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Chapter 40 Solutions

T=

40.1

*40.2

40.3

2.898 10 3 m K
= 5.18 10 3 K
560 10 9 m

(a)

max =

2.898 10 3 m K 2.898 10 3 m K
~
T
10 4 K

(b)

max ~

2.898 10 3 m K
107 K

(a)

Using

40.4

ultraviolet .

~ 10 10 m .

ray

maxT = 2.898 10 3 m K

we get max =
(b)

~ 10 7 m

2.898 10 3 m
= 9.99 10 7 m = 999 nm
2900 K

The peak wavelength is in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum, which is
much wider than the visible region of the spectrum.

Planck's radiation law gives intensity-per-wavelength. Taking E to be the photon energy and
n to be the number of photons emitted each second, we multiply by area and wavelength
range to have energy-per-time leaving the hole:
P=

2 hc 2 ( 2 1 ) (d / 2)2
5
1 +2
e

2hc
( 1 + 2 )k B T

= En = nhf

8 2c d 2 ( 2 1 )

P
=
n= =
E ( + )4 e 2hc ( 1 + 2 )kBT 1
1
2

n=

5.90 1016 / s

(e

3.84

E = hf =

where

)(

2hc
1 +2

8 2 3.00 108 m s 5.00 10 5 m

(1001 10

) (1.00 10
2

2( 6.626 10 34 Js ) ( 3.00 10 8 m s )

23
3

4 (100110 m )(1.38 10
J K )( 7.50 10 K )
m e
1

= 1.30 1015 / s

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

*40.5

Chapter 40 Solutions

)(

(a)

P = eA T 4 = 1 20.0 10 4 m 2 5.67 10 8 W m 2 K 4 ( 5000 K ) = 7.09 10 4 W

(b)

maxT = max ( 5000 K ) = 2 .898 10 3 m K max = 580 nm

(c)

6.626 10 34 J s 3.00 108 m s


hc
We compute:
=
= 2.88 10 6 m
kBT
1.38 10 23 J K ( 5000 K )

)(

)(

2 hc 2 A = 2 6.626 10 34 3.00 108


P ( 580 nm ) =

(580 10

The power per wavelength interval is

2 hc 2 A
, and
5 exp( hc kBT ) 1

P ( ) = A I ( ) =

) (20.0 10 ) = 7.50 10
2

7.50 10 19 J m 4 s
9

) [exp(2.88 m 0.580 m) 1]
5

19

J m4
s

1.15 1013 J m s
= 7.99 1010 W m
e 4.973 1

(d) - (i) The other values are computed similarly:

hc/k B T

e hc/ kB T 1

2 hc 2A/ 5

P (), W/m

(d)

1.00 nm

2882.6

7.96 101251

7.50 1026

9.42 101226

(e)

5.00 nm

576.5

2.40 10250

2.40 1023

1.00 10227

(f)

400 nm

7.21

1347

7.32 1013

5.44 1010

(c)

580 nm

4.97

143.5

1.15 1013

7.99 1010

(g)

700 nm

4.12

60.4

4.46 1012

7.38 1010

(h)

1.00 mm

0.00288

0.00289

7.50 10 4

0.260

(i)

10.0 cm

2.88 105

2.88 105

7.50 1014

2.60 109

(j)

We approximate the area under the P ( ) versus curve, between 400 nm and 700 nm, as two
trapezoids:

10 W
9
10 W
9
( 5.44 + 7.99) 10 m ( 580 400) 10 m
(7.99 + 7.38) 10 m (700 580) 10 m

P
+
2
2
P = 2.13 10 4 W

so the power radiated as visible light is approximately 20 kW .

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.6

(a)

P = eA T 4 , so

P
T=

eA

40.7

40.8

3.77 10 26 W
=

2
W
1 4 6.96 108 m 5.67 10 8


m 2 K 4

14

= 5.75 10 3 K

2 .898 10 3 m K 2 .898 10 3 m K
=
= 5.04 10 7 m = 504 nm
T
5.75 10 3 K

(b)

max =

(a)

1.00 eV
E = hf = 6.626 10 34 J s 620 1012 s 1
= 2.57 eV
1.60 10 19 J

(b)

1.00 eV
5
E = hf = 6.626 10 34 J s 3.10 10 9 s 1
= 1.28 10 eV
1.60 10 19 J

(c)

1.00 eV
7
E = hf = 6.626 10 34 J s 46.0 106 s 1
= 1.91 10 eV
1.60 10 19 J

(d)

c 3.00 108 m s
=
= 4.84 10 7 m = 484 nm, visible light (blue)
f
620 1012 Hz

c 3.00 108 m s
=
= 9.68 10 2 m = 9.68 cm, radio wave
f
3.10 10 9 Hz

c 3.00 108 m s
=
= 6.52 m, radio wave
f
46.0 106 Hz

)(

)(

)(

)(

6.626 10 34 J s 3.00 108 m s


hc
E = hf =
=
= 3.37 10 19 J photon

589.3 10 9 m
n=

40.9

14

10.0 J s
P
=
= 2 .96 1019 photons s
E 3.37 10 19 J photon

Each photon has an energy


This implies that there are

E = hf = (6.626 10 34)(99.7 106) = 6.61 10 26 J


150 103 J/s
6.61 10 26 J/photons

= 2.27 1030 photons/s

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

*40.10

Chapter 40 Solutions

Energy of a single 500-nm photon:


E = hf =

hc

(6.626 10 34 J s)(3.00 108 m/s)


= 3.98 10 19 J
500 10 9 m

The energy entering the eye each second


E = P t= (IA)t = (4.00 10 11 W/m2)

(8.50 10 3 m) 2(1.00 s) = 2.27 10 15 J


4

The number of photons required to yield this energy


E
2.27 10 15 J
n=E =
= 5.71 103 photons

3.98 10 19 J/photon

40.11

We take = 0.0300 radians. Then the pendulum's total energy is


E = mgh = mg(L L cos )
E = (1.00 kg)(9.80 m/s2)(1.00 0.9995) = 4.41 103 J

40.12

=
2 2

The frequency of oscillation is

f=

g L = 0.498 Hz

The energy is quantized,

E = nhf

Therefore,

E
4.41 103 J
n =hf =
= 1.34 1031
(6.626 1034 J s)(0.498 s1)

The radiation wavelength of = 500 nm that is observed by observers on Earth is not the true
wavelength, , emitted by the star because of the Doppler effect. The true wavelength is
related to the observed wavelength using:
c
c
=

1 (v c)
1 + (v c)
1 (v c)
1 (0.280)
= ( 500 nm )
= 375 nm
1 + (v c)
1 + (0.280)

The temperature of the star is given by maxT = 2.898 10 3 m K:


T=

2.898 10 3 m K 2.898 10 3 m K
=
= 7.73 10 3 K
max
375 10 9

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.13

This follows from the fact that at low T or long , the exponential factor in the denominator
of Planck's radiation law is large compared to 1, so the factor of 1 in the denominator can be
neglected. In this approximation, one arrives at Wien's radiation law.

*40.14

Plancks radiation law is

I ( ,T ) =

Using the series expansion

ex = 1 + x +

Plancks law reduces to

I ( ,T ) =

2 hc 2

5 e hc

kBT

x2 x3
+
+. . .
2! 3!

2 hc 2
2 hc 2
2 ckBT

=
5
5
(1 + hc kBT + . . .) 1 ( hc kBT )
4

which is the Rayleigh-Jeans law, for very long wavelengths.

40.15

(a)

c =

fc =

(b)

hc

(6.626 10 34 J s)(3.00 108 m/s)


= 296 nm
(4.20 eV)(1.60 1019 J/eV)

3.00 108 m/s


= 1.01 1015 Hz
296 10 9 m

hc
= + e(V S):

(6.626 10 34)(3.00 108)


180 10 9

= (4.20 eV)(1.60 10 19 J/eV) + (1.60 1019)(VS)

V S = 2.71 V

Therefore,

2
= 2 (9.11 10 31)(4.60 105) 2 = 9.64 10 20 J = 0.602 eV
Kmax = 21 mvmax

40.16
(a)

= E Kmax =

(b)

fc =

1240 eV nm
0.602 eV = 1.38 eV
625 nm

1.60 10 19 J

1.38 eV

= 3.34 1014 Hz
=
h
1 eV

6.626 10 34 J s

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.17

hc
c =

(a)

(6.626 10
=

Li:

Be:

c =

Hg:

34

)(

J s 3.00 108 m / s

(2.30 eV)(1.60 10

(6.626 10

34

)(

34

J / eV

J s 3.00 108 m / s

(3.90 eV)(1.60 10

(6.626 10
=

19

)(

19

J / eV

J s 3.00 108 m / s

( 4.50 eV)(1.60 10

19

J / eV

) = 540 nm
) = 318 nm
) = 276 nm

< c for photo current. Thus, only lithium will exhibit the photoelectric effect.
(b)

hc
= + Kmax

For lithium,

(6.626 10

34

)(

J s 3.00 108 m / s

400 10

) = (2.30 eV)(1.60 10 ) + K

Kmax = 1.29 10 19 J = 0.808 eV

From condition (i), hf = e(V S 1) + 1

40.18

and

hf = e(V S 2) + 2

(V S 1) = (V S 2) + 1.48 V

2 1 = 1.48 eV

Then

h fc 1 = 1 = 0.600hfc 2 = 0.6002

From condition (ii),

2 0.6002 = 1.48 eV
2 = 3.70 eV

40.19

1240 nm eV
0.376 eV = 1.90 eV
546.1 nm

(a)

e( VS ) =

hc

(b)

e( VS ) =

hc
1240 nm eV
=
1.90 eV
587.5 nm

1 = 2.22 eV

VS = 0.216 V

19

max

Chapter 40 Solutions

Goal Solution
Two light sources are used in a photoelectric experiment to determine the work function for a particular
metal surface. When green light from a mercury lamp ( = 546.1 nm) is used, a retarding potential of
0.376 V reduces the photocurrent to zero. (a) Based on this measurement, what is the work function for
this metal? (b) What stopping potential would be observed when using the yellow light from a helium
discharge tube ( = 587.5 nm)?
G:

According to Table 40.1, the work function for most metals is on the order of a few eV, so this metal
is probably similar. We can expect the stopping potential for the yellow light to be slightly lower
than 0.376 V since the yellow light has a longer wavelength (lower frequency) and therefore less
energy than the green light.

O:

In this photoelectric experiment, the green light has sufficient energy hf to overcome the work
function of the metal so that the ejected electrons have a maximum kinetic energy of 0.376 eV.
With this information, we can use the photoelectric effect equation to find the work function, which
can then be used to find the stopping potential for the less energetic yellow light.

A:

(a)

Einsteins photoelectric effect equation is Kmax = hf , and the energy required to raise an
electron through a 1 V potential is 1 eV, so that Kmax = eV s = 0.376 eV.
A photon from the mercury lamp has energy:

hf =

)(

4.14 10 15 eV s 3.00 108 m s


hc
=

546.1 10 9 m

E = hf = 2.27 eV

(b)

Therefore, the work function for this metal is:

= hf Kmax = 2.27 eV (0.376 eV ) = 1.90 eV

For the yellow light, = 587.5 nm, and

hf =

)(

4.14 10 15 eV s 3.00 108 m / s


hc
=

587.5 10 9 m

E = 2.11 eV
Therefore, Kmax = hf = 2.11 eV 1.90 eV = 0.216 eV ,
L:

so

V s = 0.216 V

The work function for this metal is lower than we expected, and does not correspond with any of the
values in Table 40.1. Further examination in the CRC Handbook of Chemistry and Physics reveals
that all of the metal elements have work functions between 2 and 6 eV. However, a single metals
work function may vary by about 1 eV depending on impurities in the metal, so it is just barely
possible that a metal might have a work function of 1.90 eV.
The stopping potential for the yellow light is indeed lower than for the green light as we expected.
An interesting calculation is to find the wavelength for the lowest energy light that will eject
electrons from this metal. That threshold wavelength for K max = 0 is 658 nm, which is red light in the
visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.)

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

40.20

Chapter 40 Solutions

Since VS2

*40.21

e( VS1 ) = E 1

From the photoelectric equation, we have:


=

0.700 ( VS1 ) , then

and

e( VS2 ) = E 2

e( VS2 ) = 0.700(E 1 ) = E 2

or

(1 0.700) = E 2 0.700E 1

and the work function is:

The photon energies are:

E 1 =

hc 1240 nm eV
=
= 3.03 eV
410 eV
1

and

E 2

hc 1240 nm eV
=
= 2 .79 eV
445 eV
2

Thus, the work function is

2.79 eV 0.700( 3.03 eV )


= 2.23 eV
0.300

and we recognize this as characteristic of

potassium .

E 2 0.700E 1
0.300

E = 1.00 eV = 1.60 10 19 J

The energy needed is

The energy absorbed in time t is E = Pt = (IA)t


E
t = IA =

so

1.60 10 19 J
= 1.28 107 s = 148 days
(500 J/s m2)[ (2.82 10 15 m)2]

The gross failure of the classical theory of the photoelectric effect contrasts with the success of
quantum mechanics.

*40.22

Ultraviolet photons will be absorbed to knock electrons out of the sphere with maximum
kinetic energy Kmax = hf , or
Kmax =

(6.626 10

34

)(

J s 3.00 108 m s 1.00 eV


4.70 eV = 1.51 eV

1.60 10 19 J
200 10 9 m

The sphere is left with positive charge and so with positive potential relative to V = 0 at r = .
As its potential approaches 1.51 V, no further electrons will be able to escape, but will fall back
onto the sphere. Its charge is then given by
V=

keQ
r

or

Q=

5.00 10 2 m (1.51 N m C)
rV
=
= 8.41 10 12 C
ke
8.99 10 9 N m 2 C 2

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.23

(a)

By having the photon source move toward the metal, the incident photons are Doppler
shifted to higher frequencies, and hence, higher energy.

(b)

If v = 0.280 c ,

f = f

Therefore,

= 6.626 10 34 J s 9.33 1014 Hz = 6.18 10 19 J = 3.87 eV

At v = 0.900 c ,

f = 3.05 1015 Hz

(c)

E=

*40.24

p=

hc

1.28
= 9.33 1014 Hz
0.720

)(

(6.626 10 34 J s)(3.00 108 m/s)


700 10 9 m

= 2.84 10 19 J = 1.78 eV

6.626 10 34 J s
h
=
= 9.47 10 28 kg m/s
700 10 9 m

6.626 10 3 4
h
(1 cos ) =
(1 cos 37.0)
(9.11 10 31)(3.00 108)
me c

(b)

E0 = hc / 0 :

(300 10

0 = 4.14 10 12 m
E =

40.26

)(

(a)

(c)

1+ v/c
= 7.00 1014
1 v/c

1.00 eV
Kmax = hf = 6.626 10 34 J s 3.05 1015 Hz
3.87 eV = 8.78 eV
1.60 10 19 J

and

40.25

)(

) (

)(

eV 1.60 10 19 J / eV = 6.626 10 34 3.00 108 m / s 0

= 0 + = 4.63 10 12 m

and

= 4.88 10 13 m

)(

6.626 10 34 J s 3.00 108 m / s


hc
=
= 4.30 1014 J = 268 keV

4.63 10 12 m

Ke = E0 E = 300 keV 268.5 keV = 31.5 keV

This is Compton scattering through 180:


E0 =

hc
(6.626 10 34 J s)(3.00 108 m/s)
=
= 11.3 keV
0
(0.110 10 9 m)(1.60 1019 J/eV)

h
(1 cos ) = (2.43 10 12 m)(1 cos 180) = 4.86 10 12 m
me c
hc
= 10.8 keV

= 0 + = 0.115 nm so

E =

Momentum conservation:

h
h
i = (i) + pe (i)

)(

and

1
1
pe = h

0

3.00 108 m / s / c
1
1

pe = 6.626 10 34 J s
+
= 22.1 keV/c

1.60 10 19 J / eV 0.110 10 9 m 0.115 10 9 m

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

10

Chapter 40 Solutions

Energy conservation:

11.3 keV = 10.8 keV + K e

so that

K e = 478 eV

Check:

E 2 = p 2 c 2 + me2 c 4

or

(me c 2 + Ke )2 = (pc)2 + (me c 2 )2

(511 keV + 0.478 keV)2 = (22.1 keV)2 + (511 keV)2


2.62 1011 = 2.62 1011

40.27

K e = E 0 E
With K e = E ,

40.28

E0
E = 2

E = E0 E :

hc
hc
hc
= E = 1
= 2 E = 2 0
0
E
2 0

= 0 + C (1 cos )

2 0 = 0 + C (1 cos )

1 cos =

0.00160
0
= 0.00243 = 70.0
C

We may write down four equations, not independent, in the three unknowns 0 , , and v
using the conservation laws:
hc hc
=
+ me c 2 me c 2
0

(Energy conservation)

h
= me v cos 20.0 (momentum in x-direction)
0
0=

h
me v sin 20.0

(momentum in y-direction)

and Compton's equation 0 =

h
(1 cos 90.0).
me c

It is easiest to ignore the energy equation and, using the two momentum equations, write
h/0
h/

me v cos 20.0
me v sin 20.0

or 0 = tan 20.0

Then, the Compton equation becomes tan 20.0 = 0.00243 nm,


or

0.00243 nm
= 0.00382 nm = 3.82 pm
1 tan 20.0

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.29

(a)

11

Conservation of momentum in the x direction gives: p = p cos + pe cos


h
h
cos
= pe +
0

or since = ,

[1]

Conservation of momentum in the y direction gives: 0 = p sin pe sin ,


which (neglecting the trivial solution = 0) gives:

Substituting [2] into [1] gives:

2h
h
=
cos , or
0

[2]

= 2 0 cos

giving

2 0 cos 0 =

or

2 cos 1 =

or

h
(1 cos )
me c

hc 1
(1 cos )
0 me c 2

E
2 cos 1 =
(1 cos )
me c 2

hc
, this may be written as:
0

cos =

[3]

h
(1 cos )
me c

0 =

E
E

cos = 1 +
2 +
2
me c
me c 2

which reduces to:

(c)

Then the Compton equation is

Since E

(b)

pe = p =

me c 2 + E
2me c 2 + E

Using Equation (3): E =

0.511 MeV + 0.880 MeV


= 0.732
1.02 MeV + 0.880 MeV

so that

= = 43.0

E
hc
hc
0.880 MeV
=
=
=
= 0.602 MeV = 602 keV
0 ( 2 cos ) 2 cos 2 cos 43.0
E

= 0.602 MeV c = 3.21 10 22 kg m s

Then,

p =

From Equation (2),

pe = p = 0.602 MeV c = 3.21 10 22 kg m s

From energy conservation:

Ke = E E = 0.880 MeV 0.602 MeV = 0.278 MeV = 278 keV

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

12

Chapter 40 Solutions
The energy of the incident photon is E0 = p c = hc 0 .

40.30
(a)

Conserving momentum in the x direction gives

E0
= pe + p cos
c

p = pe cos + p cos , or since = ,

[1]

Conserving momentum in the y direction (with = ) yields


0 = p sin pe sin , or

pe = p =

[2]

Substituting Equation [2] into Equation [1] gives


E0 h
h
cos , or
=
+
c

2hc
cos
E0

By the Compton equation, 0 =

[3]

h
(1 cos ) ,
me c

2hc
h
2hc
cos
=
(1 cos )
E0
me c
E0

(2m c

which reduces to

(c)

From Equation [3],

Therefore,

+ E0 cos = me c 2 + E0

m c2 + E
= = cos 1 e 2 0
2me c + E0

Thus,

(b)

E =

hc
hc
=
2
( 2hc E0 ) me c + E0

) (2m c
e

+ E0

E0 2me c 2 + E0
,
2 me c 2 + E0

E0 2me c 2 + E0
2c me c 2 + E0

and

p =

From conservation of energy,

Ke = E0 E = E0

or

Ke =

Finally, from Equation (2),

pe = p =

2hc
2hc me c 2 + E0
cos =
E0
E0 2me c 2 + E0

E0 2me c 2 + E0
2 me c 2 + E0

E0 2me c 2 + 2E0 2me c 2 E0


E02
=

2
me c 2 + E0

2 me c 2 + E0

E0 2me c 2 + E0
2c me c 2 + E0

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.31

(a)

13

Thanks to Compton we have four equations in the unknowns , v, and :


hc hc
=
+ me c 2 me c 2
0

(energy conservation)

[1]

h
h
=
cos 2 + me v cos
0 '

(momentum in x direction)

[2]

h
sin 2 me v sin

(momentum in y direction)

[3]

(Compton equation)

[4]

0=

0 =

h
(1 cos 2 )
me c

Using sin 2 = 2 sin cos in Equation [3] gives me v =

2h
cos .

Substituting this into Equation [2] and using cos 2 = 2 cos 2 1 yields
h
2h
h
h
= (2 cos 2 1) +
cos 2 = (4 cos 2 1),
0

or

' = 4 0 cos 2 0

[5]

Substituting the last result into the Compton equation gives


4 0 cos 2 2 0 =

[ (

)]

h
hc
1 2 cos 2 1 = 2
1 cos 2 .
2
me c
me c

With the substitution 0 = hc E0 , this reduces to


cos 2 =

For x =

(b)

me c 2 + E0
E
1+ x
=
where x 0 2 .
2me c 2 + E0 2 + x
me c

0.700 MeV
1+ x
= 1.37 , this gives = cos 1
= 33.0
0.511 MeV
2+x

1+ x
2 + 3x
1 = 0
.
From Equation [5], = 0 4 cos 2 1 = 0 4
2+x
2 + x
Then, Equation [1] becomes
hc hc 2 + x
+ me c 2 me c 2
=
0 0 2 + 3x
Thus, = 1 + x x

Therefore,

or

E0
E 2+x
+1= .
0
me c 2 me c 2 2 + 3x

2+x
, and with x = 1.37 we get = 1.614.
2 + 3x

v
= 1 2 = 1 0.384 = 0.785 or v = 0.785 c .
c

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

14

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.32

h
(1 cos )
me c

h
[1 cos( )]
me c

h
h
h
h

cos( ) +

cos
me c me c
me c me c

= 2

Now cos ( ) = cos , so

40.33

(a)

h
= 0.00486 nm
me c

)(

K = 21 me v 2 = 21 9.11 10 31 kg 1.40 106 m s


E0 =

= 8.93 10 19 J = 5.58 eV

hc 1240 eV nm
=
= 1550 eV
0.800 nm
0

E = E0 K , and =

hc
1240 eV nm
=
= 0.803 nm
E 1550 eV 5.58 eV

= 0 = 0.00288 nm = 2.88 pm
(b)

= C (1 cos ) cos = 1

0.00288 nm
= 1
= 0.189, so
0.00243 nm
C

= 101

Maximum energy loss appears as maximum increase in wavelength, which occurs for
scattering angle 180. Then = (1 cos 180)( h / mc ) = 2h / mc where m is the mass of the
target particle. The fractional energy loss is

*40.34

2h mc
E0 E hc 0 hc 0

=
=
=
=
E0
0 + 0 + 2h mc
hc 0

Further, 0 = hc E0 , so
(a)

2h mc
E0 E
2E0
=
=
.
E0
hc E0 + 2h mc mc 2 + 2E0

For scattering from a free electron, mc 2 = 0.511 MeV, so


2(0.511 MeV )
E0 E
=
= 0.667
E0
0.511 MeV + 2(0.511 MeV )

(b)

For scattering from a free proton, mc 2 = 938 MeV, and


2(0.511 MeV )
E0 E
=
= 0.00109
E0
938 MeV + 2(0.511 MeV )

Chapter 40 Solutions

Start with Balmer's equation,

40.35

1
1
1
= RH 2 2 ,

n
2

or =

15

(4n 2 / RH )
.
(n 2 4)

Substituting RH = 1.0973732 107 m 1 , we obtain

40.36

(a)

(3.645 10 7 m)n 2 364.5n 2


= 2
nm, where n = 3, 4, 5, . . .
n2 4
n 4

Using

1
1
1
= RH 2 2

n f ni
4n2

RH n2 4

, for n f = 2, and ni 3, we get:

) (2.00 10

4n2
7

)(

m 1 n2 4

(200.0)n2
n2 4

nm

This says that 200 nm 360 nm, which is ultraviolet .

(b)

Using n 3 , =

4n2

RH n2 4

) (0.500 10

4n2
7

)(

m 1 n2 4

(800.0)n2
nm
n2 4

This says that 800 nm 1440 nm , which is in the infrared .

40.37

(a)

Lyman series:

1
1

= R 1 2

1
1
1

=
= (1.097 107 ) 1 2

94.96 10 9
n
(b)

Paschen series:

1
1
1
=R 2 2
3

n = 2, 3, 4, . . .
n=5
n = 4, 5, 6, . . .

The shortest wavelength for this series corresponds to n = for ionization


1
1 1
= 1.097 107 2
9 n

This is larger than 94.96 nm, so this wave length


Brackett series:

1
1
1
=R 2 2
4

1
1
1
= 1.097 107

16 n2

Once again this wavelength

For n = , this gives = 820 nm


cannot be associated with the Paschen series
n = 5, 6, 7, . . .

n = for ionization min = 1458 nm


cannot be associated with the Brackett series

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

16

40.38

Chapter 40 Solutions

(a)

(b)

min =

hc
Emax

Lyman (nf = 1):

min =

hc 1240 eV nm
=
= 91.2 nm
E1
13.6 eV

(Ultraviolet)

Balmer (n f = 2):

min =

hc 1240 eV nm
= 1
= 365 nm
E2
13.6
eV
4

(UV)

Paschen (nf = 3):

min = . . . = 3 2 (91.2 nm) = 821 nm

Bracket (nf = 4):

min = . . . = 4 2 (91.2 nm) = 1460 nm (IR)

Emax =

Lyman:

Emax = 13.6 eV

(= E1 )

Balmer:

Emax = 3.40 eV

(= E2 )

Paschen:

Emax = 1.51 eV

(= E3 )

Brackett:

Emax = 0.850 eV

E=

(Infrared)

hc
min

Liquid O2

40.39

()

(= E4 )

abs = 1269 nm

hc 1.2398 10 6
=
= 0.977 eV

1.269 10 6

For two molecules,

for each molecule.

hc
= 634 nm, red
2E

By absorbing the red photons, the liquid O2 appears to be blue.

*40.40 (a)

v1 =

ke e 2
2
where r 1 = (1) a 0 = 0.00529 nm = 5.29 10 11 m
me r 1

v1 =

(8.99 10 N m C )(1.60 10 C)
(9.11 10 kg)(5.29 10 m)
9

19

31

11

)(

= 2.19 106 m s

(b)

K1 = 21 me v12 = 21 9.11 10 31 kg 2.19 106 m s

(c)

8.99 10 9 N m 2 C 2 1.60 10 19 C
ke e 2
U1 =
=
r1
5.29 10 11 m

)(

= 2.18 10 18 J = 13.6 eV

= 4.35 10 18 J = 27.2 eV

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.41

(a)

r 2 = (0.0529 nm )( 2) = 0.212 nm
2

(9.11 10

me ke e 2
=
r2

31

)(

)(

kg 8.99 10 9 N m 2 C 2 1.60 10 19 C

= 9.95 10 25 kg m s

(b)

me v2 =

(c)

L2 = me v2 r 2 = 9.95 10 25 kg m s 0.212 10 9 m = 2.11 10 34 kg m 2 s

(d)

K2 =

(e)

8.99 10 9 N m 2 C 2 1.60 10 19 C
k e2
U2 = e =
r2
0.212 10 9 m

(f)

E2 = K2 + U 2 = 3.40 eV 6.80 eV = 3.40 eV

1 m v2
2 e 2

0.212 10 9 m

)(

( m v )2
= e 2
2me

(9.95 10 kg m s)
=
2(9.11 10
kg )
25

= 5.43 10 19 J = 3.40 eV

31

)(

= 1.09 10 18 J = 6.80 eV

1
1
E = (13.6 eV) 2 2

n
i nf

40.42

Where for E > 0 we have absorption and for E < 0 we have emission.
(A) for ni = 2 and nf = 5 E = 2.86 eV (absorption)
(B) for ni = 5 and nf = 3 E = 0.967 eV (emission)
(C) for ni = 7 and nf = 4 E = 0.572 eV (emission)
(D) for ni = 4 and nf = 7 E = 0.572 eV (absorption)

40.43

17

hc

so the shortest wavelength is emitted in transition B .

(a)

E=

(b)

The atom gains most energy in transition A .

(c)

The atom loses energy in transitions B and C .

(b)

1
1
1
1
1
= R 2 2 = (1.097 107 m 1 ) 2 2

2
6
f ni

(a)

E=

hc (6.626 10 34 J s)(3.00 108 m / s)


=
= 4.85 10 19 J = 3.03 eV

410 10 9 m

(c)

f=

c 3.00 108
=
= 7.32 1014 Hz
410 10 9

so

= 410 nm

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

18

Chapter 40 Solutions

We use En =

*40.44

13.6 eV
n2

To ionize the atom when the electron is in the n th level, it is necessary to add an amount of
energy given by
E = En =

13.6 eV
n2

(a)

Thus, in the ground state where n = 1, we have E = 13.6 eV

(b)

In the n = 3 level, E =

13.6 eV
= 1.51 eV
9

k ee 2
k ee 2
1
Starting with 2 m e v 2 = 2r , we have v 2 = m r
e

*40.45

and using rn =

gives vn 2 =

*40.46 (a)

(b)

(c)

n2h2
me ke e 2

ke e 2
n2h2
me
me ke e 2

or

vn =

ke e 2
nh

2 r
2 (3.84 108 m)
v= T =
= 1.02 103 m/s
2.36 106 s

The velocity of the moon in its orbit is

So,

L = mvr = (7.36 1022 kg)(1.02 103 m/s)(3.84 108 m) = 2.89 1034 kg m2/s

We have

L = nh

or

n=

We have

n h = L = mvr = m(GM e /r)1/2 r,

so

r=

L
2.89 1034 kg m2/s
=
= 2.74 1068
h
1.055 10 34 J s

h2
n 2 = Rn 2
2
m GM e

which is approximately equal to

and

r
(n + 1)2 R n 2R
2n + 1
=
=
2
r
n R
n2
2
= 7.30 10 6 9
n

Chapter 40 Solutions

The batch of excited atoms must make these six transitions to get back to state one: 2 1, and
also 3 2 and 3 1, and also 4 3 and 4 2 and 4 1. Thus, the incoming light must
have just enough energy to produce the 1 4 transition. It must be the third line of the
Lyman series in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen. The absorbing atom changes from
energy

40.47

Ei =

13.6 eV
13.6 eV
= 13.6 eV to E f =
= 0.850 eV ,
12
42

so the incoming photons have wavelength

)(

6.626 10 34 J s 3.00 108 m s 1.00 eV


hc
=
=
= 9.75 10 8 m = 97.5 nm

19
E f Ei
0.850 eV ( 13.6 eV )
1.60 10
J

Each atom gives up its kinetic energy in emitting a photon, so

40.48

1
2

mv 2 =

hc
(6.626 10 34 J s)(3.00 108 m/s)
=

(1.216 10 7 m)

= 1.63 1018 J

v = 4.42 104 m/s

40.49

19

(a)

The energy levels of a hydrogen-like ion whose charge number


is Z are given by
Z2
En = ( 13.6 eV ) 2
n
Thus for He lium ( Z = 2) , the energy levels are
En =

(b)

54.4 eV
n = 1, 2, 3, . . .
n2

For He + , Z = 2 , so we see that the ionization energy (the energy


required to take the electron from the n = 1 to the n = state is
E = E E1 = 0

( 13.6 eV)(2)2
(1)2

= 54.4 eV

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20

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.50

r=

n2h2
n 2 h2
=

;
Zme ke e 2 Z me ke e 2

r=

5.29 10 11 m
1
(1.055 10 34 J s)2

=
Z (9.11 10 31 kg)(8.99 10 9 N m 2 / C 2 )(1.602 10 19 C)2
Z

(a)

For He+, Z = 2

r=

5.29 10 11 m
= 2.65 10 11 m = 0.0265 nm
2

(b)

For Li2+, Z = 3

r=

5.29 10 11 m
= 1.77 10 11 m = 0.0177 nm
3

(c)

For Be3+, Z = 4

r=

5.29 10 11 m
= 1.32 10 11 m = 0.0132 nm
4

Since F = qvB =

40.51

or

40.52

n=1

(a)

mv 2
r

qrB = mv,

we have

qr 2B = mvr = nh

The time for one complete orbit is:

rn =

so

T=

nh
qB

2 r
v

From Bohr's quantization postulate, L = me vr = nh, we see that v =


Thus, the orbital period becomes:

(b)

T=

2 me r 2 2 me (a0n 2 )2 2 me a02 3
=
=
n
nh
nh
h

t0 =

2 me a02 2 (9.11 10 31 kg)(0.0529 10 9 m)2


=
= 1.52 10 16 s
h
(1.055 10 34 J s)

or

T = t0n3

where

With n = 2, we have T = 8t0 = 8(1.52 10 16 s) = 1.21 10 15 s


Thus, if the electrons stay in the n = 2 state for 10 s, it will make
10.0 10 6 s
= 8.23 109 revolutions of the nucleus
1.21 10 15 s / rev

(c)

Yes, for 8.23 109 "electron years"

nh
me r

Chapter 40 Solutions

h
h
6.626 1034 J s
=p = mv =
= 3.97 1013 m
(1.67 1027 kg)(1.00 106 m/s)

*40.53

40.54

(a)

p2
= (50.0)(1.60 1019 J)
2m
p = 3.81 1024 kg m/s
h
= p = 0.174 nm

(b)

p2
= (50.0 103)(1.60 1019 J)
2m
p = 1.20 10 22 kg m/s
h
= p = 5.49 10 12 m
The relativistic answer is slightly more precise:

*40.55 (a)

h
hc
=
p (mc 2 + K)2 m2 c 4

Electron:

h
= p

so

p = 2me K

and

1/2

= 5.37 10 12 m

and

h
=
2me K

p2
m2 v 2
K = 21 me v 2 = e
=
2me
2me

6.626 10 34 J s

2 9.11 10 -31 kg ( 3.00) 1.60 10 19 J

= 7.09 10 10 m = 0.709 nm

(b)

Photon: = c / f and E = hf so f = E h and


hc
(6.626 10 34 J s)(3.00 108 m/s)
= E =
= 4.14 107 m = 414 nm
(3.00)(1.60 10 19 J)

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

21

22

Chapter 40 Solutions

From the Bragg condition (Eq. 38.13),

40.56

m = 2d sin = 2d cos ( 2)
But, d = a sin ( 2) where a is the lattice spacing.
Thus, with m = 1,

= 2a sin( 2) cos( 2) = a sin


=

h
=
p

h
=
2me K

6.626 10 34 J s

2 9.11 10

31

)(

kg 54.0 1.60 10

19

= 1.67 10 10 m

Therefore, the lattice spacing is


a=

*40.57 (a)

1.67 10 10 m

=
= 2.18 10 10 m = 0.218 nm
sin 50.0
sin

~ 10 14 m or less.
p=

h 6.6 10 34 J s
~
= 10 19 kg m s or more.

10 14 m

The energy of the electron is

E = p 2 c 2 + me2 c 4 ~ 10 19

) (3 10 ) + (9 10 ) (3 10 )
2

8 2

31 2

so that K = E me c 2 ~ 108 eV 0.5 106 eV

(b)

~ 108 eV

12
8 4

~ 10 11 J~ 108 eV or more,

or more.

The electric potential energy of the electron would be


Ue =

)(

9 10 9 N m 2 C 2 10 19 C ( e )
ke q1q2
~
~ 10 5 eV
r
10 14 m

With its kinetic energy much larger than its negative potential energy,
the electron would immediately escape the nucleus .

Chapter 40 Solutions

23

Goal Solution
The nucleus of an atom is on the order of 10 14 m in diameter. For an electron to be confined to a
nucleus, its de Broglie wavelength would have to be of this order of magnitude or smaller. (a) What
would be the kinetic energy of an electron confined to this region? (b) On the basis of this result, would
you expect to find an electron in a nucleus? Explain.

G:

The de Broglie wavelength of a normal ground-state orbiting electron is on the order 10 10 m (the
diameter of a hydrogen atom), so with a shorter wavelength, the electron would have more kinetic
energy if confined inside the nucleus. If the kinetic energy is much greater than the potential energy
from its attraction with the positive nucleus, then the electron will escape from its electrostatic
potential well.

O:

If we try to calculate the velocity of the electron from the de Broglie wavelength, we find that
v=

h
6.63 10 34 J s
=
= 7.27 1010 m / s
-31
14
me
m
9.11 10 kg 10

)(

which is not possible since it exceeds the speed of light. Therefore, we must use the relativistic
energy expression to find the kinetic energy of this fast-moving electron.

A:

(a)

( )

The relativistic kinetic energy of a particle is K = E mc 2 , where E 2 = ( pc ) + mc 2 , and the


momentum is p = h :
2

p=
E=

6.63 10 34 J s
= 6.63 10 20 N s
10 -14 m

(1.99 10

11

) + (8.19 10
2

14

= 1.99 10 11 J

1.99 10 11 J 8.19 10 14 J
= 124 MeV ~ 100 MeV
1.60 10 19 J / eV
The electrostatic potential energy of the electron 10 14 m away from a positive proton is :
K = E mc 2 =

(b)

9 Nm
19
8.99

10
C

1.60 10
C2

2
U = ke e r =
10 14 m

L:

= 2.30 10 14 J ~ 0.1 MeV

Since the kinetic energy is nearly 1000 times greater than the potential energy, the electron would
immediately escape the protons attraction and would not be confined to the nucleus.
It is also interesting to notice in the above calculations that the rest energy of the electron is
negligible compared to the momentum contribution to the total energy.

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

24

40.58

Chapter 40 Solutions

(a)

From E = m e c2

(b)

p=

(c)

E
c

20.0 103 MeV


= 3.91 104
0.511 MeV

(for m e c 2 << pc)

(2.00 104 MeV)(1.60 1013 J/MeV)


3.00 108 m/s

= 1.07 1017 kg m/s

h
6.626 1034 J s
=p =
= 6.22 1017 m
1.07 1017 kg m/s
Since the size of a nucleus is on the order of 10 14 m, the 20-GeV electrons would be small
enough to go through the nucleus.

40.59

(a)

(b)

E2 = p 2 c 2 + m 2c4
with E = hf ,

p=

h
,

so

h 2f

For a photon

f / c = 1/ .

h 2c2

h2c 2
2C

h
C

and

mc =

and

1
1
f
= 2+ 2
c

(Eq. 1)

The third term 1/ C in Equation 1 for electrons and other massive particles shows that
they will always have a different frequency from photons of the same wavelength

40.60

(a)

The wavelength of the student is = h p = h mv. If w is the width of the diffraction aperture,
then we need w 10.0 = 10.0 ( h mv) , so that
v 10.0

6.626 10 34 J s
h
34
= 10.0
ms
= 1.10 10
mw
(80.0 kg)(0.750 m)
d
we get:
v

0.150 m
= 1.36 10 33 s
1.10 10 34 m / s

(b)

Using t =

(c)

N o . The minimum time to pass through the door is over 1015


Universe.

times the age of the

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.61

The Compton wavelength is:

C =

Therefore, we see that to have

= C,

VS =

40.62

h
me v

The de Broglie wavelength is:

This gives:

1 v /c
2

25

h
me c
it is necessary that

= c , or

v = c.

v
v
= 1
, yielding v =
c
c

c
.
2

h
f
e
e

h
4.1 1014 Hz
e
e

From two points on the graph

0=

and

3.3 V =

h
12 1014 Hz
e
e

Combining these two expressions we find:


(a)

= 1.7 eV

(b)

h
= 4.2 10 15 V s
e

(c)

At the cutoff wavelength

hc

h ec
= = e
c

c = (4.2 10 15 V s)(1.6 10 19 C)

40.63

(3.0 108 m/s)


= 730 nm
(1.7 eV)(1.6 10 19 J/eV)

q2B2R2 (1.60 10 19 C)2(2.00 10 5 T)2(0.200 m)2


Kmax = 2m
=
= 2.25 10 19 J = 1.40 eV = hf
e
2(9.11 10 31 kg)

= hf K max =

hc
(4.14 10 15 eV s)(3.00 108 m/s)
Kmax=
1.40 eV = 1.36 eV

450 10 9 m

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

26

Chapter 40 Solutions

From the path the electrons follow in the magnetic field, the maximum kinetic energy is seen
to be:
e 2B2 R 2
Kmax =
2me

40.64

From the photoelectric equation,

Kmax = hf =

Thus, the work function is

hc

hc
hc e 2B2 R 2
Kmax =

2me

We want an Einstein plot of K max versus f

40.65

, nm f, 1014 Hz
Kmax, eV
588
5.10
0.67
505
5.94
0.98
445
6.74
1.35
399
7.52
1.63
0.402 eV
8%
1014 Hz

(a)

slope =

(b)

e(V S ) = hf
h = (0.402)

(c)

1.60 10 19 J s
= 6.4 10 34 J s 8%
1014

Kmax = 0 at f 344 1012 Hz

= hf = 2.32 10 19 J = 1.4 eV

40.66

h
(6.626 10 34 J s)
(1 cos ) =
(0.234) = 3.09 10 16 m
mp c
(1.67 10 27 kg)(3.00 108 m / s)

0 =

hc (6.626 10 34 J s)(3.00 108 m / s)


=
= 6.20 10 15 m
E0
(200 MeV)(1.60 10 13 J / MeV)

= 0 + = 6.51 10 15 m
hc
= 191 MeV

(a)

E =

(b)

K p = 9.20 MeV

f ( THz)

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.67

27

M is the mass of the positron which equals m e, the mass of the electron.

reduced mass =

So

rpos =

me M
m
= e
me + M
2

n2h2
n2h2
2n2h2
=
=
Z ke e 2 Z( me / 2)ke e 2 Zme ke e 2

or

rpos = 2r Hyd = 1.06 10 10 m n2

or

Epos =

This is the separation of the two particles.


Epos =

me ke 2 e 4 1
ke 2 e 4 1
;
=

2h2 n2
4h2 n2

n = 1, 2, 3, . . .

EHyd
2

6.80 eV
n2

Goal Solution
Positronium is a hydrogen-like atom consisting of a positron (a positively charged electron) and an
electron revolving around each other. Using the Bohr model, find the allowed radii (relative to the
center of mass of the two particles) and the allowed energies of the system.
G:

Since we are told that positronium is like hydrogen, we might expect the allowed radii and energy
levels to be about the same as for hydrogen: r = a0n2 = 5.29 10 11 m n2 and En = ( 13.6 eV ) / n2 .

O:

Similar to the textbook calculations for hydrogen, we can use the quantization of angular
momentum of positronium to find the allowed radii and energy levels.

A:

Let r represent the distance between the electron and the positron. The two move in a circle of
radius r/2 around their center of mass with opposite velocities. The total angular momentum is
quantized according to
Ln =

For each particle, F = ma expands to


We can eliminate

ke e 2 mv 2
=
r/2
r2

to find

So the separation distances are


The orbital radii are r/2 = a0n2, the same as for the electron in hydrogen.
The energy can be calculated from
Since mv 2 =
L:

ke e 2
,
2r

E = K + U = 21 mv 2 + 21 mv 2
E=

ke e 2
r

ke e 2 ke e 2
k e 2 k e 2
6.80 eV

= e = e 2 =
2r
r
2r
n2
4a0n

It appears that the allowed radii for positronium are twice as large as for hydrogen, while the energy
levels are half as big. One way to explain this is that in a hydrogen atom, the proton is much more
massive than the electron, so the proton remains nearly stationary with essentially no kinetic
energy. However, in positronium, the positron and electron have the same mass and therefore both
have kinetic energy that separates them from each other and reduces their total energy compared
with hydrogen.

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

28

40.68

Chapter 40 Solutions

Isolate the terms involving


in Equations 40.12 and
40.13. Square and add to
eliminate .
Solve for

b
v2
=
:
2
c
b + c2

1
2 cos
1
= 2 me2 v 2
h2 2 + 2

0
0
b=

h2
me2

1
2 cos
1

2 + 2
0
0

Substitute into Eq. 40.11:

h 1
1
b
1+
= = 1

me c 0
b + c2

Square each side:

h2 1
2 cos
2hc 1
1 h2 1
1
1

c +
+ 2
= c2+ 2 2 + 2

me 0 me 0
0
me 0

From this we get Eq. 40.10:

0 = ( h me c )[1 cos ]

40.69

hf = E =

4 2 me ke2 e 4 1
1
2

2
2

n
(n 1)
2h

f=

so

2 2 me ke2 e 4 2
n3
h3

As n approaches infinity, we have f approaching


The classical frequency is f =

v
1
=
2 r 2

ke e 2 1
me r 3/2

where

Using this equation to eliminate r from the expression for f,

40.70

2 2 me ke2 e 4 2n 1

(n 1)2 n2
h3

r=

n2 h 2
4 me ke e 2

f=

2 2 me ke2 e 4 2
n3
h3

Show that if all of the energy of a photon is transmitted to an electron, momentum will not
be conserved.
hc
hc hc
Energy:
=
+ Ke = me c 2 ( 1) if
=0
(1)
0

Momentum:

h
h
=
+ me v = me v if =
0

From (1),

(2)

h
+1
0 me c

(3)

0 me c
v = c 1

h + 0 me c

(4)

Substitute (3) and (4) into (2) and show the inconsistency:
2

0 me c
0 me c + h h(h + 2 0 me c)
h
h
h
= 1 +
=
=
me c 1

2
0
0 me c
0
0
(h + 0 me c)
h + 0 me c

40.71

h + 2 0 me c
h

This is impossible, so all of the energy of a photon cannot be transmitted to an electron.


h
v
.
Begin with momentum expressions: p = , and p = mv = mc
c

Chapter 40 Solutions

v
h 1 C
=
=
c mc

Equating these expressions,

( v c )2 = C 2

2

1 (v c)

Thus,

v=

giving

(a)

2
2
2
C
C
C v 2
v
=

c

c
1+ C

or

40.72

29

) ( C )
2

+1

c
1 + ( / C )2

hc

The energy of the ground state is:

E1 =

From the wavelength of the L line, we see:

E2 E1 =

series limit

1240 eV nm
= 8.16 eV
152.0 nm

hc 1240 nm eV
=
= 6.12 eV
202.6 nm

E2 = E1 + 6.12 eV = 2.04 eV

(b)

1240 nm eV
= 7.26 eV
170.9 nm

Using the wavelength of the L line gives:

E3 E1 =

so

E3 = 0 . 9 0 2 e V

Next, using the L line gives:

E4 E1 =

and

E4 = 0 . 5 0 8 e V

From the L line,

E5 E1 =

so

E5 = 0 . 3 2 5 e V

For the Balmer series,

1240 nm eV
hc
= E i E 2 , or =
Ei E 2

For the line, E i = E 3 and so

1240 nm eV
= 7.65 eV
162.1 nm

1240 nm eV
= 7.83 eV
158.3 nm

1240 nm eV
= 1090 nm

0.902
eV ) ( 2.04 eV)
(

Similarly, the wavelengths of the line, line, and the short wavelength limit are found to
be: 811 nm , 724 nm , and 609 nm .

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

30

Chapter 40 Solutions

(c)

Computing 60.0% of the wavelengths of the spectral lines shown on the energy-level diagram
gives:
0.600(202.6 nm) = 122 nm , 0.600(170.9 nm) = 103 nm , 0.600(162.1 nm) = 97.3 nm ,
0.600(158.3 nm) = 95.0 nm , and 0.600(152.0 nm) = 91.2 nm .

These are seen to be the wavelengths of the , , , and lines as well as the short
wavelength limit for the Lyman series in Hydrogen.
(d) The observed wavelengths could be the result of Doppler shift when the source moves away
from the Earth. The required speed of the source is found from
1 (v c)
f
=
=
= 0.600
f
1 + (v c)

40.73

(a)

Starting with Plancks law,

yielding

v = 0.471c

I ( ,T ) =

2 hc 2

5 e hc

kBT

the total power radiated per unit area

I ( ,T ) d =

Change variables by letting

x=

hc
kBT

and

dx =

2 hc 2

5 e hc kBT 1

d .

hc d
kBT 2

Note that as varies from 0 , x varies from 0 .


Then

Therefore,

(b)

From part (a),

I ( ,T ) d =

2 kB4T 4
h3c 2

(e

x3
x

dx =

2 kB4T 4 4

h 3 c 2 15

2 k
4
4
0 I ( ,T ) d = 15 h3cB2 T = T

5 4

2 5 1.38 10 23 J K
2 5 kB4
=
=
15 h 3 c 2 15 6.626 10 34 J s 3 3.00 108 m s

= 5.67 10 8 W m 2 K 4

)(

Chapter 40 Solutions

*40.74

Plancks law states I ( ,T ) =

2 hc 2

e
5

hc k B T

= 2 hc 2 5 e hc

kBT

31

To find the wavelength at which this distribution has a maximum, compute

dI
= 2 hc 2 5 6 e hc
d

kBT

5 e hc

kBT

2 hc 2
hc
dI
e hc kBT

= 6 hc k T
5 +

B 1
d e
kBT e hc kBT 1

Letting x =

hc
2
= 0
kBT

2 hc k T
B

=0

hc
xe x
, the condition for a maximum becomes x
= 5.
kBT
e 1

We zero in on the solution to this transcendental equation by iterations as shown in the table
below. The solution is found to be

xe x e x 1

4.00000
4.50000
5.00000
4.90000
4.95000
4.97500
4.96300
4.96900
4.96600
4.96450
4.96550
4.96500
4.96525
4.96513
4.96507
4.96510
4.965115

4.0746294
4.5505521
5.0339183
4.9367620
4.9853130
5.0096090
4.9979452
5.0037767
5.0008609
4.9994030
5.0003749
4.9998890
5.0001320
5.0000153
4.9999570
4.9999862
5.0000008

x=

Thus, max

hc
= 4.965115
max kBT

(6.626075 10
T=

34

)(

maxT =

and

J s 2.997925 108 m s

4.965115 1.380658 10

23

J K

)=

hc
4.965115 kB

2.897755 10 3 m K

This result is very close to Wiens experimental value of maxT = 2.898 10 3 m K


for this constant.

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

32

40.75

Chapter 40 Solutions

h
(1 cos ) = 0
me c

E =

hc
h
hc
=
= hc 0 +
(1 cos )
me c
0 +

E =

hc
hc
1 +
(1 cos )
2
0 me c 0

hc
hc

1 +
(1

cos

)
E =
0 me c 2 0

40.76

r1 =

E1 =

40.77

(1)2 h2
Z ke e 2

E
= E0 1 + 0 2 (1 cos )
me c

a0
h2
0.0529 nm
=
=
= 3.12 fm
2
82
207
(82)(207me )ke e ( )( ) (82)(207 )
2

13.6 eV 207 82
= 18.9 MeV
(1)2 1 1

This is a case of Compton scattering with a scattering angle of 180.


= 0 =

E0 =

h
2h
1 cos 180) =
(
me c
me c

hc
hc
, so 0 =
E0
0

and = 0 + =

2E0
hc 2h
hc
+
=
1+

E0 me c E0
me c 2

The kinetic energy of the recoiling electron is then


K = E0

1 + 2E0 me c 2 1
2E02 me c 2
E0
hc
= E0
=
E
=
0
1 + 2E m c 2 1 + 2E m c 2

1 + 2E0 me c 2
0
e
0
e

Defining a E0 me c 2 , the kinetic energy can be written as


K=

2E 0 a 2( hf )a
1
=
= 2h f a (1 + 2a)
1 + 2a 1 + 2a

where f is the frequency of the incident photon.

Chapter 40 Solutions

40.78

(a)

33

Planck's radiation law predicts maximum intensity at a wavelength max we find from

d
dI
2 5 (hc/ k B T )
=0=
1
2 hc e
d
d

0 = 2 hc 2 5 (1) e(hc/ kBT ) 1

hc e(hc/ kBT )

or

e(hc/ kBT ) hc / 2 kBT + 2 hc 2 ( 5) 6 e(hc/ kBT ) 1

7 kBT e(hc/ kBT ) 1

6 e(hc/ kBT ) 1

=0

which reduces to

5 ( kBT hc ) e(hc/ kBT ) 1 = e(hc/ kBT )

Define x = hc kBT .

Then we require 5 e x 5 = xe x .

Numerical solution of this transcendental equation gives x = 4.965 to four digits.


max = hc 4.965 kBT , in agreement with Wien's law.

The intensity radiated over all wavelengths is

I ( ,T)d = A + B =

So

2 hc 2 d

Again, define x = hc kBT so = hc xkBT and d = hc x 2 kBT dx


Then, A + B =

2 hc 2 x 5 kB5T 5 hc dx

0
x =

h 5 c 5 x 2 kBT e x 1

2 kB4T 4
h3c 2

x 3 dx

(e

The integral is tabulated as 4 / 15 , so (in agreement with Stefan's law)

A+B=

2 5 kB4 T 4
15 h 3 c 2

The intensity radiated over wavelengths shorter than max is


max

I( ,T)d = A =

max
0

2 hc 2 d

5 e(hc/ kBT ) 1

With x = hc kBT , this similarly becomes

A=

2 kB4 T 4
h3c 2

4.965

x 3 dx
ex 1

So the fraction of power or of intensity radiated at wavelengths shorter than max is

A
=
A+B

4.965 x 3 dx
2 kB4T 4 4

0
h 3 c 2 15
e x 1

2 5 kB4T 4
3 2

= 1

15
4

4.965

x 3 dx
ex 1

15 h c

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

e(hc/ kBT ) 1
5

34

Chapter 40 Solutions

(b)

Here are some sample values of the integrand, along with a sketch of the curve:

Approximating the integral by trapezoids gives

40.79

C =

h
me c

and

h
:
p

E 2 = c 2 p 2 + (me c 2 )2 :

40.80

15
A
1 4 ( 4.870) = 0.2501
A+B

E2
(me c)2
c2

p=

1 E2
1
(me c)2 =
me c c 2
(me c)2

p
h / me c
=
;
me c
h/p

E2
E
2
2 (me c) =
1
me c 2
c

p = mv = 2mE = 2 1.67 10 27 kg (0.0400 eV ) 1.60 10 19 J / eV

h
= m v = 1.43 10 10 m = 0.143 nm
This is of the same order of magnitude as the spacing between atoms in a crystal so diffraction
should appear.

40.81

Let u represent the final speed of the electron and let


eliminate and u from the three conservation equations:
hc
hc
+ me c 2 =
+ me c 2
0

[1]

h
h
+ me u
cos = me u cos
0

[2]

h
sin = me u sin

[3]

= 1 u 2 c 2

1/2

We must

Chapter 40 Solutions

35

Square Equations [2] and [3] and add:


h 2 2 h me u 2 h 2 cos 2 h me u cos
h2
+ 2 me2u2 + 2 +

= 2 me2u 2
2

0
0
2 h me u 2 h me u cos 2 h 2 cos
me2 u 2
h2
h2
+ 2 + 2 me2u2 +

=
2
0

0
0
1 u 2 / c 2
Call the left-hand side b. Then b

b u 2
= me2u 2
c2

and u 2 =

b
c 2b
=
me2 + b c 2 me2 c 2 + b

Now square Equation [1] and substitute to eliminate :


2 h me c
h 2 2 h me c 2 h 2
me2 c 2
h2
+ 2 me2 c 2 + 2 +

=
= me2 c 2 + b
2
0
0

1 u 2 / c 2
So we have
2h me c 2h me c 2h 2
h2
h2
2 2 2
+
+

m
c
+

e
0

0
20 2
= me c 2 +

2h me u 2h me ucos 2h 2 cos
h2
h2
2 2 2
+
+

m
u
+

e
0
0

20 2

Multiply through by 0 me2 c 2

0 2 +

0 2 u2 2 h u 2 h 0 u cos 2 h 2 cos
2h
2 h 0
2 h2

2 2 = 0 +
+

me c
me c
me c
c2
me c 2
me c 2
me2 c 2

2 u2 2 h
u cos 2 h 2
u 2 h 0
=
0 2 1 2 +
1
1
+
(1 cos )
c
me c
me c
c me2 c 2
c

The first term is zero. Then

1 (u cos ) c h 1 1
= 0
+ m c 1 u c (1 cos )
1 u c

1 = 1 (u c ) =
2

Since

this result may be written as

(1 u c)(1 + u c)

1 (u cos ) c
h 1+ u c
+
= 0
(1 cos )

1 u c

me c 1 u c

2000 by Harcourt, Inc. All rights reserved.

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