Biology AS Classified

1
Cambridge AS Level Biology
Section: A
Section: A
Cell Structure
Cell Structure
1. An actively growing cell is supplied with radioactive amino acids.

Which cell component would first show an increase in radioactivity?
A Golgi body
B mitochondrion
C nucleus
D rough endoplasmic reticulum
2. Which pair of organelles has internal membranes?
A chloroplasts and mitochondria
B chloroplasts and nuclei
C mitochondria and ribosomes
D nuclei and ribosomes
3.
Which combination is found in a prokaryotic cell?
4. What is the order of size of cell components?
5. The diagram shows the structure of a typical plant cell.

Which cell component is also present in prokaryotes?
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Section: A
Cell Structure
6. What is responsible for the high resolution of the electron microscope?

A high magnification
B short wavelength of the electron beam
C use of heavy metal stains
D very thin sections
7. A piece of mammalian tissue was homogenised and subjected to differential centrifugation
to yield four subcellular fractions. The activity within each fraction, of four different types of
enzyme, A, B, C and D, was investigated. Which bar chart shows the results of investigating
hydrolytic enzyme activity?
8. Radioactively-labelled amino acids are introduced into a cell. In which cell structure will the
radioactivity first become concentrated?
9. What is the function of nucleoli?

A the formation and breakdown of the nuclear envelope
B the formation of centromeres
C the formation of ribosomes
D the organisation of the spindle during nuclear division
10. What identifies a cell as a prokaryote?
A The DNA is associated with protein.
B The DNA is in a circular form.
C The DNA is in the form of a double spiral.
D The DNA is surrounded by a membrane system.
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Section: A
11. A lysosome measures 0.4 m in diameter.

What is the diameter in nm?
A 4 nm
B 40 nm
C 400 nm
Cell Structure
D 4000 nm
12. What describes resolution in microscopy?

A the ability to distinguish between two objects that are very close together
B the clarity of the image formed by the microscope
C the number of times the image has been magnified by the objective lens
D the power of the microscope to focus on very small objects
13. What is a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
A aerobic respiration
B intracellular digestion
C synthesis of steroids
D transport of proteins
14. When mitochondria are extracted from cells for biochemical study, they are usually kept in a
0.25 mol dm3 sucrose solution.
Why is the sucrose solution used?
A to act as a solvent
B to enable the rate of respiration of the mitochondria to be determined
C to prevent the mitochondria from changing in structure
D to provide a source of energy
15. For which process is the large surface area of the cristae in the mitochondria important?
A energy radiation
B enzyme reaction
C gaseous exchange D protein synthesis
16. What is the resolution, in nanometres, of an electron microscope and of a light microscope?
17. The diagram shows a drawing of an electron micrograph of a cell.
Which structures are surrounded by double membranes?
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Section: A
Cell Structure
18. In which animal cells would Golgi apparatus be most abundant?

A ciliated epithelial cells
B goblet cells C red blood cells
D smooth muscle cells
19. The diameter of living cells varies considerably.
Typical diameters are:
a prokaryote, such as Streptococcus - 750 nm
a eukaryotic cell, such as a white blood cell - 15 m
Given these measurements, the diameter of the white blood cell is how many times greater than
the prokaryote?
Ax2
B x 20
C x 50
D x 200
20. In constructing a plan diagram of a transverse section of a dicotyledonous leaf, which
feature should not be included?
A chloroplasts in the palisade mesophyll layer
B cuticle on the upper epidermis
C vascular bundles in the leaf lamina
D xylem in the vascular bundles
21. Membranous sacs containing products of metabolism are formed by the endoplasmic
reticulum in cells.
Where are these products used?
A inside and outside the cell
B inside lysosomes only
C inside the cell only
D outside the cell only
22. The diagram shows a graduated slide, with divisions of 0.1 mm viewed using an eyepiece
graticule.
Pollen grains were grown in a sugar solution and viewed using the eyepiece graticule. Diagram
1 shows the pollen grains at first and diagram 2 shows them after four hours.
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Section: A
Cell Structure
What is the growth rate of the pollen tubes?

A 5 mh1 B 10 mh1 C 5 mmh1 D 10 mmh1
23. In 1985, a giant bacterium, Epulopiscium fishelsoni, was discovered.
Which cell structure(s) would be present in Epulopiscium enabling biologists to classify this
organism as prokaryotic?
A a cellulose cell wall outside the plasma membrane
B a pair of centrioles close to the nuclear area
C circular DNA lying free in the cytoplasm
D smooth endoplasmic reticulum throughout the cytoplasm
24. When mucus is secreted from a goblet cell in the trachea, these events take place.
1 addition of carbohydrate to protein
2 fusion of the vesicle with the plasma membrane
3 secretion of a glycoprotein
4 separation of a vesicle from the Golgi apparatus
What is the sequence in which these events take place?
A1 4 2 3
B1 4 3 2
C4 1 2 3
D4 1 3 2
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25. The magnification of this electron micrograph is 5 10 .
What is the actual size of the nucleolus?

A 0.2 m
B 0.5 m
C 2 m
D 20 m
26. Which structure is present in cells of eukaryotes but not present in cells of prokaryotes?
A 70s ribosome
B chromatin
C mesosome
D plasmid
27. What are the appropriate units for measuring diameters of alveoli, diameters of white blood
cells and the width of cell walls?
28. Cells which do not have nucleoli die because they do not have
A centrioles and cannot divide.
B mitochondria and cannot release energy.
C mRNA and cannot transcribe DNA.
D ribosomes and cannot synthesise protein.
29. What describes the features of an electron microscope?
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Section: A
30. A plan diagram is made of a transverse section of a leaf.

Which features should be seen in the diagram?
1 the overall distribution of tissues
2 the relative thicknesses of the tissue layers
3 those cells which contain chloroplasts
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
Cell Structure
D 1, 2 and 3
31. The table shows some of the structural features present or absent in four different cell types.
Which identifies the cell type for each column of features?
32. The diagram is taken from an electron micrograph of a cell which secretes digestive
enzymes. Where are these enzymes made?
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Section: A
Cell Structure
33. Turgid plant tissue is placed in a solution which has the same solute potential as the
contents of the cells. The diagram shows a cell after one hour.
Which equation describes the value of the pressure potential for this cell?
A pressure potential = solute potential of the cell
B pressure potential = solute potential of the external solution
C pressure potential = water potential of the cell
D pressure potential = zero
34. The diagram shows the ultrastructure of a eukaryotic cell. Which organelle does not contain
nucleic acid?
35. Which cell structure can be seen only with an electron microscope?
A cell surface membrane
B cell wall
C chromosome
D nucleolus
36. When not involved in protein synthesis, ribosomes exist as separate subunits.
What do these subunits consist of?
A mRNA and lipid
B mRNA and tRNA
C rRNA and lipid
D rRNA and protein
37. Which components are present in prokaryotic cells?
A chloroplasts, DNA, nuclear envelope
B chromosomes, mitochondria, nuclear envelope
C cytoplasm, DNA, mitochondria
D cytoplasm, DNA, ribosomes
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Cell Structure
38. The diagram is a plan of a transverse section through a leaf, drawn using a x 5 eyepiece
and a x 8 objective lens of a microscope.
The actual distance across the leaf section is 7.5 mm. What is the magnification of the diagram?
Ax5
Bx8
C x 20
D x 40
39. What describes the features of an electron microscope and its use?
40. The diagram shows the ultrastructure of a typical animal cell. Which structure synthesises
and transports lipids and steroids?
41. Which structures are found in plant cells but not in animal cells?
A centrioles
B mitochondria
C nucleoli
D plasmodesmata
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Section: A
Cell Structure
42. What is the correct order of size of organelles?
43. A piece of mammalian tissue was homogenised and centrifuged. The biochemical activity of
four subcellular fractions was investigated. Which diagram indicates the fraction with
maximum synthesis of messenger RNA?
44. The action of which cell depends on large numbers of lysosomes?

A ciliated epithelial cell
B goblet cell
C lymphocyte
D phagocyte
45. An amino acid enters a cell and is used to synthesise an enzyme secreted by the cell.
What is the sequence of cell components involved in this pathway?
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Section: A
Cell Structure
46. The diagram shows a stage micrometer on which the small divisions are 0.1 mm. It is
viewed through an eyepiece containing a graticule.
The stage micrometer is replaced by a slide of a plant cell.
What is the width of a chloroplast?

A 5 m
B 10 m
C 50 m
D 100 m
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Section: A
Cell Structure
47. The diagram shows an electron micrograph of a typical animal cell.
What is the function of the membrane system labelled X?

A carbohydrate metabolism
B lipid synthesis
C protein synthesis
D protein synthesis and transport
48. The diagram shows an electron micrograph of a plant cell.
What do structures X, Y and Z contain?
49. Which organelles are found in the cells of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
A chloroplasts
B Golgi apparatus
C mitochondria
D ribosomes
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Section: A
Cell Structure
50. The diagram shows a high-power drawing of a plant cell.

The actual length of the cell between X and Y was 160 m.
What is the magnification of the cell?

A 50
B 100
C 500
D 1000
51. A specimen is viewed under a microscope using green light with a wavelength of 510 nm.
If the same specimen is viewed under the same conditions, but using red light with a
wavelength of 650 nm instead, what effect will this have on the magnification and on the
resolution of the microscope?
52. A student is asked to study two photographs, taken at the same magnification, of a palisade
mesophyll cell, one using a high quality light microscope and the other using an electron
microscope.
The student observed
1 the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus
2 the grana in the chloroplasts
3 the two membranes of the nuclear envelope
4 the vacuole enclosed by a tonoplast
Which features can be seen because of the higher resolution of the electron microscope?
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
D 2, 3 and 4
53. The diagram shows a photomicrograph. Its magnification is 2800
What is the diameter of the nucleolus?

A 2.5 m
B 5 m
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Section: A
Cell Structure
54. Which eyepiece and objective lens combination enables you to see the greatest number of
cells in the field of view?
55. From which cell organelle are nucleic acids absent?

A chloroplast
B Golgi apparatus
C mitochondrion
D ribosome
56. Mitochondria are thought to have evolved from prokaryotic cells that were ingested by an
ancestral cell. Which feature have the prokaryotes lost during their evolution into
mitochondria?
A cell wall
B circular chromosome
C endoplasmic reticulum
D ribosomes
57. The diagram is a drawing made from an electron micrograph showing a cross-section of an
alveolus and two adjacent capillaries.
What is the shortest distance travelled by an oxygen molecule diffusing from the alveolar air
space into one of the red blood cells?
A 1.0 m
B 3.0 m
C 10.0 m
D 30.0 m
58. Which combination is found in a prokaryotic cell?
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Section: A
Cell Structure
59. Which cell structure can be seen only with an electron microscope?
A cell surface membrane
B chromosome
C nucleolus D vacuole
60. A lymphocyte has a diameter of 1 102 millimetres (mm).
What is the diameter in nanometres (nm)?
A 1 101
B 1 102
C 1 103
D 1 104
61. What is a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A protein synthesis B protein transport
C steroid synthesis
D steroid transport
62. The photomicrograph of a cell has a 2 cm scale line labelled 5 m..
What is the magnification of the photomicrograph?

A 1 103
B 2 103
C 4 103
63. Which is a feature of all prokaryotic cells?
A absence of cell surface membrane
C presence of cellulose cell wall
D 5 103
B division by mitosis
D presence of ribosomes
64. Which plan diagram of a transverse section of a leaf correctly shows the position of xylem
and phloem as well as the fact that the palisade mesophyll is twice as thick as the spongy
mesophyll?
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Section: A
Cell Structure
Q1. Fig. 1.1 is an electron micrograph of part of a plant cell showing an interphase nucleus.
(a) Name the structures labeled A to F.

A .
B
D .
E
[3]
C
F
(b) Name two macromolecules found in the nucleus.
[2]
....
(c) Suggest why there are differently stained areas in the nucleus.
[2]
(d) Describe the role of the plant cell wall.
[2]
......
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Section: A
Cell Structure
Q2
0.
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Section: A
Cell Structure
Q3. Fig. 2.1 is an electron micrograph of part of an animal cell. A centriole is labelled.
(a) Name the structures labelled A to C.

A ......................................................................................................................................
B ......................................................................................................................................
C ..................................................................................................................................... [3]
(b) Describe the roles of centrioles in animal cells.
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Section: A
Cell Structure
......................................................................................................................................... [3]
(c) Explain why it is possible to see the internal membranes of a cell in electron micrographs,
such as Fig. 2.1, but it is not possible to see them when using the light microscope.
...........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [3]
Q4. Fig. 1.2 is a drawing of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
State three structural features that are found in both M. tuberculosis and animal cells, such as
the ciliated cell in Fig. 1.1.
1. ......................................................................................................................................
2. ......................................................................................................................................
3. ...................................................................................................................................... [3]
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Section: A
Cell Structure
Q5. Fig. 1.2 is a drawing of the bacterium Vibrio cholerae the causative agent of cholera.
State three structural features of V. cholerae, that are not found in animal cells.
1. ......................................................................................................................................
2. ......................................................................................................................................
3. ...................................................................................................................................... [3]
Q6. Fig. 2.1 shows a transverse section of a root nodule of a legume. Fig. 2.2 is a drawing of a
cell from the centre of the nodule made from an electron micrograph.
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Section: A
Cell Structure
(a) Name three structures that are present in cells in the cortex of the root that are not present in
bacterial cells.
1 .......................................................................................................................................
2 .......................................................................................................................................
3 ...................................................................................................................................... [3]
(b) Explain the advantages of studying cell structure with an electron microscope rather than
with a light microscope.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [2]
Q7. Fig. 1.1 shows a bacterial cell dividing by binary fission.
With reference to Fig. 1.1, state three structural features of prokaryotic cells that are not shown
by eukaryotic cells.
1 .......................................................................................................................................
2 .......................................................................................................................................
3 ....................................................................................................................................... [3]
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Section: A
Cell Structure
Q8. Fig. 1.1 shows drawings made from electron micrographs of a phagocyte, A, and a plasma
cell, B.
(a) Complete the table to show three visible structural differences between the cells A and B.
(b) Calculate the magnification of the cells in Fig. 1.1.

Show your working and give your answer to the nearest whole number.
............................................................... [2]
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Section: A
Cell Structure
Q9. Fig. 1.1 is a diagram of an electron micrograph of a plant cell.

Fig. 1.2 is a diagram of an electron micrograph of an animal cell.
Both diagrams are incomplete.
(a) Explain how Fig. 1.1 can be identified as a plant cell.

..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [2]
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Section: A
Cell Structure
(b) Some organelles are missing from Figs 1.1 and 1.2. Information about these organelles is
shown in the shaded boxes in Table 1.1.
Complete the empty boxes in Table 1.1 by adding the correct information below each column
heading.
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Section: B Biological Molecules
1. The diagram shows a reaction resulting in the formation of a bond between two molecules.
Which bond is formed and what is the type of reaction?
2. What is the general formula for a monosaccharide?

A C(H2O)n
B (CH2O)n
C C2(H2O)n
D Cn(H2O)
3. Four sugar solutions were tested with a standard Benedicts solution. The table shows the
colour of the solutions after testing.
What is the best interpretation of the results?
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4. Which molecule is found in glycogen?
5. The diagram shows a molecule which is an important component of living organisms.
A forensic sample is tested for the presence of a polymer of this molecule.

Which polymer is tested for?
A DNA
B lipid
C protein
D starch
6. How many fatty acid residues are normally present in a phospholipid molecule?
A1
B2
C3
D4
7. What is the theoretical number of chemically different dipeptides that may be assembled
from 12 different types of amino acids?
A 24
B 72
C 144
D 400
8. What are the features of triglycerides?
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9. Which polysaccharides are branched and which are unbranched?
10. The diagram shows a molecule.

Which arrow labels a peptide bond?
Which bonds are the last to break when an enzyme is heated?

A disulphide
B hydrogen
C hydrophobic interactions
D ionic
11. How many haem groups are there in one molecule of human haemoglobin?
A1
B2
C3
D4
12. Which substance contains carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen?
A collagen
B glycogen
C amylopectin
D triglyceride
13. Which levels of protein structure are demonstrated by a haemoglobin molecule?
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14. The diagram shows two molecules of glucose. Four possible bonding positions are labelled
p, q, r, and s, and t, u, v, w.
When these two molecules condense to form glycogen, where could bonds form?
A p - u or p v
B p - u or q - w
C p - v or q w
D p - w or v - w
Which test on a polymer of this molecule would give a positive result?

A adding biuret solution
B adding iodine in potassium iodide solution
C heating with Benedicts solution
D shaking with ethanol then pouring into water
16. Which property of water minimises temperature changes in cells and organisms?
A cohesion
B heat of vaporisation
C maximum density at 4oC
D specific heat capacity
17. The graph shows the effect of pH on the structure of a protein which consists entirely of
repeating residues of one amino acid.
Which statement is true?

A At pH2 the protein has lost its secondary structure.
B At pH2 the protein has lost its tertiary structure.
C At pH10 the protein has lost its primary structure.
D At pH10 the protein has lost its secondary structure..
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18. Which types of bonds hold the tertiary structure of a protein molecule?
19. Which type of reaction takes place when starch molecules are converted into reducing
sugars?
A condensation
B hydrolysis
C polymerization
D synthesis
20. A solution of starch is mixed with a solution of amylase.
Which reagent should be used to confirm that a reaction had taken place and what would be the
appearance of the mixture when the reaction was complete?
21. The diagrams show different types of bond found in polysaccharides.
Which type or types of bond are found in amylose?

A 1 only
B 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only
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22. At which levels of protein structure do hydrophobic interactions occur?
A primary, secondary and tertiary
B primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
C tertiary and quaternary
D quaternary only
23. The diagram shows a dipeptide.
Which bond is the peptide bond?
24. The movement of water through the vascular tissue in plants relies on which property of
water?
A changes in density with temperature
B good solvent for ions and polar molecules
C high specific heat capacity
D strong cohesive forces between molecules
25. This molecule is a polymer of reducing sugars.
Which of the following procedures could be carried out in order to test for the presence of the
reducing sugars in this molecule?
1 add hydrolytic enzyme and then heat with Benedicts reagent
2 dissolve in water, neutralise and then heat with Benedicts reagent
3 boil with ethanol and then heat with Benedicts reagent
4 boil with hydrochloric acid, neutralise and then heat with Benedicts reagent
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 4
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
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26. Which correctly matches the functional and structural features of cellulose, collagen,
glycogen and triglyceride?
27. Which describes the structure of amylopectin?

A a branched chain with 1,2 and 1,4 glycosidic bonds
B a branched chain with 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds
C an unbranched chain with only 1,4 glycosidic bonds
D an unbranched chain with 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic bonds
28. Which molecule is found in lipids?
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29. High concentrations of urea break all bonds, except covalent bonds, in protein molecules.
Which level of protein structure would remain unchanged when a protein is treated with urea?
A primary
B secondary
C tertiary
D quaternary
30. Which bonds are the last to break when an enzyme is heated?
A disulphide
B hydrogen
D ionic
31. During the production of apple juice, enzymes are used to break down the components of
the cell walls. Which carbohydrate will be produced by this hydrolysis?
A amylase
B cellulose
C glucose
D glucose
32. Samples of a food were tested using Benedicts reagent, biuret solution and ethanol. After
testing, the solutions were blue with Benedicts reagent, purple with biuret and cloudy with
ethanol. Which molecules do the samples contain?
A W, X and Z
B W, Y and Z
C W, X and Y
D X, Y and Z
33. How is the shape of a polypeptide chain maintained when it is coiled into an helix?
A disulphide bonds B hydrogen bonds
C hydrophobic interactions D ionic bonds
34. The diagram shows an 1 : 4 glycosidic bond.
Which molecules contain this bond?
A amylose and cellulose
B amylose but not cellulose
C cellulose but not amylose
D neither amylose nor cellulose
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35. Which combination describes a triglyceride?
36. What will break an ionic bond between amino acids?

A condensation
B hydrolysis
C low temperature
D pH change
37. When hydrolysed, which molecules have products containing a carboxyl group?
1 phospholipids
2 polysaccharides
3 proteins
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3
D 3 only
38. Which types of bonds maintain the tertiary structure of a protein molecule?
39. What is the general formula for starch?

A (C5H10O5)n
B (C5H10O6)n
C (C6H10O5)n
D (C6H12O6)n
40. The hexose sugar molecule in the diagram has its six carbon atoms numbered.
Which carbon atoms join by glycosidic bonds to form amylose and amylopectin?
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41. Which statement about triglycerides is correct?
A They are made up of three fatty acids combined with glycogen.
B They are more saturated with hydrogen compared with phospholipids.
C They form a bilayer in the membranes of cells.
D They have a lower ratio of oxygen to carbon compared with carbohydrates.
42. When a peptide bond is formed, which statement is correct?
A One amino acid loses a hydroxyl group from its amine group.
B One amino acid loses a hydroxyl group from its carboxyl group.
C Both amino acids lose a hydrogen atom from their amine group.
D Both amino acids lose a hydrogen atom from their carboxyl group.
43. Which sequence correctly identifies the change in colours during the Benedicts test?
A blue brown red green yellow
B blue green yellow brown red
C blue red green yellow brown
D blue yellow brown red green
44. Lactose is a disaccharide present in the milk of mammals.
How will a baby mammal benefit from having this sugar, instead of a monosaccharide, in the
milk?
A Condensation of disaccharides enables rapid production of glycogen.
B Disaccharides can be transported across membranes for more rapid absorption.
C Disaccharides have a higher energy value than triglycerides.
D Hydrolysis of the glycosidic bond gives a gradual release of monosaccharide.
45. Urea is a reagent which disrupts all bonds except covalent bonds in protein molecules.
Which level of protein structure would remain intact when a protein is treated with urea?
A primary
B secondary
C tertiary
D quaternary
46. Which feature distinguishes starch from glycogen?
A Starch contains alpha glucose.
B Starch contains 1,6 glycosidic bonds.
C Starch has an unbranched component. D Starch is a polysaccharide.
47. What is the function of iron in the haemoglobin molecule?
A It binds oxygen to the haemoglobin molecule.
B It makes the haemoglobin more soluble in the red blood cell.
C It stabilises the quaternary structure of the protein.
D It undergoes reversible oxidation and reduction.
Which type of molecule is it?
A phospholipid
B triglyceride
C tripeptide
D trisaccharide
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49. The equation shows a reversible reaction.
In this reaction, on which molecule or molecules do active sites occur and what types of reaction
occur at 1 and 2?
50. The diagram shows part of a macromolecule in the form of triple helices, lying side by side
with covalent cross links between them.
What is the name of the molecule?

A cellulose
B collagen
C glycogen
D triglyceride
51. Solutions of four food substances are tested for sugars. The table shows the colours of the
solutions after testing. Which food is a non-reducing sugar?
52. Food tests are carried out on four solutions.

Which solution contains only sucrose and protein?
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the cell walls.
Which carbohydrate will be produced by this hydrolysis?
A amylase
B cellulose
C glucose
D glycogen
54. What are the features of glycogen?
55. What is the name of the bond joining glycerol and a fatty acid in the formation of a
monoglyceride?
A ester
B glycosidic
C hydrogen
D peptide
56. Certain insects are able to stand on the surface of ponds.
Which property of water allows them to do this?
A adhesion with other molecules
B cohesion between water molecules
C low viscosity
D maximum density at 4oC
57. Which term describes the type of bonding responsible for stabilising the secondary structure
of a protein?
A disulphide
B hydrogen
C hydrophobic
D ionic
58. How many different polypeptides, each consisting of r amino acids, can be made if the
number of different amino acids available is n ?
59. Which molecule in the key is sucrose?
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60. Bonds are formed by condensation in cellulose, sucrose and haemoglobin.
What are the names of these bonds?
61. What will break an ionic bond between amino acids?

A condensation
B hydrolysis
C low temperature
D pH change
62. Diagrams 1, 2 and 3 show the structural formulae of three polysaccharides.
What are the names of these polysaccharides?
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63. The diagram shows part of a polymer.
Which molecule is used to break the bond indicated by the arrow?

A amino acid
B amylase
C peptide
D water
64. Which statement is true for cellulose, but not true for protein?
A It is found in cell surface membranes.
B It is synthesised from identical sub-units.
C It is used as an energy source.
D It may be a structural component.
65. Heating with which solution breaks glycosidic bonds?
A Benedicts solution
B dilute hydrochloric acid
C dilute sodium hydroxide
D ethanol
66. Which level of protein structure maintains the globular shapes of enzymes?
A primary
B secondary
C tertiary
D quaternary
67. Which type of bond is involved in maintaining primary, secondary and tertiary structure in
protein molecules?
68. What is the function of iron in the haemoglobin molecule?

A It binds oxygen to the haemoglobin molecule.
B It makes the haemoglobin more soluble in the red blood cell.
C It stabilises the quaternary structure of the protein.
D It undergoes reversible oxidation and reduction.
69. As a frozen lake warms after a cold winter, mineral nutrients are brought to the surface.
Which properties of water contribute to this process?
1 its greatest density is at 4 C
2 it has high specific heat capacity
3 it is a solvent
4 its molecules form hydrogen bonds
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4
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70. When solutions of dilute sodium hydroxide and copper(II) sulphate (biuret test) were added
to an unknown substance, a purple colour was observed.
This test indicates the presence of which bond in the unknown substance?
A disulphide
B hydrogen
C ionic
D peptide
71. Which of the following is a polysaccharide present in human muscle?
A amylase
B collagen
C glycogen
D haemoglobin
72. An investigation was carried out into the effect of various chemicals on the permeability of
the plasma membrane and tonoplast of beetroot cells. Beetroot cell vacuoles contain a red
pigment, which cannot pass out of the cells because it cannot diffuse through their
tonoplasts and plasma membranes. 1 cm3 cubes were cut from beetroot and washed in
running water for twenty minutes to remove any pigment released from damaged cells. They
were then placed in different solutions and the results observed. In each case the solution
turned red. What shows the correct behaviour of phospholipids and proteins in different
solutions?
73. The diagram shows a phospholipid molecule.
What are X, Y and Z?
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74. The diagrams show four different molecules.
Which shows the correct information about the molecule or molecules?
75. Which diagram shows part of a structural polysaccharide?
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76. Which substances contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen?
1 amylopectin
2 collagen
3 deoxyribonucleic acid
A 2 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
77. Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two hexose sugars, -glucose (alpha-glucose) and
fructose. Which pair of monosaccharide structures will be formed when sucrose is
hydrolysed?
78. A number of different types of bonds maintain the structure of proteins. These include
disulphide, hydrogen and ionic bonds, as well as hydrophobic interactions. Some of these
are stronger than others. Which are the strongest?
A disulphide bonds
B hydrogen bonds
D ionic bonds
79. Haemoglobin is a globular protein consisting of four polypeptide chains 2 alpha chains and
2 beta chains. In normal individuals, in the DNA which codes for each beta chain, the sixth
triplet has a code for glutamic acid. In individuals with sickle cell anaemia this base triplet
changes and codes for valine. What aspect of the haemoglobin molecule does this mutation
change?
A the iron content
B the primary structure
C the quaternary structure
D the secondary structure
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80. Which type of molecule contains disulphide bonds and which contains glycosidic bonds?
81. Which combination of procedures would not be used in a food test?
82. The diagram shows a triglyceride molecule that has been partially hydrolysed.
What will be the products of the total hydrolysis of the molecule shown?
A a molecule of glycerol and a saturated fatty acid molecule only
B a molecule of glycerol and an unsaturated fatty acid molecule only
C a molecule of water, a molecule of glycerol and a saturated fatty acid molecule
D a molecule of water, a molecule of glycerol and an unsaturated fatty acid molecule
83. The diagram shows a tripeptide molecule.
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At which two points will hydrolysis occur to release three amino acids?
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 4
84. Which statement is true for cellulose, but not true for protein?
A It is found in cell surface membranes.
B It is synthesised from identical sub-units.
C It is used as an energy source.
D It may be a structural component.
85. Which combination of bond types correctly shows the weak and strong bonds that hold a
molecule of protein in shape?
86. Which features of collagen result in it having high tensile strength?

1 covalent bonds form between adjacent molecules
2 each three-stranded molecule is held together by hydrogen bonds
3 every third amino acid in the polypeptide is small
4 the primary structure is held together by peptide bonds
A 1 and 2
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 3 and 4
D 2, 3 and 4
87. HIV-1 protease is an enzyme produced by the HIV virus.
Two identical chains of 99 amino acids form the enzyme. In each chain, amino acids 25, 26 and
27 in the sequence form part of the active site. Which orders of protein structure control the
shape of the active site?
A primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
B primary, secondary and tertiary only
C primary and quaternary only
D quaternary only
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Q1. Haemoglobin is a globular protein with quaternary structure. Fig. 5.1 is a diagram of the
haemoglobin molecule.
(a) With reference to Fig. 5.1,

(i) name X and state its function;
...................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................... [2]
(ii) explain why haemoglobin is described as a globular protein with quaternary structure.
...................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................. [2]
(b) Explain why people who have a deficiency of iron in their diet are often lacking in energy and
feel tired.
.........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................... [3]
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Q2. The table below includes statements about the roles of water
in living organisms
as an environment for living organisms.
Complete the table by indicating with a tick () which one of the properties of water is
responsible for each role. You should put only one tick in each row.
Q3. (a) Starch grains in plant cells contain both amylose and amylopectin.
Explain how both of these substances are formed from glucose in plant cells.
..........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
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................................................................................................................................................... [4]
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(b) State three functions of the water stored in the vacuoles of plant cells.
1. .....................................................................................................................................................
2. .....................................................................................................................................................
3. ............................................................................................................................................... [3]
Q4. Fig. 3.1 shows seven biological molecules, labelled D to K.
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Table 3.1 contains statements about the biological molecules in Fig. 3.1.
Complete the table by selecting the biological molecule from Fig. 3.1 that matches each of the
statements. Write the appropriate letter from Fig. 3.1 in the table. The first one has been done
for you. You may use each letter once, more than once or not at all.
Q5. Starch, glycogen and cellulose are all polysaccharides. They are made from monomers that
are joined by covalent bonds.
Complete the table below to show which of the statements apply to each of the polysaccharides.
Fill in each box using a tick () to show that the statement applies and a cross () if it does
not.
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Q6. Fig. 2.1 shows a glucose molecule.
(a) State how glucose differs from glucose as shown in Fig. 2.1.
.................................................................................................................................................... [1]
(b) Fig. 2.2 shows a molecule of glucose that is about to be added to the end of a growing
chain of a polysaccharide.
(i) Name the bond E.

.................................................................................................................................................... [1]
(ii) Use the diagram below to show how the glucose molecule will attach to the end
of the growing chain of the polysaccharide. You may annotate the diagram if you wish.
(iii) Name a polysaccharide that is formed entirely from glucose molecules in the way shown
in Fig. 2.2.
.................................................................................................................................................... [1]
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Q7. Phospholipids are components of cell surface membranes.
(a) Describe how phospholipid molecules are arranged in a cell surface membrane.
You may use the space below for a simple annotated diagram if you wish.
.........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
[2]
Fig. 2.1 shows the structure of the lipids:

tristearin, which is a triglyceride;
phosphatidylcholine, which is a phospholipid.
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(b) State two ways, visible in Fig. 2.1, in which phosphatidylcholine differs from tristearin.
1. ....................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................
2. ....................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Explain how the structure of triglycerides, such as tristearin, makes them more suitable for
energy storage than carbohydrates, such as glycogen.
.........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................... [2]
The enzyme lipase catalyses the hydrolysis of ester bonds in triglycerides. As the reaction
proceeds there is a decrease in pH. The progress of the reaction may be followed by using a pH
meter.
A solution containing tristearin was placed in a water bath at 25 C. When the solution had
reached this temperature, lipase was added and the mixture stirred. The pH of the reaction
mixture was recorded every minute for 20 minutes. The results are shown in Fig. 2.2.
(d) Using the data in Fig. 2.2, state the time when
(i) lipase was added;
............................................................................................................................... [1]
(ii) the reaction ended.
............................................................................................................................... [1]
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(e) Explain why the pH decreases during this reaction.
.........................................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................................... [1]
(f) A similar solution was placed in a water bath at 35 C and left for the same length of time to
reach this temperature. Lipase was added as before.
Sketch on Fig. 2.2 the results that you would expect.
[2]
Q8. Polysaccharides, such as glycogen, amylopectin and amylose, are formed by
polymerization of glucose. Fig. 2.1 shows part of a glycogen molecule.
(a) With reference to Fig. 2.1,

(i) describe how the structure of glycogen differs from the structure of amylose;
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................ [2]
(ii) describe the advantages for organisms in storing polysaccharides, such as glycogen,
rather than storing glucose.
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
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..................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................ [3]
(b) Glycogen may be broken down to form glucose.
Fig. 2.2 shows region X from the glycogen molecule in Fig. 2.1 in more detail.
Draw an annotated diagram in the space provided to explain how a glucose molecule is formed
from the free end of the glycogen molecule shown in Fig. 2.2.
[3]
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Section: C
Enzymes
1. An enzyme is completely denatured at 50 C. A fixed concentration of this enzyme is added

to a fixed concentration of its substrate. The time taken for completion of the reaction is
measured at different temperatures. Which graph shows the results?
2. Which properties are characteristic of a non-competitive inhibitor of an enzyme?
3. During the development of the AIDS virus, a long polypeptide is hydrolysed by a protease
enzyme, producing several smaller peptides. This viral enzyme is the target of new antiAIDS drugs.
Which feature is essential for the success of these drugs?
A a complex structure that inhibits many types of viral enzyme
B a molecule containing a heavy metal atom that is a non-competitive inhibitor of enzymes
C a protein that can act as a competitive inhibitor of protease enzymes
D a specific structure that inhibits only viral protease
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Section: C
Enzymes
4. A metabolic pathway is
What would be the effect of adding a small amount of a non-competitive inhibitor of enzyme 2?
A Enzyme 2 would be partially denatured.
B Substance X would increase in concentration.
C Substance Y would no longer be formed.
D The initial reactant would no longer be metabolised.
5. The initial rate of a reaction catalysed by an enzyme was measured at various substrate
concentrations. Which graph shows the effect of a low concentration of non-competitive
inhibitor on the reaction?
6. The graphs show the effects of temperature and pH on enzyme activity.
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Section: C
Enzymes
Which statement explains the enzyme activity at the point shown?

A At P, hydrogen bonds are formed between enzyme and substrate.
B At Q, the kinetic energy of enzyme and substrate is highest.
C At R, peptide bonds in the enzyme begin to break.
D At S, the substrate is completely denatured.
7. Two enzyme experiments were carried out. The first, experiment X, was carried out at a
constant temperature of 37oC. During the second experiment the temperature was
increased from 37oC to 80oC. Which graph shows the results?
8. Which properties are characteristic of a non-competitive inhibitor of an enzyme?
9. Which bonds are the last to break when an enzyme is heated?

A disulphide
B hydrogen
D ionic
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Section: C
Enzymes
the cell walls.
Which carbohydrate will be produced by this hydrolysis?
A amylase
B cellulose
C glucose
D glucose
11. The rate of enzyme catalysed reactions in human cells is regulated.

Which of the following may be involved in such regulation?
1 a change in enzyme concentration
2 a change in substrate concentration
3 inhibition by the final product of the reaction
A 1 only
B 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 1, 2 and 3
12. The curve X shows the activity of an enzyme at 20 C. Curves A, B, C and D show the effect
of different conditions on the activity of the enzyme. Which curve shows the effect of
increasing the temperature by 10 C and adding extra substrate?
13. Following a heart attack, the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase leaks into the blood plasma
from damaged heart muscle. Which steps are required to obtain the best estimate of lactate
dehydrogenase activity in a sample of blood plasma?
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Section: C
Enzymes
14. When investigating the rate of reaction of the enzyme lipase on the hydrolysis of
triglycerides, the pH must be maintained at an optimum to prevent the lipase denaturing.
What is the reason for this?
A The addition of water molecules produced by hydrolysis increases pH.
B The products of hydrolysis decrease the pH.
C The products of hydrolysis increase the pH.
D The removal of water molecules used in hydrolysis decreases pH.
15. Catalase was added to hydrogen peroxide solution. The volume of oxygen produced was
measured at intervals. The results are shown on the graph.
What was the initial rate of reaction?

A 0.05 cm3s1
B 0.10 cm3s1
C 1.00 cm3s1
D 10.0 cm3s1
16. The graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of an enzyme-controlled
reaction. The enzyme concentration is constant.
Which statement about the graph is correct?

A Between W and X, the number of enzyme molecules is limiting.
B Between X and Y, the number of enzyme molecules is limiting.
C Between X and Y, the number of substrate molecules is limiting.
D Between X and Y, the product concentration remains the same.
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Section: C
Enzymes
17. The curve X shows the activity of an enzyme at 20oC. Curves A to D show the effect of
different conditions on the activity of the enzyme. Which curve shows the effect of increasing
the temperature by 10oC and adding extra substrate? Which curve shows the effect of
increasing the temperature by 10oC and adding extra substrate?
18. What is the effect of increasing substrate concentration on the degree of inhibition of an
enzyme-controlled reaction?
19. Which statement is true of all enzymes?

A They are denatured at temperatures above 60 C.
B They are inactivated at low pH values.
C They catalyse the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones.
D They reduce the amount of energy required to start a reaction.
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Section: C
Enzymes
20. A quantity of an enzyme was added to a quantity of its substrate. The graphs show the
changes in concentration of the enzyme, the substrate, the enzyme-substrate complex and
the product over time. Which graph shows the change in the concentration of the enzymesubstrate complex?
21. The graph shows the activation energy of an enzyme-catalysed reaction and the same
reaction without a catalyst. Which arrow shows the activation energy of the uncatalysed
reaction?
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Section: C
Enzymes
22. How does increasing substrate concentration affect the rate of an enzyme-catalysed
reaction in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?
A The rate of the reaction decreases.
B The rate of the reaction decreases initially and then recovers.
C The rate of the reaction increases.
D The rate of the reaction is not affected.
23. The graph shows the effect of an enzyme on a reaction.
Which combination identifies X, Y and Z?
24. Which graph represents the action of a non-competitive inhibitor?
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Section: C
Enzymes
25. The rate of an enzyme controlled reaction was measured at temperatures within the range
10 - 60 C. Which curve represents the most usual relationship between temperature and
enzyme activity?
26. In an experiment, 5 cm3 of 1 % salivary amylase are added to 100 cm3 of different
concentrations of starch. Which graph shows the results of plotting the initial rate of reaction
(y-axis) against the concentration of substrate (x-axis)?
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Section: C
Enzymes
Q1. Sucrase is the enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose. A student investigated the
effect of substrate concentration on the activity of this enzyme.
Six test-tubes were set up each containing 10 cm3 of different concentrations of sucrose
solutions. The test-tubes were left in a water bath at 30 C for ten minutes.
After ten minutes, 5 cm3 of a sucrase solution at 30 C was added to each test-tube and the
reaction mixtures were stirred.
After a further five minutes, the temperature of the water-bath was raised to above 85 C and
the same volume of Benedicts solution added to each test-tube in turn. The student recorded
the time when a green colour first became visible in each test-tube.
The concentrations used and the students results are shown in Table 2.1.
10
(a) Explain why the temperature of the water-bath was raised to above 85 C.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Use the axes below to sketch a graph to show the effect of substrate concentration on the
rate of hydrolysis of sucrose by sucrase.
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Section: C
Enzymes
(c) With reference to the students results, describe and explain the effect of increasing
substrate concentration on the rate of hydrolysis of sucrose by sucrase.
11
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [5]
Q2. Trypsin is a protease enzyme, which hydrolyses protein molecules, such as albumen, to
amino acids. A student investigated the effect of substrate concentration on the activity of
trypsin. Six different concentrations of albumen were prepared and trypsin was added to each in
turn. The student measured the time for albumen to break down and then calculated the rate of
reaction. The investigation was carried out at 35 C.
The students results are shown in Fig. 3.1.
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Section: C
Enzymes
(a) Explain the results shown in Fig. 3.1.

..........................................................................................................................................
12
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................... [3]
(b) The student repeated the investigation at 25 C.
Draw on Fig. 3.1 a curve to show the results that you would expect.
[2]
During infections of the lungs, phagocytes move from the blood to the lining of the alveoli.
Phagocytes release the enzyme elastase (a protease) in order to digest a pathway through the
alveolar wall. Most people produce a glycoprotein, alpha 1-antitrypsin (AAT), in the lung which
inhibits elastase and so prevents widespread breakdown of alveoli. The inhibitory action of AAT
was investigated using the enzyme trypsin.
(c) Describe one way in which AAT may act to inhibit the enzyme elastase.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................... [3]
(d) Explain how you would adapt the students investigation with trypsin to find out how AAT
acts as an inhibitor.
You may use the space below to sketch the graph of the results that you might expect.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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Section: C
Enzymes
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13
(e) Elastase breaks down the protein elastin. Describe the function of elastin in the lungs.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................... [2]
(f) Tobacco smoke inactivates AAT. In long-term smokers this can result in the breakdown of
much of the elastin in the lungs. State the name of the condition that results from breakdown of
elastin that occurs in some long-term smokers.
.................................................................................................................................... [1]
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Section: C
Enzymes
Q3. Enzymes catalyse reactions in which substrate molecules are converted to products.
(a) There are two main approaches to investigation of the activity of an enzyme. State the two
ways in which the activity of an enzyme can be found.
14
1 .......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
2 .......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[2]
Phosphatase enzymes remove phosphate groups from a wide range of organic compounds that
contain phosphate. This makes available a supply of phosphate ions within cells. The reaction
catalysed by phosphatase enzymes is as follows:
X = an organic compound
The activity of phosphatase was measured at different values of pH by using nine different
buffer solutions. The temperature was kept constant at 30 C. The results are shown in Fig. 5.1.
(b) Using the data in Fig. 5.1, describe the effect of pH on the activity of phosphatase.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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Section: C
Enzymes
......................................................................................................................................[3]
15
(c) Explain why the activity of phosphatase is very low at pH 1.

..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[4]
(d) Draw a curve on Fig. 5.1 to show the results you would expect if the experiment was
repeated in exactly the same way but at a temperature of 20 C. [2]
(e) Explain how competitive inhibitors affect the activity of enzymes, such as phosphatase.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[3]
Q4. The following statements apply to the effects of drugs on the body.
S acts as a stimulant
T increases the heart rate
U acts as a painkiller
V if taken in excess, may lead to cirrhosis
W mimics natural neurotransmitter chemicals in the nervous system
X leads to constriction of peripheral blood vessels
Y acts as a depressant
Z raises blood pressure
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Section: C
Enzymes
(a) Complete the table by putting two letters in each column of the table. Choose letters for the
statements that most closely match each of the four drugs.
You may use each letter once, more than once or not at all.
16
(b) Explain the term drug tolerance.

..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Some medicinal drugs act as non-competitive inhibitors of enzymes.
Explain how a non-competitive inhibitor acts on an enzyme to prevent it catalysing a reaction.
You may use an annotated diagram to illustrate your answer if you wish.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................ [3]
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Section: C
Enzymes
Q5. (a) Describe how enzymes take part in chemical reactions.

..........................................................................................................................................
17
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[4]
Starch phosphorylase is an enzyme found in plant cells. In potato tuber cells, the enzyme takes
part in the breakdown of starch when the tuber begins to grow.
A student investigated the effect of pH on this reaction using two buffer solutions.
The student prepared four test-tubes, A to D, as shown in Table 2.1 and described below.
The student made an extract of potato tissue that contained the enzyme. Some of this extract
was boiled. A solution of potassium dihydrogen phosphate was added to some tubes as a
source of phosphate ions. The test-tubes were left for ten minutes in a water bath at 30 C and
then samples were tested with iodine solution.
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Section: C
Enzymes
(b) (i) State what the student would conclude from a positive result with iodine solution.
..............................................................................................................................[1]
18
(ii) Explain why the student boiled some of the extract in this investigation.
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................[2]
(c) Explain the results shown in Table 2.1.
..........................................................................................................................................
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..........................................................................................................................................
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..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[4]
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Section: D Cell Membranes and Transport
1. Strips of plant tissue were immersed in a range of sucrose solutions of different

concentrations.
Their lengths were measured before immersion and after 30 minutes in the different solutions.
The graph shows the ratio of initial length to final length.
Which concentration of sucrose solution, in moldm3, has the same water potential as the cell
sap before immersion?
A 0.1
B 0.25
C 0.45
D 0.8
2. The diagram shows a section of a cell surface membrane.
What causes the phospholipid molecules to be arranged as shown?

A The heads are hydrophilic and point towards water molecules.
B The heads are hydrophobic and point away from water molecules.
C The tails are hydrophilic and point away from water molecules.
D The tails are hydrophobic and point towards water molecules.
3. Many fresh water animals possess vacuoles which contract regularly, expelling excess
water. Why do plants living in fresh water not require such vacuoles?
A Plant cell sap has a much lower concentration of dissolved solutes than animal cytoplasm.
B Plant cell walls are impermeable to water.
C The water potential is the same inside and outside the plant cells.
D Water movement into plants is controlled by their roots.
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4. Which process is the movement of molecules that are too large to diffuse in through a cell
surface membrane?
A active transport
B endocytosis
C facilitated diffusion
D osmosis
5. A plant cell is placed in a solution with a less negative (higher) water potential than the cell
contents. Which change occurs in the cell and what causes the change?
6. The diagram shows part of the cell surface membrane.
Which components help to maintain the fluidity of the membrane?

A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 4
D 3 and 5
7. The diagram represents stages in glucose uptake through a cell surface membrane.
Which process is shown?

A active transport
B facilitated diffusion
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C osmosis
D simple diffusion
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8. Identical animal cells were placed in solutions of differing water potentials. The diagram
shows the volume of t e cells at the start and the end result. Which cell was placed in the
solution with the lowest (most negative) water potential?
9. Which molecule prevents the cell surface membrane from becoming too fluid or too rigid?
A cholesterol
B glycolipid
C glycoprotein
D phospholipid
10. The diagram shows a red blood cell and the concentrations of ions, in mol dm3, in the
plasma and in the cell.
Which ions are actively transported into and out of the cell?
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11. Which adaptation would increase the efficiency of active transport of carbohydrates from a
plant cell?
A areas where the cell wall is thin
B increased permeability of the cell wall
C large surface area of the cell surface membrane
D selective permeability of the vacuole membrane
12. The diagram shows a cell surface membrane. The lipid bilayer has an approximate width of
8 nm.
How many times has the diagram been magnified?

A 2.5 102
B 2.5 104
C 2.5 106
D 2.5 108
13. The diagrams show two kinds of molecules found in cell surface membranes.
Which part affects the fluidity of the membrane?
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14. The graphs show the rate of uptake of sugars by a culture of animal cells, under different
conditions.
How are the sugars taken up by the cells when air is bubbled through the culture?
15. Which process allows the movement of molecules that are too large to pass in through a cell
surface membrane?
A active transport
B endocytosis
C exocytosis
D facilitated diffusion
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16. The diagram shows a cell from the gut. The cell produces protease enzymes.
What is correct?
17. Membranes in cells include the following components.

1 cholesterol
2 glycoproteins
3 phospholipids
4 proteins
Which component is the most important for these functions of membranes?
18. The diagram shows three routes through which substances can pass across a cell
membrane.
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Which correctly shows the routes for vitamin D, which is fat soluble, and vitamin C, which is
water soluble?
19. Some viruses are able to bind to the cell surface membrane before entering the host cell.
Which sequence of events will lead to a virus invading a cell?
A binding to a cholesterol molecule, followed by endocytosis
B binding to a glycoprotein receptor, followed by exocytosis
C binding to a protein receptor, followed by endocytosis
D binding to the hydrophilic portion of a phospholipid, followed by exocytosis
20. Which statement about the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure is correct?
A The less unsaturated the fatty acid tails of the phospholipid, the more fluid the membrane.
B The more unsaturated the fatty acid tails of the phospholipid, the more fluid the membrane.
C The higher the temperature, the less fluid the membrane.
D The lower the temperature, the more fluid the membrane.
21. Which pair of factors is inversely proportional to the rate of diffusion?
A concentration gradient and surface area over which diffusion occurs
B distance over which diffusion occurs and size of diffusing molecule
C size of diffusing molecule and concentration gradient
D surface area over which diffusion occurs and distance over which diffusion occurs
22. The diagram shows several processes taking place in a cell.
Which processes are shown in the diagram and involve the cell surface membrane of the cell?
A active transport and diffusion
B diffusion and osmosis
C endocytosis and exocytosis
D endocytosis and osmosis
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23. The diagram shows part of a cell surface membrane.
Which labels are correct?
24. Which part of a phospholipid molecule makes up most of the thickness of a cell
surfacemembrane?
A glycerol
B hydrocarbon chains
C hydrophilic head
D phosphate group
25. The diagram shows a plant cell.
The plant cell is put into a solution with a water potential less negative (higher) than the cell
contents.
What will happen to the appearance of the cell?
26. Which structures are present in large numbers at sites of active transport?
A Golgi bodies
B lysosomes
C mitochondria
D rough endoplasmic reticulum
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27. What are the features of facilitated diffusion?
28. The table shows three processes that contribute to transport across cell surface
membranes. Which processes are the result of random movement of molecules?
29. Red blood cells were placed in a solution of sodium chloride with a water potential higher
(less negative) than the cell contents. Haemoglobin was released from the cells. By what
process was the haemoglobin released?
A active transport
B exocytosis
D lysis of cell
30. The diagram shows part of a cell surface membrane.
What is the correct function for each of the structures labelled?
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31. Strips of potato tuber tissue were immersed in distilled water or in sucrose solutions of
different concentrations. The graph shows the percentage change in length of the strips.
10
Which statement explains the change that occurred in the potato strips immersed in 0.1 mol dm
sucrose solution?
A Sucrose molecules diffused into the potato cells.
B Sucrose molecules were actively transported into the potato cells.
C The water potential of the sucrose solution was less negative than the water potential inside
the cells.
D The water potential of the sucrose solution was more negative than the water potential inside
the cells.
32. Which process would allow the movement of large protein molecules out of the cell?
A active transport
B exocytosis
D phagocytosis
33. The diagram shows part of a membrane around a vacuole of a plant cell.
What is the width of the membrane?

A 7.5 103 m
B 7.5 106 m
C 7.5 109 m
D 7.5 1012 m
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34. Strips of plant tissue were immersed in a range of sucrose solutions of different
concentrations.
Their lengths were measured before immersion and after 30 minutes.
The graph shows the ratio of initial length to final length.
11
What is a correct description of the change in the cells and in their water potential as the
sucrose concentration increases?
35. The graph shows rates of simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion, of substance X across a
cell surface membrane, as the concentration of substance X increases.
Why does the rate of facilitated diffusion level off whereas the rate of simple diffusion does not?
A Facilitated diffusion is limited by the number of protein channels in the membrane.
B Facilitated diffusion is limited by the number of protein pumps in the membrane.
C Facilitated diffusion requires ATP which will eventually be used up.
D Only facilitated diffusion is affected by the kinetic energy of the molecules that are diffusing.
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36. The water potential of three adjacent plant cells is shown.
12
In which direction will water move?

A from cell X to cell Y and then cell Z only
B from cell X to both cells Y and Z
C from cell Z to cell Y and then cell X only
D from cell Z to both cells Y and X
37. The table shows three processes that contribute to transport across cell surface
membranes.
Which processes are the result of random movement of molecules?
38. The epithelial cells of people with cystic fibrosis have a defect in the structure of the cell
surface membrane. The ability of the cell to transport chloride ions out of the cell is affected.
Which membrane component is involved?
A cholesterol
B glycolipid
C phospholipid
D protein
39. Cystic fibrosis is a disease where Cl ions are unable to be transported into cells.
Which structure in the cell surface membrane is faulty?
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40. Diagrams 1 and 2 show how the transverse section through a leaf changes when moved
from one solution W to a different solution Y.
13
How has the water potential changed in diagram 2?
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Q1. Fig. 6.1 shows a diagram of a plasma (cell surface) membrane.
14
(a) Indicate, by putting a circle, around one of the following, the width of the membrane shown
in Fig. 6.1.
0.7 nm
7.0 nm
70 nm
7 105 m
700 m
7.0 m [1]
(b) Outline the functions of the following components of the plasma membrane.
K ......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
L ......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
M ......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
N ......................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [4]
(c) Some substances may cross plasma membranes by simple diffusion. Glucose, however,
does not.
Explain why glucose cannot pass across membranes by simple diffusion.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [2]
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(d) In an investigation, animal cells were exposed to different concentrations of glucose. The
rate of uptake of glucose into the cells across the plasma membrane was determined for each
concentration. Fig. 6.2 shows the results.
15
Using the information in Fig. 6.2, explain how the results of the investigation support the idea
that glucose enters cells by facilitated diffusion.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [2]
(e) State how active transport differs from facilitated diffusion.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [1]
Q2. (a) State the roles of glycoproteins, carrier proteins and cholesterol in the cell surface
membrane of an animal cell.
glycoproteins ....................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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carrier proteins .................................................................................................................
16
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
cholesterol ........................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [4]
(b) Fig. 5.1 is a diagram of an animal cell showing the concentrations and direction of
movement of an ion (A) and a non-polar molecule (B) on either side of the cell surface
membrane.
With reference to Fig. 5.1, explain how A and B cross the cell surface membrane of the cell.
A .......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
B .......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
[4]
(c) Describe how particles, such as bacteria, are taken up by phagocytes.

..........................................................................................................................................
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..........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
17
[2]
(d) Phagocytes contain many lysosomes.

State the function of lysosomes in phagocytes.
..........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
[1]
Q3. (a) Cell surface membranes are involved with the movement of substances into and out of
cells. Calcium pumps in cell surface membranes maintain a concentration of calcium ions inside
the cytoplasm that is a thousand times lower than outside the cell.
Fig. 1.1 shows the movement of calcium ions across a cell surface membrane.
With reference to Fig. 1.1,

(i) explain why calcium ions do not pass through the phospholipid bilayer;
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
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(ii) name and describe the process by which calcium ions are moved across the membrane.
18
name ........................................................................................................................
description ................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
.............................................................................................................................. [3]
(b) Phagocytosis is the process by which bacteria are ingested by cells.
Describe the role of the cell surface membrane during phagocytosis.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [3]
(c) Phagocytic cells contain many lysosomes.
Describe the function of lysosomes in destroying ingested bacterial cells.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [4]
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Cambridge AS level Biology
Section: E
Cell and Nuclear Division
1. What occurs in mitosis?
2. The diagram shows chromosomes in a nucleus.
.
What are Y and Z?
3. The diagram shows the life-cycles of two types of simple plant.
Where will reduction divisions occur in the life cycles?

A at S and U
B at S and V
C at T and U
D at T and V
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Section: E
4. Colchicine is a chemical that stops chromatids from separating during mitosis.

Which phase will the cell reach and then stop dividing?
A anaphase
B interphase
C metaphase
D telophase
5. Which statement describes events during interphase of mitosis?
A Chromosomes start to coil, becoming shorter and fatter.
B Chromosomes line up on the equator of the spindle.
C Chromatids are pulled apart by spindle fibres.
D Chromosomes are replicated ready for the next division.
6. During which process does mitosis occur?
A the production of antibodies from B-lymphocyte memory cells
B the production of cancerous tissue in alveoli
C the production of mucus from goblet cells
D the production of plaques in atherosclerosis
7. What happens to chromosomes in prophase of mitosis?
A They are formed by replication of DNA.
B They attach to the spindle fibres.
C They divide to form chromatids.
D They shorten and become visible.
8. The diagram shows the chromosomes of one cell which has been squashed during mitosis.
Which stage of mitosis is shown and what is the haploid chromosome number in this
species?
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Section: E
9. Which cell activity must occur before prophase of mitosis can begin?
A breakdown of the nuclear envelope
B increased production of mRNA
C migration of centrioles to opposite poles
D replication of DNA
10. What are the conditions in a human cell just before the cell enters prophase?
11. The diagram shows the mitotic cell cycle. When radioactive nucleotides are supplied to
dividing cells, at which point will they be incorporated into the chromosomes?
12. Which structure organises spindle formation during mitosis in animal cells?
A centriole
B centromere
C nucleolus
D nucleus
13. Which processes involve mitosis?
A growth, reduction division and asexual reproduction
B growth, repair and asexual reproduction
C growth, repair and semi-conservative replication
D repair, reduction division and asexual reproduction
14. The graph represents the changes in the quantity of DNA present in one nucleus at different
stages in the life cycle.
Which stage takes place at X?

A interphase
B metaphase
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D telophase
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Section: E
15. Which are features of nuclear division by mitosis?

1 forms cells of equal size to the parent cell
2 forms genetically identical cells
3 semi-conservative replication of DNA
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 2 only
D 1, 2 and 3
16. The diagram shows a cell of an organism formed by reduction division.
What is the diploid number for this organism?

A 10
B 20
C 40
D 46
17. The graph shows three measurements obtained following metaphase of mitosis.
What measurements do the curves represent?
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Section: E
18. For organisms undergoing sexual reproduction, a reduction division occurs before
fertilisation. Which reasons explain why this is necessary?
1 increase genetic variation
2 prevent doubling of the chromosome number
3 reduce the chances of mutation
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
19. Colchicine is a chemical that stops chromatids from separating during mitosis.
Which phase will the cell reach and then stop dividing?
A anaphase
B metaphase
C prophase
D telophase.
20. Immediately after which stage in mitosis in an animal cell does the cytoplasm start to divide?
A anaphase
B metaphase
C prophase
D telophase
21. The diagram shows a diploid cell during mitosis.
Which stage of mitosis is shown?

A anaphase
B metaphase
C prophase
D telophase
22. The graph shows measurements taken during one mitotic cell cycle.
Which stage of mitosis begins at X and which measurements are shown by curves 1 and 2?
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Section: E
23. Human cells contain 46 chromosomes.

The diagram shows a human cell in prophase of mitosis (cell 1) and the daughter cells just after
telophase (cells 2 and 3).
How many DNA molecules are there in the nucleus of cell 1 and cell 2?
24. Which process occurs during prophase of mitosis in an animal cell?

A division of centromeres
B formation of chromosomes
C replication of DNA
D separation of centrioles
25. The following events take place in the mitotic cell cycle.
1 Chromosomes condense. Centrioles separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.
2 Chromosomes unwind. Cytokinesis occurs.
3 Nuclear envelope disappears. Centromeres arranged at equator of spindle.
4 Sister chromatids pulled towards centrioles.
What is the sequence of these events?
26. The diagram shows an animal cell which is undergoing mitotic division.
Which stage of mitosis has been reached?

A anaphase
B metaphase
C prophase
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D telophase
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Section: E
27. The diagram represents the life cycle of an animal.

At which stage in the life cycle does mitosis occur?
28. To which of the processes shown does mitosis make a contribution?
29. The diagram shows the chromosomes of a cell at late prophase of mitosis.
What will be the appearance of the products of this cell division as they enter prophase of their
next division?
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Section: E
30. A diploid nucleus in a species of fruit fly has 8 chromosomes.

How many DNA molecules are present in the nucleus at the end of interphase?
A4
B8
C 16
D 32
31. Which of the following is true of cancer?
A Each mitotic division produces more than two daughter cells.
B Mitosis has stopped.
C Mitosis is uncontrolled.
D Mitosis results in cells with variable numbers of chromosomes.
32. Each of the following events takes place during mitosis.
1 centromeres divide
2 chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell
3 chromosomes line up along the equator of the spindle
4 chromosomes uncoil
5 two chromatids are joined by a centromere
In which order do the events take place?
33. Which statement describes events during interphase of the mitotic cell cycle?
A Chromatids are pulled apart by spindle fibres.
B Chromosomes are replicated ready for the next division.
C Chromosomes line up on the equator of the spindle.
D Chromosomes start to coil, becoming shorter and fatter.
34. Chromosome telomeres promote DNA replication and are not completely replaced during
mitosis. A substance X is known that completely replaces telomeres during mitosis. What
will be the effect of growing a cell culture with and without substance X?
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Section: E
35. What is a correct description of the centrioles, nuclear envelope and spindle during mitosis
in animal cells?
36. Which statement describes a cell that is capable of reproduction and belonging to a haploid
organism?
A It has chromosomes that contain one polynucleotide chain.
B It is capable of carrying out a reduction division to form gametes.
C It possesses two copies of each gene as a result of fertilisation.
D It will undergo cell division by mitosis during asexual reproduction.
37. During which stage of the mitotic cell cycle is DNA replicated?
A anaphase
B interphase
C prophase
D telophase
38. Cancer cells divide out of control, forming tumours.
Which statement describes the difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell?
A Cancer cells do not undergo cytokinesis.
B Cancer cells have a shorter interphase.
C Cancer cells do not have metaphase.
D Only cancer cells have mutated DNA.
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10
Section: E
Q1. Fig. 1.1 shows drawings of a cell at various stages in the mitotic cell cycle.
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11
Section: E
(a) List the letters shown in Fig. 1.1 in the order in which these stages occur during a mitotic
cell cycle. The first stage has been entered for you.
A .. .. .. ..
[1]
(b) Explain what is happening in stage D in Fig. 1.1.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................
[2]
(c) Describe in outline what happens to the DNA in the nucleus during stage A in Fig. 1.1.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [3]
(d) State the importance of mitosis in the growth of a multicellular organism, such as a flowering
plant or a mammal.
......................................................................................................................................... [1]
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12
Section: E
Q2. Muntjac are small deer found throughout Asia. Cells at the base of the epidermis in the skin
continually divide by mitosis. Fig. 3.1 shows the chromosomes from a skin cell of a female
Indian muntjac deer at metaphase of mitosis.
(a) (i) State the diploid chromosome number of the female Indian muntjac deer.
..............................................................................................................................
[1]
(ii) Name X and state its role in mitosis.

name ........................................................................................................................
role ...........................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
[2]
(iii) On Fig. 3.1, shade in a pair of homologous chromosomes.
[1]
(iv) In the space below, draw one of the chromosomes shown in Fig. 3.1 as it would appear
during anaphase of mitosis.
[2]
(b) Outline what happens to a chromosome between the end of anaphase and the start of the
next mitosis.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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13
Section: E
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [3]
(c) During the formation of eggs in the ovary of the female Indian muntjac deer, the
chromosome number changes.
State what happens to the chromosome number and explain why this change is necessary.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [2]
Q3. Fig. 6.1 is an electron micrograph of a cancer cell in the process of dividing by mitosis.
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14
Section: E
(a) The stage of mitosis visible in Fig. 6.1 is metaphase.

State which features of the cell shown in Fig. 6.1 indicate that it is at metaphase and not at
anaphase.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) People who have smoked cigarettes for many years are at risk of developing lung cancer.
Describe how cigarette smoke is responsible for the development of lung cancer.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [4]
Q4. Fig. 4.1 shows two stages of mitosis in a cell from a root tip of Allium cepa.
(a) Describe what happens to the chromosomes during mitosis between the stage shown in D
and the stage shown in E.
..........................................................................................................................................
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15
Section: E
..........................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [4]
(b) Describe the events that occur within a cell after the stage shown in Fig. 4.1 E to allow the
formation of two cells.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [3]
(c) A root was cut into ten transverse sections at different distances from the tip. The sections
were stained and viewed under the microscope. The number of cells in mitosis were counted in
each section and the results were used to determine the mitotic index.
This is calculated as follows:
Fig. 4.2 shows the mitotic index for the ten sections.
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16
Section: E
Using the information in Fig. 4.2, describe how the mitotic index changes along the length of the
root.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [3]
(d) Explain how the events in the mitotic cell cycle ensure that all the cells in the root are
genetically identical.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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17
Section: E
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [3]
Q5. (a) Explain why it is important that the daughter cells produced during a mitotic cell cycle in
humans are genetically identical.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) Name two factors that increase the chance that a cancer cell will develop.
1 .......................................................................................................................................
2 ....................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Fig. 3.1 shows a cancer cell in the process of cell division.
With reference to Fig. 3.1,

(i) state the stage of cell division;
..............................................................................................................................
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18
Section: E
(ii) describe what is happening to the cell during this stage of cell division;
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
[3]
(iii) describe how these cells develop into a tumour.

..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
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Section: F
Section : F Genetic Control
Exam
Questions
Genetic Control
1. A peptide consists of ten amino acids of four different kinds.

What is the theoretical minimum number of tRNA molecules required to translate the mRNA for
this peptide?
A4
B 10
C
12
D 30
2. Bacteria were cultured in a medium containing heavy nitrogen (15N) until all the DNA was
labelled. These bacteria were then grown in a medium containing only normal nitrogen (14N)
for five generations. The percentage of cells containing 15N in each generation was
estimated. Which curve provides evidence that DNA replication is semi-conservative?
3. RNA is extracted from cells in the pancreas. It is used to make DNA coding for human
insulin. Which enzyme is used to make the DNA?
A DNA ligase
B restriction enzyme C reverse transcriptase
D RNA polymerase
4. Which type of molecule is the end product of translation?
A amino acid
B DNA
C mRNA
D polypeptide
5. Which statement about the strands of a newly replicated DNA molecule is correct?
A Both strands are made up of newly assembled nucleotides.
B Both strands contain some nucleotides from the original molecule.
C One strand is new and the other is part of the original molecule.
D The sugar-phosphate chains are conserved and new bases are inserted between them.
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6. A polypeptide molecule contains the amino acid sequence, glycine leucine lysine
valine. The table shows the DNA codes for these amino acids.
Exam
Questions
Transfer RNA molecules with which anticodons are needed for the synthesis of this
polypeptide?
A CCC
GAA
TTT
CAA
B CCC
GAA
UUU
CAA
C GGG
CUU
AAA
GUU
D GGG
CUU
UUU
GUU.
7. A protein contains all the common amino acids.
What would be the hypothetical minimum number of types of tRNA molecules needed for the
synthesis of this protein?
A3
B4
C 20
D 64
8. The diagram shows part of a DNA molecule.
Which letters indicate cytosine, deoxyribose, phosphate and thymine?
9. The table shows the percentages of bases in DNA from various types of cell.
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What is a valid deduction from these data?

A DNA occurs in about the same amounts in all cells from the same species.
B Minute differences in DNA from different cells have large effects.
C The four bases show complementary base pairing.
D The structure of DNA is similar in both yeast and animal cells.
Exam
Questions
10. Which statement correctly describes the transcription of DNA?

A It is a semi-conservative process.
B It occurs at the surface of the ribosome.
C It produces messenger RNA.
D It produces polypeptides.
11. One of the codons for the amino acid phenylalanine is UUC.
Which diagram shows how the tRNA carrying phenylalanine pairs with the corresponding
section of mRNA?

Which part is a nucleotide?
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Exam
Questions
13. Bacteria were grown for many generations in a medium containing a heavy isotope of
nitrogen, 15N. They were then transferred to a medium containing the light isotope of
nitrogen, 14N. They were given time to replicate DNA and divide once. Their DNA was
extracted, spun in a centrifuge and observed using ultra violet light. The DNA with the 15N
settled at a lower depth than the DNA with the 14N. Which shows the predicted results after
one generation in the medium with the light isotope?
14. In a genetic engineering experiment a piece of double-stranded DNA containing 6000

nucleotides is transcribed and translated. What is the total number of amino acids used?
A 500
B 1000
C 2000
D 3000
15. DNA from a chromosome is analysed and 20 % of its bases are found to be cytosine.
Which percentage of uracil molecules will be found in mRNA transcribed from this DNA?
A 20
B 30
C 40
D 60
16. Which type of sugar and bonds are found in a DNA molecule?
17. A length of double-stranded DNA contains 120 nucleotides and codes for polypeptide X.
What is the maximum length of polypeptide X?
A 20 amino acids
B 40 amino acids
C 60 amino acids
D 120 amino acids
18. In a DNA molecule, the base sequence AGT codes for the amino acid serine.
What is the base sequence of the anti-codon on the tRNA to which serine becomes attached?
A AGU
B GAU
C TCA
D UCA
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Exam
Questions
19. The RNA triplet UAG acts as a stop codon terminating the synthesis of a polypeptide. The
diagram shows a strand of DNA which codes for four amino acids. Where would a mutation,
introducing a thymine nucleotide, result in the termination of transcription?
20. The diagram shows a process involving DNA.
What is the name of the process and the stage in the cell cycle at which it occurs?
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21. The diagram shows two bases, X and Y, joined by hydrogen bonds (----) in DNA.
Exam
Questions
What are the correct bases?
22. Part of the amino acid sequences in normal and sickle cell haemoglobin are shown.
Possible mRNA codons for these amino acids are
Which tRNA molecule is not involved in the formation of this part of the sickle cell
haemoglobin?
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Exam
Questions
23. In the DNA sequence for sickle cell anaemia, adenine replaces thymine in a CTT triplet,
forming the triplet CAT. During synthesis of the sickle cell haemoglobin molecule, the amino
acid valine is incorporated instead of glutamic acid. What is the anticodon in the transfer
RNA molecule carrying this valine?
A CAU
B CUA
C GAU
D GUA
24. Which statements are correct about DNA transcription and translation?
25. The table shows the sugars and some bases found in RNA and DNA.
Which is correct?
26. Which structural feature of the DNA molecule varies?

A the arrangement of the sugar-phosphate groups
B the double helical arrangement
C the order of bases on a single nucleotide chain
D the pairing of purines with pyrimidines
27. Three polypeptides were made using synthetic mRNA molecules as shown.
What are the DNA codes for the amino acids phenylalanine and lysine?
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Exam
Questions
28. Which enzyme rejoins sections of DNA in genetic engineering?

A DNA ligase
B DNA polymerase
C restriction enzyme
D reverse transcriptase
29. In transcription, what is transcribed and what is the product?
30. The table shows mRNA triplets and their corresponding amino acids.
A tripeptide is glu-lys-ala.
Which sequence of bases in DNA could code for this tripeptide?
A CTCCGTTTT
B CTTTTCCGT
C TTCCGTCTT
D TTTCTCCGC
31. Analysis of DNA produced the following ratios of nitrogenous bases.
Which statement explains the difference in the ratios?

A Animal DNA contains more purines than pyrimidines.
B Different parts of organisms contain different proportions of purines and pyrimidines.
C DNA contains thymine instead of uracil.
D There are variations in the accuracy of analytical techniques.
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32. Which diagram shows the bond linking the individual units of a nucleic acid?
Exam
Questions
33. Tuberculosis (TB) is treated with a combination of antibiotics including rifampicin and
streptomycin.
rifampicin inhibits polymerisation of bacterial RNA
streptomycin binds to and inhibits bacterial ribosomes
Which stages of protein synthesis are inhibited by rifampicin and streptomycin?
34. A polypeptide has the amino acid sequence glycine arginine lysine serine.
The table gives possible tRNA anticodons for each amino acid.
Which sequence of bases on DNA would code for the polypeptide?

A CCACGCAAGAGC
B CCTTCCTTCTCG
C GGAAGGAAAAGC
D GGTTGGTTGTGC
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35. The table shows the percentages of nitrogenous bases in four samples of nucleic acids.
Which base is adenine?
Exam
Questions
36. What is the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase in a cell?

A to synthesise a polypeptide using DNA as a template
B to synthesise a strand of DNA using a polypeptide as a template
C to synthesise a strand of DNA using DNA as a template
D to synthesise a strand of mRNA using DNA as a template
37. A culture of bacteria had all its DNA labelled with the heavy isotope of nitrogen, 15N. The
culture was then allowed to reproduce using nucleotides containing normal 14N. The DNA
was examined using a centrifuge after one generation and again after two generations. The
diagram shows the position of the DNA band at Z in the centrifuge tube when the DNA was
first labelled.
In which pattern would the DNA be found after the first and after the second cell generations?
38. What terminates the formation of a polypeptide chain during protein synthesis in cells?
A when a stop codon is reached on the mRNA molecule
B when a stop codon is reached on the tRNA molecule
C when the ribosome reaches the end of the mRNA molecule
D when the ribosome reaches the end of the tRNA molecule
10
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39. Mammalian skin cells in tissue culture were supplied with a source of radioactive thymine.
At which stage in the cell cycle will the thymine be used in the nuclei?
A interphase
B metaphase
C prophase
D telophase
Exam
Questions

Where are hydrogen bonds found?
41. Which type of molecule is the end product of translation?

A amino acid
B DNA
C mRNA
D polypeptide
42. An unidentified single-stranded molecule was described as having the following features.
complementary base pairing along some of its length
an area that can attach to a ribosome
a site to which a specific amino acid attaches
What is the unidentified molecule?
A DNA polymerase
B messenger RNA
C RNA polymerase D transfer RNA
43. Some antibacterial drugs can affect the synthesis of proteins.
Which is the correct set of immediate effects of these drugs?
11
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44. What is the function of the enzyme RNA polymerase?

A to form a polypeptide using mRNA as a template
B to form a strand of DNA using mRNA as a template
C to form a strand of mRNA using DNA as a template
D to form a strand of mRNA using tRNA as a template
Exam
Questions
45. The table gives the tRNA anticodons for four amino acids.
A cell makes a polypeptide with the amino acid sequence:

glutamic acid asparagine threonine proline
What was the sequence of bases on the strand of the DNA which was complimentary to the
mRNA from which this polypeptide was formed?
A CTTTTATGGGGA
B CUUUUAUGGGGA
C GAAAATACCCCT
D GAAAAUACCCCU
46. The following statements describe events that take place during DNA replication and
transcription. Which statement is not correct?
47. A peptide consists of ten amino acids of four different kinds.

What is the theoretical minimum number of tRNA molecules required to translate the mRNA for
this peptide?
A4
B 10
C 12
D 30
48. What does the enzyme DNA polymerase synthesise in a cell?
A a polypeptide using DNA as a template
B a strand of DNA using a polypeptide as a template
C a strand of DNA using DNA as a template
D a strand of mRNA using DNA as a template
12
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Exam
Questions
49. Which diagram shows the semi-conservative replication of a section of a molecule of DNA?
13
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Exam
Questions
Q1. Fig. 5.1 shows part of a DNA molecule.
(a) (i) Name U to X.

U ...............................................................................................................................
W ..............................................................................................................................
X ..............................................................................................................................
[3]
(ii) Name the bonds indicated by Z.

..................................................................................................................................
[1]
(b) Describe three features of a polypeptide molecule that are different from those found in a
DNA molecule.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [3]
14
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Q2. Fig. 1.1 shows the replication of one strand of a DNA double helix.
Exam
Questions
(a) Name W to Y.
W ......................................................................................................................................
X .......................................................................................................................................
Y ....................................................................................................................................... [3]
(b) Explain how the structure of DNA enables it to replicate semi-conservatively.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [3]
15
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(c) Explain why it is important that an exact copy of DNA is made during replication.
Exam
Questions
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [2]
Q3. (a) Complete the table by indicating with a tick ( ) or a cross () whether the statements
apply to proteins, DNA, messenger RNA and cellulose.
You should put a tick or a cross in each box of the table.
During an immune response, B-lymphocytes become plasma cells and begin to make
polypeptides that are assembled into antibodies.
16
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Fig. 3.1 is a diagram showing the formation of a polypeptide at a ribosome in a plasma cell.
(b) State the sequence of bases at J.

......................................................................................................................................
Exam
Questions
[1]
(c) Use the information in Fig. 3.1 to describe the role of transfer RNA molecules in
translation.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
17
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Exam
Questions
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................... [5]
Q4. Describe two ways in which the structure of DNA differs from the structure of collagen.
1 .......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
2 .......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
18
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Section: G
[TRANSPORT (ANIMALS)]
Section A (MCQs)
1. The drawing has been made from a section showing part of an alveolus and a red blood cell in a
capillary. The magnification of the drawing is 5000
What is the minimum distance that oxygen must diffuse from air in an alveolus into a red blood
cell?
A 0.1nm
B 1.0nm
C 0.1m
D 1.0m
2. The graph shows the human haemoglobin dissociation curve.
Which range of partial pressures of oxygen would be found in
pulmonary arteries?
A between 0 and 2 kPa
B between 2 and 6 kPa
C between 6 and 8 kPa
D between 8 and 12 kPa
3. The graph shows changes in blood pressure during one cardiac cycle.
What is happening to the ventricle and aortic
semilunar valve at X?
4. In the mammalian heart, which structure is the pacemaker?

A atrioventricular node
B bundle of His
C Purkyne (Purkinje) fibres
D sinoatrial node
5. The table shows changes occurring in the body. Which combination would cause the greatest rise in
cardiac output?
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Section: G
6. The graph shows the dissociation curves for three respiratory pigments
Myoglobin, found in muscle, only releases oxygen when partial pressures are very low. Fetal
haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult
haemoglobin.
What are X, Y and Z?
7. Which event occurs during contraction of the left ventricle?

A The bicuspid valve opens.
B The semilunar valve in the aorta closes.
C The pressure in the left atrium becomes greater than the pressure in the left ventricle.
D The pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than the pressure in the aorta.
8. Fish oils are thought to have beneficial effects on the conduction of electrical excitation through the
ventricles of the heart. What could the fish oils influence?
A atrioventricular node
B Purkyne tisssue
C sinoatrial node
D vagus nerve
9. The diagram gives information about blood pressure in various parts of the circulatory system
during the cardiac cycle. At which point does the semilunar valve of the aorta close?
10. What is systolic blood pressure?

A the maximum blood pressure in the arteries
B the blood pressure in the left ventricle at the end of a contraction
C the maximum blood pressure in the right ventricle
D the blood pressure in the arteries when the heart is relaxing
126
Section: G
11. The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves of haemoglobin for eight mammals.
Which conclusion can be drawn from the graph?

A The activity of the mammal is directly proportional to the ability of its haemoglobin to release
oxygen.
B The haemoglobin of larger mammals will release oxygen at a higher pO2 than that of
smaller mammals.
C The haemoglobin of smaller mammals will release oxygen at a higher pO2 than that of
larger mammals.
D The size of the mammal is directly proportional to the ability of its haemoglobin to release
oxygen.
12. The table describes the walls of three blood vessels.
What are vessels 1, 2 and 3?
13. Which structures are found in both arteries and capillaries?

A collagen fibres
B elastic fibres
C endothelial cells
D smooth muscle cells
127
Section: G
14. Which function can be carried out by a mature red blood cell?
A active transport
B cell division
C phagocytosis
D protein synthesis
15. What is the function of the Purkyne (Purkinje) tissue in the mammalian heart?
A to conduct a wave of electrical excitation over the atria
B to conduct a wave of electrical excitation over the ventricles
C to reduce the spontaneous contraction rate of the heart
D to separate oxygenated blood from deoxygenated blood
16. Which type of tissue is present in the walls of all blood vessels?
A elastic
B endothelial
C fibrous
D smooth muscle
17. The mammalian circulatory system is described as a closed double circulation. The diagram shows
the circulatory system in a different organism. The arrows show the direction of blood flow in the
vessels.
How is the circulatory system in this organism described?

A closed double
B closed single
C open double
D open single
18. What is the state of the valves in the mammalian heart when the pressure in the ventricles reaches
its maximum?
19. Normal venous pressure in the feet is 3.3 kPa. When a person stands very still venous blood
pressure in the feet rises to 5.0 kPa. What causes the high pressure?
A Muscles in the walls of the veins contract, reducing the diameter of the veins.
B Skeletal muscles in the legs are not squeezing blood upward in the veins.
C Systolic blood pressure increases.
D The semilunar valves in the veins of the leg cease to function.
128
Section: G
20. Which feature enables the aorta to withstand high pressure at ventricular systole?
A collagen fibres and elastin fibres
B collagen fibres and semilunar valves
C elastin fibres and large lumen
D semilunar valves and smooth muscle
21. The diagram shows pressure changes in the left side of the heart during the cardiac cycle.
What happens at X?
A atrioventricular valves close
B atrioventricular valves open
C semilunar valves close
D semilunar valves open
22. The graph shows the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curves at pH 7.6 and at pH 7.2.
Which point on the graph shows the percentage saturation of haemoglobin in the blood leaving an
active muscle?
23. What does tissue fluid contain?
129
Section: G
24. The diagram shows the Bohr Effect.

What causes the shift from X to Y?
A decreased levels of carbon dioxide and high pH
B decreased levels of carbon dioxide and low pH
C increased levels of carbon dioxide and high pH
D increased levels of carbon dioxide and low pH
25. The diagram shows pressure changes in the left side of the heart and aorta over time. The length of
this cardiac cycle is 0.6 s. Points 1, 2, 3 and 4 indicate when atrio-ventricular valves and semilunar
valves either open or close.
What is the total time during one cardiac cycle that the atrio-ventricular valves and the semi-lunarvalves
are both closed at the same time?
A 0.03 s
B 0.04 s
C 0.07 s
D 0.21 s
26. The table summarises some characteristics of arteries, veins and capillaries.
Which lines in the table are correct?

A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
130
Section: G
27. The graph shows the oxygen dissociation curves of the pigments myoglobin and haemoglobin.
Using information contained in the graph, what is the comparison between haemoglobin and
myoglobin at a partial pressure of oxygen of 2 kPa?
A haemoglobin combines with more oxygen than myoglobin
B haemoglobin combines with oxygen when myoglobin releases oxygen
C haemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen than myoglobin
D haemoglobin has a saturation of 20 % when myoglobin is fully saturated
131
Section: G
Section: B (Theory)
132
Section: G
133
Section: G
10
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Section: G
11
135
Section: G
12
136
Section: G
13
137
Section: G
14
138
Section: G
15
139
Section: G
Plant Transport
1. The movement of water through xylem vessels is affected by external factors.

A decrease in which external factor would result in an increase in water movement?
A atmospheric humidity
B external temperature
C light intensity D wind velocity
2. The diagram shows the water potential () in some plant cells and in their environment.
Which statement describes the movement of water between these cells and between them and
their environment?
A All three cells are turgid, so no water moves.
B Water moves from cell 1, cell 3 and the environment into cell 2.
C Water moves from cell 3 to the environment, and from the environment to cell 1.
D Water moves from the environment into cells 1, 2 and 3.
3. Which statement describes the movement of water between these cells and between them
and their environment?
A All three cells are turgid, so no water moves.
B Water moves from cell 1, cell 3 and the environment into cell 2.
C Water moves from cell 3 to the environment, and from the environment to cell 1.
D Water moves from the environment into cells 1, 2 and 3.
4. What is the main function of a companion cell in mature phloem tissue?
A providing cytoplasmic contact with the sieve tube for loading
B providing structural support for the sieve tube element
C providing the nucleus for cell division in the phloem
D providing the source of assimilates for storage
5. The diagram shows a model which can be used to demonstrate mass flow.
X and Y are filled with sucrose solutions of different concentration, causing water to move in or
out of X and Y by osmosis or as a result of hydrostatic pressure. Sucrose solution then moves
through the tube T joining X and Y.
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Section: G
Plant Transport
Which description of this is correct?
6. The graph shows the relationship between the loss of water vapour through stomata and an
environmental factor.
What is the environmental factor?

A air temperature
B atmospheric humidity
C light intensity
D wind velocity
7. The diagram shows a longitudinal section through transport tissue in a plant stem.
What are the names of the structure labelled X and the tissue in which it is found?
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Section: G
Plant Transport
8. In which combination of environmental conditions are the stomata of a plant most likely to
close?
9. A water potential gradient causes water to move through xylem.

Which process is mainly responsible for this water potential gradient?
A active transport
B osmosis
C root pressure
D transpiration
10. Which combination of features is characteristic of phloem sieve tubes?
11. A region of a stem of a plant is heated to kill the cells in the living vascular tissues. How will
this treatment affect the transport between roots and leaves via xylem and phloem?
12. Some soil-borne fungi cause wilting in crop plants by growing within the xylem vessels.
Which process will be directly affected by these fungi?
A conduction in the apoplast
B development of root pressure
C stomatal movement
D uptake of water by root hairs
13. The diagram shows some adjacent cells from the root of a plant. Which is the symplast
pathway of water movement?
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Section: G
Plant Transport
14. Which organelles occur in large numbers in companion cells in phloem?

A chloroplasts
B lysosomes
C mitochondria
D starch grains
15. A water potential gradient causes water to move through xylem.
Which process is mainly responsible for this water potential gradient?
A capillarity
B osmosis
C translocation
D transpiration
16. During transpiration, what is the site of evaporation of water in the leaves?
A air spaces
B mesophyll cell walls C stomata
D walls of xylem vessels
17. The diagram represents the phloem pathway, with adjacent cells, from leaf to root in a plant.
Which process is occurring between 1 to 2 and what is the effect on the water potential at 2?
18. The diagram represents a transverse section through a part of the root of a plant.
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Section: G
Plant Transport
Which values of water potential (kPa) in the xylem and soil water help to explain why water
passes from the soil into the xylem across the cortex?
19. Translocation in plants moves sucrose from sources to sinks. Which of the following can be
a source and which a sink?
20. What occurs in the apoplast and symplast pathways?
21. In an animal cell, which process is dependent upon cell surface area and which process is
dependent upon cell volume?
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Section: G
Plant Transport
22. The diagrams show transverse sections of parts of a plant.
In the cross sections, what do 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 represent?
23. Land flooded by the sea is not suitable for growing plants long after the salty flood water has
drained away. The diagram represents a transverse section through a part of the root of a
plant.
Which values of water potential (kPa) in the xylem and soil water help to explain why the land
flooded with salty water is unsuitable for growth of plants?
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Section: G
Plant Transport
Q1. Fig. 4.1 shows transverse sections of a root and a stem.
(a)
(i) Shade in an area in the transverse section of the root where there are cells
specialised for the transport of water.
[1]
(ii) Shade in an area in the transverse section of the stem where there are cells
specialised for the transport of sucrose.
[1]
(b) Suggest why the vascular bundles in the stem are situated towards the outside.
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[1]
(c) Describe the process by which water passes from the soil into the root hairs.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[2]
(d) Explain how water passes from the stem to the air surrounding a leaf.
..........................................................................................................................................
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..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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Section: G
Plant Transport
......................................................................................................................................[4]
Q2. Fig. 3.1 shows a potometer that is used for measuring rates of water uptake by leafy
shoots.
A student used the potometer shown in Fig. 3.1 to investigate the rate of water uptake of a leafy
shoot under six different sets of conditions. The student changed two environmental conditions
around the plant:
temperature
wind speed.
For each experiment, the apparatus was left in the conditions until the rate of water uptake by
the leafy shoot became constant. The student took several measurements during each
experiment and calculated the mean rate of movement of the gas bubble. The results are
recorded in Table 3.1.
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Section: G
Plant Transport
(a) Using the data in Table 3.1, describe and explain the effect of the two conditions that the
student changed during the investigation on the rate of water uptake.
temperature ......................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
wind speed . ......................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[4]
The rate of water movement up the leafy shoot was measured before it was cut from the plant.
The rate was found to be less than the rate of water uptake from the photometer when kept in
the same temperature and windspeed conditions.
(b) Suggest why the rate of water movement in an intact shoot is less than that measured in the
potometer.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[2]
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10
Section: G
Plant Transport
Q3. Fig. 2.1 is a drawing of a transverse section of a leaf.
(a) (i) Use label lines and the letters X, S, E and D to indicate the following on Fig. 2.1:
X a xylem vessel
S a phloem sieve tube
E a lower epidermal cell
D a palisade mesophyll cell
[4]
(ii) Calculate the magnification of Fig. 2.1. Show your working and express your answer to the
nearest whole number.
Answer ........................................ [2]
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11
Section: G
Plant Transport
(b) Name two assimilates that move from the palisade mesophyll cells to the vascular tissue to
be exported from the leaf.
1 .......................................................................................................................................
2 .................................................................................................................................. [2]
(c) Explain, using the term water potential, how water moves from the vascular tissue to the
atmosphere.
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Q4. Fig. 2.1 shows part of a summer squash, Cucurbita pepo. Fig. 2.2 is a high power drawing
of an area of phloem from a transverse section of the stem of C. pepo.
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Section: G
Plant Transport
(a) (i) Name G and H.

G ..............................................................................................................................
H ...........................................................................................................................[1]
(ii) Describe three ways in which the structure of a xylem vessel differs from the structure of
cell G.
1. ..............................................................................................................................
2. ..............................................................................................................................
3. ..........................................................................................................................[3]
(b) The liquid extracted from the phloem of C. pepo contains sucrose.
Explain how sucrose is transported in the phloem along the stem from the leaf to the fruit.
..........................................................................................................................................
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..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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Section: G
Plant Transport
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[4]
(c) Most of the sucrose transported in the phloem enters the fruit.
Suggest why summer squash fruits are not sweet.
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[1]
Q5. (a) Explain why transpiration is the inevitable consequence of gaseous exchange in land
plants.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[3]
Fig. 3.1 shows some of the cells from the lower part and under surface of a leaf. The water
potentials of three cells, A, B and C, are shown.
(b) Explain how water moves from the xylem vessel to cell B.
..........................................................................................................................................
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Section: G
Plant Transport
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[3]
(c) Draw labelled arrows on Fig. 3.1 to show the direction in which
(i) water flows between the cells A, B and C;
(ii) water vapour diffuses.
[2]
[1]
(d) State two features of xerophytic plants that help to reduce the loss of water by transpiration
from their leaves.
1. ......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
2. ......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[2]
Q6. Fig. 1.1 is a drawing made from an electron micrograph. It shows a longitudinal section
through a sieve tube element and a companion cell in the phloem of a flowering plant.
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Section: G
Plant Transport
(a) Refer to Fig. 1.1.

(i) Name structures A to C.
A ...............................................................................................................................
B ...............................................................................................................................
C ...........................................................................................................................[3]
(ii) State the name given to the region labelled D that separates the two sieve tube elements.
...............................................................................................................................[1]
(iii) Name one assimilate that is transported in the phloem.
...............................................................................................................................[1]
(b) Explain how the structure of sieve tube elements helps the translocation of substances in the
phloem.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[3]
(c) Describe the role of companion cells in translocation in the phloem.
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..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[2]
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Section: G
Plant Transport
Q7. Fig. 2.1 shows a transverse section of a root nodule of a legume. Fig. 2.2 is a drawing of a
cell from the centre of the nodule made from an electron micrograph.
(a) Name three structures that are present in cells in the cortex of the root that are not present in
bacterial cells.
1 .......................................................................................................................................
2 .......................................................................................................................................
3 ...................................................................................................................................[3]
(b) Explain the advantages of studying cell structure with an electron microscope rather than
with a light microscope.
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..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[2]
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Section: G
Plant Transport
(c) Describe the role of Rhizobium in the root nodule.

..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[3]
(d) Cells in the centre of the root nodule have a high concentration of the pigment,
leghaemoglobin. This combines with oxygen in much the same way as haemoglobin in
mammals. Leghaemoglobin is responsible for maintaining anaerobic conditions around the
bacteria in the nodules. Leghaemoglobin is not found in the roots of other plants. The base
sequence in the gene that codes for the polypeptide of mammalian haemoglobin is similar to
that for leghaemoglobin. Suggest why this is so.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[2]
Q8. Fig. 3.1 shows an electron micrograph of some xylem vessels in tobacco leaf fragments in a
cigarette.
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Section: G
Plant Transport
(i) Describe and explain two features of the xylem vessels, visible in Fig. 3.1, that are
adaptations for the transport of water in a plant.
feature ......................................................................................................................
explanation ...............................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
feature ......................................................................................................................
explanation ...............................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................[2]
(ii) Explain the mechanisms that cause movement of water in xylem vessels.
..................................................................................................................................
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Section: H
Gaseous Exchange and Smoking
1. What are the approximate diameters of a trachea, an alveolus, a bronchiole and a

bronchus?
2. What is an effect of inhaling tobacco smoke?

A decreased mucus production by goblet cells
B increased movement of cilia in bronchial epithelium
C reduced oxygen transport by blood
D thinning of bronchial epithelium
3. The diagram shows two alveoli.
A cigarette smoker has more alveoli like X and fewer like Y.

From which disease does he suffer?
A atherosclerosis
B chronic bronchitis
C emphysema
D lung cancer
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4. Which correctly shows the areas of the respiratory tract that contain cartilage, goblet cells,
smooth muscle and cilia (ciliated epithelium)?
5. The diagram shows stages in the development of the disease emphysema.
What is correct for 1, 2 and 3?
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Section: H
6. The photomicrographs show an artery from a non-smoker and a smoker.
7. What is the reason that the smokers artery looks like this?
A A cancerous tumour has formed and is blocking the lumen.
B Nicotine has damaged the artery endothelium causing a plaque.
C Tar has stuck to the artery wall forming a blockage.
D The artery has become constricted due to carbon monoxide.
8. What correctly describes the cause and effect of carcinogens on lung tissue?
A Cells of the alveoli walls divide more rapidly than normal by reduction division causing a
tumour to develop.
B Cilia are paralysed, mucus accumulates in the lungs, causing DNA to change, reduction
division and a tumour to develop.
C DNA changes, causing bronchial epithelial cells to divide in an uncontrolled way by mitosis
and a tumour to develop.
D Haemoglobin carries less oxygen, causing bronchial cells to divide in an uncontrolled way by
mitosis and a tumour to develop.
9. What is a correct description of part of the respiratory system?
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Section: H
10. Which statement describes the vital capacity of a human lung?

A the additional volume of air that can be exhaled after breathing out normally
B the additional volume of air that can be inhaled after breathing in normally
C the volume of air inhaled and then exhaled during a single tidal breath
D the volume of air that can be exhaled following a maximum inhalation
11. Between 1954 and 1958 many doctors read a report that linked smoking cigarettes to
deaths from lung cancer. The graph shows deaths from lung cancer among male doctors
and all other men in England and Wales between 1954 and 1962.
Which statements best explain the changes in deaths from lung cancer between 1954 and
1962?
1 All other men are more at risk of dying from lung cancer then male doctors.
2 Male doctors are more at risk of dying from lung cancer than all other men.
3 Proportionally more all other men gave up smoking than male doctors.
4 Proportionally more male doctors gave up smoking cigarettes than all other men.
A 1 and 3
B 2 and 3
C 2 and 4
D 1 and 4
12. Which component of cigarette smoke makes blood platelets more sticky and therefore
increases the risk of blood clot formation?
A carbon monoxide
B carcinogens
C nicotine
D tar
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Section: H
13. When a person suffers an asthma attack, the tubes of the gas exchange system narrow and
extra mucus is produced. Which of these changes occur during an asthma attack?
1 Activity of ciliated epithelium increases.
2 Endocytosis in goblet cells increases.
3 Smooth muscles respire faster.
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
14. A person with emphysema must consciously contract muscles in order to breathe out.
What makes this muscle contraction necessary?
A constriction of the bronchioles
B excess mucus blocking the air passages
C loss of elasticity in the alveolar walls
D paralysis of cilia in the air passages
15. Which component of tobacco smoke makes the blood platelets sticky causing an increased
risk of clot formation?
A carbon monoxide
B carcinogens
C nicotine
D tar
16. The table shows a persons lung volumes during quiet breathing and at full inspiration and
full expiration.
What is this persons vital capacity?

A 1.7 dm3
B 2.0 dm3
C 3.7 dm3
D 5.2 dm3
17. The diagram shows a magnified section through the lung tissue.
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Section: H
What are 1, 2, 3 and 4?
18. The first diagram shows a spirometer, which is an apparatus used to measure changes in
lung volume. The cover rises during exhalation and falls during inhalation, producing a trace
on the rotating drum. The second diagram shows a typical trace from a spirometer.
Which would give the vital capacity?

AX+Y
BXY
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Section: H
19. Some studies suggest that smoking increases the risk of developing lung cancer. The two
graphs show the percentage of smokers and the deaths from lung cancer in men of two age
groups between 1950 and 1998.
Which statement is not supported by the data in the graphs?

A Deaths from lung cancer in men 35-59 decreased by 50 % over the period of the study.
B Deaths from lung cancer in men 60-74 increased up to 1970.
C The data for men 60-74 between 1950 to 1970 suggests that lung cancer takes up to 20
years to develop.
D The number of men aged 35-59 who were smokers decreased by approximately 60 % over
the period of the study.
20. Which cells or tissues are incorrectly paired with their function?
21. The graph shows the volume of air breathed out quickly and with force, following a deep
breath in, for three different people, X, Y and Z.
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What is an explanation for the differences shown?
22. Which statement is an example of epidemiological evidence linking smoking to lung cancer?
A Chemical analysis of tar from cigarettes shows that it contains carcinogens.
B Dogs made to inhale the smoke from cigarettes develop lung tumours.
C The incidence of lung cancer increases in a population as more cigarettes are smoked.
D When tar from cigarettes is rubbed onto the skin of mice, the mice develop skin tumours.
23. The squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli form part of the gas exchange system. How do
these cells assist gas exchange?
1 They contain many mitochondria.
2 They have a large surface area.
3 They provide a short diffusion path.
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
24. Which statements are correct effects of tar in tobacco smoke on the human gas exchange
system?
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Section: H
25. The diagram shows a record of a persons breathing. The person breathed normally at the
start, breathed in as deeply as possible and then breathed out as much as possible.
What is a valid conclusion from the graph?

A The person breathed in 1000 cm3 during the first 50 seconds.
B The person was carrying out strenuous exercise for the first 30 seconds.
C The rate of breathing for the first 30 seconds was 18 breaths per minute.
D The tidal volume was 500 cm3, the vital capacity was 3750 cm3.
26. Ciliated, goblet and squamous epithelial cells are found in various parts of the human lung
and associated structures. Where are these cells located?
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Section: H
27. What would be seen in an electron micrograph of a bronchus wall?

1 cartilage cells
2 ciliated cells
3 exocytotic vesicles
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3
D 1, 2 and 3
28. An oxygen molecule diffuses directly from the air in an alveolus to haemoglobin in a red
blood cell. What is the minimum number of cell surface membranes through which this
molecule must pass?
A2
B3
C4
D5
29. A disease damages alveoli.
Which effect does this have on the gas exchange surface area and volume of the lungs?
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Section: H
Q1. Fig. 1.1 is a drawing made from an electron micrograph of a cell from the ciliated epithelium
of the bronchus.
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Section: H
(a) Complete the table below by writing the appropriate letter from Fig. 1.1 to indicate the
structure that carries out each of the functions listed. The first one has been completed for you.
(b) The alveoli in the lungs are lined by a squamous epithelium.

Explain why gas exchange occurs in alveoli and not in the bronchus.
..........................................................................................................................................
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..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [3]
(c) Describe the likely appearance of the lining of the bronchus in a person who has been a
heavy smoker for many years.
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...................................................................................................................................... [3]
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Section: H
Q2. Some components of tobacco smoke are absorbed into the blood stream and affect the
cardiovascular system.
Describe the effects of nicotine and carbon monoxide on the cardiovascular system.
nicotine ............................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
carbon monoxide .............................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [4]
Q3. Fig. 1.1 is a drawing made from an electron micrograph showing a cross-section of an
alveolus and two adjacent capillaries.
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Section: H
(a) Calculate the magnification of Fig. 1.1. Show your working and express your answer to the
nearest whole number.
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
(b) With reference to Fig. 1.1, describe the process of gaseous exchange in the alveolus.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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...................................................................................................................................... [4]
Q4. Fig. 1.1 is a drawing made from an electron micrograph of a goblet cell from the epithelium
of the gas exchange system.
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Section: H
(a) Name A to C.
A .......................................................................................................................................
B .......................................................................................................................................
C ................................................................................................................................... [3]
(b) State two places in the gas exchange system where goblet cells are found.
1. ......................................................................................................................................
2. .................................................................................................................................. [1]
Mucus contains a number of different glycoproteins, called mucins. These have a protein core
that is formed by repeated sequences of amino acids, some of which have carbohydrates
attached to their side chains (R groups). A part of one of these repeated units is shown
diagrammatically in Fig. 1.2.
(c) Use label lines and the letters P and G to indicate on Fig. 1.2 the positions of:
P a peptide bond;
G a glycosidic bond.
[2]
(d) Describe the role of mucus in the gas exchange system.

..........................................................................................................................................
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Section: H
...................................................................................................................................... [3]
(e) Glycoproteins are found in cell surface membranes.
State one function of these glycoproteins.
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [1]
Q5. Fig. 3.1 shows some cells from the lining of the bronchus from a person who has never
smoked. Fig. 3.2 shows cells from the same area in a heavy smoker who suffers from chronic
bronchitis.
(a) Using label lines and the following letters, label the structures A to C on Fig. 3.1.
A cilia
B nuclear membrane (nuclear envelope)
C endoplasmic reticulum
[3]
(b) Explain why the lungs are at an increased risk of infection when the bronchial epithelium is
damaged as is shown in Fig. 3.2.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [3]
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Section: H
(c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
A student used the World Health Organisation database to investigate the link between cigarette
smoking and deaths from COPD. Fig. 3.3 shows deaths from COPD plotted against the mean
annual consumption of cigarettes in 20 countries for the period 1997
to 2002.
The student concluded that there was no link between cigarette consumption and deaths from
COPD. Use the information in Fig. 3.3 to discuss the students conclusion.
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Waleed Ahmad Khan
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Section: I
Section: I
Infectious Diseases
Infectious Diseases
1. Which statement explains why people suffering from malaria and people suffering from
tuberculosis can both live in northern Europe, but only tuberculosis can be passed on to
other people there?
A Anopheles mosquitoes only breed in sub-tropical and tropical areas.
B Antibiotics can be used to cure people with tuberculosis.
C Migrant workers can carry the diseases with them.
D Tuberculosis bacteria cannot survive in sub-tropical and tropical areas.
2. The diagram shows the effects of the antibiotics streptomycin and penicillin on the bacterium
Escherichia coli.
What can you deduce about the response of E. coli to the effects of the antibiotics?
3. The diagram refers to properties of diseases. Which area of the diagram refers to properties
that are common to both tuberculosis and cholera?
By, Waleed Ahmad Khan
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Section: I
Infectious Diseases
4. What causes the measles vaccine to be less effective in children from less economically
developed countries?
A Their diet does not contain enough carbohydrate.
B Their diet does not contain enough protein.
C They are carriers of the disease.
D They rapidly become reinfected.
5. Which disease is treated with drugs that have a similar molecular structure to DNA
nucleotides?
A cholera
B HIV / AIDS
C malaria
D tuberculosis (TB)
6. Which factors would help prevent which disease?
1 covering water containers
2 disinfecting and chlorinating water
3 use of antiviral drugs
4 vaccination
7. Which future development in vaccine production is most important in the fight to eradicate
measles in developing countries?
A a combined vaccine to combat it and other diseases
B a single vaccine, without the need for boosters
C a vaccine containing only live measles viruses
D a vaccine produced by genetic engineering techniques
8. Why is it necessary for a person with a bacterial infection to be told to take antibiotics at
evenly spaced time intervals?
A to increase the concentration of antibiotic slowly to a level which is lethal to the bacteria
B to maintain concentration of antibiotic in the body which is lethal to the bacteria
C to prevent the development of resistant strains of bacteria
D to select and kill the resistant strains of bacteria
9. How are the diseases cholera, malaria and HIV / AIDS transmitted?
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Section: I
Infectious Diseases
10. What are the causative agents of cholera, malaria and TB?
11. 40 % of the worlds population live in an area where malaria is a threat to health. In recent
years there have been many more cases in Africa.
What is the social factor that is letting the spread of malaria get out of control?
A an increase in drug resistant forms of malaria
B climate change
C difficulty in producing a vaccine
D migration of people because of wars
12. Some facts about diseases are listed.
1 may be inherited from a parent
2 may be carried by a vector
3 may be caused by stress
4 may be passed on by contact
5 may enter through the mouth with food
Which numbered statements apply to infectious diseases?
A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 3 and 5
C 2, 3 and 4
D 2, 4 and 5
13. Which disease is not likely to be passed directly from parent to child?
A cholera
B HIV / AIDS
C malaria
D tuberculosis
14. Which diseases can be cured by the use of antibiotics?
A cholera and tuberculosis
B HIV / AIDS and smallpox
C HIV / AIDS and tuberculosis
D smallpox and cholera
15. Which of the following are increasing the spread of malaria?
1 continued migration of people due to war and civil unrest
2 increasing carbon dioxide levels causing global warming
3 increasing resistance to antibiotics and other drugs
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
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16. A country has fewer than 2.5 deaths per 100 000 people from TB in one year and the next
year this rose to 25 deaths per 100 000. What may have contributed to this change?
1 decrease in contact tracing
2 increase in refugee camps
3 water supply contaminated by sewage
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3
D 1, 2 and 3
17. Scientists are concerned that avian (bird) flu caused by the H5N1 virus, could infect humans
and cause a pandemic. If this occurs, which factors could help prevent humans spreading
the disease?
1 killing all poultry
2 reducing all air flights
3 taking a course of antibiotics
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
18. Which row is correct?
19. The disease smallpox has been eradicated by a worldwide vaccination programme.
Which set of reasons correctly identifies the problems associated with planning vaccination
programmes to eradicate other diseases?
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Infectious Diseases
20. Which of the diseases listed in the table are only treatable using antibiotics?
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Section: I
Infectious Diseases
Q1. Complete the table below to show which of the five statements about disease apply to
emphysema, tuberculosis, obesity, rickets and smallpox.
Fill in each box, using a tick () to show that the statement applies or a cross () if it does not.
Q2. (a) Describe how the malarial parasite is normally transmitted from an infected person to an
uninfected person.
...........................................................................................................................................
...........................................................................................................................................
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................................................................................................................................................ [2]
Fig. 5.1 is drawn from an electron micrograph of a red blood cell taken from a person suffering
from malaria.
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Infectious Diseases
(b) State two features, visible in Fig. 5.1, that indicate that the malarial parasite is eukaryotic.
1. ......................................................................................................................................
2. ............................................................................................................................................... [2]
(c) Outline the likely effects on the body of the presence of malarial parasites in red blood cells.
..........................................................................................................................................
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..................................................................................................................................... [3]
Q3. Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by a bacterium.
(a) (i) Name the bacterium that causes TB.
............................................................................................................................................ [1]
(ii) Describe how TB is transmitted from infected to uninfected people.
...................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
.........................................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................................... [2]
Antibiotics are used in the treatment of people with TB. The usual procedure is for people with
TB to take a mixture of three or four antibiotics for up to a year.
(d) Explain why it is necessary to give people with TB this type of treatment.
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Section: I
Infectious Diseases
Q4. (a) State three ways in which HIV is transmitted.

1. ......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
2. ......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
3. ......................................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................................[3]
(b) Outline the problems involved in controlling the spread of HIV.
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Q5. Researchers have been trying to develop a successful vaccine against malaria for about 20
years. Explain why it has proved so difficult to develop such a vaccine.
..........................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................... [2]
Q6. (a) (i) Name the organism that causes tuberculosis (TB).
..................................................................................................................................... [1]
(ii) Explain how TB is transmitted from an infected person to an uninfected person.
.....................................................................................................................................
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Infectious Diseases
................................................................................................................................. [2]
The World Health Organisation (WHO) collects data on TB from its six different regions as
shown in Table 5.1. In 2003, it used these figures to estimate
the total number of people with the disease in each region
the number of deaths from TB.
Many of those who died from TB were also infected with HIV.
(b) Explain the advantage of expressing the number of cases and the number of deaths as per
100 000 population.
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
...................................................................................................................................... [2]
Q7. Plasmodium falciparum is the causative agent of the most severe form of malaria. It is
distributed throughout the tropics.
(a) Explain why malaria is restricted to the tropics.
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Section: I
Infectious Diseases
The haploid number of P. falciparum is 14.

Fig. 5.1 shows the life cycle of P. falciparum.
(b) (i) State the number of chromosomes present at stages A and B.

A ...............................................................................................................................
B ......................................................................................................................... [2]
(ii) Explain why a reduction division (meiosis) occurs during the life cycles of organisms,
such as Plasmodium, that reproduce sexually.
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Section: I
Infectious Diseases
............................................................................................................................ [2]
(c) Explain why it has proved difficult to develop a vaccine for malaria.
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Q8. Some strains of S. aureus have become resistant to one or more of the antibiotics used to
treat infections.
The mechanisms of antibiotic resistance involve proteins, for example:
enzymes to breakdown antibiotics
membrane proteins that inactivate antibiotics
membrane proteins that pump out antibiotics.
Explain why antibiotic resistance arises as a result of mutation.
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12
Section: I
Infectious Diseases
Q9. Fig. 4.1 is a transmission electron micrograph of the organism that causes tuberculosis.
The actual length of the cell between X and Y in Fig. 3.1 is 2 m.

Calculate the magnification of the electron micrograph.
Show your working and give your answer to the nearest whole number.
magnification .......................... [2]

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[SECTION: J IMMUNITY]
MCQs
1. The graph shows the amount of antibody produced in response to an antigen. From the graph,
which statement is correct?
A It takes 25 days to achieve active immunity.

B Memory cells for this antigen are present in the body within 20 days.
C A second exposure to the antigen occurred on day 20.
D T helper cells are activated on day 12.
2. For a period after its birth, a human baby is immune to most of the diseases to which its mother is
immune. Which form of immunity does this represent?
A artificial active
B artificial passive
C natural active
D natural passive
3. Immune responses may be specific or non-specific. Which response is a specific immune response?
A inflammation
B phagocytosis
C production of antibodies
D release of histamine
4. The graph shows the primary and secondary responses of the immune system to antigens.
What are responses X and Y?
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5. A persons blood group is determined by antigens present on the red blood cells. People have
antibodies in their plasma even if they have never received a blood transfusion. It is these antibodies
in the plasma of the person who receives the blood that make some blood transfusions unsafe.
The table shows the antigens and antibodies in the blood of people with different blood groups.
People with which blood groups can safely receive a transfusion of group A blood?
A A and B
B A and AB
C A, B and AB
D A and O
6. What is the immune systems first line of defence against invading microorganisms?
A ingestion of the microorganisms by B-lymphocytes
B ingestion of the microorganisms by phagocytes
D production of antigens
7. Which description is correct for B-lymphocytes?
8. An antiserum to a snake toxin can be obtained by injecting the toxin into a horse. The antiserum is
made from plasma taken from the horse a few weeks later. The antiserum is used to treat a person
who has been bitten by the same species of snake.
What does the persons treatment bring about?
A artificial active immunity
B artificial passive immunity
C natural active immunity
D natural passive immunity
9. The diagram shows different elements concerned with the immune response in humans.
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What are the parts numbered 1 to 4?
10. The graph shows the level of antibody in serum following vaccination and a challenge with the same
antigen 28 days later.
Which cells account for the difference in antibody concentration at the peaks of the primary and
secondary responses?
A B-lymphocytes
B memory cells
C phagocytes
D T-lymphocytes
11. The diagram shows the relationship between the red bone marrow, the thymus gland and the lymph
nodes.
What does X represent?

A antibodies
B B-lymphocytes
C macrophages
D T-lymphocytes
12. What is the difference between B and T lymphocytes in the immune system?
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13. Cells which divide and give rise to lymphocytes are called stem cells. Where in the human body do
these stem cells divide?
A bone marrow
B lymph nodes
C spleen
D thymus
14. The numbers on the diagram refer to different types of immunity.
Which term is correct for each of these numbers?
15. What is the function of the plasma cells during an immune response?
A to secrete antibodies
B to engulf bacteria
C to kill cells infected with viruses
D to change into memory cells
16. Which sequence of events correctly describes the action of a phagocyte when a pathogen is
encountered?
A endocytosis digestion by lysosome enzymes phagocytic vacuole formation
exocytosis
B endocytosis phagocytic vacuole formation digestion by lysosome enzymes
exocytosis
C exocytosis phagocytic vacuole formation digestion by lysosome enzymes
phagocytosis
D phagocytosis digestion by lysosome enzymes phagocytic vacuole formation endocytosis
17. Where are antibodies and antigens found?
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18. The following statements describe some of the stages in phagocytosis.

1 Bacteria become surrounded in a phagocytic vacuole.
2 Bacteria release chemicals that attract neutrophils.
3 Lysosomes fuse with the phagocytic vacuole.
4 Receptor proteins on the neutrophil bind to the bacteria.
Which order defines the correct sequence for phagocytosis?
19. Which examples show the different types of immunity?
20. What is the first response by the immune system to a pathogen?

A ingestion of the pathogen by B-lymphocytes
B ingestion of the pathogen by phagocytes
D production of antigens
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Theory:
1. (a) Explain how the virus that causes measles is transmitted.
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(b) Antibodies against measles are produced by plasma cells during an immune response. Fig. 2.1 shows
a diagram of an antibody molecule.
Explain the functions of the parts labelled A, B and C.

(i) A
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(ii) B
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(iii) C
...............................................................................................................................
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2. One role of the cell surface membrane is to control the entry and exit of substances.
(a) Complete Table 1.1 to show the transport mechanisms across cell surface membranes and examples
of materials transported.
(b) Each transport mechanism across cell surface membranes has a characteristic set of features.
In each of the boxes below, state one example of a transport mechanism that matches
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[SECTION: K ECOLOGY]
MCQs
1. The diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle.
Which kind of bacteria are involved in steps 1, 2 and 3?
2. What name is given to all the organisms in an area and their interactions with their environment?
A community
B ecosystem
C niche
D population
3. Which statement explains why two species cannot permanently occupy the same ecological niche?
A The two species could not interbreed.
B The two species may be part of separate food webs.
C The two species would compete for the same resources.
D The two species would have different nutritional requirements.
4. How does denitrification occur in the soil?
A active uptake of nitrate ions by plant roots
B bacterial reduction of nitrate ions to nitrogen gas
C drainage of manured fields
D leaching of nitrate ions
5. What name is given to all the organisms of the same species living in an area?
A community
B ecosystem
C niche
D population
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6. The diagram shows the energy flow model for all the species in a forest. The width of the arrows is
proportional to the amount of energy transferred. Which circle represents the decomposers?
7. Which group could be a single population?

A all the animals and plants on an isolated island
B all the birds counted in one day in a garden
C all the bacteria in a colony of Bacillus subtilis
D all the insects occupying three hectares of farmland
8. What is the role of decomposers in the nitrogen cycle?
A They convert proteins to ammonium compounds.
B They fix atmospheric nitrogen.
C They oxidise ammonium compounds to nitrites.
D They oxidise nitrites to nitrates.
9. Within an ecosystem, the top consumers in a food chain are few in number.
Which statement explains this?
A Energy losses occur at each trophic level.
B Energy losses occur within the consumers digestive systems.
C Top consumers have a low reproductive rate.
D Top consumers are large in size.
10. A square metre of grassland receives about 1 047 000 kJ of solar light energy each year.
The table shows what happens to this energy.
How much energy is used by the grass in photosynthesis?

A 2000 kJ
B 19 500 kJ
C 21 500 kJ
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D 23 500 kJ
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11. Why does the application of nitrate fertilisers cause an increase in crop production?
A Green plants manufacture more protein.
B More nitrogen is fixed in leguminous plants.
C The fertiliser adds energy to the ecosystem.
D The number of denitrifying bacteria decreases.
12. What name is given to all the organisms of different species living in an area?
A community
B ecosystem
C niche
D population
13. Which agricultural practice will not provide an alternative to the use of ammonium nitrate as a
fertiliser to increase the productivity of wheat?
A growing wheat and another cereal crop in the same field in alternate years
B growing wheat and beans in the same field in alternate years
C ploughing animal waste such as dung into the soil
D using synthetic urea as a fertilizer
14. Which stage in the nitrogen cycle is linked to its bacteria?
15. What is the ecological definition of the term community?

A all the food webs in an ecosystem
B all the individuals of one species in an area
C all the organisms in an area
D the living organisms and their non-living environment
16. Which stage of energy transfer has the lowest efficiency?
A sunlight producer
B producer primary consumer
C primary consumer secondary consumer
D secondary consumer tertiary consumer
17. Leguminous plants have root nodules containing bacteria. The diagram shows a transverse section
through part of the root and root nodule of a leguminous plant.
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What is indicated by the labels 1, 2, 3 and 4?
18. A tree carries out photosynthesis and provides organic compounds for other organisms in a forest. It
takes carbon dioxide from and returns oxygen to the atmosphere. It takes water from the soil into
its roots and its leaves lose water to the atmosphere. Many other organisms live in the tree. Which
of these terms applies to the description of the tree?
A community
B ecosystem
C habitat
D niche
19. Which box contains only the parts of an ecosystem which are classed as a food web?
20. Which process does not make nitrogen-containing compounds available to plants?
A ammonification by decomposers
B denitrification by denitrifying bacteria
C nitrogen fixation in plant root nodules
D nitrogen fixation by soil bacteria
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21. The diagram shows a food web.
How many trophic levels are represented in the food web?

A3
B4
C5
D6
22. The diagram represents loss of energy from a food chain to decomposers, transfer of energy to the
next trophic level and energy loss through respiration. All figures are in kJ m2y1.
What is illustrated by this diagram?

A Carnivores lose more energy than herbivores.
B Energy loss to decomposers is higher than respiratory loss.
C Energy transfer between trophic levels is about 10 %.
D The energy of the final trophic level is not used.
23. The diagram represents part of the nitrogen cycle.
Which process is carried out by nitrifying bacteria?
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24. What limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

A biomass of the autotrophs
B efficiency of energy conversion between levels
C net productivity of the ecosystem
D species diversity in the ecosystem
25. The following are definitions of three ecological terms.
1 all of the organisms and their environment
2 group of individuals of one species living in an area
3 all of the organisms living in a habitat
What are the correct definitions of a community and a population?
26. The diagram shows the circulation of nitrogen in nature.
What is correct?
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27. Which statement explains why two species cannot permanently occupy the same ecological niche?
A The two species could not interbreed.
B The two species may be part of separate food webs.
C The two species would compete for the same resources.
D The two species would have different nutritional requirements.
28. Following an environmental disaster of a major volcanic eruption, the atmosphere contains greatly
increased amounts of dust. How does this affect the following organisms?
29. The diagram shows the flow of energy through an ecosystem. Photosynthesis is the gross
productivity. Producers lose some energy in respiration and the energy left is the net productivity.
This can also be expressed as an equation:
Net Productivity (NP) = Gross Productivity (GP) Respiration (R)
Some of the net productivity passes to herbivores.
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Which calculation gives the proportion of net productivity passing to herbivores?
30. The diagram shows some chemical conversions during the nitrogen cycle.
Which conversions involve microorganisms?
31. What is the correct match of example to ecological term?
32. The diagram shows a simplified nitrogen cycle. During which stage does nitrification take place?
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33. Grasshoppers eat only the leaves of grass. Grasshoppers are eaten by carnivorous beetles.
What does this description of grasshoppers give us sufficient information to define?
1 habitat
2 niche
3 trophic level
A 2 only
B 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
34. Of the prey consumed by the lion, into which box does the largest amount of energy go?
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KEY:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
B
B
C
B
D
B
C
A
A
D
A
A
A
B
C
A
A
D
B
B
C
C
C
B
D
D
C
B
C
B
A
C
B
C
For Any Error in typing, contact:

Waleed Ahmad Khan
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203
Theory
1. Fig. 2.1 shows the flow of energy through an ecosystem. All the figures are in kJ m2 year1.
(a) Calculate how much energy is available to the primary consumers in this ecosystem.
......................................................................................................................................[1]
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204
(b) The efficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels is calculated by comparing the energy
available to a trophic level with the energy available to the next trophic level. Between secondary and
tertiary consumers, this is calculated as follows.
Use the formula above to calculate the efficiency of energy transfer between the secondary consumers
and the tertiary consumers in this ecosystem.
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(c) In some food webs, individual consumer species feed at different trophic levels. With reference to
Fig. 2.1, explain an advantage of this for these consumer species.
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(d) Explain the role of decomposers in the cycling of carbon and nitrogen in ecosystems.
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205
2. Food webs in hot deserts are much simpler than those of other areas, such as temperate woodlands
or coral reefs. The physical conditions in deserts are so extreme that few organisms can survive.
However, there are plants and animals that have special adaptations to withstand big changes in
temperature and lack of rainfall. Desert plants provide shade and food for herbivorous animals, such
as insects, lizards and rodents. Snakes, scorpions and spiders feed on the herbivores. Animals such
as the fennec fox and hawks feed as top carnivores.
(a) State the term that best describes each of the following.
(i) Organisms, such as desert plants, that form the first trophic level in a food web.
term ......................................................................................................................[1]
(ii) All the fennec foxes living in one area at the same time.
term ......................................................................................................................[1]
(iii) All the different species that inhabit a desert at the same time.
term ......................................................................................................................[1]
(iv) A natural unit, such as a desert, consisting of all the living organisms and the physical
environment interacting together to give a stable system.
term ......................................................................................................................[1]
(v) Herbivorous animals, such as lizards and rodents, which are prey for carnivores.
term ......................................................................................................................[1]
(b) Using information from the passage, explain the term habitat.
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(c) Explain how the leaves of desert plants may be adapted for survival in areas with little rainfall.
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206
3. Complete the table below by describing one role in living organisms for each of the ions listed.
4. (a) An ecosystem may be as small as a pond or as large as a forest. Some scientists consider that the
whole biosphere is an ecosystem. Give a detailed definition of the term ecosystem. You may use
another example in your answer.
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....................................................................................................................................................................[3]
(b) In 1978, the American ecologist Paul Colinvaux published a book of essays with the title Why Big
Fierce Animals are Rare. Explain why big, fierce animals are rare in ecosystems.
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207
(c) Many tropical islands have nitrogen-deficient soils. Leguminous trees, such as Royal Poinciana,
Delonix regia, grow well in such conditions. Explain why leguminous plants grow well in these
conditions.
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5. The element nitrogen is present in many biological molecules, such as amino acids, proteins and
nucleotides. Fig. 6.1 shows part of the nitrogen cycle.
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Cambridge AS Level Biology

1. An actively growing cell is supplied with radioactive amino acids.

Which combination is found in a prokaryotic cell?

4. What is the order of size of cell components?

5. The diagram shows the structure of a typical plant cell.

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

6. What is responsible for the high resolution of the electron microscope?

9. What is the function of nucleoli?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

11. A lysosome measures 0.4 m in diameter.

12. What describes resolution in microscopy?

17. The diagram shows a drawing of an electron micrograph of a cell.

Which structures are surrounded by double membranes?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

18. In which animal cells would Golgi apparatus be most abundant?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

What is the growth rate of the pollen tubes?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

25. The magnification of this electron micrograph is 5 10 .

What is the actual size of the nucleolus?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

30. A plan diagram is made of a transverse section of a leaf.

Waleed Ahmad Khan

Cambridge AS Level Biology

Waleed Ahmad Khan

Cambridge AS Level Biology

Waleed Ahmad Khan

Cambridge AS Level Biology

42. What is the correct order of size of organelles?

44. The action of which cell depends on large numbers of lysosomes?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

The stage micrometer is replaced by a slide of a plant cell.

What is the width of a chloroplast?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

47. The diagram shows an electron micrograph of a typical animal cell.

What is the function of the membrane system labelled X?

What do structures X, Y and Z contain?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

50. The diagram shows a high-power drawing of a plant cell.

What is the magnification of the cell?

What is the diameter of the nucleolus?

Cambridge AS Level Biology

55. From which cell organelle are nucleic acids absent?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

61. What is a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

62. The photomicrograph of a cell has a 2 cm scale line labelled 5 m..

What is the magnification of the photomicrograph?

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Cambridge AS Level Biology

(a) Name the structures labeled A to F.

(b) Name two macromolecules found in the nucleus.

(d) Describe the role of the plant cell wall.

Waleed Ahmad Khan