HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject English
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 80

General Instructions:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
h)
i)

The question paper is divided into four sections :

Section A Reading Comprehension 20 marks
Section B Writing 20 marks
Section C Grammar 10 marks
Section D Literature-Text Books & Long Reading Text 30 marks
All questions are compulsory.
Marks are indicated against each questions.
Adhere to the prescribed word limit.
Write neatly and legibly.
Section -A (Reading)

1.

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

16=6

1. Rajasthan represents the ultimate confluence of history, chivalry romance, rugged

natural beauty, and color. Today, long after the bugle was sounded and the warring
kingdoms of erstwhile Raiputana sheathed their swords, the desert appears romantic.
2. Go to any city or village in Rajasthan, the land of sand dunes and forts, it is common
to see and to listen to an old m an with a hookah tell tales of royal grandeur of
Maharani Pratap and his favourite horse Chetak to his grandchildren. The tales are not
what they are , they are tales that give an outsider an opportunity do delve deeper into
the Rajasthani psyche.
3. Situated in North Western India Rajasthan spans across 3.4 lakhs sq. kms. and has a
population of 5.65 crore of which 23.38% lives in the urban areas and a literacy rate
of 61%. Rajasthan is a treasure trove of minerals, holds a share of about 24% in the
total national production of non metallic minerals. The state contributes around 90%
of the national output of rock phosphate, 100% of natural gypsum and 10% of the
natural limestone. Rajasthan is an archaeologists dream come true with its forts and
palaces, the heritage buildings, but the tourism sector hardly gets the attention it
deserves.
4. To give a fillip to the tourist inflow, the government had thought of coining a brand
name for Rajasthan akin to Kerala's Gods 'own country but nothing much has been
done in this field.It unfortunately has not been able to go that extra mile like Kerala.
Investments in tourism here is a little above 2 crore while the same is about 40 crore
in Kerala.
5. Hospitality is Rajasthan's birth right. The state has over 3500 hotels of all sizes and
shapes. Many hoteliers house their hotels in Jaipur due its proximity to Delhi. On the

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industrial front things have just begun to look up with the government stepping up its
intervention to revive ailing small and medium enterprises and taking new initiatives
in biotech and information technology sectors. Meanwhile the government is
conducting a dialogue with industry and trade representatives to infuse life into them
at a time when the industry is facing the danger of increased competition from abroad
and states like Haryana; Delhi, Punjab and Utter Pradesh. Despite initial problems
Rajasthan is now truly and surely ambling on its way to turn into an IT hub. Even
though Rajasthan has been a slow starter in the high tech arena it is getting support
from many famous companies like Wipro, Patni Computers etc.
6. Jaipur and Jodhpur have emerged as global centers for gems and jeweler. About -95% of the total coloured gems stones are exported from the city. More than the
domestic tourists it is the, foreign tourists who, are the darlings of the jewelers. The
craft sector is witnessing a new breed of entrepreneurs who are integrating their
ventures in tune with global trends.
I.
6
A.
The desert appears romantic because
i) Warring kingdoms have sheathed their swords.
ii) People have faced outrage here.
iii) It is a blend of history, chivalry, romance and beauty.
iv) None of the above.
B.

The tales of Maharana Pratap and Chetak

i) delve deeper into Rajasthani culture.
ii) Are mere tales of bravery
iii) Are about Maharana Pratap and his horse Chetak
iv) Give an insight into Rajasthani mind.

C.

Rajasthan is an archeologists dream come true because

i) 100% of natural gypsum and 10% of the natural limestone
ii) Ad Asia summit was held in Japan in 2004.
iii) It has forts, palaces and heritage buildings.
iv) Tourism sector hardly gets any attention.

Rajasthan has tremendous economic potential because

i) There are a large no. of hotels
ii) It has mineral deposits like rock phosphate, natural gypsum, limestone etc
iii) It has a rich culture
iv) It has a large area spanning 3.4 lakh square km.

E.

What is being done to improve the overall economic health of the state.
i) The govt. proposes to set up many industries.
ii) The C.M. will head an economic development board
iii) The gem industry will be developed
iv) Natural resources will be exploited

F.

Delve in the above passage (Paragraph 2 ) can be replaced by :

i) Discover
ii) Invent
iii) Care across
iv) Search deeply

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II.

Answer the following questions very briefly.

a) What does Rajasthan represent?
b) Which tales are generally told to children in the state?
c) What is Rajasthans birth right?
d) Which cities have emerged as global centers for gems and jeweler?
e) How has the government tried to imitate Kerala as far as tourism is concerned?
f) What advances has Kerala made in the IT sector?

2.

Read the passage given below and then answer the questions which follow:
1. Concern about the effects of television on children has centered exclusively upon the
contents of the programs which children watch. Social scientists and researchers do
complex and ingenious experiments to find out whether watching violent programs
make children behave aggressively. But it is easy to overlook the simple fact that one
is always just watching television when sitting in front of the screen rather than
having any other experience.
2. Parents who are deeply troubled about the effects of television upon their children
have centered their concern on the subject matter of the programmes. A group called
Action for Children's Television (ACT) was formed in the USA not only to reduce the
amount of violence in programmes but also to protest against incessant commercial
breaks which encouraged children to crave for fashionable toys and unhealthy foods.
One of its founders described its aims "....parents have the rights to ask that
programmes aimed at the young should meet the specific needs of children....." But is
it the needs of children which are at stake when parents demand better programmes?
Surely the fact that young children watch so much television reflects the needs of
parents to find a convenient source of amusement for their offspring and a period of
quiet for themselves. Their anxieties about the possible ill effects of those hours of
passive, quiet viewing are lessened if the time spent at least seems to be educational.
3. The real needs of young children are quite different. They need to develop initiative,
and to find out things for themselves; television provides answers too easily. Children
need to acquire fundamental skills of communication; television retards verbal
development because the child is silent while watching it. Television discourages the
sort of games that enable the young to discover their strengths and weaknesses, with
the result that as adults they will be less fulfilled. Their need for fantasy is gratified
far better by their own make-believe activities than by the adult-made fantasies
offered on television. Intellectual stimulation is provided more completely by
manipulating, touching and doing than by passively watching and listening.
4. Oddly enough, the television industry, though often cynical and self-serving in its
exploitation of children, sometimes unknowingly serves their best interests. Because
television offers cheap junk programs, conscientious parents do in fact limit their
children's viewing when such undesirable programs are the only ones available.
Unfortunately, if organizations like ACT succeed in improving the quality of
programs significantly, the, effects on young children will be more harmful because
their permitted viewing time will increase, and no matter how good their content, TV
programmes are always a poor substitute for other activities.

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5. There are a number of fallacies that have misled parents into thinking that the problem
of television will be solved by improving its quality. It is suggested, for example, that
a youngster unfamiliar with TV programmes will find making friends difficult and
will be labeled as an outsider. On the contrary, other children will usually respect their
independence and recognize - even envy - the richness of their alternative activities.
More subtle is the mistaken belief that the experience that children gain from
watching television is the same as the adults watch television, their own past and
present experiences come into play, so that they can test the view of the world
presented on the small screen against their knowledge of real life. But young children
have very few real-life experiences to set against their viewing, so that for them TV is
primary source of experience; their formative years are spent largely in an unreal,
unnatural, second- hand world.
6. It is also universally assumed that TV is an important source of learning. Like an
animated picture book it presents in an easily digested and entertaining way a great
deal of information about the natural world, history, current affairs, other countries
and so on. But the 'knowledge' of today's television-educated, children, spouting
words and ideas they do not fully understand and 'facts' whose accuracy they cannot
judge from their limited experience, cannot compare with the knowledge acquired by
reading or activity. It is then that-children use their minds and their bodies, their
imaginative and reasoning power, to enrich their lives.
7. Only when parents begin to question the nature of television itself and its effects on
their children and on themselves as parents will they begin to realize that it is not the
program but television itself- and especially the good program - which poses the
greater threat to their children's well-being.
a) On the basis of your reading the passage make notes on it using an appropriate format.
Use recognizable abbreviations and give a suitable title answer the questions given
below:

b) Write the summary of the passage in not more than 80 words.

Section -B (Writing)

3.

You are Amit/Amita, member of Cultural Club of your school. Draft a short notice
asking the students of classes 11th and 12th to participate in the declamation contest on
the topic Protection of Environment. (50 Words)

Or
Sumit, a student of class 10th of Sr Model School, Rohini, New Delhi has witnessed a
road accident. He decided to spread the awareness regarding the importance of the
obeying of traffic rules. Design a poster to be put up in your school to make the
students aware of the traffic rules.
4.

Recently you took a ride on the Metro from Dhaula Kuan to International Airport in
Delhi. Write a brief account of the journey. Describe this experience using expressive
and evocative vocabulary. (100-125 Words)

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Or
India is a country of great potential, yet we have been unable to sort out our
problems. Lack of proper infrastructure, power shortages, exhorbitant prices of
essential vegetables and other grocery items have made life miserable. Write a letter
to the Editor of a newspaper highlighting the poor state of our country.
6.

You are Tanish/Seema, the Head boy/Head girl of your school. You have to write an
article for your school magazine on The India of my Dreams. Write the article for
your school magazine in not more than 150 words.

10

Section - C (Grammar)

7.

In the passage given below, one word has been omitted in each line. Write the missing
word along with the word that comes before and the word that comes after it in your
answer sheet.

8x = 4

India was once considered land of knowledge and

a)

enlightenment. In ancient times scholars all over

b)

Asia and Europe to flock to Taxila, Nalanda and

c)

other centres of learning . Apart the arts,

d)

culture, philosophy and religion, scholars came to

e)

study medicine, law and martial sciences. Despite

f)

having vastly expanded university system and

g)

historical advantages, modern India yet

h)

to provide leadership.

8.

The following passage has errors. Identify the errors in each line and write them along
with the corrections as shown in the example.

The macaw is a most colorful bird of the worlds

Three hundred and forty parrot species. Its exotically

a)

colored plumage mesmerize collectors the world

b)

over. The macaws especially flourish from the rainforest

c)

of South Eastern Peru, border the Amazon basin. The

d)

macaws have two claws pointing forward but two pointing

e)

backwards on all foot. These provide them with

f)

a firmed anchor, allowing them to hang from branches in a

g)

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number of position. Their muscular legs lent them great

dexterity

9.

h)

Rearrange the given words and phrases to form meaningful sentences.

During/Infections/viruses/full/monsoons/and/in/attack/force
Knowledge/growing/is symbolic/of life/and/lighting a lamp

Section - D (Literature)

10.

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.

All three stood still to smile through their hair

At the uncle with the camera, A sweet face,
My mothers that was before I was born.
And the sea, which appears to have charged less,
Washed their terribly transient feet.
A.

The Sweet Face belonged to

a) the poet
b) the uncle
c) poets mother
d) the two cousins

B. In the above lines there is a sense of

a) contentment
b) satisfaction
c) loss
d) happiness.
C. Transient feet refers to.
a) permanence of the sea.
b) Beauty of the poets feet
c) Changing phases of life
d) Beauty of the sea.

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11.

Answer any three questions in 30-40 words each.

3x3= 9

a) This was the turning point in our friendship. What was the turning point?
b) What injuries did Sue sustain? What does it reveal about her?
c) What were the treasures found in the coffin? Why were they put there?
d) What did John Byro mean when he said, A suspicious man would believe his eyes
instead of his heart?
e) Why did the narrator not want to remember the place?(The Address)

12.

The story We Are Not Afraid To Die If We, suggests that optimism helps us to
face the direst stress. Write a paragraph on the Power of Positive Thinking.
(120-150 words)

6
Or

The narrators second visit to No. 46 Marconi Street and her decision to leave her past
behind is a lesson in moving ahead. Write a paragraph on, The Past is Dead, The
Present is Powerful (120-150 words)

13.

What is the dramatic significance of the blood-stain that proves persistent?

14.

Bring out the humor in the elaborate preparations conducted by the ghost in the
desperate effort to tame the twins.

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Mathematics
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 100

Instructions ;
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) In section A each questions carries 1 mark.
c) In section B each questions carries 4 marks.
d) In section C each questions carries 6 marks.
Section A

1.

Write the following interval in the set builder form: [1, 12)

2.

Evaluate: sin (-11/3)

3.

Write the power set of A = {1, 2, 3}

4.

Solve 3x+8>2, when x is an integer.

5.

2 1
a
If 1, b 1, ,find the values of a,b.
3 3
5

6.

Evaluate cos70 cos10 + sin70 sin10

7.

If a ={a,b,c} and B= {c,d} then write the elements A-(AB)

8.

Write the relation R ={(x,x2) :x is a prime number less than 10} in roster form.

9.

Find the sum to infinity of the following geometric progression:

6,1.2, .24,

10.

Find the value of x if

1 1 x

6! 7! 8!
Section B

11.

In a survey of 120 students of a school boarding house, it was found 70 students

played cricket, 56 played tennis and 24 played both cricket and tennis .Find the

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number students who did not play any game? What values are developed by sports?
List any two.
12.

Draw the graph of real function f where f(x)=[x].Also write the domain and the range
of the function.

13.

x y
Prove that (cos x-cos y)2 + (sin x-siny)2 =4sin2 2

14.

Prove that 41n 14n is a multiple of 27.

15.

Solve 2cos2x + 3sinx =0.

16.

Find domain and range of the real function f(x) = 16 x2

17.

Prove that cot x cot 2x cot 2xcot 3x cot3x cotx=1.

18.

A man wants to cut three lengths from a single tree of length 43 feet. The second
length is to be 3 feet longer than the shortest and the third length is to be twice as long
as the shortest. What are the possible lengths of the shortest piece if the third length is
to be at least 5 feet longer than the second? What value is violated by the man cutting
the tree. List any two.

19.

A committee of 6 persons is to be formed from a group 7 men and 4 women. In how

many ways can this be done? How many of these committees would consist of 4 men
and 2 women? In your opinion how many men and women should be there in the
committee?

20.

Find the value of r such that 5Pr = 6Pr-1

21.

How many 3 digit even numbers can be made using the digits 1,2,3,4,6,8 if no digit is
repeated?

22.

Find the sum to n terms of the series:

52 +62+ 72+ 202
Section C

23.

A college awarded 38 medals in football, 15 in tennis and 20 in hockey. If these went

to a total of 58 men and only four men got medals in all the sports, how many
received medals in exactly two of the three sports?

24.

Two trees A and B are on the same side of a river. From a point C in the river the
distance of the trees A and B is 250m and 300m respectively. If the angle C is 45.
Find the distance between the trees.

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25.

Prove the following using principle of mathematical induction for all natural numbers
n:
1
1
1
1
nn 3

.....

1.2.3 2.3.4 3.4.5

nn 1n 2 4n 1n 2

26.

Find the sum to n terms of the sequence:

8,88,888,8888,.

27.

The ratio of the sum of m and n terms of an A.P is m2:n2.Show that the ratio of mth
and nth term is (2m-1): (2n-1).

28.

What is the number of ways of choosing 4 cards from a pack of 52 playing cards? In
how many of these
a) four cards are of same suit
b) are face cards
c) two are red cards and two are black cards.

29.

Solve the following system of inequlities graphically:

3x+2y18, x+4y<8, x3, y 0

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Physics
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 70

General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) There are 29 questions in total. Questions 1-8 carry one mark each, questions 9-16 carry
two marks each, questions 17-25 carry three marks each, question 26 carries four marks
and question 28-30 carry five marks each.
c) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question
of two marks, one question of three marks, and all three questions of five marks each.
You have to attempt only one of the given choices in such questions.
d) Use of calculators is not permitted.
e) Draw neat and labelled diagrams in pencil wherever required.

1.

The position coordinate of a moving particle is given by x= 6 + 18t + 9t2 (x is in m

and t is in seconds). What is the velocity at t = 2 sec?

2.

What is the angle between velocity vector and acceleration vector in a uniform
circular motion?

3.

What happens to the coefficient of friction when weight of the body is doubled?

4.

What is the apparent weight of a man of mass 6 kg who is standing on a lift which is
moving up with a uniform speed?

5.

Why do use shock absorbers in automobiles?

6.

A light body and a heavy body have the same momentum. Which one will have
greater kinetic energy?

7.
8.

Draw the variation of P.E. stored in a spring as a function of extension.

The angle between vectors A and B is 60.What is the ratio of A . B and A x B

9.

By the method of dimension, check the accuracy of the formula T = rhg/ (2cos)
where T is the surface tension, h is the height of the liquid in the capillary tube, is

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the density of liquid, g is the acceleration due to gravity, is the angle of contact and
r is the radius of the capillary tube.
10.

A physical quantity Q is given by

Q = A2 B3/2/( C4 D1/2)
The percentage error in A, B, C, D are 1%, 2%, 4% and 2% respectively. Find the
percentage error in Q.

11.

Force (F) and density (d) are related as F = /( +d). Find the dimensions of and .

12.

A body covers 200cm in the first two seconds and 220cm in the next two seconds.
What will be its velocity at the end of 7 seconds? Also, find the displacement in 7
seconds.
Or
Establish the relation: s = ut +1/2at2 where symbols have their usual meaning.

13.

Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 103 m/sec. A man riding on a bicycle is
moving with a speed of 10 m/sec in north to south direction. What is the direction in
which he should hold is umbrella?

14.

Determine the unit vector perpendicular to both A 2i j k

B i j 2k

15.

Why is it easier to pull a lawn mower than to push it?

Or
State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum?

16.

What are conservative and non-conservative forces? Give an example of each of these
forces.

17.

A planet moves round the sun in circular orbit. The time period of revolution T of the
planet depends on
a) Radius of the orbit (R)
b) Mass of the sun (M)
c) Gravitational constant G
Determine the relation dimensionally.

18.

In an experiment, refractive index of glass was observed to be 1.45, 1.56, 1.54, 1.44,
1.54 and 1.53. Calculate
a) Mean value of refractive index
b) Mean absolute error
c) Fractional error

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d) Percentage error
19.

State the parallelogram law of vector addition. Calculate the resultant of the two
vectors A and B, in magnitude, in direction, inclined at an angle .

20.

A mass of 200 kg is resting on a rough inclined plane an angle of 30.If the coefficient
of friction is 1/3, find the least and the greatest forces acting parallel to the plane to
keep the mass in equilibrium.

21.

A truck of mass 1000 kg is pulling a trailer of mass 2000 kg as shown. The retarding
(frictional) force on the truck is 500 N and that on the trailer is 1000N. The truck
engine exerts a force of 6000 N. Calculate
a) The acceleration of the truck and the trailer, and
b) The tension on the connecting rope.

OR
Explain graphically how the static friction, limiting friction and kinetic friction vary
with the applied force. State the laws of limiting friction.
22.

A 2 kg body and a 3 kg body are moving along the x-axis. At a particular instant, the
2 kg body is 1m from the origin and has a velocity of 3m/s and the 3 kg body is 2m
from origin and has velocity of -1m/s. Find the position and velocity of the centre of
mass and also find the total momentum.

23.

Define moment of inertia. Write two factors on which it depends. When the diver
leaves the diving board, why does he bring his hand and feet closer together in order
to make a somersault? Explain.

24.

A simple pendulum of length 1m has a wooden bob of mass 1 kg. It is struck by a

bullet of mass 10-2 kg moving with a speed of 2 x 102 m/sec. The bullet gets
embedded in the bob. Obtain the height to which the bob rises before swinging back.

25.

A stone is dropped from a height h. Prove that the energy at every point in its path is
mgh.

26.

Listening to the discussion on causes of pollution and due to which temperature on

earth is rising, increase in temperature leads to melting of polar ice, Meenu realized
that if each one of us contributed to create pollution free environment, then even small
efforts can lead to big results. So, she decided to lead the step and instead to going to

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school by her car, she joined school bus and also asked her father to go to office using
car pool.
a) What do you think is mainly responsible for global warming?
b) If the ice on polar caps on the earth melts due to pollution, how will it effect the
duration of the day?
c) What values does Meenu show?
27.

A projectile is fired at an angle with the horizontal

a) Show that its trajectory is a parabola
b) Obtain the expression for
I.

The maximum height gained

II.

The horizontal range

c) At what value of is the horizontal range maximum?

Or
A projectile is fired at an angle with the horizontal
a) Prove that for a given velocity of projection, the horizontal range is same for and (90).
b) A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 28 m/sec in a direction 30 above the horizontal.
Calculate
I.
II.
III.

The maximum height

Time taken by the ball to return to the same level
Horizontal distance from the point of projection to the point where the ball
returns to the same level.

28.

a) Derive an expression for velocity of a car on a banked circular road having

coefficient of friction.
b) A bent in a level road has a radius of 100 m. Find the maximum speed which a car
turning this bend may have without skidding, if the coefficient of friction between the
tyres and road is 0.8. Take g = 9.8 m/s2.
Or
Consider a mass m attached to a string of length l performing a vertical circle. Find
the expression
a) Minimum velocity at the lowest and the highest point.
b) Tension at the lowest and the highest point.
c) One end of a string of length 1.5m is tied to a stone of mass 0.4 kg and the other end
to a small pivot on a smooth vertical board. What is the minimum speed of the stone

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required at its lowermost end so that the string does not slack at any point along the
vertical circle?
29.

State the difference between an elastic collision and an inelastic collision. Derive an
expression for the velocity of the two masses m1 and m2, moving with initial speeds u1
and u2 undergoing elastic collision in one dimension.
Or
a) Derive the expression for the kinetic energy of a body moving with velocity v.
b) The linear momentum of a body is increased by 10%. What is the percentage change
in its kinetic energy?

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Chemistry
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 70

Instructions
a) There are 26 questions.
b) All questions are compulsory.
c) Question 1 to 5 carry one mark each.
d) Question 6 to 10 carry two marks each.
e) Question 11 to 22 carry three marks each
f) Question 23 carry four marks each.
g) Question 24 to 26 carry five marks each

1.

What is a covalent radius?

2.

What would be the IUPAC name and symbol for the element with atomic number
111?

3.

4.

Aluminium belongs to group 13 and Sulphur belongs to group 16. Predict the formula
of compound formed between these two elements

Find the oxidation number of underlined element in the given compounds.

(a) KMnO4

b) Cr2 O 72

5.

What are disproportionation reactions?

6.

a) Show the formation of CO by Lewis Langmuir theory.

b) Calculate formal charge on C and O atoms.

1+1

Or
What do you understand by resonance? Draw resonance structures for CO 32 ions.
7

a) Define the term dipole moment.

b) Identify the molecule with net dipole moment zero from the following compounds.
Give reason for your answer.
H2O

BeF2

(given atom no. H = 1, O = 8, Be = 4, F = 9)

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8.

Calculate the average atomic mass of Cl atom from the given data
% abbundance

Molar mass

35

75.77

34.9689

37

24.23

36.9659

Cl
Cl

9.

Calculate the volume occupied by 8.8 g of CO2 at 31.1C and 1 bar pressure
(R = 0.083 barL K-1mol)

10.

11.

Explain Daltons law of partial pressure and write the expression for the relation of
partial pressure to the mole fraction of each gas.

Explain the following statements

st

a) 1 Ionization enthalpy of B is less than that of Be

b) Noble gases show positive electron gain enthalpy.
c) Cations are smaller than atom where as anions are larger than atom
12.

a)What do you understand by anomalous behaviour of II period elements? Explain

with the help of an example.
b) Which halogen has highest electronegativity and why?

2+1

Or
a) Why do the properties of Li resemble with Mg? Explain the relationship between
them with reason.
b) Why electron gain enthalpy of F is less negative than that of Cl?
13

a)What is a photon?
b) What is the wave length of light emitted when the electron in a hydrogen atom
undergoes transition from an energy level n=4, to an energy level with n=2?
(given R=109677)

14.

1+2

a) How many orbitals are present in 3p subshell?

b) What do you understand by isoeletronic species?
c) Select the isoelectronic species from the following
Na+, K+, Mg2+, S2-, Ar

15.

1+1+1

a) Indicate the number of unpaired electron in

15P, 15Si, 24Cr, 26Fe

b) State Paulis exclusion principle.

16.

a) How many subshells are associated with n=4?

b) How many electrons can have n=4?

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c) How many electrons from n=4 can have ms = +

17

Define molality. The density of 3M solution of NaCl is 1.25gm. Calculate the

molality of the solution. (atomic mass Na=23, Cl=35.5)

18

CaCO3 reacts with aqueous HCl to give CaCl2 and CO2 according to the reaction.
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O
What mass of CaCO3 is required to react completely with 25ml of 0.75M HCl?

(atomic mass Ca=40, C=12, O=16, H=1, Cl=35.5)

19

a) Identify the following in the given reaction.

2Fe + 3PbCl2 2FeCl3 + 3Pb

(i) Substance reduced
(ii) Reducing agent
b) Can the following reaction be called a redox reaction? Give reason.

(i) CaCO3
CaO + CO2

20

a) Consider the following elements.

1+2

Cs, Ne, I, F
(i)

Identify the element which exhibits only negative oxidation state

(ii)

Identify the element which exhibits only positive oxidation state.

b) Balance the following reaction in basic medium by ion electron method.

P4 + OH PH3 + HPO2
21.

a) What is the function of a salt bridge between two redox couples in a cell.
b) E Zn2+/Zn = - 0.76 and E Al3+ / Al = - 1.66 which of them is a stronger reducing
agent.
c) Identify the type of redox reaction
2HCl +2Na ---------2NaCl +H2

22.

1+1+1

a) State Boyles law.

b) What will be the minimum pressure required to compress 300dm3 of air at 1 bar to
200dm3 at 30C?

23.

Sodium and potassium lose electrons easily and form ionic bonds with non-metals
like chlorine, fluorine which gain electrons. They form ionic bonds which are strong
bonds. Rahul Sharma an intelligent student of class 12 has friends Amit and Krishan
Kumar who are weak students. Rahul Sharma follows the lesson taught in class easily

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whereas Amit and Krishan Kumar do not follow easily. Rahul helps Amit and Krishan
Kumar to understand the concepts and, in turn, they are thankful to him. Their
friendship is long lasting because both are happy. Rahul feel sense of achievement.
a) Should intelligent students make friends with weak students? Give reason.
b) Which type of bonds will be formed if you compare it with this kind of friendship?
Justify.
c) Why are ionic bonds strong?
d) Write any two properties of compounds formed by ionic bonds?

24.

a) What is compressibility factor?.

b) Under what conditions of pressure and temperature a real gas obeys ideal gas laws.
c) The critical temperature of CO2 and CH4 are 30.8C and 81.9C respectively
which them has stronger intermolecular attraction and which of them will liquify
earlier on cooling?

1+2+2
Or

a) Explain the term surface tension with diagram.

b) Explain why mercury drops are spherical in shape.
c) What is the effect of increase in temperature on surface tension? Give reason.
2+1+2

25.

a) Predict the shape and geometry of XeF4 on the basis of VSEPR theory.
b) How many lone pair does the Xe atom have and what is their positions in XeF4?
c) Does this compound obey octetrule? Explain.

2+2+1

Or
a) Show by MO theory
i) O2 molecule has a double bond.

ii) He2 molecule can not exist.

b) Explain why H2S is a gas but H2O is a liquid at room temperature.

26

a) Explain with reason the trend observed in the periodic table for the following
properties.
i) Electronegativity down a group
ii) Ionization enthalpy across a period from left to right
iii) Metallic character from left to right across a period

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b) Show by a chemical reaction with water that Na2O is a basic oxide and Cl2O7 is an
acidic oxide.
c) Identify the following in the periodic table.
i)The 5f series of periodic table.
ii) Element with 5 electrons in its outer subshells

Or
a) Explain with reason the trend observed in the periodic table for the following
properties.
i) Valency within a group
ii) Metallic character within a group.
iii) Atomic radius across a period from left to right.

b) Would you expect second electron gain enthalpy of O as positive, less negative or
more negative than first? Justify.
c) Identify the following in the periodic table.
i) Element which would tend to lose 2 electron.
ii) The block of elements having metals non metals, metalloid, solid, liquid
and gaseous elements at room temperature.

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Biology
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 70

Instructions:
a) This question paper consist of four sections A, B, C & D. Section A consist of 8
questions of 1 mark each, section B is of 10 questions of 2 marks each, section c is of 9
questions of 3 marks each and section D is of 3 questions of 5 marks each.
b) Internal choice has been provided in one question of 2 marks, one question of 3 marks
and all the three questions of 5 marks.
Section A

1.

Why human teeth are called as Thecodont

2.

What is Frenulumn

3.

What is meant by Expiratory reserve volume? Write its value.

4.

What is meant by the cardiac output? Write its value.

5.

What is the first heart sound? How is it caused?

6.

Define Micturition

7.

What is the composition of dialysing fluid in haemodialysis?

8.

Which two binding sites are present in the globular head of myosin monomer?

Section B

9.

Name four layers present in the wall of alimentary canal. Also write the kind of
tissues they are made up of.

10.

Write two functions of large intestine

11.

Explain the role of carbonic anhydrase in the transportation of carbondioxide in the

blood. Where is this enzyme located?

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12.

The alveolar walls in a persons body are damaged resulting into decrease in
respiratory surface.
Name the disease the person is suffering from? Also write the major cause of the
disease.

13.

Explain how the lymph is different from the blood in their composition .Write two
important functions of the lymph.

2
Or

Explain the circulatory pathway in amphibians and reptiles

14.

Explain how the enzyme complex thrombokinase leads to the formation of a blood
clot at the site of injury.

15.

How are cortical nephrons different from juxtamedullary nephrons? (Write two
important differences)

16.

Draw the diagram of longitudinal section of kidney.Name and label

a) Columns of Bertini
b) Notch present on the inner concave surface of the kidney
c) Broad funnel shaped space.
d) Conical masses present in the medulla.

17.

Differentiate between the red muscle fibre and the white muscle fibre.

18.

Name the followings

a) Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakning,

and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
b) Cavity in pelvic girdle to which the thighbone articulates
c) U shape bone present at the base of the buccal cavity
d) The first vertebrae which articulates with the occipital condyle.

Section C

19.

Name any three enzymes present in the succus enteicus. Also write the reactions they
catalyse.

20.

Explain the mechanism of inspiration during breathing

21.

Draw a table to write the partial pressure of oxygen and carbondioxide in the alveolar
air and,deoxygenated blood. How gaseous exchange takes place at the alveolar site. 3

22.

Where are respiratory rhythm centre and pneumotaxic centre located in the body.
How do they regulate the respiration?

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3
Page 22 of 61

23.

An Rh negative mother conceives an Rh+ve baby for the second time. Explain giving
reason that how it can be fatal to the foetus and the baby born can suffer from severe
anaemia and jaundice. What is this condition called as?

24.

Differentiate between ureotelism and ammonotelism. Why birds are uricotelic

organisms?

25.

Explain various events which leads to the shortening of sarcomere following the
arrival of a neural signal at the motor endplate

26.

Mohans friend Harish fell down from the stairs and fractured his leg. He was advised
six weeks rest by the doctor. Every alternate day Mohan visited his friend and updated
him about various activities taking place in the school and topics being taught in
various subjects
a) State the values being displayed by Mohan
b) Name all the bones present in the lower limb along with their numbers

27.

What are three different kinds of ribs present in our body and how are they different
from each other
Or
Name the three major structural forms of joints. How are they different from each
other

3
Section D

28.

a) Write two steps for the absorption of fatty acids and glycerol in the lacteals.
b) Explain the three major types of cells present in the gastric glands along with their
functions.

2+3
Or

a) Draw a diagram to explain the duct system of liver gallbladder and pancreas
b) Write the role of mucus and HCl present in the gastric juice
29.

3+2

a) What is SA node? Where is it located in the heart? Why is it called as the

pacemaker of the heart?
b) Give the diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG. Also mention what does
each wave in the ECG represent.

3+2
Or

a) What is cardiac cycle

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b) Explain various phases of the cardiac cycle specifically mentioning about the
conditions of valves in each phase.
30.

3+2

a) What is meant by GFR? Write its value.

b) Explain the rennin angiotensin mechanism to regulate GFR.
c) Which mechanism acts as a check on rennin angiotensin mechanism?

1+3+1

Or
a) Explain the three processes involved in the formation of urine.
b) How the functioning of the kidney is monitored by the feedback mechanism involving
the hypothalamus?

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3+2

Page 24 of 61

HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class : XI
Subject: Computer Science
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 70

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) There are 6 questions in this paper.
c) Each part of Q.1 to Q.5 carries 2 marks and for Q.6 marks mentioned for each part.

1.

Answer the following questions.

a) Draw a block diagram of functional components of a computer.
b) Mention different types of Digital computers.
c) What is software? Mention different types of software.
d) What is CUI and GUI operating system? Give one example of each.
e) How many bytes are there in 40 GB?

2.

Answer the following questions.

a) Differentiate between runtime error and syntax error. Give example of each.
b) What is the use of comments and indentation in a program.
c) Write an algorithm to find largest among three numbers.

3.

d)

Draw a flow chart to calculate sum of n numbers entered by user.

e)

Draw a flow chart to check whether a number is prime or not.

Answer the following questions.

a) Write any four naming rules for an identifier.

b) Classify the following into valid and invalid identifier:
(i) my sal

(ii) Break

(iii) class

(iv) adm_no

c) Write one advantage and one disadvantage of floating point numbers over integers.
d) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of ternary operator.
e) Give the size in bytes and range of int and unsigned int data type.

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4.

Answer the following questions.

a) Differentiate between type casting and type promotion. Explain with suitable
example.
b) Give two ways of declaring a constants in a program.
c) Give the size in bytes of the following :
(i) n

(ii) n

(iii) \n

(iv) \n

d) Write down any two primitive data types and two derived data types.
e) Write two limitations of switchcase statement over if statement.

5. a) Name the header file required for the following functions:

(i) clrscr()

(ii) setw()

(iii) log10()

(iv)puts()

b) Rewrite the following program segment using switch-case.

if (marks = = 10)
cout<<Excellent;
else if (marks = = 9)
cout<<Very good;
else if (marks = = 8)
cout<<Good;
else
cout<<Can do much better;

c)

Give the output of the following program:

#include<iostream.h>
void main()
{
int I=44,j=-10,k=5,y,z;
y = I + 5 && j + 1 || k + 2;
z = I + 5 || j + 1 && k + 2;
cout<<y<<z;
}

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d) Give the output of the following program:

#include<iostream.h>
void main()
{
int val=55;
if (++val = = 56)
cout<< fifty six;
else
if(--val = = 55)
cout<<fifty five;
}

e)Using the given values of x, y and z, evaluate the following :

(x == y) || (!(z == y) && (z < x))

When (i) x=20, y=10, z=5 and

f)

(ii) x=10, y=10, z=10

Point out at least 4 syntax errors in the following program:

void main()
{
float x = 2.4;
switch(x);
{
case 1.5 : cout<<XI B;break;
case < 3 : cout<<XI D;

default ;
cout<<XI E;
}
}

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6.

Write Program for following ( 3 + 3 + 4 + 4 + 4 )

a) Write a program in C++ to find the sum of digits of a number.
b) Write a program in C++ to check whether a year is a leap year or not. Check for
century years also. ( i.e 1900 not a leap year, 2000 is a leap year) .
c) Write a program in C++ to enter the coefficient of a quadratic equation. Display
the nature of roots and value of the roots(if real).
d)Write a program to find whether a number is a palindrome or not.( example:121 is
a palindrome number)
e) Write a program in C++ to calculate telephone bill for a month with following
criteria.
Chargeable calls

call rate

For first 100 calls

Rs. 1/ per call

For next 100 calls(101 200)

Rs. 2.20 per call

For next calls(>200)

Rs. 3/ per call

There are 50 free calls per month and Rs. 180 is the monthly rental. The user has to
enter no. of calls per month.
Chargeable call = no of calls free calls.
Bill=total charge for calls + monthly rental

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Economics
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 90

General Instructions:
a) All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
b) Both the sections should be attempted in two different answer sheets.
c) Adhere to the word limit according to the marks allotted in each question.
d) Answer should be brief and to the point.
Section A (Indian Economic Development)

1.

Mention any two private industries incorporated in India during the colonial period? 1

2.

Name the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission?

3.

Distinguish between devaluation and depreciation?

4.

Who is a welfare economist?

5.

Mention any three major role played by WTO to establish international market?

Or
Distinguish between Disinvestment and Privitaisation?
6.

Compare the Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 to Industrial Reform Policy 1991?

7.

Explain the categories of Poverty?

3
Or

Explain the vicious circle of poverty?

8.

Discuss the following as the sources of Human Capital Formation:

a) Health infrastructure.
b) Expenditure on migration.
9.

Discuss the need for promoting womens education in India?

10.

What are the main causes of Indias agricultural stagnation during the colonial period?

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11.

How was Green Revolution formulated in India? Explain any two principle
parameters of Green Revolution?

4
Or

Define the technical terms:

a) Permit License Raj.
b) Marketed Surplus.
c) Subsidies.
d) Export Promotion.
12.

Explain any three (either Industrial, financial or taxation) Economic Reform under the
Liberalisation Policy of 1991?

13.

Describe any one Poverty Alleviation Programme each for Rural and Urban areas on
the basis of:

a) How and when it was formed?

b) Aims.
c) How far are they successful?
14.

Examine the role of Human Capital Formation in the process of growth and
development? (any four points)

Statistics

1.

Define Arithmetic Mean.

2.

State one point of difference between Time series and Spatial series.

3.

Write one objective of classification.

4.

If the values of mean and median are 40 and 48. Find out the most probable value of

5.

mode.

Find the mode from the following data without using the grouping method:

Age (years)

10-20

No. of persons 4

20-30

30-40

40-50

50-60

60-70 70-80

26

32

19

The number of people in their teenage and their old age is less than the number of
people in their middle age. What could be the possible reasons for this disparity?
6.

The average weight of a group of 20 boys was calculated to be 89.4kg. It was later
discovered that one weight was misread as 78kg instead of the correct one of 87kg.
Calculate the correct average weight.

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7.

Calculate upper and lower quartile from the following data

Variable

58

Frequency 2

59

60

61

62

63

64

65

66

15

10

8.

Write the characteristics of a good classification.

9.

The mean weight of 25 boys in group A of a class is 60kg and the mean weight of 35

10.

11.

12.

boys in group B of the same class is 58kg. Find the mean weight of 60 boys.

If the arithmetic mean of the data given is 50, find the missing frequency.

Marks

30

35

40

45

50

75

No. of students

Find the median of the following data:

Marks

30-35

35-40

40-45

45-50

50-55

55-60

60-65

No. of students

14

16

18

23

18

Calculate arithmetic mean using step deviation method for the following data.
Marks

13.

No. of students

More than 0

50

More than 10

45

More than 20

38

More than 30

26

More than 40

10

More than 50

Define Statistics in Singular sense. Discuss various statistical methods involved in

it.

14.

For the data given below prepare a frequency distribution table with classes 100-110,
110-120etc. Hence convert the series into Less than and More than cumulative
frequency distribution.

125 108 112 126 110 132 146 130 140 155 102 109 154 157
120 130 136 138 125 111 112 125 140 148 115 129 163 168
147 137 145 150 142 135 137 132 165 154 141 149

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Accountancy
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 90

Instructions:
a) Marks are shown against each question.
b) All questions are to be attempted.
c) Show your working clearly.
Part A (Financial Accounting I)

1.

Name the person who started Double Entry System.

2.

What is the purpose of posting Journal Folio numbers at the time entries are posted to
the accounts?

3.

Give one point of importance of bank reconciliation statement.

4.

Give another term for Net Worth.

5.

Under which accounting principle, quality of manpower is not recorded in the books
of accounts?

6.

Why is a cash book termed as a journalized ledger?

7.

What are supporting documents?

8.

Can a bank reconciliation statement be prepared only once in an accounting year?

9.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason.

1x3=3

a) Accounting may be influenced by personal judgment.

b) Financial statements are not comparable.
c) Accounting information must be reliable.
10.

Explain the accounting cycle.

11.

Distinguish between the following terms

3
2x3=6

a) Cash discount and Trade discount

b) Accrual basis of accounting and cash basis of accounting
12.

Define the following terms with example:

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1x3=3

Page 32 of 61

a) Drawings
b) Deferred revenue expenditure
c) Expense
13.

Capital is a liability for the business. Explain this statement by applying the correct
principle.

14.

State the objectives of preparing a Trial Balance.

15.

Classify the following accounts. Also specify the rules of debit and credit.
a) Bank overdraft

16.

b) Commission received c) Purchases return

Explain the following with appropriate examples:

2x2=4

a) Going concern concept

b) Prudence concept
17.

18.

Explain any two source documents. What values are violated if source documents are
not maintained by the organization?

Prepare a petty cash book on the Imprest System from the following particulars:-

June 1

Received `2,000 from the Cashier

Purchased stationery `200

Paid for telegram `34 , for charity ` 51

Purchased soup `50, Paid for Newspaper bill `180

Paid taxi fare `80, Coolie `20

12

Paid postal expenses `75

14

Paid auto fare `50, Paid for courier services ` 30

25

Speed post changes ` 80, Telegram charges `45

26

Paid carriage `40

27

Refreshment Expenses `80, Photostating charges `75

28

Pen/Pencils `150

29

STD calls charge `92

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31

19.

Loading charges ` 85

On 31st January, 2012 my Cash Book showed a Bank overdraft of `12,500. On

comparing it with the Pass Book, the following differences were noted:a) Cash and cheques amounting to `1340 were sent to bank on 27th January but cheques
worth `230 were credited on 2nd February and one cheque for ` 45 was returned by
them as dishonoured on 4th February.
b) During the month of January, I issued cheques worth `1670 to my creditors. Out of
these, cheques worth `1370 were presented for payment on 5th February.
c) According to my standing orders , the bankers have paid during the month of January
the following :i) Life insurance premium

` 170
` 120

ii) Television
iii) Driving license fee

` 22

d) My bankers have collected `150 as dividend on the shares.

e) My bankers have given me wrong credit for `150
f) Interest charged by the bank `125.
Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31st January, 2012.
20.

a) Prepare Sales book and Purchases book of M/s Deendayal from the following
transactions:-

2006

Particulars

June 7

Purchased from Arora & Co. , Nai Sarak

10 chairs @` 200 each
1 table for` 600
Trade discount 10%

June 10

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Sold to Sudha Furniture co. , Agra

Page 34 of 61

2 almirahs @ `2,000 each

Less 15%
June 12

Sold to Meera for cash

10 tables @` 1,000 each

June 15

Purchased from Hira lal & Sons for cash

15 chairs @` 350 each.

June 16

Purchased from Fateh Chand & Co., Delhi

5chairs @`180 each

June 25

Sold to Ravi Sharma , Delhi

2 dining tables @ `6,000 each
Less 10%

21.

b) Prepare Ledger accounts of the above transactions.

Pass journal entries for the following transactions in the books of Ram Shankar :-

a) Purchased an old machinery for `1,00,000 and spent `5,000 on its carriage and `20,000
on its immediate repairs.
b) Received` 20,000 from Subhash , which were written off as bad debts in the
previous year.
c) Salaries due to clerks `50,000
d) Provide 12% interest on capital amounting to `10,00,000.
e) Out of rent paid this year , `10,000 is related to next year.
f) Bought goods for cash of the list price of` 50,000 at 20% trade discount and 5% cash
discount.
g) Paid fire insurance premium on building by cheque `10,000 and Ram Shankars life
insurance premium by cheque `4,000.
22.

Prove that the accounting equation is satisfied in all the following transactions of
Sudhir :-

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a) Started business with cash` 50,000 and goods` 20,000

b) Bought goods for cash`15,000 and on credit `10,000
c) Goods costing` 24,000 sold at the profit 33 1/3 %. Half the payment received in
cash
d) Purchased furniture for office use `6,000 and for household use` 4,000
e) Fresh capital invested` 1,00,000
f) Received dividend`5,000
g) Invested in shares `50,000
h) Paid rent` 2,000 and rent outstanding` 500
23.

Enter the following transactions in a Cash book with Bank columns:2011

Particulars

June 1

Commenced business with cash

Opened a current account in Central Bank and

12
Amount (`)
1,00,000
80,000

deposited
3

Further capital introduced 50,000, out of which

40,000 deposited into the Bank

Purchased goods from Gopal on credit

50,000

Paid to Gopal by cheque

36,000

Discount received
6

Received from Sudesh, and deposited into the bank

500

on 7th June
8

Sold goods to Ram on credit

10

Received cheque from Ram in full settlement of his

12,500
7,500

Account
11

Commission paid to agent

12

Cheque received on 10 the June deposited into bank

15

Office furniture purchased in cash from Modern

650
12,000
550

Furniture House

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16

Paid for Rent

18

Drew Cheque for personal use

19

Sold goods to Ghanshyam on credit

24

Received from Ghanshyam, cheque for `5,000

2,000
20,000
3,600
400

(Immediately deposited into Bank) and Cash

Discount allowed
25

Withdrew from bank for office use

25

Received a cheque from X and endorsed it to Y on

10,000
6,000

29th June
26

Goods sold to Mohan on Credit

28

Received a Money Order from Mohan

30

Paid salary by cheque

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1,000
300
8,000

Page 37 of 61

HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Business Studies
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 90

General Instructions
a) Attempt to questions carrying 1mark from one word to one sentence.
b) Attempt to questions carrying 3 marks from 50 to 75 words.
c) Attempt to questions carrying 4-5 marks from 150 words.
d) Attempt to questions carrying 6 marks from 200 words.
e) Draw flow charts wherever necessary.

1.

Name the document which contains all relevant information to the issue and through
which the company invite the general public to apply for securities.

2.

Define the term minimum subscription.

3.

What is the reward for taking risk in business?

4.

What is the main cause of decline in J.H.F business?

5.

Oil Refinery and Sugar Mills can be broadly classified under which type of industry.
1

6.

Name the partner who assumes liability without sharing in the profits of the business.
1

7.

How does public sector control monopoly and restrictive trade practices?

8.

A company has perpetual succession succession Explain.

9.

How does insurance provide both protection and investment benefit?

10.

In which kind of insurance should insurable interest exist both at the time of taking

the policy and at the time of loss?

11.

How does transport create place utility?

12.

Give the full form of VIRUS.

13.

Explain the benefits of e-business from customers point of view.

14.

Insured must disclose the relevant facts related to subject matter. Explain the

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underlying principle.

15.

Explain the advantages of MNCs to host countries.

16.

Explain how industry, trade and commerce are interrelated.

17.

How does a cooperative society exemplify democracy and secularism?

18.

Under what circumstances company issue

a) prospectus

b) statement in lieu of prospectus

19.

Explain the different types of Partnership on the basis of Duration.

20.

What functions does the profit perform?

21.

What is e-banking? What are the advantages of e-banking?

22.

Explain briefly the various types of warehouses.

23.

Discuss the need for business firms to get the in-house services outsourced from
specialized agencies.

24.

Distinguish between memorandum of Association and Articles of Association

25.

Discuss the role of promoter in the promotion of a joint stock company.

26.

The Indian economy is in the stage of transition, hence the role of public sector is
also changing. In the light of the above statement explain the changing role of PSEs.
5

27.

Distinguish between Statutory Corporations, Departmental Undertaking, and

Government Company.

28.

Auxiliaries to business activities are indispensable. Discuss.

29.

Discuss the limitations of electronic mode of doing business? Are these limitations
severe enough to restrict its scope? Give reasons for your answer.

30.

Describe various types of insurance and examine the nature of risks protected by each
type of insurance.

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Geography
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 70

Instructions :
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) Questions 1-10 are very short questions carrying 1 mark each. Word limit 20 words
c) Questions 11-20 are short questions carrying 3 marks each. Word limit 80 words.
d) Questions 21-25 are long questions carrying 5 marks each. Word limit 150 words.
e) Question 20 is a value based question.

1.

What is gradation?

2.

Define denadation. Name its two components.

3.

What are minerals?

4.

How are igneous rocks formed?

5.

How is SIAL different from SIMA?

6.

Why does the earth behave like a magnet?

7.

What are the metamorphosed form of

(a) granite

(b) Limestone

8.

How is weathering different from erosion?

9.

What is oxidation?

10.

Why is Pluto considered to be a dwarf planet?

11.

Mention any three evidence of proposed by Alfred Wegener in support of his theory.

12.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

12.1

Core remains in a semi solid state.

12.2

Chemical weathering is common in north eastern states of India.

12.3

Shield volcans has gentle slopes.

13.1

What is geography?

13.2

Why is it considered to be a science.

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1+2 = 3

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14.

State the distinguishing features of an igneous rock.

15.

Explain with illustration the formation of a block mountain.

16.

Draw a neat and labeled diagram of a delta.

17.

Identify the landform given below.

a) Draw its cross section.

b) How is it created?

18.

Discuss the features of a composite volcane.

19.

What is the solar system? How will you differentiate between inner and outer planets?
1+2=3

20.

If an earthquake occurs in your school, how should you cope with it

(a) during and

(b) after the disaster

21.1

Identify the landform and explain how it is caused.

21.2

In which kind of climatic region will it be created.

22.1

What is an earthquake?

22.2

How it is caused?

22.3

Give an account of the seismic waves.

23.

Throw light on the creation of the universe with reference to big bang theory.

24.

What is the recent theory of the distribution of continents and ocean? Explain the

4+1 = 5

concept with particular reference to plate movements.

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25.

River Indus & Flows through a Gorge?

25.1

What is a gorge?

25.2

In which stage of the river course it is created and why?

25.3

How is it formed?

26.

On the outline physical map of India mark and label the following

1+1+3=5
5

a) Vindhya Range
b) Malwa plateau
c) Kanchenjungha
d) Shade Malabar coast
e) Thar desert-shade

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI A
Subject Psychology
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 70

General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) Marks for each question are indicated.
c) Answers should be brief and to the point.
d) PART- A has 10 Learning Checks carrying one mark each.
e) Questions 11 to 16 in PART- B are Very Short Answer type questions carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
f) Questions 17 to 20 in PART- C are Short Answer Type I questions carrying 3 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
g) Questions 21 to 26 in PART- D are Short Answer Type II questions carrying 4 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
h) Questions 27 and 28 in PART- E are Long Answer Type questions carrying 6 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 200 words.

Part A- 1 Mark (answer as directed)

1.

___________________________ perspective in psychology took a positive view on

human nature.

2.

If increase in the X variable has no effect on Y variable, it is known as

_________________________ correlation.

3.

The small gap between two neurons is called as nerve impulse. (True/False)

4.

What are the environmental agents that cause deviation in normal development during
the prenatal stage of human development?

5.

Which cells are the receptors for night vision?

6.

R.A S stands for _____________________________________________________

7.

Choose the correct order of Piagets stages of Cognitive Development

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a) Concrete operational, sensory motor, formal operational, pre-operational

b) Sensory motor, pre-operational, concrete operational, formal operational
c) Sensory motor, formal operational, pre-operational, concrete operational
8.

Human behaviour is the product of a person and her/his environment write the
equation which represents the same notion.

9.

_________________________ is a tentative answer of a problem that a researcher

proposes during his research process.

10.

Which lobe is primarily concerned with processing of auditory information?

Part B- 2 Mark

11.

Explain the functionalism approach to the study of human mind.

12.

Where and how a community psychologist works?

13.

The construction of a psychological test involves estimating two major parameters.

Name and explain in brief.

14.

Why is pituitary gland called as the master gland of endocrine system?

15.

Explain the structure (parts) and functions of the limbic system of human brain.

16.

How does development precede proximodistally and cephalocaudally?

Part C- 3 Mark

17.

Describe the Cognitive Development during childhood. Support your answer with any
theory of Cognitive Development.
Or
Explain the concept of attachment with the help of Harlow & Harlow experiment.

18.

Explain briefly the structure of Spinal cord. Mention the two important functions that
spinal cord performs.

19.

Differentiate between the Interview and Questionnaire method of data collection.

20.

Differentiate between basic and applied psychology.

Part D- 4 Mark

21.

Explain the structure and functions of a neuron with a well labelled diagram.

22.

What are the challenges faced by individuals during early adulthood?

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23.

Explain the various structures that constitute the hindbrain region of human brain.
Explain their function in brief.

24.

Explain the main properties of attention.

Or
What is perception? Explain the sub processes of perception.

25.

What are the goals of Psychological enquiry?

26.

Explain the various types of Observation methods. Support each with an example.

Part E- 6 Mark

27.

Explain the principles of perceptual organisation given by Gestalt psychologists.

Or
Explain the structure and function performed by human ear.

28.

Explain the course of development of adolescents across all domains of development.

Or
Explain the contextual view on development given by Bronfenbrenner and Durganand
Sinha.

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject History
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 100

Instructions:a) Questions carrying 2 marks to be answered in 20 words

b) Questions carrying 5 marks to be answered 'in 200 words
c) Questions carrying 10 marks to be answered in 500 words
d) Attach the map to the main answer sheet.

1.

Explain the terms:

2x5 = 10

a) Fossils
b) Species
c) Anthropology
d) Ethnography
e) Primates
2.

How were hominoid different from monkey?

3.

What were the two uses of writing in Mesopotamian society?

4.

Why was their man made conflict over water in Mesopotamia society?

5.

The Roman Empire was culturally much more diverse that of Iran. Comment.

6.

Name the four schools of law of medieval Central Asia.

7.

Explain the Abbasid revolution.

8.

When did spoken language emerge? Mention the several stages on language
development.

9.

Describe the Mesopotamian family with special reference to inheritance.

10.

What family laws does our modern society need?

11.

What important changes were brought by Diocletian in the Roman Empire? Mention
two innovation of Conspanpine?

12.

3+2

Write a note on the historiography of Islam.

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13.

Highlight the achievements of the medieval Islamic societies in the sphere of

language and literature.

10

14.

Describe the management of the labour during the Roman Empire.

10

15.

Trace the rise of urbanization.

10

16.

Explain the rise of Islam in Arabia. How was the faith established? Who were the
Muslims?

17.

10

On the world map mark the following Die Kielders; Red sea, Kenya, Constantinople
Rome, Mediterranean sea, Medina, Mecca, Baghdad, Damascus, Border Cave.

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10

HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class : XI
Subject: Informatics Practices
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 70

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory
b) There are 7 questions in this paper.
c) All questions are of 10 marks each.

1.
a)

What is a computer? Draw the block diagram of a computer?

b)

Differentiate between hardware and software?

c)

Differentiate between Interpreter and compiler?

d)

What is a virus? Name any two anti virus?

e)

What is ALU?

2.
a) What are the benefits of e-learning?
b) What is e-commerce and what are its advantages?
c) Differentiate between front end and back end?
d) Give any two websites of e-governance?
e) Do you think e-governance has made life easy for the citizens of a country. If yes
how.

3.
a) Differentiate between getText() and setText().
b) Name any 4 data types of Java ? Mention the space occupied by those data types in
the memory?
c) Differentiate between text field and Label control?
d) Give any two properties and two methods of a Text control?
e) Give the output of the following program

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System.out.println(The);
System.out.print(Air);
System.out.print(Force);
System.out.println(School);

4.

Read the following case study carefully and answer the questions that follow
A School is computerizing its result Calculation. The Interface of the application is
given below. The maximum marks for First Unit and Second Unit is 40 each and for
Half Yearly and for Annual is 60 each . The maximum total marks is 200.

The grading scheme for the different streams is as follows :

Give the coding for
(i)
Initially the textfields totalTF, perTF, gradeTF and button gradeBTN should be
disabled .
3
(ii)
On Clicking perBTN button , the total marks and Percentage should be calculated
and displayed in respective textfield.
4
(iii)

On clicking of clearBTN command button, all textfields should be cleared and on

clicking of exitBTN button, the application should be closed.
3

5.
a) Define the terms relation and attribute in the context of RDBMS.
b) Define cardinality and degree of a relation?
c) Differentiate between primary key and unique key?
d) What are the fundamental rules for naming an attribute?

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6.

e) What is the purpose of ALTER TABLE command in MySQL. How is it

different from UPDATE.
a) Give the command to
View all the fields in a table
Change a record in a table
b) What do you mean by NOT NULL?
c) Name any 4 data types of SQL?
d) What does the command Delete from Employee do?
e) Give the command to display the heading of the field Empsal as Salary from the
Employee table.

7.
a. Create table EMP in the database COMPANY as per following specifications.
Column
EmpID
EmpName EmpAddress EmpPhone EmpSal
DeptID
Name
Data Type
DECIMAL CHAR
CHAR
CHAR
DECIMAL CHAR
Size
6
20
30
10
9,2
2
Constraint
Primary
Not NuLL
Key
b. Write SQL commands for the questions from (i) to (viii) on the basis of table
TEACHER
No. Name

Age

Department Dateofjoin

Salary

Gender

Arpit

34

Computer

10-01-2007

22000

Himani

34

History

24-03-2008

20000

Shivani

33

Math

12-12-2006

30000

Angad

35

History

07-01-2009

40000

Lakhan

35

Math

09-05-2007

25000

Mannu

33

History

27-06-2008

30000

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

To list all information about the Computer teachers.

To list names of all teachers with their date of joining in ascending order.
To list the different Department names.
Increase the salary by 5000 for all female teachers who are above 40 years of
age.
(v) To list names of all teachers in uppercase.
(vi) To list the details of all male teachers whose age is greater than 30.
(vii) Add a new record into the table with following values
9, Rajeev, 26, computer, 05-05-1996, 23000, M
(viii) To list the details of those male history teachers having salary greater than 30000.

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Home Science
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 70

General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) Marks for each question is indicated against it.
c) Read each question carefully and answer to the point.
d) Attempt all parts of the question together.

1.

What do you understand by conservation?

2.

State the psychological implication of delayed growth spurt?

3.

Define Nutritional status.

4.

Name two disaccharides.

5.

The deficiency of cynocobalamin is known as ____________.

6.

Name cereals rich in I) Calcium and II) Iron

7.

Write down two characteristics of convenience food.

8.

Explain fortification by giving an appropriate example.

9.

Name the method of making chappati. Explain and give one more food item made by
the same method.

10.

Explain any four principles of food preservation.

11.

Name the two essential amino acid required in infancy.

12.

State any four functions of zinc in our diet.

13.

According to Jean Piaget, in which developmental stage are you? Explain .

14.

Briefly explain the functional classification of food.

15.

Rohan is a two year old vegetarian living in a shady apartment and rarely goes out.
Which deficiency is he prone to? How will you identify it?

16.

Define balanced diet and name the five food groups.

17.

Enumerate the factors affecting selection of fish.

18.

Explain the sexual development taking place during puberty.

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19.

What are the sources of Iodine? Discuss the disease caused by the deficiency.

20.

Differentiate between the two forms of PEM.

21.

Define cognition and list two ways the teacher should use to improve cognition in
growing children.

22.

What is the effect of cooking on nutritive value of food?

23.

Explain the principles of preservation used in pickles in chutneys.

24.

Why are fats the reservoir of energy? What are the various functions performed by
fats in our diet?

25.

Differentiate between
a) Wet and Dry cooking
b) Direct and Indirect steaming

26.

List the different type of anaemia. What deficiency symptoms will you observe in an
anaemic girl?

27.

What is food spoilage? Enlist the various factors causing food spoilage.

28.

Explain giving appropriate reasons:

a) Why is wheat flour better than refined flour?
b) What is whey protein?
c) What are protein isolates?
d) Jaggery is better substitute for sugar

29.

List the RDA for the following:

a) Vitamin A for lactating women
b) Iron for pregnant women
c) Energy requirement for an adult sedentary Indian man
d) Protein requirement of moderate Indian women.

30.

If malnutrition is bad nutrition then what is good nutrition? List two forms of
malnutrition.

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class: XI
Subject: Political Science
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 100

General Instructions :
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) Question Numbers 1 to 10 are of one mark each. The answer to these questions should
not exceed 30 words each.
c) Question Numbers 19to 30 are of two marks each. The answer to these questions should
not exceed 40 words each.
d) Question Numbers 21 to 30 are of four marks each. The answer to these questions should
not exceed 100 words each.
e) Question Numbers 31 to 35 are of six marks each. The answer to these questions should
not exceed 150 words each.
1.

Explain the term Republic.

2.

What is a constitution?

3.

What is meant by the term secular?

4.

Which features did India adopt from the American Constitution?

5.

Name any two states which have bi cameral legislature in India.

6.

Name any two functions of Vice President of India.

7.

Distinguish between Ordinary and Fundamental rights.

8.

Describe the methods of election adopted in India.

9.

What is the new amendment regarding the size of the Council of Ministers?

10.

Describe the composition of a High Court.

11.

Mention any two reforms suggested to reform the election process.

12.

Explain the exclusive powers of Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

13.

How is Vice President of India elected?

14.

Which right guarantees the Fundamental Rights?' Explain anyone writ protecting our
rights .

15.

Which are the special powers of Rajya Sabha?

16.

Write a note on national commission.

17.

What is need and importance of a constitution?

18.

Write any two fundamental duties of a citizen.

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19.

How is the President of India removed from his office?

20.

What are the qualifications required to be a judge of the Supreme Court?

21.

Write a note on Public Interest Litigation (PIL).

22.

Which factors make the constitution effective?

23.

Distinguish between Fundamental Rights and DPSP and how are they related?

24.

Explain any four functions of the constitution.

25.

What are the rights guaranteed by right to Equality? What are the exceptions to it?

26.

What is the difference between system of reservation of constituencies and system of

separate electorates?

27.

Distinguish between Permanent Executive and Political executive.

28.

How is the prime Minister real executive? Elaborate this in relation to the controversy
on relationship with Indian president.

29.

What is the importance of Universal Adult Franchises?

30.

Write a short note on Bi-Cameral.

31.

Explain the right to constitutional Remedies. Why it is most important?

OR
Describe the nature and composition of Constituent Assembly of India. What was the
ideological divide in the Constituent assembly?

32.

Describe the composition, functions and role of Election Commission.

OR
Distinguish between First Past The Post system and proportional system of
representation.

33.

Describe the discretionary powers of the President, with suitable examples.

OR

34.

How is Lok Sabha more powerful than Rajya Sabha?

OR
Describe the procedure of passage of money and non money bills in the Parliament.

35.

Describe composition Jurisdiction and power of the Supreme Court of India?

OR
What do you understand by Judicial Activism? How is it beneficial to the people of
India?

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject Physical Education (Theory)
Time: 3 Hrs.

M.M.: 70

Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) Question paper carries Part-A and Part-B.
c) Answer to question carrying 1 mark should be in approximately 30 words.
d) Answer to question carrying 2 marks should be in approximately 60 words.
e) Answer to question carrying 3 marks should be in approximately 100 words.
f) Answer to question carrying 5 marks should be in approximately 150-200 words.
g) Draw diagram wherever required.

Part A

1.

Define physical Education?

2.

What is Sports Sociology?

3.

What do you mean by Professional ethics?

4.

What is the full form of B.P.Ed?

5.

What do you understand by Community Health?

6.

What do you mean by Obesity?

7.

What is Olympic movement?

8.

What are Olympic awards?

9.

Write a short note on the Olympic Flag.

10.

Write down the Olympic Oath.

11.

Discuss any two official agencies working in the Field of Community health program.
2

12.

What is hypertension?

13.

What are anabolic steroids?

14.

What is the meaning of Biomechanics?

15.

Explain the laws of motion.

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16.

Discuss about any three characteristics of profession.

17.

Discuss any three causes of obesity.

18.

Discuss the opening ceremony of Olympic Games.

19.

Discuss the role of Individual in promoting Community Health.

20.

Explain about the importance of physical education.

21.

Explain the techniques of stress management.

22.

Write short notes in brief on the following:-

1x5

a) Olympic motto
b) Olympic flag
c) Olympic flame
d) Baron Perie de Coubertin
e) International Olympic Committee
Part B

23.

Mention any two latest changes in the general rule of the game /sport of your choice.
2

24.

Name any four important tournament of the game/sport of your choice.

25.

Explain any three fundamental skill of the game/sport of your choice.

26.

Mention the proper sports gears and their importance in the game/sport of your
choice.

27.

28.

Draw a neat diagram and clean diagram of field/court/table of the game /sport of your
choice.

Explain about Arjuna Award in detail.

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class: XI
Subject: Painting (Theory)
Time: 2 Hrs.

M.M.: 40

General Instruction:
a) All the questions are compulsory.
b) Answer be written for Q. No. 1 in about 100-125 words.

1.
2.
3.

Write a short note on Chand Bibi Playing Polo.

a)Write the name of five Painters of the Rajasthani School.
b) Mention one Title (Painting)of each Artist and their sub-school.
Answer the following (any seven)
i)Triumph Of Labour
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of sculpture
d) Place of Collection

6
5
14

ii ) SANTHAL FAMILY
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of sculpture
d) Place of Collection
Iii )THREE GIRLS
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
iv) BIRTH OF POETRY
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
v) MOTHER TERASA
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection

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vi) GOSSIP
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
vii) UNTITLED SERIES
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
viii) DIAGONAL SERIES
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
ix) THE CHILDREN
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
x) WHIRLPOOL
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
xi) DEVI
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
xii) OF WALLS
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
xiii) WOMAN FACE
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection

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xiv) MOTHER AND CHILD

a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
xv) MAGICIAN
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of Painting
d) Place of Collection
xvi) GANESHA
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of sculpture
d) Place of Collection
xvii) FIGURE
a) Artist name
b) Year of Execution
c) Medium of sculpture
d) Place of Collection
4.

Write the full name of the following Artist.

a) K.K.Hebber
b) G.R.Santosh
c) N.S.Bendre
d) R.R. Varma
e) M.F. Hussain
f) D.P.Roychowdhury
g) Md. A.R. Chughtai
h) N.L.Bose

5.

What symbolizes each of the following, used in our National Flag

a) Saffron
b) White
c) Green
d) Ashoka Wheel
e) 24 spokes in Ashoka Wheel

6.

Write the correct answer:

i) Rama Vanquishing the Pride of the Ocean

a) Raja Ravi Varma
b) Rabindra Nath Tagore
c) Nanda lal Bose
d) Abanindra Nath Tagore

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ii) Radhika
a) Amrita Shergil
b) Gaganendra Nath Tagore
c) Md.A.R.Chughtai
d) JaminimRay
iii) Parthasarathi
a) M.F.Hussain
b) Nanadalal Bose
c) k.K.Hebber
d) Md.A.R.Chugh
iv) Gossip
a) M.F.Hussain
b) k.K.Hebber
c) G.R.Santosh
d) N.S.Bendre
v) Jouerney
a) Abanindra Nath Tagore
b) Raja.Ravi.Verma
c) Nanadalal Bose
d) Jamini Ray

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HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION

Session - 2013-14
Class - XI
Subject - Sculpture
Time: 2 Hrs.

M.M.: 40

1.

Write in detail about Lion capital Sarnath

10

2.

Write about Sanchi Stupa in detail.

10

Attempt any two questions.

3.

Write about Chauri Bearer.

4.

Write about Descent of Ganga.

5.

Name and give details of the stone relief with three heads.

6.

Write two points each on any five.

5+5

2x5 = 10

a) Jain Tirathankara
b) Mother Goddess
c) Bull Seal
d) Bodhisattva Head
e) Male Torso
f) Seated Buddha

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