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IBPS PO/MT CWE-V

Mock Test
A Collection of Most Probable Questions for the Upcoming Exam

Part I English Language


Directions (Q.Nos. 1-10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are
printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

Passage
Our current approach to solving global warming will not work. It is flawed economically, because carbon taxes will cost a fortune and do
little and it is flawed politically because negotiations to reduce carbon dioxide emissions will become ever more fraught and divisive. And
even if you disagree on both counts, the current approach is also flawed technologically.
Many countries are now setting ambitious carbon cutting goals ahead of global negotiations. Let us imagine that the work ultimately
agrees on an ambitious target. Say, we decide to reduce carbon dioxide emissions by three-quarters by the year 2100 while maintaining
reasonable growth. Herein lies the technological problem to meet this goal, non-carbon based sources of energy would have to be
astounding 2.5 times greater in 2100 than that was in the year 2000.
These figures were calculated by economists of a foreign university. Their research shows that conforming global warming effectively
requires nothing short of a technological revolution. We are not taking this challenge seriously. If we continue on our current path,
technological development will be nowhere near significant enough to make non-carbon based energy sources competitive with fossil
fuels on price and effectiveness.
Sadly, during the international negotiations, the focus is on how much carbon to cut, rather than on how to do so. Little or no consideration
will be given to whether the means of cutting emissions are sufficient to achieve the goals. Politicians will base their decisions on global
warming models that simply assume that technological break-throughs will happen by themselves. This faith is sadly and dangerously
misplaced. Economists examine the state of non-carbon based energy today-nuclear, wind, solar and geothermal and find that, take
together, alternative energy sources would get us less than halfway toward a path of stable carbon emissions by 2050 and only a tiny fraction
of the way toward stabilization by 2100. We need many times more non-carbon based energy than is currently reduced.
Yet the needed technology will not be ready in terms of scalability of stability. In many cases, there is still a need for the most basic
research and development. We are not even close to getting this revolution started.
Current technology is so inefficient that to take just one example, if we were serious about wind power, we would have to blanket most
countries with wind turbines to generate enough energy for everybody and we would still have a massive problem of storage : we dont
know what to do when the wind does not blow.
Policy makers should abandon fraught carbon reduction negotiations and instead make agreements to invest in research and
development to get this technology to the level where it needs to be.

1. Which of the following is suggested in the passage by which


global warming can be reduced?
(1) To make the approach towards global warming completely
free from political intervention
(2) By making non-carbon based energy methods as efficient
and cost effective as the fossil fuels
(3) To force every country to confine to stricter terms of carbon
missions
(4) To avoid international negotiation on carbon cuts until the
technological research comes out with a scalable and
stable solution
(5) All of the above

2. Which of the following is not true in the context of the


given passage?
A. Non-carbon fuels are too expensive so they should not
be used.
B. Political ignorance is one of the main reasons behind
the inappropriate approach to combat global warming.
C. The generation of energy from non-carbon sources has
to be increased for significant reduction in global
warming.
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(5) All of these

(3) A and C

(4) B and C

Mock Test 5

34

3. Why, according to the author, are the international


negotiations barely a solution to the problem of global
warming?
(1) Many countries fail to confine to the carbon-cut norms as
set in these negotiations
(2) These negotiations emphasise on the amount of carbon to
be cut and not on the ways in which it can be done
(3) Recent research on the carbon-cut methods is overlooked
by the politicians
(4) Such negotiations produce dominance of powerful
countries over the others, thus hampering their industrial
development
(5) None of the above

4. Which of the following is intended in the given passage?


(1) To suggest the ways in which alternate forms of energy can
reduce climate change
(2) To explain that the current technological developments are
flawed and thus fail to control the climate change
(3) To explain that the stable carbon emissions are impossible
to achieve in this century
(4) To suggest to the policy makers to invest in research rather
than futile negotiations
(5) None of the above

5. Which challenge according to the author is not being taken


seriously in the phrase we are not taking this challenge
seriously as used in the passage?
A. Cutting the carbon emissions to a scale of 2.5 times in
the next decade.
B. The challenge of locating new fossil fuel reserves since
the existing ones are depleting at a fast rate.
C. To carry out technological innovations for developing
non-carbon based energy resources.
(1) Only C
(3) Only B
(5) None of these

(2) A and C
(4) A and B

(1) Light
(3) Insignificant
(5) Unreasonable

(2) Large
(4) Short

Directions (Q.Nos. 11-15) Rearrange the following six sentences


(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A. Moreover, salaries in public sector enterprises are not as
competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporates.
B. This trend should be a wake-up call for stakeholders to
examine why employees are seeking better opportunities
with private companies in India and abroad.
C. Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe
challenges in attracting, motivating and retaining their key staff.
D. Having identified these as the reasons why employees leave
PSEs, it is important to empower stakeholders to find ways to
remedy the situation.
E. One reason is that young employees lured away by private
firms are more willing to undertake professional risks.
F. Employees in specialist roles especially have become
increasingly difficult to retain.

11. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after


rearrangement?
(1) A
(5) E

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

12. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence


after rearrangement?
(1) B
(5) F

(2) C

(3) D

(4) E

13. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence


after rearrangement?
(1) A
(5) E

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

14. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?


(1) Many countries are refraining from taking part in global
negotiations to check global warming
(2) There has been no improvement in carbon emissions word
ever
(3) Technological advancement through research is the need
of the hour in order to meet the directed goal of combating
global warming
(4) Most countries in the world are well equipped to produce
sufficient non-carbon based energy sources
(5) All of the above

Directions (Q.Nos. 7 and 8) Which of the following is most


nearly the same in meaning as the word given in bold in the passage?
7. Counts
(1) Numbers
(5) Attributes

10. Massive

rearrangement?
(1) A
(5) F

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

15. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST)


sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(5) E

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

Directions (Q.Nos. 16-20) In each of the following sentences there


are two blanks. Below each sentence there are five pair of words
denoted by (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can
be filled up in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
16. The deputy manager ...... to resign because all his proposals
were ...... down by his superiors.

(2) Matters

(3) Calculations (4) Values

8. Cutting
(1) Slicing
(2) Breaking
(5) Interrupting

(3) Reducing

(4) Tearing

Directions (Q.Nos. 9 and 10) Which of the following is most


opposite in meaning as the word given in bold in the passage?

(2) gave, held


(4) willing, knocked

17. In ........ of international matters, there is always an element


of risk in ..... one might do.
(1) view, whichever
(3) defence, wrong
(5) spite, whatever

(2) many, doing


(4) case, whatever

18. Instead of ........ prove your worth by ........ something.

9. Reasonable
(1) Fair
(2) Illogical
(5) Considerable

(1) planned, thrown


(3) began, kept
(5) threatened, turned

(3) Irrational

(4) Inadequate

(1) begging demanding


(3) worrying, paying
(5) donating, demanding

(2) talking, doing


(4) writing, reading

Mock Test 5
19. The construction of the hall has been ........ because of the
(1) held, non-availability
(2) denied, restrictions
(3) hampered, shortage
(4) prevented, supply
(5) completed, disappearance

20. Shalini was not ........ by the criticism and paid no ......... even
when her best friend talked against her.
(2) troubled, brained
(4) deterred, heed

sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. If the sentence is


correct as it is and no correction is required, the answer is (5).
21. People discovered the alternate sources of energy when
fossil fuel reserves starts to deplete.

artists, the rate of depression is ten times as prevalent as


in the population at large.
(1) more than prevalent in the
(2) more prevalent as comparing
(3) as prevalent when comparative'
(4) more prevalent than the
(5) No correction required

Directions (Q.Nos. 26-30) Find out the error, if any, in the

(2) starting to deplete


(4) start with deplete

sentence. If there is no error, the answer is (5).

22. Despite its attractiveness, investing abroad is being risky


owing to the shortage of regulations to protect investors.
(1) might be risk
(3) can be as risky as
(5) No correction required

(1) is not responsible for


(2) responsibility is not there for
(3) did have the responsibility of
(4) has not been in charge of
(5) No correction required

25. Some research studies indicate that among distinguished

Directions (Q.Nos. 21-25) Replace the bold phrase to make the

(1) start to deplete


(3) started to deplete
(5) No correction required

24. According to a court ruling, the owner of polluted land is


liable for the clean up of the property even if the owner did
not have the responsibility of that pollution.

....... of cement in the market.

(1) bothered, attention


(3) threatened, warning
(5) shaken, indication

35

(2) have been risky


(4) can be risky

26. Governments and businesses must reduce (1)/ its own


energy use (2)/ and promote conservation (3)/ to their
citizens and employees. (4)/ No error (5)

27. If the allegations (1)/ made against him (2)/ are found to be true
(3)/ he could face rigorous imprisonment. (4)/ No error (5)

23. The new air fare allows both an adult and a child to fly for

28. Having acquired some experience (1)/ she is no longer (2)/

the price of one ticket, in order to encouraging travellers


during summer.

one of those who believes (3)/ every explanation she is


given. (4)/ No error (5)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

encourage travellers during summer


encourages travellers is summer
encourage travellers on summer
encouraged travellers during summer
No correction required

29. On discovering that (1)/ it was a forgery (2)/ he torn up the


agreement (3)/ he had signed. (4)/ No error (5)

30. Our housing society comprises (1)/ six block and thirty flats
(2)/ in an area of (3)/ about a thousand square metres. (4)/No
error (5)

Part II Quantitative Aptitude


Directions (Q.Nos. 31-34) Study the following table carefully to
Number of Executives Recruited by Six Different
Organizations Over the Years
Organization
Year
2004
2005
2006
2007
2008
2009

458
522
480
506
427
492

512
536
495
505
485
488

418
472
464
428
422
444

502
500
508
444
512
499

476
482
488
490
510
512

492
523
518
534
498
510

31. What is the total number of Executives recruited by all the


organizations together in the year 2006?
(1) 2927
(3) 2864
(5) None of these

(2) 3042
(4) 3143

32. What is the respective ratio of total number of Executives


recruited by Organization U in the year 2007 and 2009
together to the total number of Executives recruited by
Organization P from the same years?

answer the questions that follow.

(1) 436 : 517


(3) 517 : 436
(5) None of these

(2) 499 : 522


(4) 522 : 499

33. What is the average number of Executives recruited by


Organization S over all the years together?
(1) 494
(5) 478

(2) 482

(3) 514

(4) 506

34. What is the per cent increase in the number of Executives


recruited by Organization R in 2005 from the previous year?
(Rounded off to two digits after decimal.)
(1) 18.67
(2) 12.92
(5) None of these

(3) 16.48

(4) 13.21

35. In a test, Rajesh got 112 marks which is 32 more than the
passing marks. Sonal got 75% marks which is 70 more than
the passing marks. What is the minimum passing
percentage of the test ?
(1) 35
(2) 45
(5) None of these

(3) 40

(4) 30

Mock Test 5

36

36. 25% of Reenas yearly income is equal to 75% of Anubhavs

46. Ravi borrowed some money at the rate of 4% per annum for

monthly income. If Anubhavs yearly income is ` 240000,


what is Reenas monthly income?

the first 3 yr, at the rate of 8% per annum for the next 2 yr
and at the rate of 9% per annum for the period beyond 5 yr.
If he pays a total simple interest of ` 19550 at the end of 7 yr,
how much money did he borrow?

(1) ` 60000
(3) ` 5200
(5) None of these

(2) ` 12000
(4) Cannot be determined

37. The area of a square is 225 sq cm which is equal to the area


of a rectangle. The length of the rectangle is 16 cm more
than the breadth of the rectangle. What is the respective
ratio between the side of the square and the breadth of the
rectangle ?
(1) 3 : 5
(3) 5 : 4
(5) None of these

(2) 5 : 3
(4) 4 : 5

respectively. What is the value of two-third of the total sum


of the smallest and the second largest angles together?
(3) 80

(4) 120

39. If one man or two women or three boys can finish a work in
88 days, then how many days will one man, one woman and
one boy together take to finish the same work?
(1) 46 days
(5) 60 days

(2) 54 days

(3) 48 days

(4) 44 days

40. The ratio between the present ages of Ravi and Vinay is
7 : 15 respectively. Two years from now, Vinays age will
become twice the age of Ravi. What was the difference
between their ages five years ago?
(1) 13 yr
(2) 16 yr
(5) None of these

(3) 11 yr

(4) 18 yr

41. A car reached Raipur from Somgarh in 35 min with an


average speed of 69 km/h. If the average speed is increased
by 36 km/h. How much time will it take to cover the same
distance?
(1) 24 min
(2) 27 min
(5) None of these

(3) 23 min

(4) 29 min

interchanged, the number newly formed is smaller than the


original number by 45. Also, the ratio between new number
and the original number is 3 : 8 respectively. What is the
original number?
(2) 83
(4) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q.Nos. 43-45) What should come in place of


question mark (?) in the following questions?
43. 21? 216. 5 = 2112. 4
(1) 18.9
(3) 6.9
(5) None of these

(2) 4.4
(4) 16.4

44. 12.25 ? 216


. = 354564
.
(1) 14.8
(3) 15.8
(5) None of these

(2) 12.6
(4) 13.4

45. 155
. % of 646 + 24.5% of 298 = ?
(1) 184.22
(3) 168.26
(5) None of these

(4) ` 43000

47. What is the area of circle whose radius is equal to the side of
square whose perimeter is 112 m?
(1) 176 sq m
(3) 284 sq m
(5) None of these

(2) 2504 sq m
(4) 1956 sq m

receives 25% more than B and B receives 25% less than C.


What is Cs share in the amount?
(1) ` 172
(3) ` 262
(5) None of these

(2) ` 200
(4) ` 258

49. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
PRAISE be arranged?
(1) 720
(2) 610
(5) None of these

(3) 360

(4) 210

50. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 150% and


the denominator of the fraction is increased by 300%, the
5
resultant fraction is . What is the original zfraction?
18
4
4
(2)
9
5
(5) None of these

(1)

(3)

8
9

(4)

8
11

51. A car covers the first 39 km of its journey in 45 min and


covers the remaining 25 km in 35 min. What is the average
speed of the car?
(1) 40 km/h
(2) 64 km/h
(5) None of these

(3) 49 km/h

(4) 48 km/h

52. 4 examiners can examine a certain number of answer

42. If the positions of the digits of a two digit number are

(1) 61
(3) 94
(5) None of these

(3) ` 41900

48. A sum of ` 731 is divided amongst A, B and C such that A

38. The ratio between the angles of a quadrilateral is 3 : 5 : 9 : 1


(1) 60
(2) 90
(5) None of these

(1) ` 39500
(2) ` 42500
(5) None of these

(2) 173.14
(4) 137.41

papers in 10 days by working for 5 h a day. For how many


hours in a day would 2 examiners have to work in order to
examine twice the number of answer papers in 20 days?
(1) 8

(2) 9

(3)10

(4) 8

1
2

(5) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos. 53-56) What should come in place of the


question mark (?) in the following number series?
53. 9, 62, ?, 1854, 7415, 22244
(1) 433
(2) 309
(5) None of these

(3) 406

(4) 371

(3) 109

(4) 141

(3) 3.2

(4) 2.98

54. 4, 8, 24, 60, ?, 224


(1) 178
(2) 96
(5) None of these

55. 8000, 1600, 320, 64, 12.8, ?


(1) 2.56
(2) 3.5
(5) None of these

56. 6, 9, 15, 27, 51, ?


(1) 84
(3) 123
(5) None of these

(2) 99
(4) 75

Mock Test 5
Directions (Q. Nos. 57-60) Each of the questions below consists
of a question and two Statements I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Read both statements and
Give Answer
(1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in Statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question
(2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in Statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question
(3) If the data in Satement I alone or in Statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question
(4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to
answer the question
(5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are
necessary to answer the question

57. What is the perimeter of a semicircle?


I. The radius of the semicircle is equal to half the side of a
square.
II. The area of the square is 196 sq cm.

58. What is the exact average of n, 35, 39, 42, p and w?


I. n is six more than w .
II. w is four less than p.

37

31
19 21 25 29
are arranged in
, , , and
37
21 25 29 31
ascending order of their values, which one will be the

61. If the fractions


second?
19
21
25
(3)
29
31
(5)
37

21
25
29
(4)
31
(2)

(1)

62. The difference between 78% of a number and 59% of the


same number is 323. What is 62% of that number?
(1) 1071
(3) 1037
(5) None of these

(2) 1178
(4) 1159

63. The total number of students in a school is 8670. If the


number of boys in the school is 4545, then what is the
respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total
number of girls in the school?
(1) 303 : 275
(3) 11 : 12
(5) None of these

(2) 275 : 303


(4) 12 : 11

64. The average of 4 consecutive even numbers is 103. What is

59. What was the per cent profit/loss made/incurred by selling


an article for ` 24000?
I. The ratio between the selling price and the cost price of
the article is 5 : 3 respectively.
II. The difference between the cost price and the selling
price is ` 96000.

60. What will be the difference between two digit numbers?


I. The square of the first number is 9 times the second
number.
II. The ratio between the first number and the second
number is 3 : 4, respectively.

the product of smallest and the largest number?


(1) 10400
(3) 10605
(5) None of these

(2) 10504
(4) 10600

65. The owner of a watch shop charges his customer 22% more
than the cost price. If a customer paid ` 8906 for a wrist
watch, then what was the cost price of the wrist watch?
(1) ` 7300
(2) ` 7500
(3) ` 7700
(4) ` 7900
(5) None of the above

Part III Reasoning Ability


Directions (Q.Nos. 66-69) In the following questions, the
symbols !, @, #, $ and are used with the following meanings.
P ! Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.
P @ Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P # Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.
P $ Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.
P Q means P is not greater than Q.
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given
statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II
given below them is/are definitely true.
Give Answer
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

If only Conclusion I is true


If only Conclusion II is true
If either Conclusion I or II is true
If neither Conclusion I nor II is true
If both Conclusions I and II are true

66. Statements P ! Q, M K, T K
Conclusions

I. T ! M II. T # M

67. Statements S $ M, M ! L, L @ Z
Conclusions

I. S # Z

II. S ! Z

68. Statements D ! F, F # S, S M
Conclusion

I. F ! M

II. F@M

69. Statements J # V, V $ N, R J
Conclusions

I. N ! R

II. J@N

Directions (Q.Nos. 70-73) Study the following information


carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square
table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the
square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The
one who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit
in the middle of the sides face outside.
S sits third to the right of P. P faces the centre. Y faces centre but is
not an immediate neighbour of P or S. T sits third to the right of R.
R does not sit in the middle of any of the sides and also R is not an
immediate neighbour of Y. Only one person sits between P and V.
Q is not an immediate neighbour of V.

Mock Test 5

38

70. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise

78. Statement The biggest private airline decided to

direction, starting from P, the positions of how many (excluding P)


will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating
positions?

increase the number of flights between cities A and


B to 10 flights everyday.
Assumptions
I. Other private airlines may also increases the
frequency of daily flights between cities A and
B.
II. There may be adequate passenger load on all the
biggest private airline even after increased
frequency.

(1) None
(5) Four

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

71. Which of the following is true regarding Y?


(1) T is not an immediate neighbours of Y
(2) Y sits in the middle of one of the sides
(3) R sits second to left of Y
(4) P and V are immediate neighbours of Y
(5) None is true

79. Statement Majority of the employees of the

72. Who amongst the following sits fourth to the left of V?


(1) Y
(5) W

(2) R

(3) T

(4) Q

73. What is the position of Q with respect to R?


(1) Immediately to the left
(3) Third to the left
(5) Immediately to the right

(2) Second to the left


(4) Third to the right

Directions (Q.Nos. 74-77) In each question below are two statements


followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give Answer
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

If only Conclusion I follows


If only Conclusion II follows
If either Conclusion I or II follows
If neither Conclusion I nor II follows
If both Conclusions I and II follow

74. Statements All bars are coins. Some bars are books.
Conclusions
I. Some books are definitely bars.
II. All books being coins is a possibility.

75. Statements Some blankets are pillows. All pillows are books.
Conclusions
I. All books are blankets.
II. Some books are definitely not pillows.

76. Statements No girl is an Indian. No American is an Indian.


Conclusions
I. Atleast some girls are Americans.
II. Some girls are not Americans.

77. Statements Some barbers are painters. No painter is watch.


Conclusions
I. Some barbers are definitely not watches.
II. All watches being barbers is a possibility.

Directions (Q.Nos. 78-81) In each question below is given a statement


followed by two Assumptions I and II. An assumption is something supposed
or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement.
Give Answer
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)

If only Assumption I is implicit


If only Assumption II is implicit
If either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit
If neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit
If both Assumption I and II are implicit

organization decided to join with their family the


overnight picnic funded by the organization.
Assumptions
I. The management of the organization may not
welcome the employees enthusiasm.
II. The management of the organization may
provide adequate funds for the picnic.

80. Statement The reputed management institute in


the city increased the fees by 300% from the next
academic year.
Assumptions
I. The institute may still attract good number of
students for all its courses.
II. The students may now opt for other institutes in
the city which charge less fees.

81. Statement Many residents of the locality decided


not to attend the cultural function organized by the
local club to protest against the clubs limited
invitations.
Assumptions
I. The local club may cancel the cultural function.
II. The local club may stop all its activities.

Directions (Q.Nos. 82-85) Study the


information carefully to answer these questions.

following

Seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G represent seven


different states Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Orissa and Maharashtra in seven
different games Hockey, Chess, Cricket, Badminton, Table
Tennis, Golf and Billiards. The order of persons, states and
games is not necessarily the same.
D represents Kerala in Chess. E represents Golf team but
not from Maharashtra or Uttar Pradesh. A represents
Madhya Pradesh for Badminton. C represents Orissa but not
for Cricket or Table-Tennis. The one who represents Bihar,
represents Table-Tennis. The one who represents Hockey
represents Uttar Pradesh. F represents Maharashtra for
Cricket. G does not represent Bihar.

82. Which of the following combinations of game and


state is correct?
(1) Orissa-Chess
(3) Tamil Nadu-Cricket
(5) None of these

(2) Orissa-Billiards
(4) Maharashtra-Chess

83. Who represents Billiards team?


(1) G
(3) C
(5) None of these

(2) F
(4) B

Mock Test 5
84. Who represents Bihar?
(1) G
(4) B or E

89. According to a recent government directive, all bank

(2) E
(3) B
(5) None of these

85. Who represents Uttar Pradesh?


(1) G
(2) F
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

39

(3) B

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-89) Read the following statements


carefully and answer the questions which follow.
86. Real estate builders have refused to bring down the
property prices as proposed by the government this year.
Which of the following arguments would strengthen the stance
taken by the builders?
(1) Very few people ventured into buying properties this year
owing to exorbitant prices set by the builders
(2) With the ever increasing cost of basic materials such as
cement and steel, the profit of the builders has gone down
by 48% this year
(3) The builders have earned huge profit in a governmental
scheme for building low cost housing societies
(4) In a report published by a national daily, the margin of profit
earned by a builder per square foot is as much as eighty per
cent of its cost price
(5) The builders have to necessarily abide by the decree of the
government which controls the prices of the real estate

87. The ministry of sports has been advised by a committee to


take the highest award in the field of sports back from two
players who were allegedly involved in match-fixing.
Which of the following statements would weaken the
argument put forward by the committee to the sports
ministry?
(1) A good conduct in the past and a lack of evidence against
the players make the case against them very weak
(2) The ministry of sports has never declined the
recommendations made by the committee earlier
(3) Taking the award back from the players would set a good
example to other players for avoiding such actions in the
future
(4) There have been past cases where the award had to be
taken back from the players owing to some misconduct later
on
(5) The committee is constituted of some of the most respected
and esteemed members from the fields of sports and
politics

88. Many organizations have been resorting to recruitment

branches in rural areas should be computerised.


Which of the following statements would weaken the
governments argument?
(1) Computerisation of bank branches in urban areas has
helped in making their performance more efficient and fast
(2) Lack of skilled and qualified manpower has been suitably
substituted by computers in banks
(3) Non-computerised bank branches in the rural areas have
been proved to be as efficient as their computerised
counterparts
(4) The government has introduced a special test for computer
knowledge in all recruitment exams for banks
(5) Unemployment in the rural areas could be controlled by
training more and more professionals in computers

90. In a certain code, MISTAKEN is written as SRHLOFLB. How


is GROUNDED written in that code?
(1) CDCMTNQF
(2) TNQFCDCM
(3) EFEOTNQF
(4) TNQFEFEO
(5) None of the above

91. If tree means mountain, mountain means water,


water means jungle, jungle means bus, bus means
truck and truck means house, then where do the fish
live?
(1) Water
(3) Mountain
(5) Truck

(2) Jungle
(4) Bus

92. In a certain code language nik ka pa means who are you;


ka na ta da means you may come here and ho ta sa
means come and go; what does nik mean in that code
language?
(1) who
(2) are
(3) (1) or (2)
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of the above

Directions (Q.Nos. 93 and 94) Study the following information


carefully and answer the questions given below.
P Q means P is brother of Q.
P - Q means P is sister of Q.
P Q means P is father of Q.
P + Q means P is mother of Q.

based upon performance at graduate/post-graduate level


exams rather than conducting exams for the same purpose.
Which of the following statements would strengthen the
argument given in the above statement?

93. Which of the following means K is nephew of R?

(1) A recent study shows no link of past performance with the


performance in recruitment exams
(2) The graduate / post-graduate exams are considered to be
severely deficient in training in job related environment
(3) Organizations which had undertaken recruitment on the
basis of graduate / post graduate exams report a significant
drop in the quality of the recruited employees
(4) Such policies would add to unemployment among students
having below average performance in graduation or
post-graduation
(5) Such policies could save time, money and resources of the
organization which are wasted in the conduct of recruitment
examinations

94. Which of the following means J is maternal uncle of T?

(1) K M R
(3) R - M K T
(5) None of these
(1) J R + T
(3) T J - N J
(5) None of these

(2) R - M K
(4) R M + K

(2) J R T
(4) J - R + T

Directions (Q.Nos. 95-98) Study the following information to


answer the questions.
A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers,
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The
following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.
Input 17 23 29 13 47 37 19 79
Step I 79 23 29 13 47 37 19 17

Mock Test 5

40

Step II 79 47 29 13 23 37 19 17
Step III 79 47 37 13 23 29 19 17
Step IV 79 47 37 29 23 13 19 17
Step V 79 47 37 29 23 19 13 17
Step VI 79 47 37 29 23 19 17 13
This is the final arrangement and Step VI is the last step for this
input.

95. If 97 47 23 79 27 11 19 31 is the first step of an input, which of


the following steps will be 97 79 47 31 27 11 19 23?
(1) Third
(3) Fifth
(5) None of these

98. Following is the Step III of an input. What will be the fifth step?
Step III 79 61 53 41 19 11 43 13
(1) 79 61 53 43 41 19 11 13
(2) 79 61 53 43 41 19 13 11
(3) 79 61 53 43 19 11 41 13
(4) 79 61 53 43 41 11 19 13
(5) None of the above

Directions (Q. Nos. 99 and 100) Study the following arrangement


carefully and answer the questions given below.

(2) Fourth
(4) Cant be determined

P4D%I9KF1J3#T6@AQ2Z57EW$8BH

99. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the


sixteenth from the right end of the above arrangement?

96. How many steps will be required to get the final output
from the following input?
Input 73 31 37 67 19 29 43 13
(1) Five
(3) Seven
(5) None of these

(1) 5
(3) 7
(5) None of these

(2) Six
(4) Eight

100. How many such consonants are there in the above


arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a
number and immediately followed by a symbol?

97. Following is the Step III for an input. What will be the first

(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three

step for the input?


Step III 97 83 79 13 19 11 53 61
(1) 19 11 53 13 97 83 79 61
(3) 11 53 61 13 19 97 83 79
(5) None of these

(2) 1
(4) K

(2) 19 53 13 79 97 11 83 61
(4) Cant be determined

Answers
1.
11.
21.
31.
41.
51.
61.
71.
81.
91.

(4)
(3)
(3)
(5)
(3)
(4)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)

2.
12.
22.
32.
42.
52.
62.
72.
82.
92.

(1)
(5)
(4)
(4)
(5)
(3)
(5)
(1)
(2)
(3)

3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
63.
73.
83.
93.

(2)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(5)
(4)
(1)
(5)
(3)
(3)

4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
64.
74.
84.
94.

(4)
(1)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(5)
(4)
(5)
(3)
(1)

5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
65.
75.
85.
95.

(1)
(4)
(1)
(3)
(2)
(1)
(1)
(4)
(1)
(2)

6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
66.
76.
86.
96.

(3)
(5)
(2)
(5)
(2)
(2)
(4)
(3)
(2)
(5)

7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
57.
67.
77.
87.
97.

(2)
(4)
(4)
(2)
(5)
(5)
(4)
(5)
(1)
(4)

8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
68.
78.
88.
98.

(3)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(5)
(4)
(4)
(5)
(5)
(4)

9.
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
69.
79.
89.
99.

(4)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(1)

10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
70.
80.
90.
100.

(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(1)
(5)
(1)
(2)
(4)
(3)