MARINE ELECTROTECHNOLOGY

1. An increase in which of the following would increase the speed of a synchronous motor?
A.
Frequency
B.
Voltage
C.
Armature Current
D.
Number of poles
2. Which of the following methods should be used to test an AC motor stator for an open coil?
A.
Ohmmeter with one terminal on shaft and the other on stator leads
B.
Ohmmeter with terminal between leads
C.
Growler, listening for diminishing noise and vibration over an open coil
D.
Growler, listening for noise and vibration to increase when coil is open
3. The most common cause of electric motor and generator failure is:
A.
Insulation breakdown
B.
Operating at low temperature
C.
Operating at low load
D.
Operating at 100% load for an extended period of time.
4. In a two stroke-cycle engine, what does scavenging perform?
A.
Improve starting
B.
Cooling of exhaust valves
C.
Increase compression pressure
D.
Higher torque outputs
5. The output voltage of a three phase alternator is regulated by the_______.
A.
AC voltage to the armature
B.
AC voltage to the field
C.
DC voltage to the armature
D.
DC voltage to the field
6. The function of damper windings in a synchronous motor is to:
A.
Eliminate slippage
B.
Provide excitation
C.
Provide starting torque
D.
Increase efficiency

7. A shading coil in an AC magnetic controller functions to

A.
Reduce vibration and noise in the contactor.
B.
Prevent flux build up in the operating coil
C.
Eliminate arcing when the contact close
D.
Energize the operating coil and pull in the contacts.

8. Which statements is true concerning all three-phase alternators?

A.
Each has three separate but identical armature windings acted on by one.
B.
Each has one armature winding acted on by three identical but separate systems of rotating
magnets.
C.
All three-phase alternators are designed to operate with a 0.8 leading power factor.
D.
The three phase always provide power to the load through three sets of slip rings and
brushes.
9. Every automated machinery plant must have an engineers assistance needed alarm. Power for
this alarm should be taken from the _______.
A.
Main bus
B.
Emergency bus
C.
Standby generator
D.
General alarm power supply.
10. The conversion of the throttle command voltage signal necessary to achieve the desired shaft RPM
is accomplished by_____.
A.
Ahead or astern function generator of the throttle control circuit.
B.
Feedback resistor of the summing amplifier circuit
C.
Operational amplifiers in the autorotation circuit
D.
Long time constant amplifier circuit
11. A temperature instrumentation system for an engine room console consist of a resistance
temperature detector(RTD), e measuring bridge circuit and a meter or alarm circuit. Which
statement is true about the measuring bridge circuit?
A.
The input voltage varies in a linear fashion with temperature
B.
The voltage across the center of the resistance bridge is always constant
C.
The resistance bridge is said to be balanced when its output voltage is zero
D.
The input voltage of the resistance bridge is the constant temperature signal.
12. The difference between the pressure at a point being measured and that of a perfect vacuum is the
_______pressure.
A.
Internal
B.
Gauge
C.
Absolute
D.
External
13. A pneumercator is used to measure fuel oil_______.
A.
Pressure
B.
Level
C.
Temperature
D.
Flow

14. The type of gauge most commonly used to measure pressure is the ______.
A.
Bi-metallic type
B.
Diaphragm type
C.
Bourdon-tube type
D.
Resistance temperature type
15. In a series circuit, the total resistance is:
A.
The sum of all the resistance
B.
The average of all the resistances
C.
The reciprocal of the sum of all the resistances
D.
The same as the largest resistance
16. One kW is equal to:
A.
1.25 HP
B.
1.33 HP
C.
1.50 HP
D.
2.0 HP
17. An ohmmeter measures:
A.
Resistance
B.
Insulation resistance
C.
Voltage
D.
Amperage
18. A voltmeter is connected in a circuit in:
A.
Parallel
B.
Series-parallel
C.
Series
D.
Relay

19. The resistance of two 60A 60 V batteries connected in series is:

A.
15 ohms
B.
20 ohms
C.
10 ohms
D.
25 ohms
20. One horse power equals:
A.
1000 watts
B.
746 watts
C.
100 watts
D.
940 watts
21. The resistance of a 60 W bulb in a 120 V lines is:
A.
200 ohms

B.
C.
D.

220 ohms
240 ohms
110 ohms

22. The electrical power in watts used by a toaster using 5A with a resistance of 22 ohms is:
A.
5.50
B.
110
C.
550
D.
220
23. Twelve (12) 100-watt lamps in parallel in a 120-volt line will draw a current of:
A.
100 A
B.
1A
C.
10 A
D.
15 A
24. The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always:
A.
Larger than that of the branch with the greatest resistance
B.
Equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances
C.
Equal to the reciprocal of the sum of the individual branch resistance
D.
Smaller than that of the branch with the lowest resistance
25. If a parallel circuit has three branches of unequal branches:
A.
The current through each branch is the same
B.
The total resistance is equal to the sum of the individual branches
C.
The voltage drop across each branch is the same
D.
The voltage drop across each branch is directly proportional to the resistance of that branch
26. The total resistance in a parallel circuit having three resistors with values at 12 ohms, 6 ohms and 2
ohms:
A.
1 ohm
B.
1 ohm
C.
1 1/3 ohm
D.
1 1/6 ohm
27. The total resistance of four resistors with ohmic values of 30 ohm, 33 ohms, 66 ohms and 330
ohms connected in parallel:
A.
20 ohms
B.
12 2/9 ohms
C.
6 1/3 ohms
D.
14 ohms
28. The unit of electrical pressure is:
A.
Ampere
B.
Watts
C.
Volts

D.

Ohms

29. The unit of electrical current flow is:

A.
Ampere
B.
Watts
C.
Volts
D.
Ohms
30. The unit of electrical resistance is:
A.
Ampere
B.
Watts
C.
Volts
D.
Ohms
31. A galvanometer is used to measure:
A.
Small voltages
B.
Small currents
C.
Large voltages
D.
Large currents
32. Volts X Amperes equals:
A.
KW
B.
Watts
C.
Ohms
D.
Watt-hours
33. If three resistances of 2 ohms, 4 ohms and 6 ohms resistors are connected in parallel, the total
resistance is:
A.
2.05 ohms
B.
1.09 ohms
C.
0.5 ohms
D.
12 ohms
34. Which of the following formula will solve for amperage
A.
R/E
B.
RE
C.
E/R
D.
R+E
35. When using ohms law, E/R will solve for :
A.
Amperage
B.
Resistance
C.
Voltage
D.
Wattage

36. The horse power of a motor with an effective resistance of 2 ohms on a 110 V line is:
A.
16 HP
B.
12 HP
C.
10 HP
D.
8 HP
37. An ammeter reads 230 A and the voltmeter reads 115 V. The power in kW at the time of the
reading is:
A.
26,450
B.
264.5
C.
26.45
D.
2.645
38. In a series circuit, the total current is:
A.
The same as that of the largest branch circuit
B.
The same as that of the smallest branch circuit
C.
The same throughout all parts of the circuit
D.
None of the above
39. When using Ohms law, E/I will solve for:
A.
amperage
B.
Resistance
C.
Voltage
D.
Wattage
40. In a DC series circuit, all conductors have the same:
A.
Power expended in them
B.
Voltage drop across them
C.
Resistance to current flow
D.
Current passing through them
41. The only type of compound generator commonly used aboard ship is:
A.
over compounded
B.
Flat compound
C.
Stabilized shunt
D.
Field poles
42. What are commutators made of ?
A.
Soft copper bars insulated with mica
B.
Hard drawn copper bars insulated with mica
C.
Soft solid copper with cutaway slots for mica
D.
Hard drawn solid copper with cutaway slots for mica
43. A shunt-wound generator is one which the field windings are parallel with the:
A.
Armature
B.
Brushes
C.
Commutator
D.
Field poles

44. An exciting current is required to:

A.
Build up a dead circuit
B.
Create a magnetic field
C.
Excite a synchronous motor
D.
Build up the voltage in a battery
45. Which of the following are not in a DC commutator and armature?
A.
Interpole
B.
Mica
C.
Copper bars
D.
Vee ring
46. If the brushes in generator are not positioned in the neutral plane, sparking may occur between the
brushes and the?
A.
Yoke
B.
Commutator
C.
Armature windings
D.
Field pole windings
47. A rheostat is a device that regulates the strength of an electric current by:
A.
Varying the resistance in the circuit
B.
Varying the voltage in the circuit
C.
Increasing magnetic field in the circuit
D.
Varying the current in the circuit.
48. Which of the following is not found on a DC generator?
A.
Pigtails
B.
Brushes
C.
Stationary armature
D.
Brush holders
49. Which of the following will not cause a generator to vibrate?
A.
Misalignment
B.
Loose bolts
C.
Loose pigtails
D.
Faulty speed governor
50. Most generators will withstand an overload of:
A.
15 %
B.
25 %
C.
30 %
D.
35%
51. A series-wound generator has the field windings in series with the:
A.
Brushes
B.
Armature
C.
Commutator
D.
Field poles

52. The pole pieces mounted in a DC generator are built up of sheet steel laminations riveted together
to :
A.
Fit the curvature of the flame
B.
Reduce eddy current looses
C.
Allow for necessary air gap
D.
Allow for easy assembly
53. Armature cores in the DC generator are made up of laminated steel sheets To:
A.
Fit the curvature of the frame
B.
Increase the hysteresis effect
C.
Reduce eddy current losses
D.
Allow easy assembly
54. Reversing the current flow through a coil will _________.
A.
Reduce the amount of flux produced
B.
Have no effect on its eddy currents
C.
Reduced the power consumed
D.
Reverse its two pole field.

55. Modern generators are fitted with interpoles to _______.

A.
Reduce sparking
B.
Prevent motorizing
C.
Reduce spring pressure on the brushes.
D.
Reduce the load on the main poles.
56. The purpose of interpoles on DC motors is to __________.
A.
Provide greater torque by strengthening the main field
B.
Provide sparkles commutation without shifting brushes
C.
Limit the production of counter electromotive force
D.
Limit the starting current surge.
57. The process of reversing the direction of the current in an armature coil as the commutator
segments to which the coil is connected pass under brush is called:
A.
Slip
B.
Commutation
C.
Armature reaction
D.
Dynamic excitation
58. What type of an automatic starter is used with large DC Motors?
A.
Time element type
B.
Counter EMF type
C.
Shunt current limit type
D.
All of the above

59. A motor controller contains three selector push buttons labeled start, jog, and stop. When
you push the jog button the motor:
A.
Will run continuously after the jog button is released.
B.
Will run until the jog button is released
C.
Cannot start until both the jog and start buttons are pushed
D.
Cannot stop unless the stop button is pushed
60. Commutators are used on DC generators to_________.
A.
Convert the sine wave output to DC electricity
B.
Provide a path for transient currents in the armature
C.
Maintain the proper frequency to the external circuit
D.
Supply a small voltage to the commutating poles
61. DC motor controllers inserts a resistance in series with the motor armature during starting to:
A.
Increase the starting current
B.
Pull in and close the line contacts
C.
Reduce magnetic humming
D.
Reduce high starting current
62. When you are starting a DC motor whose speed is controlled by a variable resistor, the resistor first
must be turned:
A.
All the way toward fast
B.
All the way toward slowly
C.
To the mid position
D.
To the run position
63. A DC generator has its pilot light on indicates that:
A.
The generator is running in parallel
B.
It is ready to provide voltage to the system
C.
It is up to normal operating temperature
D.
It is overloaded
64. When should you take megger readings on a generator? I. Immediately after shutdown; II just prior
to start-up after prolonged shutdown.
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
Both I and II
D.
Neither I nor II
65. Which is the proper method of bringing a DC generator into parallel with another generator
already supplying the bus?
A.
Start the prime mover, close the circuit breaker, adjust the voltage, balance the load.
B.
Start the prime mover, close the circuit breaker, adjust the series resistance, balance the
load

C.

D.

Start the prime mover, close the circuit breaker, close the equalizing bus, adjust the voltage,
balance the load
Start the prime mover, adjust the voltage, close the circuit breaker, balance the load.

66. When DC generators are fitted with interpoles, it is to: I prevent sparking; II prevent motorizing:
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
Both I and II
D.
Neither I nor II
67. To remove one of the two DC generators from the line and still maintain the line voltage you
would:
A.
Lower the resistance of one and increase the resistance of the other
B.
Use the remote motor governor control
C.
Do A and B
D.
Do neither A nor B
68. To remove the load from one of two DC generators operating in parallel, while maintaining
constant line voltage, you should use the : I field rheostat to decrease field strength of one
generator while increasing the field of the other generator; II governor controls to lower the speed
of one generator while raising the speed of the other generator.
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
Both I and II
D.
Neither I nor II
69. A DC generator has lost its residual magnetism; Which of the following would be a correct
procedure?
A.
Renew field coils
B.
Excite field coils
C.
Renew stator coils
D.
Excite stator coils
70. Compound generator that has a no-load voltage of 250 volts and a full load voltage of 230 volts is
considered to be:
A.
Flat compounded
B.
Over compounded
C.
Under compounded
D.
Cumulatively compounded
71. Transferring loads between parallel DC generators is accomplished by adjusting which of the
following: I the prime mover governors; II the generator shunt field circuit resistance
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
Both I and II
D.
Neither I nor II

72. Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining the size of cable to be used in
a particular circuit?
A.
Voltage rating
B.
Weight per unit length
C.
Current rating
D.
Inductance per unit length
73. Which other factors remaining constant, when the applied voltage is halved, current flow in a
given circuit will _______.
A.
Double
B.
Remain the same
C.
Be divided by two
D.
Be divided by four
74. If the length of wire is halved and cross-sectional area is doubled, the resistance will be ______.
A.
Quartered
B.
Unchanged
C.
Doubled
D.
Quadrupled
75. The specific resistance of wire depends on _________.
A.
Its material
B.
Its cross sectional area
C.
Its length
D.
All of these
76. The resistance of a conductor depends on _________.
A.
Temperature and insulation
B.
Material and insulation
C.
Resistive coefficient and material
D.
Material and temperature
77. When the current through a copper wire increases, its_______.
A.
Resistance will decrease
B.
Insulation will burn
C.
Temperature will increase
D.
Conductivity will increase
78. The resistance of most conducting material changes due to temperature change. The resistance of
copper will_______.
A.
Increase as temperature decreases
B.
Decrease as temperature decreases
C.
Remain the same between 20F and 110 F
D.
Remain the same between 20C and 110C

79. When the current in a power transmission line is doubled, the power loss_____.
A.
Is halved
B.
Is doubled
C.
Is quadrupled
D.
Remains the same
80. Most conducting materials, such as a copper, aluminum, iron, nickel and tungsten______.
A.
Increase in resistance with increase in temperature
B.
Increase in resistance with decrease in temperature
C.
Decrease in resistance with increase in temperature
D.
Increase in resistance with increase in temperature
81. A conductor with a cross sectional area of one circular mill would have a diameter of _____ inch.
A.
1/10th
B.
1/100th
C.
1/1000th
D.
1/10000th
82. Which AWG wire size has the smallest diameter?
A.
0000
B.
0
C.
14
D.
250
83. Which statement about copper wire sized by AWG numbers is correct?
A.
Number 12 AWG wire has a higher current rating than 10 AWG wire
B.
Number 12 AWG wire at 250C has more resistance per 100 ft. than 10 AWG wire at 250
C
C.
Number 12 AWG wire has a higher dielectric strength than 12 AWG wire
D.
Number 12 AWG wire is larger than the number 10 AWG wire
84. A bus bar is 3 inches wide and 0.375 inches thick. What size or round conductor in circular mill is
necessary to carry the same current as the bus bar? Note: The area of a circular mil is equal to
0.7854 of a square mil.
A.
1,125,000 circular mils
B.
1,250,000 circular mils
C.
1,432,000 circular mils
D.
1,547,000 circular mils
85. When the length and cross sectional area of a wire are both tripled, the resistance______.
A.
Increase nine fold
B.
Increase threefold
C.
Remains the same
D.
Decrease six fold

86. The insulation of electric generators during idle periods should be______.
A.
Allowed to cool slowly to ambient temperatures
B.
Flashed with direct current to remove any residual magnetism
C.
Kept warm by using strip or space heaters
D.
Relieved of all capacitive charge by grounding the conductors
87. A megohmmeter can be used to test for____.
A.
An open coil
B.
A shorted field pole
C.
Under cut mica
D.
Reversed polarity
88. Part of the insulation of practically all electrical machinery is in the form of organic compounds
which contains some amount of _______.
A.
Asbestos
B.
Water
C.
Fiber
D.
Plastic
89. Electrical machinery insulation will break down more rapidly due to ______.
A.
Low loading of motors and generators
B.
Frequent megger testing
C.
Higher temperatures and vibration
D.
High operating frequencies
90. The life expectancy of electrical insulation is approximately halved for an increased operating
temperature of _________.
A.
10C
B.
25C
C.
50C
D.
100C
91. The most common type of AC service generator found aboard ship is the _______.
A.
Electromagnetic field-revolving armature type
B.
Electromagnetic field-oscillatory armature-type
C.
Armature oscillatory electromagnet field type
D.
Armature rotating electromagnetic field type
92. Brushless generators operate without the use of ________.
A.
Brushes
B.
Slip rings
C.
Commutators
D.
All of the above
93. How is DC output obtained from brushless exciter?
A.
From collector rings mounted on the armature
B.
From semiconductor rectifier mounted on the exciter armature
C.
Directly from the commutator by induction
D.
From a semiconductor rectifier mounted on the stator.

94. One of the factors which determines frequency of an alternator is controlled by the_______.
A.
Number of turns of wire in the armature coil
B.
Number of magnetic poles
C.
Strength of the magnets used
D.
Output voltage
95. The frequency of an operating alternator is controlled by the______.
A.
Relative speed of the rotor poles
B.
Number of turns of wire in the armature coil
C.
Strength of the magnets used
D.
Output voltage
96. In an AC generator connected to the bus as the load and power factor of the load changes, these
changes are reflected by changes in the armature reaction of the generator. These changes in
armature reaction are compensated for by the ______.
A.
Governor speed droop setting
B.
Voltage regulator
C.
Balance coil
D.
Phase balance relay
97. Voltage generated by most AC generators is brought from the machine to the bus by means of
______.
A.
Brushes on the commutator
B.
Brushes on slip rings
C.
Slip rings on a commutator
D.
Direct connections from the stator.
98. In an AC generator, direct current from a separate source is passed through windings of the
rotor_______.
A.
By means of slip rings and brushes
B.
By means of a commutator
C.
By means of rotating bar magnet
D.
To minimize the danger of arc over
99. What is the phase angle of a six-pole, three phase, rotating field generator?
A.
60
B.
120
C.
180
D.
360
100. The most common source of excitation for synchronous motor is a ______.
A.
Battery
B.
Motor attenuator set
C.
DC exciter generator
D.
AC supply
101. The frequency of an alternator at a given RPM is determined by the ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Number of turns of wire in the armature coil

Number of magnetic poles
Strength of magnetic used
Output voltage

102. Which procedure should be used to determine the load on a three-phase delta connected AC
generator?
A.
Multiply the amperage in one phase by 3
B.
Divide the total amperage in all phases by 3
C.
Multiply the amperage in one phase by the square root of 3
D.
Divide the total amperage in all phases by the square root of 3
103. Three factors responsible for the change in voltage as load is applied to an AC generator running
with constant speed and excitation are resistance drop in the armature circuit, change in flux, and
change in _______.
A.
Armature winding speed
B.
Inductance load drop
C.
Coil pitch factor
D.
Armature reactance voltage drop
104. What happen to the alternator frequency if the load is removed from a turbo generator whose
governor has 3 percent speed droop?
A.
It will remain unchanged
B.
It will decrease approximately 3 percent
C.
It will become variable
D.
It will increase
105. As load is added to an AC generator with constant field excitation the prime mover slows down
________.
A.
Lowering frequency and lowering generated voltage
B.
Increasing frequency and increasing generated voltage
C.
Increasing frequency and lowering generated voltage
D.
Lowering frequency and increasing generated voltage
106. When an alternator governor control switch is moved to raise, this will ______.
A.
Raise the no-load speed setting of the governor
B.
Raise the percentage of speed droop
C.
Lower the no-load speed setting of the governor
D.
Lower the percentage of speed droop
107. The main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large AC generator is to_____.
A.
Keep the lube oil warm for quick starting
B.
Prevent moisture condensation in the windings during shutdown
C.
Prevent windings from becoming brittle
D.
Pent acidic pitting of the slip rings

108. When securing an AC generator, you should first ________.

A.
Trip the generator circuit breaker
B.
Switch the voltage regulator to manual
C.
Decrease the field excitation to minimum
D.
Reduce the load on the unit
109. The cycles per second of the alternating current from the alternator aboard your boat are
determined by _______.
A.
The speed of the engine driving the alternator
B.
The resistance applied to the field rheostat
C.
The synchronous speed of induction
D.
The adjustments made to the voltage regulator
110. The frequency of an AC generator is adjusted by means of the ______.
A.
Main alternator field rheostat
B.
Exciter field rheostat
C.
Prime mover governor control
D.
Equalizing reactor
111. To increase the frequency of an AC generator of an operating AC generator, you should ______.
A.
Increase the field excitation
B.
Decrease the field excitation
C.
Increase the number of magnetic poles
D.
Increase the speed of the prime mover
112. The power factor at which an AC generator, operating singularly must operate is determined by the
_______.
A.
Connected load
B.
Prime mover speed
C.
Field excitation
D.
Generators rated voltage
113. The frequency of an AC generator is controlled by the _____.
A.
Rheostat
B.
Governor
C.
Exciter
D.
Capacitor
114. The frequency of an alternator is controlled from the main switchboard by the adjusting ______.
A.
Frequency meter
B.
Voltage regulator
C.
Governor control
D.
Synchroscope switch
115. One important difference between wye-connected and delta connected generators is that the delta
connection has ______

A.
B.
C.
D.

Line voltages equal to the vector sum of the phase voltages

Phase voltages 90 degrees out
Line currents equal to the phase currents
Line voltages equal to the phase voltage

116. A DC generator supplying a direct current to maintain an AC generator field is known as a/an
_______.
A.
Rotor
B.
Stator
C.
Exciter
D.
Armature
117. An AC generator operates at 60 Hz and 1800 RPM. If the generator goes to 1830, the cycles will
be ________.
A.
60 Hz
B.
61 Hz
C.
62 Hz
D.
63 Hz
118. What will be the frequency of a three phase, six pole, AC generator operating at 1800 RPM
A.
60 Hz
B.
90 Hz
C.
120 Hz
D.
180 Hz
119. An alternator will fail to produce line voltage because of ______.
A.
A closed circuit breaker
B.
Oxidized slip rings
C.
Improperly staggered brushes
D.
Exciter generator failure
120. If an AC generator experiences voltage failure, the cause may be ________.
A.
An open in the field circuit
B.
The brushes shifting out of the neutral plane
C.
Excessive lock rotor current
D.
A rotating slip ring
121. Chattering of collector ring brushes on a generator may be remedied by _______.
A.
Lubricating brush holders
B.
Reinsulating the brushes
C.
Cleaning the collector rings
D.
Increasing length of pigtail
122. Motorization of an alternator is undesirable because _________.
A.
The alternator will be damaged
B.
It puts an additional load on the bus
C.
High voltage pulses are induced in the bus

D.

All of the above

123. The main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large AC generator is to ______.
A.
Keep the lube oil warm for quick starting
B.
Prevent moisture condensation in the windings during shutdown
C.
Prevent the windings from becoming brittle
D.
Pent acidic pitting of the slip rings
124. Three factors responsible for the change in voltage as load is applied to an AC generator are
resistance drop in the armature circuit, change in flux and ______.
A.
Armature winding speed
B.
Induction load drop
C.
Coil pitch factor
D.
Armature reactance voltage drop
125. The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators is determined by the _______.
A.
Amount of field excitation to the leading machine
B.
Load speed characteristics of the governors
C.
Amount of field excitation to the lagging machine
D.
Type of an alternator
126. The load sharing characteristics of two diesel generators operating in parallel are mostly dependent
on their governors _______ settings.
A.
Load limit
B.
Idle speed
C.
Speed limit
D.
Speed droop
127. Kilowatt load is divided between two Ac generators operating in parallel by ________.
A.
Adjusting the governor controls
B.
Varying the excitation voltage
C.
Increasing both prime mover speeds
D.
Decreasing both prime mover speeds
128. The division of the kilowatt load between two AC generators operating in parallel is controlled by
the settings and characteristics of the _________.
A.
Voltage regulators
B.
Field rheostats
C.
Reverse power relays
D.
Prime mover governors

129. In equalized the power factor of two alternators operating in parallel, the ______.
A.
Field excitation of both units is adjusted

B.
C.
D.

Governors of both units are adjusted

Phase sequence is altered
Kilowatt load is evenly divided

130. Equal power factor at which a paralleled AC generator operates is usually adjusted by the
_______.
A.
Connected load
B.
Prime mover speed
C.
Field excitation
D.
Generators rated voltage
131. If the excitation of one of two alternators operating in parallel is increased, the _______.
A.
Power factor will change in the lagging direction
B.
Power factor will change in the leading direction
C.
Kilowatt load will be greatly increased
D.
Ampere load will be greatly decreased
132. Why is it desirable to operate paralleled AC generators at the same power factors ?
A.
Circulating currents are kept to a minimum
B.
Field excitation losses are kept to a minimum
C.
Generator rotors will have less of a tendency to hunt
D.
Because a power factor decrease kilowatt out
133. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the synchroscope pointer stops is revolving
in the slow direction. This indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is _______.
A.
Higher than the bus frequency
B.
Lower than the bus frequency
C.
The same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it
D.
The same may be closed at any pointer position
134. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the synchroscope pointer stops at a position
other than 0. This indicates that ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The frequency of the incoming machine is the same as the bus frequency
The incoming machine is in phase with the bus, the frequency is not the same
The circuit breaker may be closed
There is cross current between generators

135. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving slowly
in the fast direction. You should _______.
A.
Use the governor control switch to adjust the incoming voltage so it is equal to the bus
voltage
B.
Use the governor control switch to increase the speed one on the line only
C.
Close the circuit breaker when the synchroscope pointer is at the 0 position
D.
Use the field rheostat to adjust the speed of the incoming machine

136. While you are paralleling two AC generators using synchronizing lamps when both lamps go dark,
the generators are _______.
A.
Running at the same speed
B.
Grounded
C.
Of the same polarity
D.
In phase
137. You are paralleling two alternators. The synchronizing lamps when both lamps glow dim and are
totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0 position. This indicates that the
_____.
A.
Alternator voltages are 180 apart
B.
Circuit breaker should be closed
C.
Incoming alternator is running too slowly
D.
Synchroscope is defective or broken
138. When you are connecting shore power to a ship in dry dock ______.
A.
The ships generator are paralleled with the shore power to provide continuous power
B.
Proper phase sequence must be established
C.
Exactly 450 volts must be supplied from the shore
D.
Exactly 60 Hz must be provided by the terminal
139. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer stops at a position
other than 0. If you close the circuit breaker_______.
A.
The incoming machine will accept all the load
B.
The incoming machine will trip out on low voltage release
C.
A hazardous condition will be created by the cross current between the machines
D.
A hazardous condition will be created by the incoming machine being at a higher frequency
than the bus.
140. You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the synchroscope pointer is revolving
clockwise in the fast direction. This indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is _____.
A.
Higher than the bus frequency
B.
Lower than the bus frequency
C.
The same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it
D.
The same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be closed at any pointer position
141. You are paralleling two generators and the synchronizing lamps and remain lighted as the
synchroscope pointer approaches the zero degree position. This indicates that the _______.
A.
Alternator voltages are 90 apart
B.
Incoming alternator is running too fast
C.
Alternator power factors are in phase
D.
Synchroscope is defective or broken
142. An AC generator panel is equipped with both synchronizing lamps and a synchroscope. When the
synchroscope pointer reaches the noon position, one synchronizing light is bright and the other is
dark. This means_______.
A.
There is ground on the phase with the dark lamp

B.
C.
D.

The phase sequence is incorrect

The phase sequence is correct
The generator breaker may be closed

143. If the pointer of a synchroscope rotates in the slow direction when you are preparing to parallel
two alternators the ______.
A.
Incoming machine is turning faster than the load alternator
B.
Loaded alternator is turning faster than the incoming machine
C.
Load on the loaded alternator is ready to split
D.
Incoming machine is beginning to pick up some of the load
144. When you are paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps, the flicker in all three
lamps slower and slower. This means the _______.
A.
Frequency of the incoming generator is approaching that of the bus
B.
Frequency of the incoming alternator is less than that of the bus
C.
Phase rotation of the incoming alternators is opposite to that of the bus
D.
Terminal voltage of the incoming alternator is approaching that of the bus.
145. When you are paralleling two AC generators, the synchroscope selector switch and frequency
meter switch should be set up to sense the frequency of the ________.
A.
Bus
B.
Generator on the line
C.
Incoming generator
D.
Bus transfer relay
146. When two AC generators are being paralleled, the breaker should be closed with the synchroscope
pointer moving in the ______ the 12 oclock position
A.
Slow direction just before
B.
Fast direction just after
C.
Fast direction just before
D.
Slow direction just after
147. When you are paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the incoming machine, immediately
prior to closing its breaker, should be _______.
A.
Controlled by placing the governor switch in the automatic position
B.
Adjusted with the voltage regulator
C.
Slightly greater than the bus frequency
D.
Slightly less than the bus frequency
148. The load can be adjusted on a paralleled generator by using the ________.
A.
Field rheostat
B.
Governor control
C.
Automatic voltage regulators
D.
Hand tachometer

149. When paralleling Two AC generators the frequency (cycles) of the incoming generator, just before
closing the breaker, should be_______.
A.
Slightly less than the frequency (cycles) of the generator on the line
B.
The same as the frequency (cycles) of the generator on the line
C.
Equal to or slightly more than the frequency (cycles) of the generator on the line
D.
Any of the above
150. When paralleled, Ac generators must have the same _______.
A.
Frequency
B.
Numbered of phases
C.
Phase rotation
D.
All of the above
151. What is the first step in removing a generator from parallel operation?
A.
Trip the generator off the switchboard
B.
Turn off all electrical equipment
C.
Remove the load from the off going generator
D.
Increase the cycles of the generator staying on the line
152. Prior to closing the breaker when paralleling two AC generators, the recommended practice is to
have the frequency of the incoming machine ________.
A.
Slightly less than the line frequency
B.
The same as the line frequency
C.
Slightly greater than the line frequency
D.
Any of the above
153. A change in field excitation of an alternator operating in parallel will cause a change in its ______.
A.
Alternator frequency
B.
Kilowatt load
C.
Ampere load
D.
All of the above
154. Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in parallel one with a zero speed droop
setting and the other with 5% speed droop. If its capacity is not exceeded, the unit whose governor
has the zero speed droop setting will ______.
A.
Assume the smaller share of the load
B.
Maintain the frequency of the system
C.
Have poor sensitivity characteristics
D.
Have poor power response
155. An alternator is being paralleled with one on the line. At the instant the circuit breaker is closed the
frequency of the incoming alternator will normally ________.
A.
Increase
B.
Not change
C.
Decrease
D.
Be exactly 60 Hz

156. Why is it good practice to have the frequency of the incoming alternator adjusted slightly higher
than that of the loaded alternator when you are paralleling alternators?
A.
Allow the machine to accept load immediately
B.
Prevent the machine from floating on the line
C.
Prevent the reverse power relay from activating
D.
All of the above
157. If one of two alternators operating in parallel near rated load trips out mechanically, what actions
should be taken first?
A.
Restart the tripped machine immediately
B.
Strip the board of all nonvital circuits
C.
Start emergency generator
D.
Transfer all vital loads to the emergency bus
158. If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel, that alternator will _____.
A.
Supply excessive current to the bus
B.
Operate at the same load but with reduced voltage
C.
Lose its load and tend to overspeed
D.
Become overloaded and slow down
159. If the prime mover energy input is significantly reduced to a shipboard alternator operating in
parallel with other that alternator will ______.
A.
Continue to operate at no load
B.
Lose its load and overspeed
C.
Start to motorized and then trip out
D.
Slow down and operate at reduced load
160. After you close the circuit breaker to parallel two similar alternators, the next step is to balance the
_________.
A.
Power factor
B.
Voltage loads
C.
Kilowatt loads
D.
Ampere loads
161. If an AC generator is paralleled to the bus with a different phase rotation than the bus, what will
occur?
A.
The breaker will trip
B.
The KVA will decrease
C.
The synchronizing lamps will burn out
D.
The power factor will be unity
162. To remove from the bus an alternator operating in parallel with another unit, you should first
_______.
A.
Adjust the power factor on both units
B.
Set the desired voltage on the outgoing alternator

C.
D.

Open circuit breaker on the outgoing alternator

Remove the load from the out going alternator

163. Equalization of the power factors of two alternators operating in parallel is accomplished ______
A.
Manually by adjusting the governor controls
B.
Automatically by automatic voltage regulators
C.
Manually adjusting the output of current transformers
D.
Automatically by the designed action of the governors
164. When two generators are on the line and are sharing the load equally they are said to be operating
in ________.
A.
Frequency
B.
Series
C.
Parallel
D.
Resonance
165. A vessel is equipped with two ships service generators. Generator one is rated at 900 kW and
generator two is rated at 600 kW. During parallel operation with a hotel load of 1000 kW. What
should the kW load be on generator two?
A.
100 kW
B.
400 kW
C.
500 kW
D.
600 kW
166. An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate severely and then trips out on the reverse
power relay. The cause of the vibration was ______.
A.
The drooping of load by that alternator
B.
Overspeeding of the vibrating alternator
C.
That alternator being out of synchronism
D.
Flashover at the alternator collector rings
167. Severe vibration with flash over at the collector rings of an alternator operating in parallel is a
symptom of ________.
A.
Reverse current motorization
B.
Loss of synchronism
C.
Destructive overspeeding
D.
Reverse polarity
168. If an alternator pulls out of synchronism with another alternator, what occurs?
A.
The normally operating alternator will vibrate severely
B.
The out of synchronism alternator will vibrate severely
C.
The normal operating alternator will overspeed and unload
D.
The out of synchronism alternator will be motorized
169. If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel is decreased below normal, its _______.
A.
Power factor will change in the lagging direction

B.
C.
D.

Power factor will change in leading direction

Ampere load will be greatly decreased
Kilowatt load will be greatly decreased

170. What will happen if you close the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator 180 degrees out of
phase with the loaded alternator when paralleling?
A.
The rotor of the loaded alternator will hunt
B.
Severe cross currents will occur which could cause damage
C.
The rotor of the incoming alternator will stop
D.
Alternators will parallel 180 degrees out of phase.
171. This type of instrument can be used to measure level in both close or open tank. One leg of it is
connected to the bottom of the tank and the other left open to atmosphere.
A.
Differential pressure
B.
Pressure transmitter
C.
Sight glass
D.
Capacitance level gauge
172. An instrument use to measure level of an open tank by means of liquid column can be indicated
by_______.
A.
Sight glass
B.
Float
C.
Probe
D.
Pressure gauge
173. In transduced application an instrument used in measuring level inside a close tank (e.g. boiler
drum) is:
A.
Differential pressure transmitter
B.
Pressure transmitter
C.
Float
D.
Sight glass
174. Flow meters are usually used to provide a signal for process control in which a d. P. cell is used.
Because the floe/pressure drop relationship is not linear, except for very small flow variation
where the non-linearity can be ignored, means have to be adopted to modify the signal so that
matches the linear signal of the remainder of the control circuit.
A.
This is achieve by a square root extractor
B.
This is achieve by an integrator
C.
This is achieve by differentiator
D.
This is achieve by multiplier
175. There are many types of instrument used for measuring the rate of flow of a certain fluid. In this
type of flow meter it consists of a float which rises and fall in proportion to the rate of fluid flow
through the tapered tube, thus adjusting the annular area between the float and the tube wall.
A.
Rotameter

B.
C.
D.

Piston area meter

Rotormeter
Differential pressure type flow meter

176. When this type flow measuring device in use, an orifice plate, flow nozzle or venturri may be
employed to create the pressure drop, using the basic theory than energy can be neither created nor
destroyed by transformed from one type into another.
A.
Differential pressure
B.
Pressure type
C.
Helical vane type
D.
Vane type
177. This type of flow measuring device utilizes a change in pressure of the fluid across a pressure
reducing device placed in the pipeline to measure the quantity of fluid flowing.
A.
Gear type
B.
Lobe type
C.
Helical vane type
D.
Differential pressure type
178. This type of level measurement operate on the principle that a body placed in aliquid is buoyed up
by a force to the weight of the displaced liquid.
A.
Float gauges
B.
Torque tube gauge
C.
Hydrostatic type gauge
D.
Bubbler type gauge
179. The means for measuring the level of fluids in tanks are many and varied. In these method, it is a
direct method for indicating tank contents but susceptible to damage.
A.
Float gauges
B.
Gauge glasses
C.
Displacement gauges
D.
Hydrostatic type gauges
180. The principle of operation of these thermometer depends on the filter expansion of two different
materials rigidly joined on the other as a ship.
A.
Bi-metallic thermometer
B.
Resistance thermometer
C.
Thermocouple thermometer
D.
Thermistor thermometer
181. One of the methods use in temperature measurement is by means of a gas filled thermometer.
These type of instrument usually employs fluid under high pressure, and the pressure is
proportional to absolute temperature at constant volume. The usual temperature range is -50C to
430C and the scale is linear. The most common type of fluid used is:
A.
Alcohol
B.
Nitrogen

C.
D.

Helium
Either B or C

182. These type of sensor is in level measurement which is composed of probe and tube connected into
an AC bridges network, which measures the degree of change in capacitance which affect the
ohmic in the AC bridge network. These instrument can be used for measuring changes in level as a
high and / or low level detector and for detecting an oil water an interface in an oil water separator.
A.
Capacitance level gauge
B.
Level tranducer resistive
C.
Strain gauge
D.
Differential pressure transmitter
183. These type of level measuring instrument is frequently employed for remote indication of boiler
water level and for supplying a signal for level control system. For this instrument tappings are
made on the steam and water sides of the boiler shell and fitted with a shut off valves.
A.
Displacement gauges
B.
Hydrostatic type
C.
Differential pressure type
D.
Pneumercator gauge
184. These type of level measuring instrument is commonly used for measuring the quantities of liquids
in deep and double bottom tanks. It is basically a well type mercury manometer in which air is
used to transmit the force type exerted by the head of liquid in the tank to the manometer well.
A.
Displacement gauges
B.
Hydrostatic type bubbler system
C.
Bubbler system
D.
Pneumercator gauge
185. These type of level measurement is suitable for nearly all liquids, corrosive and those containing
suspended solids. Air under pressure is supplied via a flow indicator such as a rotameter and an
orifice. The latter to limit the air pressure in the dip tube so that when the tanks is empty there is no
pressure the tube to give a false reading.
A.
Displacement gauges
B.
Hydrostatic type
C.
Bubbler system
D.
Pneumercator gauge

186. When a pressure gauge are used to measure the level of a corrosive liquid it is necessary to isolate
the measuring instrument (e.g. bourdon tube) from liquid in the tank.
A.
This can be achieve by the use of a simple U tube arrangement before the gauge
B.
This can be achieve by the use of bi-metal strip before the gauge

C.

D.

This can be achieve by the use of a simple U tube arrangement with a liquid interface
before the gauge
This can be achieve by the use of a bi-metal strip connected to the capillary before the
gauge.

187. Manometer is also use in measuring level in both close or open tank. It scale would simply be
calibrated in terms of level.
A.
If the viscosity of the liquid in the tank is known
B.
If the density of the liquid in the tank is known
C.
If the temperature of the liquid in the tank is known
D.
If the liquid inside the manometer is mercury
188. This type of instrument is often used in direct differential pressure recording as well as flow level
application.
A.
Aneroid barometer
B.
Pressure gauge(bourdon)
C.
Pressure gauge(schaffer)
D.
Differential pressure cell(D/P cell)
189. This type of measuring instrument consist of a corrugated cylinder(detecting element) made of
phosphor bronze or other similar materials, a steel spring, bell crank, pointer dial and case
(measuring element)
A.
Aneroid barometer
B.
Pressure gauge (bourdon)
C.
Pressure gauge (schaffer)
D.
Differential pressure cell (D/P cell)
190. This type of pressure measuring instrument utilizes a strong metal diaphragm ( detecting element)
which moves up as the pressure increases.
A.
Aneroid barometer
B.
Pressure gauge (bourdon)
C.
Pressure gauge (schaffer)
D.
Differential pressure cell (D/P cell)
191. A certain solid crystal having a symmetrical electric charge distribution, any deformation of the
crystals produced equal external unlike electric charges on the opposite faces of the crystal. This
effect is known as:
A.
Seebeck effect
B.
Piezoelectric effect
C.
Thermo-electric effect
D.
Pyroelectric effect
192. One of the methods used in temperature measurements is by means of a vapor pressure
thermometer. These type of instrument is partly filled with liquid and the remainder is vapor filled.
If these method is applied to an expansion valve of the refrigerating system where the refrigerant
use is R-12, what will be the liquid used in expansion valve.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Mercury
Alcohol
R-12
It depends on the temperature range

193. This type of pressure measuring instrument consist of a pressure relay tube, principal working
component (detecting element). This tube is semi-elliptical in cross section is connected to the
pressure source.
A.
Aneroid barometer
B.
Pressure gauge (bourdon)
C.
Pressure gauge (schaffer)
D.
Differential pressure cell (D/P cell)
194. One of the methods used in temperature measurement is by means of a liquid in glass thermometer.
One of the liquid used in these type of thermometer can measure up-196C.
A.
Mercury
B.
Alcohol
C.
Pentane
D.
None of the above
195. One of the methods used in temperature measurement is by means of a liquid in glass thermometer.
One of the liquid used in these type of thermometer can measure from -80C to about 70C.
A.
Mercury
B.
Alcohol
C.
Pentane
D.
None of the above
196. One of the methods used in temperature measurements is by means of a liquid in glass
thermometer. One of the liquid used in these type of thermometer can measure from 38C (its
freezing point) to about 600C.
A.
Mercury
B.
Alcohol
C.
Pentane
D.
Toluene
197.
The measuring element of these gauges is generally a wheatone bridge circuit with
compensating resistance
A.
Strain gauge
B.
Resistance type
C.
Thermistor
D.
All of the above alternatives
198. These type of level measurement is applied on a simple short reading type where the gauge tube
filled with inert gas or air under pressure. As the liquid level rises or fall, the force due to the
varying head of the liquid on the diapraghm changes and alters the pressure of the air in the tube,
operating the bourdon tube gauge.
A.
Displacement gauge

B.
C.
D.

Hydrostatic type
Pneumercator gauge
Diaphragm bubbler type

199. An automatic control loop may be affected pneumatically, electronically or hydraulically. Each
system has its strength and weakness. For hydraulics.
A.
It can freeze in low temperature, expose conditions, but equipment is proven and widely
used
B.
It has a good response speed with little or no transmission losses for long distance
C.
It required an accumulator for ill-safe action
D.
It requires to be instrisically in hazardous zones
200. It is a measuring instrument in which the principle is that when the free of its wire are connected to
a measuring circuit, a voltage will appears across the instrument terminal which is function of the
difference in temperature between its junction.
A.
Thermocouple
B.
Thermistor
C.
Bimetal
D.
A and B
201. It is an instrument used in increasing temperature which is formed by the junction of dissimilar
metal:
A.
Resistance thermometer
B.
Bi-metal thermometer
C.
Thermocouple thermometer
D.
Thermistor thermometer
202. Resistance thermometer element may be housed in many configuration to suit particular
application. The most widely used housing which is useful to measure temperature in difficult
location such as stern tube outboard bearing is:
A.
Nickel
B.
Copper
C.
Aluminum coated steel
D.
Stainless steel
203. The majority of resistance thermometer used in marine system have their active element mounted
on a ceramic former. The most common type of resistance thermometer PT 100 which is made of
:
A.
Platinum
B.
Copper
C.
Nickel
D.
Tungsten
204. In instrument, it is a precision resistor with a known temperature coefficient of resistance (change
of resistance with temperature).
A.
Potentiometer gauge

B.
C.
D.

Variable resistance gauge

Resistance thermometer
Thermocouple

205. This temperature sensor is made of very small, very rugged and with extremely accurate
resistance/temperature characteristics.
A.
Thermocouple
B.
Thermistor
C.
Resistance type
D.
Piezo electric
206. It is a type of temperature sensor, which exhibits an extremely large negative temperature
coefficient in some cases thousands of ohms for temperature shift of 100C.
A.
Thermistor
B.
Piezo electric
C.
Thermocouple
D.
Any of the above alternatives
207. It is a type of temperature measuring instrument which has many advantages on both thermocouple
and resistance type thermometer. Common type take the form of a small bead of semi-conducting
material.
A.
Electric cell
B.
Potentiometer type gauge
C.
Piezo electric cell
D.
Thermistor
208. Thermocouple and resistance thermometer are both temperature measuring element. One of the
major advantages of thermocouple over the resistance thermometer is :
A.
Mechanical strength
B.
Ease of installation
C.
Size
D.
All of the above alternatives
209. A thermocouple is composed of two different types of metal. If we will connect a thermometer on
its terminal a voltage will appear. This voltage is known as thermoelectric emf which is measured
in:
A.
mVolt
B.
Volt
C.
Mvolt
D.
Any of the above alternatives
210. This type of gauge use fundamentally a resistve wire of about 0.01 mm diameter subject to strain
by pressure (force or acceleration) with electrical resistance change proportional to the pressure
applied.
A.
Pressure gauge (schaffer)

B.
C.
D.

Strain gauge
Pressure gauge(potentiometer type)
Piezo electric gauge

211. An automatic control loop may be affected pneumatically or hydraulically. Each system has its
strengths and weaknesses. For pneumatics.
A.
It can freeze in low temperature, expose conditions, but equipment is well proven and
widely used
B.
It has a good response speed with little or on transmission losses over long distance.
C.
It requires an accumulator for fail-safe action
D.
It requires to be instrisically in hazardous zone.
212. In a control system(e.g. jacket cooling water temperature control) an example of device which
receives the actuating signal from the controller is :
A.
Control valve
B.
Temperature transmitter
C.
Differential pressure transmitter
D.
All of the above alternatives
213. The simple control loop has three elements, the measuring element the comparator element and the
controlling element. An example of measuring element used for tranduce application is:
A.
Thermocouple
B.
Thermometer
C.
Pyrometer
D.
All of the above alternatives
214. Planning of the automation system, by which is meant the total complex of remote and automatic
controls and plant instrument must taken account of several basic parameters. One of the important
parameters to be taken in consideration is:
A.
Type of engine
B.
Trade route
C.
Size of the vessel
D.
Intended service of the ship
215. If a ships engine room is to operate unmanned for specific periods, certain requirements must be
met.
A.
Control of engine speed and direction (propeller pitch) must be made available at the
bridge.
B.
Auto stop of the main propulsion machineries must be available on the duty engineers
cabin.
C.
Remote starting of generator engines
D.
All of the above alternatives
216. Any device used to measure one parameter in terms of another(e.g. temperature by change in
electric resistance) is called:
A.
Final actuator

B.
C.
D.

Measuring unit
Transducer
Comparator

217. The PV measures in merchant ships includes temperature, pressure, level, speed of rotation, flow,
electrical quantities and chemical quantities. In control system PV stands for:
A.
Pressure values
B.
Process values
C.
Process variables
D.
Proportional values
218. An automatic control loop may be affected pneumatically, electronically or hydraulically. Each
system has its strength and weaknesses. For electronics,
A.
Pressure values
B.
Process values
C.
Process variables
D.
Proportional values
219. Where is the fixed CO2 system in the engine control valve located?
A.
On the bridge
B.
Near the maneuvering stand
C.
Adjacent to E/R escape
D.
C/E room
220. In using a flame safely lamp with dim flame is an indication of _______.
A.
Less than 5% oxygen
B.
At least 16% oxygen
C.
No oxygen
D.
No hydrogen
221. Type of detector head which detect particular matter of all sizes, down to size of gas molecules,
provided that the number sufficiency is high:
A.
Gas funnel detector
B.
Gas emitter detector
C.
Fuel gas detector
D.
Ionization chamber smoke detector

222. It is an electric type thermometer made of semi-conducting materials, they are manufactured by
sintering powder mixtures of metallic oxides such as manganese, nickel, cobalt, iron, and uranium.
A.
Resistance type
B.
Thermistor type
C.
Thermocouple type
D.
Bi-metallic type

223. When trouble shooting electronic equipment, you should use high impedance multimeter
A.
To prevent excess current flow through the meter than would damage it
B.
AC measurement only and a low resistance meter for DC measurements
C.
Whenever a low impedance meter is not available, regardless of the components being
tested
D.
So as to load down the circuit and obtain erroneous voltage reading
224. Thermistor are among a second class of resistance thermometers utilizing elements made of semiconducting material all of which have the characteristics of.
A.
A resistance decreases with temperature increase
B.
A resistance increase with temperature increase
C.
A resistance decrease with voltage increase
D.
A resistance increase with voltage increase
225. The amount of change of a controlled variable that is necessary to cause a specific change in the
position of the final control element depends upon the:
A.
Differential gap adjustment
B.
Range of valve opening
C.
Proportional band adjustment of the controller
D.
Forming of the controlled medium
226. The corrugated cylinder in amodern aneroid barometer is made of:
A.
Cast iron
B.
Cast steel
C.
Phosporous bronze
D.
Plane metal brass
227. A liquid level sensor that is made of a float and is generally a hollow cylinder or ball working on
direct action or displacement principles
A.
Control relay float
B.
Switch operated float
C.
Float operated
D.
Flooding system of measuring level
228. Sight glasses of liquid sensor belongs to what heading method?
A.
Dual method
B.
Indirect method
C.
Direct method
D.
None of these
229. The technique used in detecting the oil water interference is called:
A.
Capacitive technique
B.
Floatless technique
C.
Complex type
D.
Inferential technique

230. Detection of oil level in a fully automated system is done by measuring the variation of
capacitance which is accomplished by :
A.
Alteration of dielectric strength
B.
Changing the magnetic field strength
C.
Improving the capacitance rating
D.
Annotating the level ratio
231. One of the plate of the capacitor used in the detection of the level is made of:
A.
Bronze
B.
Stailess steel
C.
Cast iron
D.
Super conductive material
232. It measures the velocity of fluid passing through a certain point at a given instant
A.
Rate flowmeter
B.
Quatity flowmeter
C.
Venturi meter
D.
Rotometer
233. The type of flow meter which uses the principle of a moving conductor(liquid) in a magnetic field
generating potential differences.
A.
Electromagnetic flowmeter
B.
Electrostatic flowmeter
C.
Direct type flowmeter
D.
Gauge flowmeter
234. A flowmeter which utilizes an oscillator transmitter and receiver timer to measure apparent sound
velocity in the fluid which is proportional to the velocity of the fluid, across a diametral path
inclined in an angle with the flow direction.
A.
Ultrasonic flowmeter
B.
Electromechanical flowmeter
C.
Magnetic flowmeter
D.
Universal flowmeter
235. A small precision generator driven by the shaft whose rotational speed is required output voltage is
directly proportional to the speed of the shaft.
A.
Speed generator
B.
Milligenerator
C.
Technogenrator
D.
Tachogenerator
236. Type of tachogenerator which has its bases on the centrifugal action and linked to produce lateral
travel
A.
Mechanical type
B.
Electronic type
C.
Direct p-type

D.

Multi-generated type

237. A conductive cell constructed within athin layer of semi-conductor material and their resistance
varies with the incident light rays.
A.
Photo-conductive cell
B.
Quatomechanical-conductive cell
C.
P-type conductive cell
D.
N-type conductive cell
238. The controller of engine room ia a fully automated ship is called:
A.
Central operating station
B.
Random access memory
C.
Central processing unit
D.
Engine operating room
239. A name implies the imformation from the device being controlled back to the device which will
make correction in order to maintain the desired level of operation, proper temperature and etc.
A.
Feedback
B.
Data entry
C.
Flooding back
D.
Information input
240. A switch that converts liquid level to an electrical signal is called:
A.
Gems level switch
B.
Corrugated level switch
C.
Electronic resistance switch
D.
Grounded to water level switch
241. The temperature reading is of a certain substance can be possible obtained by:
A.
Resistance temperature resistors
B.
Electronic float valve
C.
Dial indicator
D.
Roller and follower
242. Device that are used to start and to stops sequences of machinery operation under certain required
conditions.
A.
Computer logic gates
B.
Pressure sensors
C.
Thermostat control
D.
Cut-in-ration control bridge
243. An electronic device that allow electron to flow in one direction only, but highly resistance to the
flow of current in opposite direction.
A.
Resistor
B.
Diode
C.
Capacitor

D.

Dual transducer resistor

244. A term taken from the Greek word meaning steerman Today meaning is the study of
communication and controls called:
A.
Cybernetics
B.
Pneumatics
C.
Hydraulics
D.
Cyneumatics
245. A sensor value of a final process that is fed back to the input of the mixing point or comparing
element for the purpose of automatically controlling a process.
A.
Data encoder
B.
Feedback
C.
Communication net
D.
Flip flops
246. The entire combination of electric and pneumatic control and circuit involved in controlling firing,
protecting, indicating, warning and shutting down of an automated burner system.
A.
Burner management
B.
Firing tending
C.
Butting controlling
D.
Conducting fire control system
247. The device in an automatic system that controls the final process.
A.
Data bus
B.
Sensor
C.
Controller
D.
Cyamfer
248. A device capable of converting pressure into an electrical equivalent.
A.
Pressure transducer
B.
Switch
C.
Electronic sensor
D.
Purge electronic valve
249. Basically a small rheostat or an adjustable resistor, allowing for a change interference setting
position feedback or signal strength adjustment.
A.
Pulse resistor
B.
Milliresistor
C.
Diode
D.
Potentiometer
250. A device that converts a pressure into on and off electrical signal is called
A.
Pressure switch
B.
Electrical switch
C.
Potentiometer
D.
Transducer

251. A pneumatic device receiving one or more input signals and whose output is designed to be
capable of adding subtracting or averaging signal.
A.
Pneumatic relay
B.
Hydraulic switch
C.
Circuit breaker for pneumatics
D.
Pneumatic transistor
252. A device on a control valve that mechanically related the position of the valve in order to inform
and control the air to the diaphragm that it is in the given position.
A.
Positioner
B.
Level
C.
Sink
D.
Pump spring
253. A pneumatically operated actuator for controlling the movement of force draft vanes or window
box dampers
A.
Sink spring
B.
Level pneumatics
C.
Lower positioner
D.
Proper aligning motor
254. A valve in a control system is capable of adjusting through a range of partially open to full open. It
is controlled by a continuous controller and is usually diaphragm operated and has a positioner for
accurate setting.
A.
Modulation valve
B.
Throttling valve
C.
Expansion valve
D.
Mutually concentric operating valve
255. Sometime called the panic button
A.
Trip button
B.
Emergency button
C.
Push button
D.
Turn down button
256. A device on control valve that mechanically relates the portion of the valve in order to inform and
control the air to the diaphragm that it is in the given position.
A.
Sink
B.
Level
C.
Positioner
D.
Pump spring
257. A pneumatically operated actuator for controlling the movement of forced draft vanes or window
box dampers.
A.
Power positioner
B.
Level pneumatics
C.
Sink spring
D.
Proper aligning motor

258. In an automated system this represents the command of reference signal and is the point at which
an operator wants to maintain a desired pressure and temperature.
A.
Limit
B.
Set point
C.
Boundary
D.
Signal alarm
259. Any message sent, their electrical or pneumatic, for the purpose of measurement, control and logic.
A.
Data
B.
Signals
C.
System
D.
Output
260. A pneumatic relay capable receiving one or more signals and delivering an output proportional to
the inputs.
A.
Logic switch
B.
Totalizer
C.
Converter
D.
Tuner
261. A heat sensor that is made of connecting two dissimilar metal wires connected togetherat one end
and terminating at an electric coil at one end.
A.
Thermostat
B.
Thermocouple
C.
Thermometer
D.
All of the above
262. A pneumatic relay receiving two different inputs and whose output represents the mathematical
difference of both signal.
A.
Subtracting relay
B.
Electronic relay
C.
Synchronous relay
D.
All of these
263. In a fully automated system in order to silence an alarm one most pressed the:
A.
Red button
B.
Electronic switch
C.
Acknowledge button
D.
Attribute button
264. Valve and motors that mechanically controlled are called:
A.
Sensors
B.
Actuators
C.
Moderators
D.
Aggregates

265. The section of computer in which is mounted a type writer whose keys are controlled
electronically.
A.
Encoding section
B.
Data logger
C.
Printer
D.
Decoder
266. An electrical relay usually consisting contactors enclosed in a plastic enclosure.
A.
Excremental relay
B.
Bimetallic time relay
C.
Improvised relay
D.
Encapsulated relay
267. The resistance of a 100 W bulb in a 120 V circuit is :
A.
142 ohms
B.
144 ohms
C.
14.5 ohms
D.
143 ohms
268. A 120 V power line is protected by 15 A fuse, what is the maximum number of 500 W lamps that
can be simultaneously operated in a parallel on this line:
A.
3 lamps
B.
4 lamps
C.
2 lamps
D.
5 lamps
269. The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the voltage and inversely proportional to the
resistance is called:
A.
Ohms law
B.
Kirchhoffs law
C.
Newtons law
D.
Eddys law
270. In a simple series circuit, the entire source voltage will drop across:
A.
a closed circuit
B.
In between circuit
C.
Indirect current
D.
An open circuit
271. The law pertaining to voltage law and current law
A.
Ohms law
B.
Kirchhoffs law
C.
Newtons law
D.
Eddys law

272. The sum of the potential difference drops or voltage drops taken around a circuit must be equal to
the applied potential difference is stated in what law.
A.
Voltage law
B.
Ohms law
C.
Current law
D.
Resistance law
273. The current flowing away from the junction point in a circuit must be equal the current flowing
into that point is stated in what law.
A.
Voltage law
B.
Ohms law
C.
Current law
D.
Resistance law
274. An instrument with a very low resistance connected in series with the load used in measuring
currents.
A.
Current meter
B.
Voltmeter
C.
Ammeter
D.
Wattmeter
275. Specially constructed resistor of low ohmic value connected in ammeters to enable measurement
of large amount of currents:
A.
Rheostat
B.
Shunt
C.
Dielectrics
D.
Semiconductor
276. Type of resistors connected to a voltmeter to enable measurement of very high voltages:
A.
Transistors
B.
Dielectrics
C.
Range
D.
Diodes
277. Negatively charged particle in a atom and is the basic unit of electricity:
A.
Atom
B.
Proton
C.
Electron
D.
Neutron
278. The path taken by an electric current
A.
Diagram
B.
Electrical force
C.
Circuit
D.
Resistors
279. The force needed to drive the electric current in a electrical circuit:

A.
B.
C.
D.

Electromotive force
Force of current
Electrical force
Driving current

280. Internal voltage drops occur only in a/an:

A.
Open circuit
B.
Short circuit
C.
Closed circuit
D.
None of the above
281. The ratio of power to electrical current drawn is:
A.
Voltage
B.
Inductance
C.
Resistance
D.
Farad
282. The nature of electricity is based fundamentally on:
A.
The density of matter
B.
Magnetic capability of materials
C.
Structure of atoms
D.
Temperature of materials
283. The opposing force that can be found to any electrical circuits:
A.
Electromotive force
B.
Resistance
C.
Electrical current
D.
Reactance
284. The amount of current will ________ if resistance is increased.
A.
Decrease
B.
Increase
C.
Remain the same
D.
None of the above
285. The electron movement applied with an electrical force giving the electron a prescribed, path or
direction:
A.
current
B.
Power
C.
Voltage
D.
Work
286. The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch functions to ________.
A.
Act as a back up brake in the event the mechanical brake should fail
B.
Automatically hold the load as soon as current to the machine is shut off
C.
Automatically govern the lowering speed of the load
D.
Automatically govern the hoisting speed of the load

287. On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the following conditions would indicate that the
propulsion motor had dropped out of synchronization with the propulsion generator?
A.
Excessive vibration of the vessel
B.
Tripped main motor interlocks
C.
Overheated crosstie busses
D.
Closed contact in the field circuit
288. On some diesel electric ships, the DC propulsion motor will only attain half speed when the
generator fields are fully excited. Speeds above this are obtained by_________.
A.
Rotating brush alignment
B.
Raising the generator engine speed
C.
Lowering the generator engine speed
D.
Decreasing excitation
289. In a diesel-electric plant, raising the generators field excitation will cause the DC propulsion motor
to ________.
A.
Increase in speed
B.
Decrease in speed
C.
Affect generator speed only
D.
Affect main motor speed done in conjunction with higher generator engine speeds.
290. An electric tachometer receives the engine speed signal from a ________.
A.
Small generator mounted on the engine
B.
Bimetallic sensing device
C.
Stroboscopic sensing device
D.
Vibrating reed meter generating a voltage proportionate to engine speed.
291. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with the switchboard ammeter indicating 300
amps. The kW meter currently indicates 163.6kW, with a power factor increases to 0.8, the kW
meter reading would increase by________.
A.
17.8kW
B.
23.2kW
C.
30.6kW
D.
37.8kW
292. A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature is known as a_____.
A.
Resistor
B.
Thermistor
C.
Diode
D.
Thermopile
293. The shunt used in an ammeter should be connected in _________.
A.
Series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement.
B.
Parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement.
C.
Parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement.
D.
Series with the load and series with the meter movement.

294. Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of _________.
A.
Brushes
B.
Slip rings
C.
Ccommutators
D.
All of the above.
295. An operating characteristic appearing on the nameplates of shipboard AC motors is ______.
A.
The type of winding
B.
Input kilowatts
C.
Temperature rise
D.
Locked rotor torque
296. Low horse power, polyphase, induction motors can be started with full voltage by means of
________.
A.
Compensator starters
B.
Autotransformer starters
C.
Across the line starters
D.
Primary-resistor starters
297. Which of the listed devices may be installed on alarge turbo-electric alternating current propulsion
generator?
A.
Temperature detector coils inserted in the stator slots for measuring stator temperature.
B.
A CO2 fire extinguishing system
C.
Electric space heaters to prevent condensation of moisture.
D.
All of the above
298. The moisture damage as a result of condensation occurring inside the cargo winch master switches
can be reduced by
A.
Installing a light bulb in the pedestal stand
B.
Coating the switch box internals with epoxy sealer
C.
Venting the switch box regularly
D.
Using strip heaters inside the switch box
299. Which of the following conditions will occur if the solenoid coil burns out on the cargo winch with
an electric brake?
A.
The brake will be set by spring force
B.
The motor will overspeed and burn up
C.
The load suspended from the cargo boom will fall
D.
Nothing will happen; the winch will continue to operate as usual.
300. Which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to maintain a wey cell, lead-acid, storage
battery in a fully charged state during long periods of disused?
A.
Normal charging circuit
B.
Quick charging circuit
C.
Trickle charging circuit
D.
High ampere charging circuit

301. A ground can be defined as an electrical connection between the wiring of a motor and its_______.
A.
Shunt field
B.
Circuit breaker
C.
Metal framework
D.
Interpole
302. External shunts are sometimes used with ammeters to _______.
A.
Increase meter sensitivity
B.
Permit shunts with larger resistances to be utilized
C.
Prevent damage to the meter movement from heat generated by the shut
D.
Enable the construction a compact meter with a virtually unlimited range
303. The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator is controlled by________.
A.
Prime mover speed
B.
Exciter output voltage
C.
Load on the alternator
D.
Number of poles
304. Any electric motor can be constructed to be______.
A.
Short proof
B.
Ground proof
C.
Explosion proof
D.
Overload proof
305. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a relay and a contactor?
A.
Contactors control current and relays control voltage.
B.
A relay is series connected and a contactor is parallel connected.
C.
Contactors can handle heavier loads than relays
D.
Contactors are made from silver and relays are made from copper.
306. Which of the following statements is true concerning polyphase synchronous propulsion motor?
A.
The motor is started as an induction.
B.
Resistance is gradually added to the motor rotor circuit.
C.
The starting current is held below the rated current.
D.
The field winding is energized for starting purpose only.
307. Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in an area of unusually high, low or
constantly fluctuating temperatures, an ambient compensating element must be used. This element
consist of a______.
A.
Cylindrical spring on the contact arm
B.
Conical spring on the contact arm
C.
Second bimetal element
D.
Second electromagnet
308. Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon rectifier?

A.
B.
C.
D.

To provide DC power for a main propulsion motor

For use as a reference diode.
For sensing flame in an automated burner.
To eliminate power supply hum.

309. The electrolyte used in a nickel cadmium battery is distilled water and ________.
A.
Diluted sulfuric acid
B.
Potassium hydroxide
C.
Lead sulfate
D.
Zinc diode
310. Which of the damages listed can occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the
cover gasket becomes deteriorated?
A.
Overheating of the winch motor
B.
Contamination of lube oil
C.
Sparking at the winch motor brushes
D.
Rapid corrosion of switch components.
311. An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage of abnormal amount of current is known as
a_______.
A.
Open circuit
B.
Short circuit
C.
Polarized ground
D.
Ground reference point
312. A resistance of a circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the voltmeter/ammeter method.
Therefore, the meters should be connected with______.
A.
Both meters in series with the resistance
B.
Both meters in parallel with the resistance
C.
The ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel with the resistance
D.
The ammeter in parallel and the voltmeter in series with the resistance
313. In general, polyphase induction motors can be started on full line voltage by means of ________.
A.
Compensator starters
B.
Autotransformer starters
C.
Across the line starters
D.
Primary-resistor starters
314. Which of the following statements concerning the maintenance of solid-silver contacts in relays
and auxiliary control circuits is correct?
A.
When necessary, they should be dressed with a wire wheel.
B.
They should be filled with a fine-cut file when projections extend beyond the contact
surface.
C.
When black silver oxide is present, it should always be removed from the contact surface
with coarse sand paper.

D.

If necessary, they should be held together with moderate pressure while emery paper is
drawn between contacts.

315. While starting a main propulsion motor synchronous motor, the ammeter pegs out a maximum and
then returns to the proper value after synchronization. This indicates the_______.
A.
Motor has started properly
B.
Field windings are grounded
C.
Slip rings are dirty
D.
Power transmission cable grounded
316. The purpose of a short circuit forcing module(short time trip) installed in a branch line is to
provide______.
A.
High speed clearance of low impedance short circuits in the branch
B.
Continuity of service on main bus under short circuit conditions in a branch
C.
Isolation of short circuits by selective tripping of branch circuit breakers
D.
All of the above
317. Which of the following electric motors would be the safest and most reliable to use on the main
deck of a vessel in foul weather conditions?
A.
Sealed motors
B.
Drip proof motors
C.
Enclosed motors
D.
Water tight motors
318. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core is the description of a
simple______.
A.
Magnetic shield
B.
Electromagnet
C.
Piezoelectric device
D.
Electromagnetic domain
319. A three phase alternator operates at 450 volts with a 0.8 power factor. If the ammeter indicates 250
amperes, what should be the kW meter reading?
A.
90 kW
B.
127.27 kW
C.
155.7 kW
D.
194.85 kW
320. Electrical failures in motors are caused by the breakdown of insulation, which may be caused by
_________.
A.
penetration of moisture
B.
accumulation of dirt
C.
over heating
D.
all of the above

321. If the synchronous speed of a 12 pole, polyphase, induction motor operating at 60 hz were 600
RPM, how many poles will be required in a similar motor operating a frequency but having a
synchronous speed of 900 RPM?
A.
4
B.
6
C.
8
D.
18
322. If a single phase induction motor fails to start, the problem may be__________.
A.
an open in the main winding
B.
a shorted shunt field
C.
a closed centrifugal switch
D.
low circuit frequency
323. A single-phase induction motor starts, comes up to about 75% rated speed slows down to a lower
speed, and accelerates again. The problem most likely in the ________.
A.
starting winding
B.
running winding
C.
starting capacitor
D.
running centrifugal switch
324. The speed of a squirrel-cage, multi-speed, induction motor as used aboard ship, is varied by
changing the ________.
A.
number of connected poles in the stator
B.
frequency to the motor
C.
excitation voltage
D.
resistance of the rotor circuit
325. A motor enclosure which protects against falling liquids is classified as________.
A.
water proof
B.
drip proof
C.
spray tight
D.
spray proof
326. A diesel driven emergency generator is prevented from being paralleled with the ships service
generators by_________.
A.
an electrical interlock system
B.
an automatic paralleling trip switch
C.
the synchronizing oscilloscope
D.
the reverse current relay
327. If an alternator is to be in active for a considerable period of time, which of the following actions
should be taken?
A.
it should be disconnected from the prime mover and raised off its bearing supports.
B.
insulation resistance readings should be taken weekly to ensure resistance is not
deteriorating.
C.
the brushes should be lifted off the slip rings to prevent pitting of the metal by electrolytic
action
D.
the windings and collector rings should be protected with a thin coat of grease or oil.

328. A vessel is equipped with two ships service generators. The Generator#1 is rated at 900 kW and
the generator#2 is rated 600 kW. During the parallel operation, with a hotel load of 100okW, what
should be the kW load on generator #2.
A.
100 kW
B.
400 kW
C.
500 kW
D.
600 kW
329. On large generators, space heaters are used to __________.
A.
keep the machine at ambient temperature of the machinery space
B.
maintain rotor and stator temperatures above the dew point to prevent the formation of
condensation.
C.
Prevent condensation in the lube oil
D.
Prevent electrolysis due to condensation in the bearings.
330. A megger is being used to test the insulation of an AC generator. The resistance value of a dry,
clean winding will___________.
A.
continue to rise as test potential is maintained, becoming fairly steady as the dielectyric
absorption effect of insulation stabilizes
B.
remain constant as the temperature of the winding increases
C.
continue to drop as test potential is maintained becoming steady after 5-7 minutes
D.
stabilize after approximately 2-4 minutes of fluctuation.
331. Which of the following statements, concerning the general maintenance of a brushless generator is
correct?
A.
paint should be applied to insulating surfaces on an annual basis
B.
alcohol should be used to remove dust and grime from windings
C.
high pressure air should be used to blow out carbon dust
D.
accessible generator parts should be wiped with a clean dry rag on a periodic basis
332. Brushes in a generator must be positioned in the neutral plne to avoid sparking between the
brushes and the _________.
A.
yoke
B.
armature windings
C.
field pole windings
D.
commutator