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SBI PO 2015 - Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test


1

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SBI PO 2015 Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test


This Mock Test consists of 100 questions which are spread across 3 sections English Language,
Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning Aptitude. The mock test carries 100 marks and of one hour duration.
There is negative marking of 1/4 marks for each wrong answer.

Pattern of the Mock Test

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Qs. 1 10): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the given questions. Certain
words/phrases are given in bold to help you to locate them
while answering some of the questions.
We should never confuse education with training or the
tools the educators use. Education is no more a computer
or an online class than it is a chalkboard those are simply
tools. Additionally, precious few new and relevant findings
have been added to our insights into the learning process;
much of what many proclaim to be insightful turns out to
be faddish and misguided. What we need for learning to
occur are well-prepared and motivated teachers, students
who are willing and able to learn, and a social system that
values educational attainment. Many might take exception
to these assertions, raising a host of ancillary social,
economic, nutritional, and sociological issues. However,
decades of data from failed public experiments aimed at
mitigating these problems argue to the contrary.
What are we to do? Create a wave of educational
entrepreneurship? Despite all of the hype and media
attention, no one currently knows the best way forward.
We must incentivize educationalists, technologists, and
classroom teachers/professors to experiment and
innovate. Such partnerships should freely explore
alternatives as we seek to define the blended, face-to-face,
and online classrooms of the future. Some approaches will
fail, but that is part of the change process

There will be no one-size-fits-all experience; success will


vary by discipline and educational objectives. Unless
everyone involved in this process is inspired to take risks,
we will not enjoy the full potential these new approaches
represent. Also, we should not forget the extent to which
those who most benefit from the current system will
attempt to hijack this change process for their own
purposes.
With these issues in mind, consider the following vision
of the change process to the classroom of tomorrow a
vision that leverages technology to create a more
personalized learning experience. With the onset of this
vision the professor student relationship will change.
What is not likely to survive is the large class in which
everyone progresses at the same place.
That paradigm will be replaced by a more customized
and collaborative learning process. The reality of a
technology-enabled personalized learning environment is
still evolving. What seems clear is that at its heart is a more
collaborative and partially student-mapped and -paced
process. The function of the professor, aided by
educationalists, will also change.
Studentprofessor collaboration will now determine
both what content can be assigned to drill/practice
methods and how the student demonstrates mastery of
that content. In such cases, timing issues will most likely be
left entirely in the student's hands, while technology

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specialists recommend the best hardware and software


solutions.
Critical thinking/application ideas will involve more
specialized, face-to-face, and interactive online approaches
geared to the real-time needs and progress the student is
making. Thus, the professor with the student's help
will vigilantly mix and blend the learning ingredients to
produce a new learning environment. How this process
plays out in reality will be the result of educational
entrepreneurship, but it will surely entail both successes
and some failures.
The administration and accreditation of education will also
have to change. As more education occurs outside the
bricks and mortar framework and is more centered on the
studentprofessor interaction, the role of all non-teaching
staff will need to be reassessed. As students and faculty
increase their use of technology to personalize their
formal and informal learning, educational technologists
must be on hand to facilitate the effective use of that
technology. Also, the current hierarchical and standardized
outcomes formulas for administration and accreditation of
our colleges and universities are no longer tenable.
Realistically, they are an impediment to the change
needed.
Finally, we must address one of the most serious
challenges facing online education cheating. Simply put,
cheating is rampant, and we are turning a blind eye to the
problem. Presumably tuition revenues and the
convenience of online classes are the primary reasons for
inaction. Cheating threatens the integrity of the
educational process, however, and the value-added of the
degree. Solutions must be found and implemented or all
changes will be for naught.
1. Which of the following is most nearly the same in
meaning as the word given in bold as used in the
passage?
Entail
(1) Limit
(2) Occasion
(3) Involve
(4) Subject
(5) End
2. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for
the passage?
(1) Educating through Technology What the future
can be
(2) Teachers An Obsolete Future
(3) The Hype Around Technology Aided Education
(4) Limitations of Technology

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

(5) Evolution of Technology The Way Forward for


Tech Giants
Which of the following is true according to the author?
(A) The way the colleges are granted certification will
have to change to accommodate the charges in impact
education through technology
(B) With the onset technology enabled education, the
school/ college premises or building will lose its
important slightly
(C) With the onset of the desired level of technology
enabled education, learning will become a joint effort
of students as well as teachers
(1) Only A
(2) Only A, B & C
(3) Only B & C
(4) Only C
(5) Only A & B
Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to
the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Mitigating
(1) Aggravating
(2) Irritating
(3) Annoying
(4) Frustrating
(5) Infuriating
Which of the following is most nearly the same in
meaning in the word given in bold as used in the
passage?
Personalize
(1) Customize
(2) Cause
(3) Sensible
(4) Own
(5) Pressure Probationary
According to the author, which of the following
changes will occur with the onset of the desired level of
technology aided education?
(A) The pace of learning for each student will be
different
(B) The decision of how much time a student needs to
learn will be left to the students disposal
(C) The role of the teacher will change and become one
of being the provider of tailored learning content to the
students
(1) Only C
(2) B and C
(3) Only A
(4) A, B & C
(5) A and C
Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to
the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Impediment
(1) Freedom
(2) Advantage
(3) Extravagance
(4) Luxury
(5) Autonomy

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8.

What does the author mean when he uses the words


will be for naught?
(1) will be in trouble
(2) will face complications
(3) will not be allowed
(4) will come together
(5) will amount to nothing
9. According to the author, which of the following is not
true about cheating?
(1) It is one of the gravest problems faced in education
(2) It undermines the value of the credential obtained
through education
(3) Not much is being done to curtail it at present
(4) It is quite prevalent at present
(5) All of the above
10. According to the author, which of the following should
be done to effectively integrate technology into
education?
(A) Risk taking should be kept to a bare minimum to
mite adverse effects
(B) Innovation amongst stakeholders of education and
technology should be encouraged
(C) We should be alert about people who may not
allow certain changes for their own benefits
(1) Only A & C
(2) Only C
(3) Only B & C
(4) Only A
(5) All the three
Directions (Qs. 11 13): In these questions, four words
are given of which two are most nearly same or opposite in
meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the
same or opposite in meaning and indicate your answer by
making the option which represents the correct letter
combination.
11. A. Tormented
B. Agonised
C. Aroused
D. Removed
(1) A C
(2) A B
(3) A D
(4) C D
(5) B - C
12. A. Striking
B. Unimpressive
C. Striving
D. Unwilling
(1) A C
(2) B D
(3) A B
(4) C D
(5) B - C
13. A. Fathomed
B. Devastated
C. Ruined
D. Abrupt
(1) B D
(2) B C
(3) C D
(4) A C
(5) A D
Directions (Qs. 14 15): Each question below has two
blanks, each blank indicating that something has been

omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best
fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
14. Given that only seven percent of the country's labour
force is in the organised sector, training options
______ for the unorganized sectors should also be
_______.
(1) available, enhanced
(2) absent, improved
(3) lacking, sustained
(4) existing, restricted
(5) offered, limited
15. Indians will______ one-fourth of total work force in
the next five years but India needs to introspect
whether its education system is _________ for these
demographic dividends.
(1) become, adequate
(2) consist, incompetent
(3) constitute, unequipped
(4) represent, sound
(5) comprise, prepared
Directions (Qs. 16 - 25): In the following passage there
are blanks each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the pas-sage and against each,
five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in
each case.
Mobile banking (M banking) involves the use of a mobile
phone or any other mobile device to (16) financial
transaction linked to a client's account. M banking is new
in most countries and most mobile payment models even
in developed countries, to date operate on a (17) scale. A
mobile net-work offers a (18) available technology
platform onto which other services can be provided at
low cost with effective results. For example, M banking
services which use (19) such as SMS can be carried at a
cost of less than one US cent per message. The low cost of
using existing infrastructure makes such services more
(20) to use by customers with lower purchasing power
and opens up access to services which did not reach them
earlier due to (21) cost of service delivery. Al-though M
banking is one aspect in the wider (22) of e-banking
there are reasons to single it out for focus-especially
because there are reasons to single it out for focusespecially because there are a lot more people with
mobile, phones than bank accounts in India.
M banking could provide a (23) solution to bring more
"unbanked" people to the financial mainstream. Without
traditional credit, individuals are (24) to exploitation by
abusive lenders offering very high interest rates on short
term loans also of considerable importance are public
safety implications for the unbanked-they are often
victims of crime because many operate on a cash only
basis and end up carrying significant amounts of cash on
their (25) or store cash in their homes.

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16. (1) disburse

(2) undertake
(4) lure

17.

(2) voluminous
(4) limited

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

(3)subscribe
(5) amass
(1) full
(3) substantial
(5) rapid
(1) readily
(3) routinely
(5) unique
(1) process
(3) deliveries
(5) channels
(1) valuable
(3) amenable
(5) responsible
(1) waning
(3) proportionate
(5) high
(1) archive
(3) purpose
(5) aspect
(1) law abiding
(3) reassuring
(5) stopgap
(1) inclined
(3) vulnerable
(5) pressured
(1) person
(3) relatives
(5) self

(2) tangible
(4) securely
(2) waves
(4) connection
(2) answerable
(4) exposed
(2) stable
(4) marginal
(2) domain
(4) component
(2) tried
(4)cost effective
(2) immune
(4)surrendered
(2) own
(4) purses

Directions (Qs.26 - 30): Rearrange the following six


sentences (A), (B), (C), (13), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph: then answer
the questions given below them.

(A) Expansion of retail banking especially has a lot of


scope, since retail assets are Just 22 percent of the total
banking assets.
(B) Where they do not find it viable to open branches
they may open satellite offices in these areas.
(C) There is tremendous scope for the expansion of
banking in India.
(D) Banks can also diversify beyond cities to semi urban
and rural areas.
(E) In these ways a transition from class banking to mass
banking can take place.
(F) They can also collaborate with local stakeholders in
order to extend microcredit services to those living there.
26. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence
after rearrangement?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
28. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence
after rearrangement?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
29. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST)
sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
30. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (Qs 31 34): What will come in place of
question mark (?) in the following questions?

1
1
31.
of (92)% of 1 of (650) = 85 + ?
6
23
(1) 18
(2) 21
(3) 19
(4) 28
(5) None of these

32. 92 x 576 2

1276 = (?)3 + 49

(1) 3
(2) 92
(3) 9
(4) 27
(5) None of these
33.

1
1
5 (?)2
5
3 + 2 -1 =
+1
4
2
6 10
12
(1) 25
(2) 5
(3) 625
(5) 5

(4) 15

34. (15 x 0.40)4 (1080 30)4 x (27 x 8)4 = (3 x 2)? + 5

(1) 8
(2) 3
(3) 12
(4) 16
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 35 39): What will come in place of
question mark (?) in the following number series?
35. 1 7 49 343 (?)
(1) 16807
(2) 1227
(3) 2058
(4) 2401
(5) None of these
36. 13 20 39 78 145 (?)
(1) 234
(2) 244
(3) 236
(4) 248
(5) None of these
37. 12 35 81 173 357 (?)
(1) 725
(2) 715
(3) 726
(4) 736
(5) None of these

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38. 3 100 297 594 991 (?)

(1) 1489
(2) 1479
(3) 1478
(4) 1498
(5) None of these
39. 112 119 140 175 224 (?)
(1) 277
(2) 276
(3) 287
(4) 266
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 40 44): In the following questions two
equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve
both the equations and give answer:
(1) If x > y
(2) If x > y
(3) If x < y
(4) If x < y
(5) If x = y or the relationship cannot be established
40. I.

1225 x + 4900 = 0

marks in the exam is 34 percent, then how much


more marks did Raman score than the minimum
passing marks?
(1) 184
(2) 186
(3) 190
(4) 180
(5) None of these
49. Smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two third of
the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio
between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6.
Largest angle the triangle is twice its smallest angle.
What is the sum of the second largest angle of the
triangle and largest angle of the quadrilateral?
0
0
(1) 160
(2) 180
0

50.

II. (81)1/4y + (343)1/3 = 0


41. I.

18 6 12 8
+ =
x2 x x2 x2

II. y3 + 9.68 + 5.64 = 16.95


42. I.

(2)5 (11)3 3
=x
6

51.

II. 4y3 = - (589 4) + 5y3


43. I. 12x2 + 11x + 12 = 10x2 + 22x
II. 13y2 18y + 3 = 9y2 10y
44. I. (x7/5 9) = 169 x3/5

II. y1/4 x y1/4 x 7 = 273 + y1/2

45. The cost of five chairs and three tables is Rs. 3110.

Cost of one chair is Rs. 210 less than cost of one


table. What is the cost of two tables and two chairs?
(1) Rs. 1660
(2) Rs. 1860
(3) Rs. 2600
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
46. The respective ratio of present ages of Ram, Rohan
and Raj is 3:4:5. If average of their present ages is 28
year then what would be the sum of the ages of Ram
and Rohan together after 5 year?
(1) 45 yr
(2) 55 yr
(3) 53 yr
(4) 59 yr
(5) None of these
47. The total area of a circle and a rectangle is equal to
166 sq cm. The diameter of circle is 28cm. What is
the sum of the circumference of the circle and the
perimeter of the rectangle if the length of the
rectangle is 25 cm?
(1) 186 cm
(2) 182 cm
(3) 184 cm
(5) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
48. Raman scored 456 marks in an exam and Seeta got
54 percent marks in the same exam which is 24
marks less than Raman. If the minimum passing

52.

53.

54.

55.

(3) 190
(4) 170
(5) None of these
A 320 m long train moving with an average speed of
120 km/h crosses a platform in 24 second. A man
crosses the same platform in 4 min. What is the
speed of man in m/s?
(1) 2.4
(2) 1.5
(3) 1.6
(4) 2.0
(5) None of these
The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain
principal is Rs. 7200 in six years at the rate of 12
p.c.p.a. What would be the compound interest
accrued on that principal at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. in 2
yr?
(1) Rs. 1020
(2) Rs. 1055
(3) Rs. 1050
(4) Rs. 1025
(5) None of these
Sum of square of first number and cube of second
number is 568 together. Also square of the second
number is 15 less than the square of 8. What is the
value of three fifth of the first number? (assuming
both the numbers are positive)
(1) 18
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 16
(5) None of these
The sum of 8 consecutive odd numbers is 656. Also
average of four consecutive even numbers is 87.
What is the sum of the smallest odd number and
second largest even number?
(1) 165
(2) 175
(3) 163
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Seema purchased an item for Rs. 9600 and sold it for
loss of 5 percent. From the money she purchased
another item and sold it for gain of 5 per cent. What
is her overall gain/loss?
(1) Loss Rs. 36
(2) Profit of Rs. 24
(3) Loss of Rs. 54
(4) Profit of Rs. 36
(5) None of these
A huge jar contains 2 liquids A and B in the ratio 3 :
5.When 32 litres of mixture is removed and replaced

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by A, the ratio now becomes 5 : 3. The capacity of the


vessel (in litres) is:
(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 80
(4) 32
(5) 48
Directions (Qs. 56-60): Study the following Pie chart
carefully to answer the questions.
Total Employees = 6500
Percentage distribution of Students in different
newspapers

56. What is the value of half of the difference between the

numbers of employees in The Hindu and The Indian


Express newspapers?
(1) 800
(2) 1600
(3) 1300
(4) 650
(5) None of these
57. How much more percentage (approximately) of
employees are in The Hindu as compared to
employees in Dainik Jagran?
(1) 49
(2) 53
(3) 59
(4) 41
(5) 44
58. What is the total number of employees in Dainik
Jagran, Hindustan Times and The Indian Express
newspaper together?
(1) 2465
(2) 2565
(3) 2405
(4) 2504
(5) None of these
59. What is the respective ratio between the number of
employees in Hindustan Times and the number of
employees in Amar Ujala?
(1) 11:13
(2) 13:6
(3) 13:7
(4) 6: 13

(5) None of these

60. Number of employees in The Times of India is

approximately what percentage of the number of


employees in Dainik Jagran?
(1) 167
(2) 162
(3) 157
(4) 153
(5) 150
Directions (61-65): The following questions are
accompanied by two statements I and II. You have to
determine which statement is/are sufficient to answer
the question. Mark:
(1) If statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
question but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
(2) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
(3) If either statement I or II is independently sufficient to
answer the question.
(4) If neither statement I nor II is sufficient to answer the
question.
(5) If both the statements I and II are together sufficient
to answer the question.
61. What is the perimeter of a semicircle?
I. The radius of the semicircle is equal to the side of a
square.
II. The area of the square is 49 cm2.
62. What is the exact average of a, 15, 19, 22, b and c?
I. a is five more than b.
II. b is ten less than c.
63. What was the percent profit/loss made by selling an
article for Rs. 4000?
I. The ratio between the selling price and the cost
price of the article is 6 : 5 respectively.
II. The difference between the cost price and the
selling price is Rs. 600.
64. What will be the difference between two two-digit
numbers?
I. The sum of the squares of the two numbers is 400.
II. The ratio between the first number and the second
number is 3 : 4 respectively.
65. What is the ratio between two numbers x and y?
I. 75% of x is 30% of 50.
II. 48% of y is 16% of 72.

REASONING APTITUDE
Directions (65-69): Study the following information and
answer the questions given below it:

When a word and number arrangement machine is given


an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them
following a particular rule. The following is an illustration

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of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit


numbers)
Input: 25 93 as hill stamp bolt 45 34 63 total 13 alter rise
Step I: alter 25 93 as hill stamp bolt 45 34 63 total rise 13
Step II: alter as 93 hill stamp bolt 45 34 63 total rise 25 13
Step III: alter as bolt 93 hill stamp 45 63 total rise 34 25 13
Step IV: alter as bolt hill 93 stamp 63 total rise 45 34 25 13
Step V: alter as bolt hill rise 93 stamp total 63 45 34 25 13
Step VI: alter as bolt hill rise stamp total 93 63 45 34 25 13
And Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the
desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the
appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: ropes 12 33 strong 35 19 in blue ample kite 47 77
57
65. What is the position of 47 in Step III?
(1) Fifth from the left end
(2) Seventh from the left end
(3) Sixth from the left end
(4) Sixth from the right end
(5) Seventh from the right end
66. Which of the following is fifth from the left end in Step
V of the above arrangement?
(1) Kite
(2) ropes
(3) strong
(4) 35
(5) None of these
67. What is the position of in in Step IV?
(1) Fourth from the left end
(2) Third from the right end
(3) Second from the left end
(4) Third from the left end
(5) Fifth from the left end
68. Which of the following is the last step of the given
input?
(1) ample blue in kite strong ropes 77 57 47 35 33 19
12
(2) ample blue in kite ropes strong 12 19 33 35 47 57
77
(3) strong ropes kite in blue ample 77 57 47 35 33 19
12
(4) ample blue in kite ropes strong 57 77 47 35 33 19
12
(5) None of the above
69. How many steps are needed to complete this
arrangement?
(1) V
(2) III
(3) IV
(4) VI
(5) None of these

Directions (70 -74): Study the following information and


answer the questions given below it.
Seven representatives of a company Samir, Nita, Richa,
Shweta, Georje, Paul and Mohit travelled to three
different countries, i.e. South Africa, Australia and France.
Each of them travelled on different days of the week (no
two persons travelled on the same day), starting on
Monday and ending on Sunday. Minimum two people
travelled to each country and South Africa is the only
country to which three people travelled.
Samir travelled to South Africa on Monday. Paul travelled
to Australia but neither on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Mohit
travelled on Sunday but not to France. The one who
travelled to Australia travelled on Tuesday and the one
who travelled to France travelled on Saturday. George
travelled on Wednesday, Richa travelled to South Africa
but not on Thursday. Nita did not travel to France.
70. If everyones trip is postponed by one day, who will be
travelling on Wednesday?
(1) Paul
(2) Richa
(3) Nita
(4) George
(5) None of these
71. Who amongst is the seven representatives travelled on
Saturday?
(1) Shweta
(2) Nita
(3) Richa
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
72. Which one of the following combinations is true
according to the given information?
(1) Paul Thursday South Africa
(2) Shweta Wednesday France
(3) Mohit Monday South Africa
(4) Richa Friday Australia
(5) None of the above is true
73. To which country and on which day did Nita travel?
(1) Wednesday, South Africa
(2) Friday, Australia
(3) Thursday, Australia
(4) Tuesday, Australia
(5) None of the above
74. Who was the last one to travel?
(1) Samir
(2) Richa
(3) Mohit
(4) Shweta
(5) None of these
Directions (75-79): Study the following information and
answer the questions given below it
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a circle.
Five of them are facing the centre while two of them facing

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opposite to the centre. C sits third to the left of D and both


are facing the centre. E is neither immediate neighbor of D
nor of C. The one sitting exactly between D and F is facing
opposite to centre. G is facing the centre. One of Bs
neighbor is facing opposite to the centre.
75. Which of the following pairs represents persons facing
opposite to the centre?
(1) A and F
(2) E and F
(3) A and E
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
76. Who is sitting second to the left of A?
(1) C
(2) G
(3) B
(4) D
(5) None of these
77. Who is sitting immediate left of E?
(1) C
(2) G
(3) B
(4) A
(5) None of these
78. What is the position of F with respect to B?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Second to the right
(3) Third to the right
(4) Second to the left
(5) None of these
79. If all the persons are asked to sit in a clockwise
direction in an alphabetical order starting from A, the
position of how many will remain unchanged,
excluding A?
(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) None
(5) Four
Directions (80 81): Study the following information and
answer the given questions.
Point B is 12 m South of point A. Point C is 24 m East of
point B. Point D is 8 m South of point C. Point D is 12 m
East of point E and point F is 8 m North of point E.
80. If a man has to travel to point E from point A (though
these points by the shortest distance), which of the
following points will he pass through first?
(1) Point C
(2) Point D
(3) Point F
(4) Point B
(5) None of these
81. If a man is standing facing North at point C, how far
and in which direction is point F?
(1) 12 m West
(2) 24 m East
(3) 12 m East
(4) 24 m West
(5) None of these

82. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
HORIZONTAL, each of which has as many letters
between them in the word (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in
the English alphabetical series?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (83 85): Study the following information to
answer the given questions.
In a certain code colours of the sky is written as ki la fa
so, rainbow colours is written as ro ki and sky high
rocket is written as la pe jo and the rocket world is
written as pe so ne.
83. Which of the following is the code for colours sky
high?
(1) ro jo la
(2) fa la jo
(3) la ki so
(4) ki jo la
(5) fa ki jo
84. Which of the following will/may represent the?
(1) Only fa
(2) Either fa or la
(3) Only so
(4) Only la
(5) Either so or fa
85. What does pe represent in the code?
(1) colours
(2) Sky
(3) high
(4) rainbow
(5) rocket
Directions (86-90): In these questions, relationships
between different elements are shown in the statements.
These elements are followed by two conclusions:
Mark answer:
(1) Only conclusion I follows
(2) Only conclusion II follows
(3) Either conclusion I or II follows
(4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(5) Both conclusions I and II follow
86. Statement: W > D < M < P < A = F
Conclusions: I. F > D
II. P < W
87. Statement: H > M > F < A = B > S
Conclusions: I. H > B
II. F < S
88. Statement: B > T > Q > R = F
Conclusions: I. Q > F
II. T > F
89. Statements: S = R > Q, P < Q
Conclusions: I. S > P
II. R > P
90. Statements: S > M < Y = Z > F > T
Conclusions: I. S > F
II. Y > T

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Directions (91-95): These questions are based on the


following arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the
questions.
#6BG@IL73HA%DFKE8JQ1VTU2$W
91. If all the numbers are dropped from the above
arrangement which element will be fifth to the left of
eleventh from the left?
(1) I
(2) H
(3) T
(4) F
(5) None of these
92. How many such vowels are there in the above
arrangement each of which is immediately followed by
a symbol and also immediately preceded by a
consonant?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
Directions (Qs. 93 - 95): Each of the following questions
below consists a question and two statements numbered I
and II given below it. You have to decide if the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both statements and: Give answer
(1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer
the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient
to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the question, while the data in statement I alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II
alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not
sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question.
93. How is Joker' written in a code language?
I. Dinesh look Joker' is written as do pi ti'.
II. look Joker now' is written as ti pi ma'.
94. What is the strength of the class?
I. Sachin stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and John
who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.
II. Golu was 9 ranks below Sonu who stood 27th from
the top.
95. How far does Pinky live from the school?
I. Pinky has to cycle 3 km to her friend Mala's house
which is 4 km away from the school.
II. Sita lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 km
to reach Pinky's house.
Directions (Qs. 96-100): In each of the questions below
are given three statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusion and

then decide which of the given conclusions logically


follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
96. Statements: All trees are fruits. All fruits are
vegetables. No vegetable is sweets.
Conclusion: I. No fruit is sweets.
II. All vegetables are fruits.
III. Some sweets are fruits.
IV. No vegetable is tree.
(1) Only I follows
(2) All follow
(3) Only I & IV follow
(4) Only II & III follow
(5) None of these
97. Statements: All fowls are kites. No kite is insects. No
bird is kite.
Conclusions: I. No fowl is insect.
II. No insect is fowl.
III. Some kites are fowl.
IV. No bird is fowl.
(1) All follow(2) Only II, III and IV follow
(3) Only I, II and IV follow
(4) Only II and IV follow
(5) None of these
98. Statements: All mangoes are jackfruits. All apples are
mangoes. Some oranges are apples.
Conclusions: I. No orange is mango
II. All jack fruit are apples.
III. Some oranges are mangoes.
IV. Some mangoes are apples.
(1) All follow
(2) None follows
(3) Only II, III and IV follow (4) Only III and IV follow
(5) None of these
99. Statements: All kings are beggars. All beggars are
labourers. All labourers are peoples.
Conclusions: I. Some people are kings.
II. No labourer is king.
III. All kings are labourers.
IV. All labourers are kings.
(1) Only I & II follow
(2) Only I & IV follow
(3) Only I, II and IV follow (4) All follow
(5) None of these
100. Statements: All artists are painters. All actors are
gentle. All gentle are painters.
Conclusions: I. No artist is actor.
II. All painters are actors.
III. Some gentle are not actors
IV. Some artist are not gentle.
(1) None follow
(2) Either I or III or IV follows
(3) Only II and IV follow
(4) Either I or III and II and IV follow
(5) None of these

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