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Exp.
installation install soon after these computers start up again. Which of the
following policies should you configure to accomplish this goa
Reschedule Automatic Updates Scheduled Installations
You should configure the Reschedule Automatic Updates Scheduled
Installations policy because it allows you to configure a computer that is
switched off during the scheduled update period to install updates after it is
turned on.
Und.
588.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following policies should you configure if you want a client
running Windows 7 to use a WSUS server located at updates.contoso.internal
as a source of updates rather than the Microsoft Update servers?
Specify Intranet Microsoft Update Service Location
You should configure the Specify Intranet Microsoft Update Service Location
policy because it allows you to specify a local WSUS server for updates.
Und.
589.
Ans.
Exp.
You require fault tolerance for your operating system so that your computer
running Windows 7 Home Premium can still boot up if a disk fails. You have
two disks and unallocated space on your second disk. What do you do?
Create a RAID-1 volume
You can use a RAID-1 volume to mirror the disk that holds your operating
system and provide fault tolerance.
Und.
590.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to prohibit read, write, and execute access to all types of external
storage devices. What computer policy setting do you enable?
All Removable Storage Classes: Deny All Access
Enabling this policy denies all access to all types of external storage devices.
It overrides any access rights granted by other policies.
Und.
591.
Ans.
Exp.
You are moving a dynamic volume from the Canberra computer running
Windows 7 to the Aberdeen computer running Windows 7. The disk had been
allocated drive letter H: on Canberra. Drives C:, D:, and E: already exist on
Aberdeen. You have not configured Aberdeen to prevent new volumes from
being added to the system. What drive letter is allocated to the disk on
Aberdeen?
H:
When moved to a new computer, dynamic volumes retain the drive letter they
had on the previous computer, in this case H:.
Und.
592.
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Exp.
you recently installed but you have forgotten exactly when you did this. Which
tool or feature would you use to determine when the application was
installed?
Reliability Monitor
Reliability Monitor tracks application installations. It enables you to determine
whether what applications have been installed and exactly when the
installations occurred.
Und.
593.
Ans.
Und.
594.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
595.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
596.
Ans.
Exp.
Which tool provided by Windows 7 helps you determine which applications are
responsible for activity on your hard disk, including which files and folders are
being accessed?
Resource Monitor
The Resource Monitor tool, provided as part of Windows 7, helps you
determine which applications are responsible for activity on your hard disk,
including which files and folders are being accessed.
Und.
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Ans.
Exp.
Und.
598.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
599.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
600.
Ans.
Exp.
Several months ago, Microsoft released a software update that conflicted with
custom software installed on several of your organization's computers running
Windows 7. At the time, you declined the update. The vendors who developed
the custom software now have published a fix. You have sent this fix to all the
computers with the custom software installed, and now you want to install the
declined update. Which of the following items should you select in the
Windows Update section of Control Panel to accomplish this goal?
Restore Hidden Updates
You can use the Restore Hidden Updates function to view and install updates
that you have previously declined to install.
Und.
601.
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Ans.
Exp.
602.
Ans.
Exp.
installed. When salespeople are traveling, they connect to the Internet either
through the cellular modem card or through a hotel Internet connection. You
want them to minimize the amount of data transmitted over the cellular
modem card as a way of minimizing costs, but you also want to keep these
computers as up to date as possible. You enable the Allow Standard Users To
Install Updates On This Computer option. Given this information, which
options should you choose for the Important Updates in Windows Update
setting?
Check For Updates But Let Me Choose Whether To Download And Install Them
You should choose the Check For Updates But Let Me Choose Whether To
Download And Install Them option. This will allow salespeople to download
and install updates when connected to a hotel Internet connection, but it will
not force the download when they are connected to their cellular connection
You have just added two Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) hard disk
drives to a desktop computer running Windows 7 Enterprise. Which of the
following tools can you use to create a spanned NTFS volume using these
drives
Diskpart
Diskpart can be used to create spanned volumes and format them with the
NTFS file system.
Und.
603.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
604.
Ans.
Exp.
You are responsible for managing laptop computers at Contoso, Ltd. You want
to ensure that users are notified if there is a problem with the network firewall,
antivirus software, anti-spyware, or Windows Update on their computers
running Windows 7. Which of the following Control Panel items should you use
to configure notification settings for these critical components?
Action Center
Configuring settings using the Action Center item in Control Panel allows you
to specify which components Windows 7 will check for problems. If problems
are found, Action Center will notify you.
Und.
605.
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Exp.
currently running program on the computer is causing this disk activity and
which files and folders are being accessed?
Ans:A Resource Monitor, Process Explorer
You can use both Process Explorer, which is a tool available from the Microsoft
Windows Sysinternals site, and the Resource Monitor to determine which
applications are responsible for activity on the hard disk, including which files
and folders are being accessed.
Und.
606.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to be able to determine whether any one of seven specific types of
events, spread over the System and Security logs, has occurred on a
computer running Windows 7 when you open Event Viewer. Which of the
following should you configure to accomplish this goal?
Configure a custom view.
You should create a custom view. Custom views are persistent, which means
you can access them whenever you open Event Viewer.
Und.
607.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following items in the Advanced Tools section of the Performance
Information And Tools item of Control Panel allows you to view details of
software and hardware problems affecting Microsoft Windows performance?
View Performance Details In Event Log
The View Performance Details In Event Log item provides a list of all
performance-related problems that have been recorded in the event log. This
can help you diagnose which software and hardware components are causing
Windows 7 performance issues.
Und.
608.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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609.
Exp.
Which of the following tools can you use to start and stop services on a
computer running Windows 7 without rebooting the computer?
Services.msc , Task Manager
You can use the Services console (Services.msc) to start and stop services
without rebooting the computer. You can use Task Manager to start and stop
services without rebooting the computer
Und.
610.
Ans.
In which area should you click the Settings button in the following exhibit to
change the properties of the Windows 7 page file?
You can modify the page file setting by adjusting the virtual memory settings.
This can be done by clicking Settings in the Performance area
Und.
611.
Ans.
Exp.
A user on your company network creates a new file and works on it during the
day. He saves the file but decides he no longer needs it and deletes it just
before the office closes. Overnight, a file and folder backup takes place. The
next morning, the user decides he needs the file after all. He calls you for
help. What action can you take?
Ask the user to open his Recycle Bin.
The overnight backup makes no changes to the Recycle Bin. The file was
deleted the previous evening, so it is in the Recycle Bin.
Und.
612.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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613.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
614.
Exp.
Und.
615.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
616.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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617.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
618.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to create a full system image backup using Backup And Restore.
Which of the following locations can you use as a backup destination for a
system image?
A Internal hard disk drive
External hard disk drive
Network location
You can use the Backup And Restore utility to write a system image backup to
an internal hard disk drive, an external hard disk drive, and a network
location.
Und.
619.
Ans.
Exp.
You are making a system image using Backup And Restore of a computer
running Windows 7 Enterprise. What format will the Backup And Restore utility
write this backup in?
VHD format
The Backup And Restore utility in Windows 7 Enterprise writes system image
backups in Virtual Hard Disk (VHD) format. This allows you to mount a backup
in the Disk Management console or using the Diskpart utility.
Und.
620.
Ans.
Exp.
You want to allow Kim Akers to use the Backup and Restore utility to back up
her computer. Her computer has Windows 7 Enterprise installed. Which of the
following local groups should you add Kim's user account to without granting
her unnecessary privileges?
Backup Operators
You should add Kim's user account to the Backup Operators group. Members
of the Backup Operators group are allowed to back up the computer.
Und.
621.
Exp.
Which types of data can you select to back up using the Backup And Restore
utility in Windows 7 Ultimate if you choose not to include a system image?
Windows Internet Explorer favorites
Custom libraries
Documents library
You can use Backup And Restore to select several types of data files, including
Internet Explorer favorites, all normal libraries (Documents, Music, Pictures,
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622.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
623.
Exp.
You work as a tester with a group of developers who create custom software
and hardware for scientific laboratories. You have just installed an application
and driver software for a new product that your company is prototyping. After
you install the software, the computer reboots but experiences a STOP error
before you reach the Windows 7 logon screen. You reboot and press F8. Which
of the following startup options could you select so that you can uninstall the
application and driver software?
Last Known Good Configuration
Safe Mode
The Last Known Good Configuration allows you to boot into Microsoft Windows
using its last known working configuration. Because the failure occurred after
you installed the application and drivers and you have not yet performed a
successful logon, the last known good configuration should help you resolve
this issue.
Safe Mode may also help you resolve the issue described in the question
because it loads a minimal set of drivers.
Und.
624.
restore
Exp.
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625.
Exp.
A computer running Windows 7 will not boot into Microsoft Windows and you
cannot access the Launch Startup Repair option. You have a system image
stored on a removable hard disk drive that was taken last week. Which
troubleshooting strategies should you pursue first?
A Boot off the Windows 7 installation media.
Select Repair Your Computer.
Select the option to use recovery tools.
You should attempt to use the recovery tools first. These tools automatically
fix common problems that stop computers running Windows 7 from booting
Und.
626.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
627.
Ans.
Und.
628.
Ans.
An important file that Ian has been working on has become corrupt in the last
few hours. Ian has not performed a backup for several days. Ian's computer is
running Windows 7 Ultimate. System protection is enabled for all volumes on
Ian's computer. How can Ian recover the most recent version of the file that
has become corrupt?
Use Restore Previous Versions.
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Restore Previous Versions allows you to restore earlier versions of your files
that were created as a part of the System Restore process. These previous
versions are called shadow copies.
Und.
629.
Ans.
Exp.
A user calls you on the phone. She deleted a file and emptied the Recycle Bin
before she realized that she had deleted the wrong file. The accidentally
deleted file is one that she had been steadily modifying over the last week.
Her computer is configured to back up its files once a week, and the last such
backup was six days ago. System Restore is enabled on the computer. A
system image was created a month ago. Which methods can you use to
recover the lost file?
Use Restore Previous Versions to restore the folder hosting the file that was
deleted.
Although you will not be able to recover the file itself if it is deleted using the
Restore Previous Versions function, you can restore the folder that hosted the
file, which will restore the folder and its contents. If there are other files in the
folder that might have changed since the last system restore point was
created, you could copy those out of the folder and then copy them back once
the restore is complete.
Und.
630.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
NETWORK ESSENTIALS
631.
You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want
client computers to automatically obtain IP configuration information. Which
type of server do you need for this?
Ans. DHCP
Exp. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration
information to hosts when they join the network. A Domain Name System
(DNS) server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A domain controller may
provide login authentication, but it does not provide IP configuration
information. There is no IP configuration server.
Und.
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You have a computer with the IP address 171.226.18.1. What class is this
address?
Class B
Class A addresses have a first octet between 1 and 126, Class B between 128
and 191, and class C between 192 and 223. With a first octet of 171, this is a
Class B address.
Und.
633.
Ans.
Exp.
Which IEEE 802 standard defines a bus topology using coaxial baseband cable
and is able to transmit at 10Mbps?
802.3
The IEEE 802.3 standard specifies the use of a bus topology, typically using
coaxial base band cable, and can transmit data up to 10Mbps.
Und.
634.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following wireless IEEE standards operate on the 2.4GHz radio
frequency and are directly compatible with each other?
802.11b 802.11g
Both 802.11b and 802.11g operate in the 2.4GHz range and use similar
transmission standards. Many devices on the market are listed as 802.11b/g,
meaning they will work with either system. Alternatively, 802.11a operates in
the 5GHz range. Finally, 802.11d is not a commonly implemented standard.
Und.
635.
Ans.
Exp.
Which OSI layer signals "all clear" by making sure the data segments are error
free?
Transport layer
It is the responsibility of the Transport layer to signal an "all clear" by making
sure the data segments are error free. It also controls the data flow and
troubleshoots any problems with transmitting or receiving data frames.
Und.
636.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
637.
Which type of media access method used by NICs that listen to or sense the
cable to check for traffic and send only when they hear that no one else is
transmitting
CSMA/CD
CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) specifies
that the NIC pause before transmitting a packet to ensure that the line is not
Ans.
Exp.
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638.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
639.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
640.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
641.
Ans.
Exp.
Of all network cabling options, which offers the longest possible segment
length?
Fiber-optic
Fiber-optic cable can span distances of several kilometers, because it has
much lower crosstalk and interference in comparison to copper cables.
Und.
642.
Ans.
Exp.
What devices transfer packets across multiple networks and use tables to
store network addresses to determine the best destination?
Routers
Routers are designed to route (transfer) packets across networks. They are
able to do this routing, and determine the best path to take, based on internal
routing tables they maintain.
Und.
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643.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
644.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
645.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
646.
Ans.
Exp.
What is a type of network where all of the computers appear to be on the local
network even if they are physically located in a remote location?
A VPN
A virtual private network (VPN) is one where all computers appear to be on
the local LAN even if they are not. VPNs are useful for remote access as well
as if you have networks in multiple locations.
Und.
647.
Ans.
Exp.
What is the most secure wireless encryption standard for 802.11x networks
WPA2
WEP was the original encryption standard developed for WiFi networks, but it
is easily hacked. WPA is an upgrade, but WPA2 is more secure and
incorporates the entire 802.11i standard. SAFER+ is used to encrypt Bluetooth
communications.
Und.
648.
Ans.
Exp.
If you are going to run a network cable in the space above the drop ceiling in
your office, which type of cable should you use?
Plenum
For areas where a cable must be fire retardant, such as in a drop ceiling, you
must run plenum-grade cable. Plenum refers to the coating on the sleeve of
the cable, not the media (copper or fiber) within the cable itself. PVC is the
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649.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
650.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
651.
Ans.
Exp.
To increase security, you decide to use your firewall to block the Telnet
protocol. Which port will you need to block to prevent Telnet from being used?
23
The Telnet protocol uses port 23. If this port is blocked, Telnet cannot be used.
When SSL and HTTP are used together, what does the beginning of a site
address become?
https://
When SSL and HTTP are used together, the beginning of the site address
becomes https://.
Which troubleshooting tool can be used at the command line to see the IP
configuration data given by a DHCP server to a Windows XP workstation?
Ipconfig
The ipfconfig utility can be used at the command line with Windows XP to see
the networking configuration values. Ipfconfig is a Unix-based utility; winipcfg
is a Windows-based utility similar to ifconfig, and there is no Windows hijack
utility.
Und.
652.
Ans.
Exp.
You are administering a system that has been locked down for security
reasons. You notice that among all of the other ports, port 443 and port 80
have been disabled. What services are associated with these ports?
HTTP , HTTPS
Each TCP/IP protocol uses a particular port number. In this case, the HTTP
protocol uses port 80 and HTTPS uses port 443. Telnet uses port 23. FTP
requires two ports (21 and 20) to establish the connection and send data;
most FTP requests result in FTP opening an arbitrary higher-numbered port
(such as 13426) to transfer the data.
Und.
653.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
654.
Ans.
Which tool can be used to test connectivity and see the path taken to reach
another host?
Tracert
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The tracert (trace route) utility can be used to test connectivity and see the
path taken to reach another host. Ping is used to see if another system is
active and reachable. Ipconfig shows your IP configuration information, and
nslookup allows you to verify entries on a DNS server
Und.
655.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
656.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
657.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
658.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
659.
Ans.
Exp.
You are installing a network and will use wired connections. You have a
distance of 80 meters between nodes in some cases. What is the maximum
distance you can run UTP cable?
100 meters
UTP cable can run for a maximum distance of 100 meters. Thinnet coaxial can
run up to 185 meters, and multimode fiber can run up to 400 meters
Und.
660.
Ans.
Exp.
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661.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
662.
Ans.
Exp.
663.
Ans.
Und.
664.
Ans.
Und.
665.
Ans.
Exp.
Which utility is used to view the inbound and outbound TCP/IP connections on
your machine?
Netstat
The netstat utility is used to view TCP/IP connections on your computer.
Nbtstat shows NetBIOS over TCP/IP information. Ipconfig shows your IP
configuration information. Nslookup is a command-line utility that enables you
to verify entries on a DNS server.
Und.
666.
Ans.
Exp.
Und.
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Und.
668.
Ans.
Exp.
Which of the following are examples of ways you can increase the security of
your wireless network?
Enable MAC filtering Change the SSID from the default Use WPA
Enabling MAC filtering only allows specific computers to use the wireless
router. You should disable SSID broadcasts, not enable them, to increase
security. Changing the SSID from the default is always a good idea, and you
should use some sort of wireless security such as WPA or WEP.
Und.
669.
Ans.
Exp.
You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want
client computers to be able to search for and communicate with other
computers by using hostnames. Which type of server will help with this?
DNS
Domain Name System (DNS) server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration
information to hosts when they join the network. A domain controller may
provide login authentication, but it does not provide IP configuration
information.
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