CV Exam - Question Bank

COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION
CAD CAM
1. With incremental tool positioning, ____.

a) each tool movement is made with reference to the last tool position
b) all tool movement is measured from a fixed point or origin
c) all tool movement is measured from a zero point
d) No tool Movement
2. The point-to-point NC movement system ____.

a) permits controlled tool travel along one axis at a time
b) is used for operations performed at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate
position
c) precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes
d) All the answers
3. When the contour or continuous path system is used, ____.

a) tool travel is controlled along one axis at a time
b) machine and tool movements are precisely controlled at all times and in all planes
c) tool movement from one point to the next does not have to follow a specific path
d) No movement of tool
4. A point-to-point NC movement system ____.

a) is typically used for drilling, punching, and spot welding.
b) is used for operations at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position
c) tool movement from one position to the next does not have to follow a specific path
d) All of the answers
5. Servo motors are ____.

a) activated by pulses of current
b) provide power to position the work
c) connected to the lead and feed screws
6. In a typical manufacturing environment, CAD modeling finds its role in:

a) Design
b) Drafting
c) Manufacturing
7. The screen is scanned from left to right, top to bottom all the time to generate graphics by
a) Raster scan
b) Random scan
c) Vector scan
8. The method which used either delta x or delta y, whichever is larger, is chosen as one
raster unit to draw the line -the algorithm is called?
a) Bresenhams Line Algorithm
b) DDA Line Algorithm
c) Mid point Line Algorithm
9. Which of the following line algorithms used integer only arithmetic to rasterize lines
c) FFTW Line Algorithm
d) Line clipping Algorithm
10. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45 counterclockwise with the X-axis.
The coordinates of the transformed point will be
a) (7.5, 5)
b) (10, 5)
c) (7.5, -5)
d) (10, -5)
11. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the
type of tool motion will be
a) Circular Interpolation - clockwise
b) Circular Interpolation - counterclockwise
c) Linear Interpolation
d) Rapid feed
12. The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by:

a) Control points
b) Knots
c) End points
13. The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors:

a) Increases with knot vectors
b) Decreases with knot vectors
c) Remains constant
d) No influence with knot vectors
14. Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tools in APT
language?
1. only capital letters are used 2. A period is placed at the end of each statement 3. Insertion
of space does not affect the APT word
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1and 3
d) 1 alone
15. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4).
The correct G and M code for this motion is
a) N010 G03 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
b) N010 G02 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
c) N010 G01 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
d) N010 G00 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
16. In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and control

a) spindle position
b) table velocity
c) spindle speed
d) coolant flow
17. In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill with
10mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30),
(50,30), and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter
will be
a) (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55, -5), (-5, -5)
b) (0, -5), (55, -5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5, -5)
c) (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25),
d) (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25),
(45, 5), (5, 5)

(5, 25), (5, 5)
18. Consider the following characteristics:

1. Single machine tool 2. Manual materials handling system 3. Computer control 4. Random
sequencing of parts to machines
Which of the above characteristics are associated with flexible manufacturing system?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
19. Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS) are reported to have a number of benefits. Which
is NOT a reported benefit of FMS?
a) Lead time and throughput time reduction
b) Increased quality
c) More flexible than the manufacturing systems they replace
d) Increased utilisation
20. Which materials-processing technology gives the advantage of precision, accuracy and
optimum use of cutting tools, which maximise their life and higher labour productivity?
a) Industrial robots
b) Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS)
c) Computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM)
d) NC (and CNC) machine tools
CAD CAM
1. When absolute tool positioning is used, ____.

a) a mistake in dimensioning an individual point does not affect remaining dimensions
b) all tool movement is measured from a fixed point or origin
c) it is easier to check for errors
d) All the answers
2. A straight-cut system ____.

a) permits controlled tool travel along one axis at a time
b) is used for operations performed at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate
position
c) precisely controls machine and tool movement at all times and in all planes
d) permits controlled tool travel along three axis at a time
3. A point-to-point NC movement system ____.

a) is typically used for drilling, punching, and spot welding.
b) is used for operations at a fixed location in terms of a two-axis coordinate position
c) tool movement from one position to the next does not have to follow a specific path
4. With contour or continuous path NC movement system, ____.

a) cutter size and other variables must be considered when the program is prepared
b) cutter location is monitored continuously
c) cutting is continuous and can be in six axes simultaneously
5. In a typical manufacturing environment, CAD modeling finds its role in:

a) Design
b) Drafting
c) Manufacturing
6. The method which used either delta x or delta y, whichever is larger, is chosen as one
raster unit to draw the line -the algorithm is called?
c) Mid point Line Algorithm
7. Which of the following is not an object-space hidden surface removal algorithm

a) Back-Face Culling
b) Depth Buffer
c) Painters Algorithm
d) FFTW Line Algorithm
8. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45 counterclockwise with the X-axis.
The coordinates of the transformed point will be
a) (7.5, 5)
b) (10, 5)
c) (7.5, -5)
d) (10, -5)
9. Which of the following hidden surface removal algorithms potentially causes a bottleneck
in the Graphics Pipeline?
b) Depth Buffer
10. For the following question, consider the line which starts at location (5, 14) and ends at
position (21, 2).How many pixels will there be in this line?
a) 12
b) 16
c) 20
d) 24
11. For the following question, consider the line which starts at location (5, 14) and ends at
position (21, 2).Which is the primary direction?
a) X
b) Y
c) Z
12. With the DDA algorithm, what will be the amount (amt in notes) added to the secondary
component each time through the loop
a) 1/2
b) -3/4
c) 3/4
d) -4/3
13. The computerized technology that is used to design parts is known as:
a) CIM
b) CAD
c) CAM
14. IGES stands for

a) Initial Graphics Exchange System
b) Initial Graphics Exchange Software
c) Initial Graphic Exchange Solution
d) Initial Graphics Exchange Specification
15. Group technology and CAPP are the activities of

a) Computer Aided Engineering
b) Computer Aided Manufacturing
c) Computer Integrated Manufacturing
d) Flexible manufacturing
16. Computer Integrated Manufacturing deals with

a) Design and business functions
b) Design activities only
c) Design, Manufacturing and business functions
d) Manufacturing and business functions
17. B-Rep is a methods of ____________

a) Solid modeling
b) Surface modeling
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c) Wire frame modeling

d) 2D modeling
18. A system permitting the manufacture of large quantities of identical goods using
repetitive actions by people or machines is called:
a) manufacturing.
b) operations.
c) mass production.
d) assembly line.
19. An approach that tries to match the output of manufacturing with market demand, in
order to minimize inventories is called:
a) JIT.
b) MRP.
c) CAD.
d) CAM.
20. In which of the following machining manual part programming is done?

a) CNC machining
b) NC machining
c) DNC machining
d) FMS machining
21. The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10,10)
whileperforming an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following
NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
a) N010G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
b) N010G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
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c) N010G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

d) N010G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
22. What are the main components of an NC machine?

1. Part program 2. Machine Control Unit 3. Servo meter
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
23. Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tools in APT
language?
1. only capital letters are used 2. A period is placed at the end of each statement 3. Insertion
of space does not affect the APT word
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1and 3
d) 1 alone
24. Which of the following are valid statements for point to point motion of the tool in APT
language?
1. GOTO/............ 2. GO DLTA/............ 3. GO/TO, .
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
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d) 1, 2 and 3
25. In APT language, the cutter motion in incremental coordinate mode is addressed as
a) GO/TO/.....
b) GO/TO.....
c) GO DLTA/....
d) GO FWD/ ...
26. In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4).
The correct G and M code for this motion is
a) N010 G03 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
b) N010 G02 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
c) N010 G01 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
d) N010 G00 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
27. In a point to point control NC machine, the slides are positioned by an integrally mounted
stepper motor drive. If the specification of the motor is 1degree/pulse, and the pitch of the
lead screw is 3.6 mm, what is the expected positioning accuracy?
a) 1m
b) 10m
c) 50m
d) 100m
28. In a point-to-point type of NC system

a) control of position and velocity of the tool is essential
b) control of only position of the tool is sufficient
c) control of only velocity of the tool is sufficient
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d) neither position nor velocity need be controlled
29. A 'block' of information in N.C. machine program means

a) one row on tape
b) a word comprising several rows on tape
c) one complete instruction
d) one complete program for a job
30. In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and control

a) spindle position
b) table velocity
c) spindle speed
d) coolant flow
31. Interpolation in the controller refers to control of which one of the following in a CNC
machine?
a) Loading/unloading of jobs on machine
b) Loading/unloading of tools from the tool changer
c) Axes of machine for contouring
d) Coolant and miscellaneous functions on machine
32. Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided by

a) synchronous motors
b) induction motors
c) stepper motors
d) servo-motors.
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33. Which type of motor is NOT used in axis or spindle drives of CNC machine tools?
a) induction motor
b) dc servo motor
c) stepper motor
d) linear servo motor
34. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the
type of tool motion will be
a) circular Interpolation clockwise
b) circular Interpolation - counter clockwise
c) linear Interpolation
d) rapid feed
35. In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill with
10mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0, 30),
(50,30), and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the cutter
will be
a) (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55, -5), (-5, -5)
b) (0, -5), (55, -5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5, -5)
c) (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25),
(45, 5), (5, 5)
d) (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25),
(5, 25), (5, 5)
36. Flexible manufacturing allows for:

a) tool design and production
b) automated design
c) quick and inexpensive product change
d) quality control
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1. Single machine tool 2. Manual materials handling system 3. Computer control 4. Random
sequencing of parts to machines
Which of the above characteristics are associated with flexible manufacturing system?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
38. In which machining system, the highest level of automation is found?

a) CNC machine tools
b) Automatic transfer machines
c) Machine tools with electro-hydraulic positioning and control
d) DNC machining system
39. Which one of the following is the third basic component of robots besides power supply
and control (memory) console?
a) Software
b) Coaxial cable
c) Mechanical unit arm
d) Microcomputer
40. Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS) are reported to have a number of benefits. Which
is NOT a reported benefit of FMS?
a) Lead time and throughput time reduction
b) Increased quality
c) More flexible than the manufacturing systems they replace
d) Increased utilisation
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41. Which materials-processing technology gives the advantage of precision, accuracy and
optimum use of cutting tools, which maximise their life and higher labour productivity?
a) Industrial robots
b) Flexible manufacturing systems (FMS)
c) Computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM)
d) NC (and CNC) machine tools
42. What do Flexible Manufacturing systems (FMS) do?

a) Moves and manipulates products, parts or tolls
b) Co-ordinates the whole process of manufacturing and manufactures a part, component or
product
c) Moves materials between operations
d) Completely manufactures a range of components without significant human intervention
during the processing
43. Technology that is peripheral to the actual creation of goods and services is sometimes
called:
a) Direct process technology
b) Indirect process technology
c) Focused process technology
d) Complementary process technology
44. Which of the following is not true of computer numerically controlled (CNC) machines?
a) They can learn from process errors.
b) They can eliminate operator error.
c) They can give better productivity to the process.
d) They give more accuracy and precision to the process.
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45. What is the name of a system which brings together several technologies into a coherent
system?
a) Focused integration systems
b) Portable manufacturing systems
c) Flexible manufacturing systems
d) Automated integration systems
46. Which of the following process technologies is associated with low volume and high
variety?
a) Flexible manufacturing systems
b) Dedicated systems
c) Flexible transfer lines
d) Computer numerically controlled machines
47. The use of Internet-based technology, either to support existing business processes or to
create entirely new business opportunities, has become known as what?
a) E-process management
b) E-business
c) E-globalisation
d) E-value creation
48. Which type of model is likely to be created with a rapid prototyping system?
a) Mathematical model
b) Wireframe model
c) Surface model
d) Scale model
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49. An industrial robot's end effector can be changed to perform different tasks, including
which of the following?
a) Spot welding
b) Materials handling
c) Spray painting
50. By using CIM to control all phases of manufacturing, firms hope to reap what benefits?
a) Increased productivity
b) Improved quality
c) Enhanced flexibility
d) All of the answer
CAD/CAM
1. Each screen point is referred to as .........................

a) Resolution
b) Pixel
c) Persistence
d) Dot Pitch
2. The distance from one pixel to the next pixel is called ...........
a) Resolution
b) Random scan
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c) Pixmap
d) Dot Pitch
3. The region code of a point within the window is ............

a) 1111
b) 0000
c) 1000
d) 0001
4. Which of the following line algorithms used integer only arithmetic to rasterize lines?
c) FFTW Line Algorithm
d) All the answer
5. Which of the following hidden surface removal algorithms potentially causes a bottleneck
in the Graphics Pipeline?
b) Depth Buffer
d) All the answer
6. Higher persistence phosphorus needs _________ refresh rate.

a) Lower
b) Higher
c) Medium
d) None of these
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7. The purpose of refreshing a CRT is ..........................

a) To avoid flickering
b) To maintain steady picture
c) To avoid fading of pixels
d) All the answer
8. The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where the image will actually
appear are called
a) Transformation viewing
b) View port
c) Clipping window
d) Screen coordinate system
9. Which of the following is not an object-space hidden surface removal algorithm?

b) Depth Buffer
d) All the answer
10. The .............. combines the volumes occupied by overlapping 3D objects using set
operations
a) Beam penetration
b) CSG Method
c) Sweep representation
d) All the answer
11. In CRT, the electron intensity is adjusted using .................

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a) Accelerating anode
b) Control grid
c) Electron gun
d) Focusing anode
12. Memory area holding the intensity information of an image is called ..............
a) Refresh buffer
b) Font cache
c) Picture definition
d) Video controller
13. Identify the odd one out from the following

a) Vector display
b) Raster scan display
c) Calligraphic display
d) Stroke-writing display
14. Identify different type of computer graphics

a) Monochrome and Color
b) CRT and Flat panel
c) Vector and Raster
d) Monitors and Hardcopy devices
15. A bitmap is .............. bit(s) per pixels

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
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d) 3
16. The basic transformations include

a) Translation
b) Rotation
c) Scaling
d) All the answer
17. The transformation in which an object is moved in a minimum distance path from one
position to another is called
a) Rotation
b) Replacement
c) Translation
d) Scaling
18. The transformation in which an object is moved from one position to another in circular
path around a specified pivot point is called
a) Rotation
b) Shearing
c) Translation
d) Scaling
19. The transformation that produces a parallel mirror image of an object are called
a) Rotation
b) Reflection
c) Translation
d) Scaling
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20. Forming products of transformation matrices is often referred as

a) Concatenation
b) Composition
c) both a&b
d) only a
21. The .............. combines the volumes occupied by overlapping 3D objects using set
operations
a) CSG method
b) B-rep method
c) Sweep representation
d) All the answer
22. ................... is created by revolution of a circle about an axis lying in its plane.
a) Sphere
b) Ellipsoid
c) Torus
d) Cylinder
23. The point about which an object is rotated is called ...................

a) Fixed point
b) Central point
c) Pivot point
d) None
24. A surface of revolution is generated by a .................. of a 2D curve.

a) Translational sweep
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b) Rotational sweep
c) union
d) intersection
25. Identify line clipping algorithms from the following

a) Cohen- Sutherland algorithm
b) Liang-Barsky clipping
c) Nicholl-Lee-Nicholl clipping
d) All the answer
26. The transformation in which the dimension of an object are changed relative to a
specified fixed point is called
a) Rotation
b) Reflection
c) Translation
d) Scaling
27. The amount of light emitted by the phosphor coating depends on the?
a) Number of electrons striking the screen
b) Speed of electrons striking the screen
c) Distance from the cathode to the screen
d) phosphor coating thickness
28. ........ used to regulate the flow of elections in CRT ?

a) Electron gun
b) Focusing anode
c) Control grid
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d) All the answer
29. The refresh rate below which a picture flicker is ................

a) 25
b) 30
c) 26
d) 50
30. The maximum number of points that can be displayed without overlap on a CRT
a) Aspect Ratio
b) Resolution
c) Brightness
d) Pixel
Computer Aided Machine Drawing
1. If a client of yours is having difficulty visualizing a design, what type of drawing would be
the easiest to understand?
a) Axonometric
b) three-view orthographic
c) one-view orthographic
d) bimetric
2. Which of the following is not a pictorial drawing?

a) isometric
b) multiview
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c) perspective
d) axonometric
3. Which of the following projection methods does not use projectors perpendicular to the
projection plane?
a) isometric
b) orthographic
c) oblique
d) axonometric
4. A circle will appear on an isometric drawing as a(n) __________ .

a) ellipse
b) cycloid
c) circle
d) parabola
5. An axonometric drawing which has two axes divided by equal angles is:
a) dimetric
b) trimetric
c) orthographic
d) isometric
6. An axonometric drawing which has all three axes divided by equal angles is:
a) bimetric
b) trimetric
c) orthographic
d) isometric
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7. In a trimetric drawing, the relationship of the angle between axes to each other is:
a) three are equal
b) two are equal
c) three are unequal
d) none of the answers
8. In an isometric sketch of a cube:

a) the frontal face appears in its true shape
b) the receding axes are at 45 degrees to the horizontal
c) all faces are equally distorted
d) only the depth distances must be reduced
9. In isometric drawings:
a) Two axes are perpendicular
b) True measurements can be made only along or parallel to the isometric axes
c) All faces are unequally distorted
d) None of the answers
10. In an axonometric drawing, the projection rays are drawn _________ to each other and
_______ to the plane of projection.
a) parallel.....oblique
b) oblique.....parallel
c) parallel.....perpendicular
d) parallel....parallel
11. One method of drawing an ellipse that represents an isometric pictorial circle is known as:
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a) the box construction method

b) the coordinate construction method
c) the four-center approximation method
d) the offset construction method
12. Non-isometric lines are located and sketched how?

a) They are drawn parallel to the isometric axis.
b) They are measured using the angle from the multiview.
c) They are measured using a non-isometric template.
d) They are located by determining the endpoints of the non-isometric line.
13. In an oblique sketch of a cube:

a) the frontal face appears in its true shape
b) both receding axes are at 30 degrees to the horizontal
c) all faces are equally distorted
d) the depth distances must be reduced
14. In an oblique drawing, all of the following angles are commonly used for drawing the
depth axis, except:
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) 90
15. All of the following are processes (as opposed to input or output) in a manufacturing
business except:
a) Material
b) Planning
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c) Documenting
d) Designing
16. following operations can make use of the CAD database, except:
a) Designing
b) Marketing
c) Producing
17. What type of sketches are typically used in the refinement stage of the design process?
a) isometric
b) document
c) oblique
d) ideation
18. What type of sketch incorporates convergence?

a) isometric
b) perspective
c) oblique
d) multiview
19. What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?

a) isometric
b) perspective
c) oblique
d) axonometric
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20. What is the major difference(s) between perspective and parallel projection?
a) Parallel projection can only be used with objects containing parallel edges.
b) Perspective projection gives a more realistic representation of an object.
c) Parallel projection is equivalent to a perspective projection where the viewer is standing
infinitely far away.
d) Perspective projection and Parallel projection where the viewer is standing infinitely far
away gives a more realistic representation of an object.
21. Which statement(s) is true about the precedence of lines?

a) a hidden line has precedence over a center line
b) a center line has precedence over a visible line
c) a visible line has precedence over a miter line
d) all of the answers
22. Which of the following is typically represented in a drawing but does not have a true
physical counterpart on the object?
a) edge of planar surface
b) edge of a circular face
c) corner of a rectangle
d) limiting element of a curved surface
23. A cutting plane normal to a face of a cube has to be ___________ in order to cut an
oblique face.
a) rotated about one axis
b) rotated about one axis and translated
c) rotated about two axes
d) rotated about two axes and translated
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24. The difference between the removed and revolved sections is

a) the view in both sections is shown on the same view
b) the view in both sections is made seperatly
c) in removed section a view is made outside in main view but incase of revolved,the view is
made in between the main view
25. The difference between Full and Half section is as follows

a) In full section quarter portion is removed and in half section half portion is removed
b) In half section quarter portion is removed and in quarter section half portion is removed
c) all the answers
26. the hatching between two meshing surfaces is

a) in the same direction
b) in the opposite direction
c) not specified
d) all the answers
27. which statement is true for a cutting plane

a) it is always a straight line
b) its axis depends on shape of the object
c) it is always in the centre of the object
d) it makes an angle with the object axis
28. broken outsection is used to show
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a) external and internal details for entire length

b) very long object
c) external and internal details for a portion of length
d) small objects shown broken
29. Hacthing means

a) lines at regular interval
b) repeated pattern at regular interval
c) repeated pattern at regular interval in a boundary
d) solid filledup area
30. pattern to be used for sectioning of Cast iron

a) ANSI 31
b) ANSI 32
c) ANSI 33
d) ANSI 34
31. Value of an angle equal to zero for ANSI 31 pattern will draw lines at
a) 0 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 90 degrees
d) 135 degrees
32. Auxiliary view is drawn to show

a) an inclined surface
b) complicated surfaces
c) actual shape of surface which otherwise is illusive
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d) big parts
33. A skew surface is

a) twisted
b) bent and twisted
c) inclined to any two orthogonal planes
d) inclined to all principal planes
34. Auxiliarey view is drawn

a) opposite to front view
b) parallel to inclined plane
c) opposite to tpo view
d) on the other side of side view
35. Command to draw conveniently many construction lines at a specified angle is

a) XLINE
b) LINE
c) PARLINE
d) ALINE
36. Side view of a threaded member is drawn as

a) semi-circle
b) full circle
c) three quarter circle
d) slightly more than three quarter circle
37. types of threads used on a pipe are

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a) tapered
b) parallel
c) square
d) knukle
38. A typical set of mechanical drawing includes

a) exploded assembly
b) part details
c) parts list
d) all the answers
39. The angle between flamks of a metric thread is

a) 60 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 75 degrees
d) 55 degrees
40. In isometric projection the three edges of an object are inclined to eachother at
a) 60 degrees
b) 120 degrees
c) 100 degrees
d) 90 degrees
41. the number of cotters used in an assembly of cotter and sleeve joint are
a) 1
b) 5
c) 4
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d) 2
42. A square lamina in isometric projection appears as

a) rhombus
b) rectangle
c) trapezium
d) parallelogram
43. Which one among the following represents a permanant fastner

a) Nut
b) Rivet
c) Screw
d) Bolt
44. the convexity provided on the rim of the solid web cast iron is called
a) Bending
b) Curving
c) Crowning
d) Riveting
45. The isometric view of a sphere is always

a) a circle
b) an ellipse
c) a parabola
d) a semicircle
46. In isometric method the four center method is used to construct

36
a) an ellipse
b) a square
c) a rectangle
d) a triangle
47. A foot step bearing is a

a) journal bearing
b) thrust bearing
c) pivot bearing
d) pedestal bearing
48. The profile of gear teeth is in the form of

a) parabola
b) involute
c) spiral
d) helix
49. The curve generated by a point on the circumference of a circle,which rolls without
slipping along outside of another circle is
a) Hypocycloid
b) epicycloid
c) cycloid
d) trochoid
50. If an object lies in the third quardant , its position with respect to reference planes will be
a) infront of V.P,above H.P
b) behind V.P,above H.P
37
c) behind V.P,below H.P

d) infront of V.P,below H.P
Computer Aided Machine Drawing
1. The Press-Pull tool will ________ the face of a solid model in the direction it faces.
a) taper
b) extrude
c) spiral
d) circular
2. The MASSPROP shortcut will provide the following information

a) mass
b) volume
c) bounding box
d) all the answers
3. CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the
dimensions control the ________.
a) size and shape of the model features
b) perspective of the model
c) shading used to render the model
d) colouring
4. The Conceptual Visual Style tool is located on the ________ toolbar.

a) Visual Styles
b) Modify
38
c) 3D-Modelling
d) optimize
5. The default position of the UCS icon is positioned at ________ on the AutoCAD grid.
a) 0,0,0
b) 10,10,10
c) 20,20,20
d) -10,-10,-10
6. In perspective drawings this is placed between the observer and the object:
a) Vanishing point / horizon
b) station point
c) ground line
d) Plane of projection / picture plane
7. If a designer is developing a plan for a project in which the entire part is made out of "
thick plywood and he only wants to use one view, he should use the ________ view.
a) front
b) top
c) right
d) back
8. Architectural drawings used to construct a house are often plotted with a scale of " = 1'0". What scale is this?
a) Quarter
b) Half
c) Full
d) Double
39
9. In multi-view drawing it is common practice to include three views, the front, the top and
the right side. If no dimensions are required on the right side view the drafter can ________.
a) leave the view as is
b) eliminate the view
c) use the left view instead
10. A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ________.
a) 1:1
b) 1:2
c) 2:1
d) 1:4
11. Hidden lines are drawn as

a) dashed narrow lines
b) dashed wide lines
c) long-dashed dotted wide line
d) long-dashed diuble dotted wide line
12. Which type of line is part of a dimension?

a) break lines
b) phantom lines
c) extension lines
d) cutting plane lines
13. Which of the following operating systems is used with CAD systems?
40
a) DOS
b) UNIX
c) LINUX
d) all the answers
14. What type of sketches are typically used in the refinement stage of the design process?
a) isometric
b) document
c) oblique
d) ideation
15. This allows the performance of structures to be analyzed and tested efficiently,
accurately, and quickly:
a) Computer-aided manufacturing
b) computer-aided designm
c) computer-aided engineering
d) computer-aided prototyping
16. Automation means

a) increase productivity
b) workers controlling machines
c) assisting and replacing humanes by machines
d) all the answers
17. the main function of CAD is

a) Documentation
b) Manufacturing
41
c) curing
d) marketing
18. the ultimate solution for the computer aided design and manufacturing problem will be
a) LANs
b) the microprocessor
c) turnkey systems
d) development of a more efficient display controller
19. robots are specified by

a) control system
b) axis of movement
c) payload
d) all the answers
20. the advantage of implementing CAD is to

a) increase quality of design
b) expertise in the area of data base manufacturing management
c) increase productivity
d) improve communication
Design of machine elements
1. A 60 mm long and 6 mm thick fillet weld carries a steady load of 15 kN along the weld.
The shear strength of the weld material is equal to 200 MPa. The factor of safety is
42
a) 2.4
b) 3.4
c) 4.8
d) 6.8
2. A threaded nut of M16, ISO metric type, having 2 mm pitch with a pitch diameter of
14.701 mm is to be checked for its pitch diameter using two or three numbers of balls or
rollers of the following sizes
a) Rollers of 2 mm
b) Balls of 2 mm
c) Rollers of 1.155 mm
d) Balls of 1.155 mm
3. Square key of side "d/4" each and length l is used to transmit torque "T" from the shaft of
diameter "d" to the hub of a pulley. Assuming the length of the key to be equal to the
thickness of the pulley, the average shear stress developed in the key is given by
a) 4T/ ld
b) 16 T/ ld 2
c) 8T / ld 2
d) 16 T / d 3
4. A key connecting a flange coupling to a shaft is likely to fail in

a) Shear
b) Tension
c) Torsion
d) Bending
5. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
43
a) 10 3 cycles
b) 10 4 cycles
c) 10 6 cycles
d) 10 9 cycles
6. A cylindrical shaft is subjected to an alternating stress of 100 MPa. Fatigue strength to

sustain 1000 cycles is 490 MPa. If the corrected endurance strength is 70 MPa, estimated
shaft life will be
a) 1071 cycles
b) 15000 cycles
c) 281914 cycles
d) 928643 cycles
7. A forged steel link with uniform diameter of 30 mm at the centre is subjected to an axial
force that varies from 40 kN in compression to 160 kN in tension. The tensile (Su), yield
(Sy,) and corrected endurance (Se) strength of the steel material are 600 MPa, 420 MPa and
240 MPa respectively. The factor of safety against fatigue endurance as per Soderbergs
criterion is
a) 1.26
b) 1.37
c) 1.45
d) 2.00
8. The yield strength of a steel shaft is twice its endurance limit. Which of the following
torque fluctuation represent the most critical situationaccording to Soderberg criterion?
a) -T/2 to +T
b) -T to +T
c) 0 to +T
d) +T/2 to +T
44
9. A thin supercritical pressure vessel of 200 mm diameter and 1 mm thickness is subjected to

an internal pressure varying from 4 to 8 MPa. Assume that the yield, ultimate, and endurance
strength of material are 600, 800 and 400 MPa respectively. The factor of safety as per
Goodmans relation is
a) 2.0
b) 1.6
c) 1.4
d) 1.2
10. A large uniform plate containing a rivet-hole is subjected to uniform uniaxial tension of
95 MPa. width of the plate 10 cm and diameter of the hole =5 mm.The maximum stress in the
plate is
a) 100 MPa
b) 190 Mpa
c) 285 Mpa
DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS
1. A special case of ductility which permits materials to be rolled or hammered into thin
sheets, is called
a) plasticity
b) elasticity
c) ductility
d) malleability
2. The material commonly used for crane hooks is

a) cast iron
b) wrought iron
c) mild steel
45
d) aluminium
3. The effect of key ways on a shaft is to reduce its load carrying capacity and to increase its
torsional rigidity.
a) True
b) False
4. The efficiency of a riveted joint is equal to

a) Pt/P
b) Ps/P
c) Pc/P
d) least of Pt, Ps and Pc/P
5. Which of the following welded joint is designed for shear strength ?

a) Transverse fillet welded joint
b) Parallel fillet welded joint
c) Butt welded joint
d) all of these
6.
In designing a connecting rod, it is considered like __________ for buckling about X-axis.
a) both ends hinged

b) both ends fixed
c) one end fixed and the other end hinged
d) one end fixed and the other end free
46
7. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a

a) dun cylinder
b) thick cylinder
c) solid shaft
d) hollow shaft
8. Screws used for power transmission should have

a) Low efficiency
b) high efficiency
c) very fine threads
d) strong teeth
9. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated.

a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
10. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
11. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if its efficiency is

a) less than 50%
b) more than 50%
c) equal to 50%
47
d) none of these
12. Soderberg relation is based on __________ of the material whereas all other failure
relation for dynamic loading are based on ultimate strength of the material.
a) elastic strength
b) yield strength
c) shear strength
13. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of

a) bolts and nuts
b) studs
c) headless taper bolts
d) none of these
14. A transmission shaft includes

a) counter shaft
b) line shaft
c) over head shaft
d) all of these
15. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the tip of
the locking set screw, is called
a) castle nut
b) jam nut
c) ring nut
d) sawn nut
16. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of

48
a) maximum size of column to minimum size of column

b) width of column to depth of column
c) effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the column
d) effective length of column to width of column
17. A crankshaft is a __________ shaft.

a) transmission
b) machine
18. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between the diameter of rivet hole (d) and the
thickness of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm)
a) d = t
b) d = 1.6 t
c) d = 2 t
d) d = 6 t
19. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre line of the
rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate should be equal to (where d = Diameter of rivet
hole)
a) d
b) 1.5 d
c) 2 d
d) 2.5 d
20. The value of stress concentration factor depends upon

a) material of the part
b) geometry of the part
c) material and geometry of the part
49
d) none of these
21. Which of the following material has the maximum ductility?

a) Mild steel
b) Copper
c) Zinc
d) Aluminium
22. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be considered
in order to prevent breakage at the
a) head
b) shank
c) thread
d) middle
23. In order to obtain the bolts of uniform strength, an axial hole is drilled through the head as
far as the threaded portion such that the area of shank becomes equal to the root area of the
thread.
a) True
b) False
24. An open belt drive is used when

a) shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions
b) shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions
c) shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction
d) driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interferring with the
driving shaft
50
25. The pipe joint mostly used for pipes carrying water at low pressures is
a) socket joint
b) nipple joint
c) union joint
d) spigot and socket joint
26. According to Guest's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member when the maximum
shear stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at elastic limit in simple
tension test.
a) True
b) False
27. A flanged pipe joint will be a leak-proof joint, if the circumferential pitch of the bolts is
(where d = Diameter of bolt hole)
a) less than 20 d
b) greater than 30 d
c) between 20 d and 30 d
d) equal to inside diameter of pipe
28. Stress concentration is caused due to

a) variations in load acting on a member
b) variations in properties of materials in a member
c) abrupt change of cross-section
d) all of these
29. The resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by

a) elastic limit
b) Young's modulus
51
c) ultimate tensile strength

d) endurance limit
30. Two shafts A and B under pure torsion are of identical length and identical weight and are
made of the same material. The shaft A is solid and the shaft B is hollow. We can say that
a) shaft B is better than shaft A
b) shaft A is better than shaft B
c) both the shafts are equally good
31. In a flange coupling, the thickness of flanges is taken as one-half the diameter of shaft.
a) Agree
b) Disagree
32. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads?
a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Brittleness
d) Toughness
33. Oldham coupling is used to transmit power between two parallel shafts which are slightly
offset.
a) True
b) False
34. A shaft is subjected to fluctuating loads for which the normal torque (T) and bending
moment (M) are 1000 N-m and 500 N-m respectively. If the combined shock and fatigue
factor for bending is 1.5 and combined shock and fatigue factor for torsion is 2, then the
equivalent twisting moment for the shaft is
a) 2000 N-m
52
b) 2050 N-m
c) 2100 N-m
d) 2136 N-m
35. When a machine member is subjected to torsion, the torsional shear stress set up in the
member is
a) zero at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member
b) maximum at both the centroidal axis and outer surface of the member
c) zero at the centroidal axis and maximum at the outer surface of the member
d) maximum at the centroidal axis and zero at the outer surface of the member
36. A screw is specified by its

a) major diameter
b) minor diameter
c) pitch diameter
d) pitch
37. Stress concentration factor is defined as the ratio of

a) maximum stress to the endurance limit
b) nominal stress to the enurance limit
c) maximum stress to the nominal stress
d) nominal stress to the maximum stress
38. The eye bolts are used for

a) transmission of power
b) locking devices
c) lifting and transporting heavy machines
53
d) absorbing shocks and vibrations
39. The endurance or fatigue limit is defined as the maximum value of the stress which a
polished standard specimen can withstand without failure, for infinite number of cycles, when
subjected to
a) static load
b) dynamic load
c) static as well as dynamic load
d) completely reversed load
40. According to Rankine's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member

a) when the maximum shear stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at
elastic limit in a simple tension test
b) when the maximum principal stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the elastic limit of
the material in a simple tension test
c) when the strain energy per unit volume in a bi-axial stress system reaches the strain energy
at the elastic limit per unit volume as determined from a simple tension test
d) when the maximum principal strain in a bi-axial stress system reaches the strain at the
elastic limit as determined from a simple tension test
41. In a steam engine, the valve rod is connected to an eccentric rod by means of
a) cotter joint
b) knuckle joint
c) universal joint
d) flange coupling
42. Which of the following formula is used in designing a connecting rod ?

a) Euler's formula
b) Rankine's formula
54
c) Johnson's straight line formula

d) Johnson's parabolic formula
43. When a material is subjected to fatigue loading, the ratio of the endurance limit to the
ultimate tensile strength is
a) 0.20
b) 0.35
c) 0.50
d) 0.65
44. A flange coupling is a type of rigid coupling.

a) Correct
b) Incorrect
45. The strength of the un-riveted plate (P) per pitch length is equal to
a) p.d.t
b) p.t.t
c) (p - d)t
d) (p - d)tt
46. Two shafts of the same length and material are joined in series. If the ratio of their
diameters is 2, then the ratio of their angles of twist will be
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
47. Wahl's stress factor __________ very rapidly as the spring index decreases.
55
a) increases
b) decreases
48. For circumferential joint in boilers, the type of joint used is

a) butt joint with single cover plate
b) butt joint with double cover plate
c) lap joint with one ring overlapping the other
d) any one of the above
49. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is more serious in

a) brittle materials
b) ductile materials
c) brittle as well as ductile materials
d) elastic materials
50. For a square key made of mild steel, the shear and crushing strength are related as
a) shear strength is equal to crushing strength
b) shear strength is greater than crushing strength
c) shear strength is less than crushing strength
d) none of the above
51. In a bolt, the plane of shear should be across the threaded portion of the shank.
a) Correct
b) Incorrect
52. A leaf spring in automobiles is used

a) to apply forces
56
b) to measure forces
c) to absorb shocks
d) to store strain energy
53. Two rigid plates are clamped by means of bolt and nut with an initial force F. After
tightening, a separating force P (P < F) is applied to the lower plate, which in turn acts on the
nut. The tension in the both after this is
a) F + P
b) F - P
c) P
d) F
54. A shaft coupling should

a) be easy to connect or disconnect
b) transmit full power of the shaft
c) hold the shafts in perfect alignment
d) all of these
55. The usual proportion for the width of key is (where d = Diameter of shaft or diameter of
hole in the hub)
a) d/8
b) d/6
c) d/4
d) d/2
56. The shear stress at a point in a shaft subjected to a torque is

a) directly proportional to the polar moment of inertia and to the distance of the point from
the axis
57
b) directly proportional to the applied torque and inversely proportional to the polar moment
of inertia
c) directly proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia
d) inversely proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment of inertia
57. Two concentric helical springs used to provide greater spring force are wound is opposite
direction.
a) True
b) False
58. In a transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of weld.
a) 0.5 times
b) equal to
c) 2 times
d) double
59. The function of the washer is to

a) Fill up the axial gap
b) provide bearing area
c) provide cushioning effect
d) absorb shocks and vibrations
60. Which of the following coupling is used to connect two shafts which have both lateral
and angular misalignment ?
a) Bushed pin type coupling
b) Universal coupling
c) Oldham coupling
d) all of these
58
61. The ends of the leaves of a semi-elliptical leaf spring are made triangular in order to
a) obtain variable moment of inertia (I) in each leaf
b) permit each leaf to act as a overhanging beam
c) have variable bending moment (M) in each leaf
d) make M/I constant throughout the length of the leaf
62. An open coiled helical compression spring 'A' of mean diameter 50 mm is subjected to an
axial load W. Another spring 'B' of mean diameter 25 mm is similar to spring 'A' in all
respects. The deflection of spring 'B' will be __________ as compared to spring 'A'.
a) one-eighth
b) one-fourth
c) one-half
d) double
63. When the bolt is very yielding as compared to the connected members, then the resultant
load on the bolt will be equal to the
a) initial tension
b) external load applied
c) sum of the initial tension and external load applied
d) initial tension or external load, whichever is greater
64. A rivet is specified by

a) shank diameter
b) length of rivet
c) type of head
d) length of tail
59
65. A saddle key __________ power through frictional resistance only.

a) transmits
b) does not transmit
66. Which of the following statement is wrong ?

a) The solid length of a spring is the product of total number of coils and the diameter of the
wire
b) The spring index is the ratio of mean diameter of the coil to the diameter of the wire
c) The spring stiffness is the load required per unit deflection of the spring
d) The pitch of the coil is the axial distance between adjacent coils in the compressed state
67. A bolt is designed on the basis of __________ with a large factor of safety.
a) direct tensile stress
b) direct compressive stress
c) direct bending stress
d) direct shear stress
68. A bolt of M 24 x 2 means that

a) the pitch of the thread is 24 mm and depth is 2 mm
b) cross-sectional area of the threads is 24 mm2
c) the nominal diameter of bolt is 24 mm and pitch is 2 mm
d) the effective diameter of bolt is 24 mm and there are 2 threads per cm
69. In designing a sleeve coupling, outer diameter of the sleeve is taken as (where d =
Diameter of the shaft)
a) d + 17 mm
b) 2 d + 13 mm
c) 2 d + 20 mm
60
d) 3.5 d
70. When a closely coiled helical spring is subjected to a couple about its axis, the stress
induced in the wire material of the spring is
a) bending stress only
b) a combination of torsional shear stress and bending
c) direct shear stress only
d) a combination of bending stress and direct shear stress
71. In a marine flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is taken as
a) 1.2 d
b) 1.6 d
c) 2 d
d) 2.5 d
72. In the calculation of induced shear stress in helical springs, the Wahl's stress factor is
used to take care of
a) combined effect of transverse shear stress and bending stress in the wire
b) combined effect of bending stress and curvature of the wire
c) combined effect of transverse shear stress and curvature of wire
d) combined effect of torsional shear stress and transverse shear stress in the wire
73. Which of the following key is preferred for the condition when a large amount of impact
type torque is to be transmitted in both direction of rotation?
a) Woodruff key
b) Feather key
c) Gib-head key
d) Tangent key
61
74. Which of the following statement is wrong for a connecting rod ?

a) The connecting rod will be equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, if Ixx= 4
Iyy
b) If Ixx > 4Iyy., the buckling will occur about Y-axis
c) If Ixx < 4Iyy., the buckling will occur about X-axis
d) The most suitable section for the connecting rod is T-section
75. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of

a) elastic limit to the working stress
b) elastic limit to the yield point
c) endurance limit to the working stress
d) Young's modulus to the ultimate tensile strength
76. In a flange coupling, the keys are staggered at __________ along the circumference of the
shafts in order to divide the weakening effect caused by key ways.
a) 90
b) 135
c) 160
d) 180
77. Which one of the following loading is considered for the design of axles?
a) Bending moment only
b) Twisting moment only
c) Combined bending moment and twisting moments
d) Combined action of bending moment, twisting moment and axial thrust
62
78. When the connected members are very yielding (soft gasket) as compared to the bolt,
then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal to the
a) initial tension
b) external load applied
c) sum of the initial tension and external load applied
d) initial tension or external load, whichever is greater
79. A connecting rod should be

a) strong in buckling about X-axis
b) strong in buckling about Y-axis
c) equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis
80. The diameter of the rivet hole is usually __________ the nominal diameter of the rivet.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) more than
81. According to Indian standards, the diameter of rivet hole is made larger than the basic
size of rivet by
a) 0.5 mm upto rivet diameter of 24 mm
b) 1 mm for rivet diameter from 27 mm to 36 mm
c) 2 mm for rivet diameter from 39 mm to 48 mm
d) all of the above
82. Which of the following spring is used in mechanical wrist watch?

a) Helical compression spring
b) Spiral spring
63
c) Torsion spring
d) Bellevile spring
83. For a shaft diameter of 100 mm, the number of bolts in a flange coupling should be
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
84. The design of pin of a rocker arm of an I.C. engine is based on

a) bearing failure
b) shearing failure
c) bending failure
d) all of these
85. A double strap butt joint (with equal straps) is

a) always in single shear
b) always in double shear
c) either in single shear or double shear
d) any one of these
86. The transverse fillet welded joints are designed for

a) tensile strength
b) compressive strength
c) bending strength
d) shear strength
64
87. When a helical compression spring is cut into halves, the stiffness of the resulting spring
will be
a) same
b) double
c) one-half
d) one-fourth
88. An universal coupling is a type of __________ coupling.

a) rigid
b) flexible
89. A triple riveted butt joint with double straps of unequal width is to be designed for a
boiler shell. The pitch of the rivets in the outer row is double the pitch in the inner row and
zig-zag riveting is proposed. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) There are four rivets per pitch length, all in double shear
b) There are four rivets per pitch length, out of which two are in single shear and two are in
double shear
c) There are five rivets per pitch length, all in double shear
d) There are five rivets per pitch length, out of which four are in double shear and one is in
single shear
90. The centre to centre distance between two consecutive rivets in a row, is called
a) margin
b) pitch
c) back pitch
d) diagonal pitch
91. The tension on the slack side of the belt is __________ the tension on the tight side of the
belt.
65
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
92. The railway carriage couplings have

a) square threads
b) acme threads
c) knuckle threads
d) buttress threads
93. The diameter of knuckle pin in a knuckle joint is usually taken as (where d = Diameter of
the rod)
a) 0.5 d
b) 0.8 d
c) d
d) 1.2 d
94. A spring of stiffness 1000 N/m is streteched initially by 100 mm from the undeformed
position. The work required to stretch it by another 100 mm is
a) 5 N-m
b) 7 N-m
c) 10 N-m
d) 15 N-m
95. A spring is used to

a) measure forces
b) apply forces
c) store energy
66
d) all of these
96. In order to have a connecting rod equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis, the
moment of inertia about X-axis should be __________ the moment of inertia about Y-axis.
a) equal to
b) twice
c) three times
d) four times
97. The acme threads are usually found on

a) spindles of bench vices
b) railway carriage couplings
c) feed mechanism of machine tools
d) screw cutting lathes
98. The taper on cotter and slot is made on both the sides.
a) Agree
b) Disagree
99. A cotter joint is used to connect two __________ rods.

a) co-axial
b) perpendicular
c) parallel
100. The permissible stress in the fillet weld is 100 N/mm2. The fillet weld has equal leg
lengths of 15 mm each. The allowable shearing load on the weldment per cm length of the
weld is
a) 7.5 kN
67
b) 10.6 kN
c) 15 kN
d) 22.5 kN
Design of machine elements
1. Hooks law holds good up to

a) Breaking point
b) Yield point
c) Elastic limit
d) Plastic limit
2. A stud bolt is
a) Threaded on both ends
b) Threaded on one end only
c) Screawed into a tapped hole
3. Which of the following key is under compression rather than in being shear when under
load?
a) Saddle
b) Barth
c) Feather
d) Kennedy
68
4. Tangent key transmits force in

a) One direction only
b) Two directions
c) Both A and B
5. The key will fail in which of the following maner?

a) Shearing
b) Crushing
c) Both Crushing and shearing
6. Shaft is subjected to which of the following stresses?

a) Bending
b) Torsional
c) Both A and B
7. In rail road car axles, which of the following bearing is used?

a) Partial
b) Fitted
c) Full
d) Linear
8. Failure of material is called fatigue when it fails

a) At the elastic limit
b) Below the elasic limit
69
c) At the yield point

d) Below the yield point
9. The Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by

a) Elastic limit
b) youngs modulus
c) Endurance limit
d) Ultimate tensile strength
10. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of

a) Elastic limit to the working stress
b) Endurance limit to the working stress
c) Youngs modulus to the Ultimate strength
d) Elastic limit to the yield point
11. The ratio of shear stress to shear strain is called

a) Bulk modulus
b) Poisons ratio
c) Modulus of rigidity
d) Modulus of elasticity
12. The modulus of elasticity of carbon steel is

a) 207000 N/mm 2
b) 100000 N/mm2
c) 50000 N/mm2
d) 80000 N/mm2
70
13. The modulus of elasticity of grey cast iron is

a) 207000 N/mm 2
b) 100000 N/mm2
c) 50000 N/mm2
d) 80000 N/mm2
14. The modulus of rigidity of carbon steel is

a) 207000 N/mm 2
b) 100000 N/mm2
c) 50000 N/mm2
d) 80000 N/mm2
15. The modulus of rigidity of carbon steel is

a) 207000 N/mm 2
b) 100000 N/mm2
c) 40000 N/mm2
d) 80000 N/mm2
16. The poisons ration of carbon steel is

a) 0.4
b) 0.29
c) 0.21
d) 0.75
17. When the diameter of shaft is doubled, its torque transmitting capacity will increased by
a) 8 times
b) 2 times
71
c) 4 times
d) 16 times
18. A component made of grey cast iron is designed on strength basis by

a) Ultimate tensile strength
b) Yield strength
c) Modulus of elasticity
d) Modulus of rigidity
19. The thermal stresses are caused due to

a) Variation in teperature
b) High temperature
c) Specific heat
d) Latent heat
20. The factor of safety for cast iron component, subjected to static force is usually
a) 1.2 to 4
b) 3 to 5
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 5 to 10
21. The factor of safety for carbon steel component, subjected to static force is usually
a) 1.2 to 4
b) 3 to 5
c) 1.5 to 2
d) 5 to 10
72
22. A cotter joint is used to transmit

a) Axial tensile force only
b) Axial tensile and compressive forces
c) Axial compressive force only
d) Combined bending and twisting moment
23. The tapper on cotter is usually

a) 1 in 24
b) 1 in 8
c) 1 in 100
d) 1 in 48
24. A tapper is provided for cotter

a) Tightness in operation
b) wedge action
c) easy disassembly
d) All the answers
25. The joint between the piston and cross head of steam engine is
a) knuckle joint
b) Universal joint
c) Cotter joint
d) Key loint
26. The joint in Valve mechanism of reciprocating engine is

a) knuckle joint
b) Universal joint
73
c) Cotter joint
d) Key loint
27. The pin in knuckle joint is subjected to

a) Double shear stress
b) Torsional shear stress
c) Axial shear sress
d) Axial compressive stress
28. The fulcrum pin of lever is designed on the basis of

a) Twisting moment
b) tensile force
c) Bending moment
d) Bearing pressure
29. Rankines theory of failure is applicable to

a) Ductile materials
b) Brittle materials
c) elastic materials
d) plastic material
30. Coulomb theory of failure applicable to

a) Ductile materials
b) Brittle materials
d) plastic material
74
31. Tresca theory of failure is applicable to

a) Brittle materials
b) Ductile materials
d) plastic material
32. Guest theory of failure is applicable to

a) Brittle materials
b) plastic material
d) Ductile materials
33. Distortion energy theory of failure is applicable to

a) Plain carbon steel
b) composites
c) cast iron
d) non - metals
34. Stress concentration occurs dud to

a) Abrupt changes in Cross section
b) Discontinuity in material
c) Cracks and flaws
d) All the answers
35. Stress concentration occurs at the contact between

a) Meshing teeth of driving and driven gears
b) cam and follower
75
c) Balls and races

d) All the answers
36. The maximum stress concentration factor for a rectangular plate with a transverse hole in
tension or compression is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 2.5
d) 1
37. In cyclic loading, the effect of stress concentration is more serious in case of
a) Brittle material
b) Ductile material
c) Both ductile and Brittle material
38. A stress that varies sinusoidal manner with respect to time from zero to maximum valus
and which hes same values for mean as well as amplitude is called
a) Reversed stress
b) Fluctuating stress
c) Repeated stress
d) Varrying stress
39. A stress that varies sinusoidal manner with respect to time from minimum value to
maximum value and which has same values for mean as well as amplitude is called
a) Reversed stress
b) Fluctuating stress
c) Repeated stress
76
d) Varrying stress
40. As the size of the componenet increases, the endurance limit of the component
a) Inceases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Increases up to 50 times
77
DESIGN OF TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS
1. Spherical roller bearings are normally used
a) For heavy radial loads

b) for heavy thrust loads
c) when there is less radial space
d) To compensate for angular misalignment
2. The dynamic load capacity of a 6306 bearing is 22 kN. The maximum radial load it can
sustain to operate at 600 rpm for 2000 hours is
a) 4.16 kN
b) 3.6 kN
c) 6.25 kN
d) 5.29 kN
3. A band brake having band-width of 80 mm, drum diameter of 250 mm, coefficient of
friction of 0.25 and angle of wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a friction torque of 1000
Nm. The maximum tension (in kN) developed in the band
a) 1.88
b) 3.56
c) 6.12
d) 11.56
4. Tooth interference in an external involute spur gear pair can be reduced by
78
a) Decreasing center distance between gear pair

b) Decreasing module
c) Decreasing pressure angle
d) Increasing number of gear teeth
5. A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm and a centre distance of 450 mm is used for a
speed reduction of 5:1. The number of teeth on pinion is _____
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 40
6. Which one of the following is used to convert a rotational motion into a translational
motion?
a) Bevel gears
b) Double helical gears
c) Worm gears
d) Rack and pinion gears
7. It is desired to avoid interference in a pair of spur gears having a 20 degree pressure angle.
With increase in pinion to gear speed ratio, the minimum number of teeth on the pinion
a) Increases
b) decreases
c) first increases and then decreases
d) remains unchanged
79
8. Which of the bearings given below SHOULD NOT be subjected to a thrust load?
a) Deep groove ball bearing
b) Angular contact ball bearing
c) Cylindrical (straight) roller bearing
d) Single row tapered roller bearing
9. A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a
uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of friction of liner material is 0.4, the torque
carrying capacity of the clutch is
a) 148 N-m
b) 196 N-m
c) 372 N-m
d) 490 N-m
10. A spur gear has a module of 3 mm, number of teeth 16, a face width of 36 mm and a
pressure angle of 20 degree. It is transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/sec. taking a velocity
facor of 1.5, and a form factor of 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is about
a) 32 MPa
b) 46 MPa
c) 58 MPa
d) 70 MPa
11. Match the type of gears with their most appropriate description.
Type of gear
Description
P. Helical gear
1. Axes non-parallel and non-intersecting
Q. Spiral Bevel
2. Axes parallel and teeth are inclined to the axis
R. Hypoid
3. Axes parallel and teeth are parallel to the axis
80
S. Rack and pinion
4. Axes are perpendicular and intersecting, and teeth are

Inclined to the axis
5. Axes are perpendicular and used for large speed reduction
6. Axes parallel and one of the gears has infinite radius.
a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-6

b) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-6
c) P-2, Q-6, R-4, S-2
d) P-6, Q-3, R-1, S-5
12. A ball bearing operating at a load F has 8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing, in
hours, when the load is doubled to 2F is
a) 8000
b) 6000
c) 4000
d) 1000
13. A natural feed journal bearing of diameter 50 mm and length 50 mm operating at 20

revolution/second carries a load of 2 kN. The lubricant used has a viscosity of 20 mPa.s. The
radial clearance is 50 m. The Sommerfeld number for the bearing is
a) 0.062
b) 0.125
c) 0.250
d) 0.785
14. A disc clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at 2000 rpm. The disc has a friction lining with
coefficient of friction equal to 0.25. Bore radius of friction lining is equal to 25 mm. Assume
uniform contact pressure of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction lining is
81
a) 39.4 mm
b) 49.5 mm
c) 97.9 mm
d) 142.9 mm
15. Twenty degree full depth involute profiled 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gear are in mesh.
If the module is 5 mm, the center distance between the gear pair will be
a) 140 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 280 mm
d) 300 mm
82
Design of Transmission Systems
1. A sliding bearing which can support steady loads without any relative motion between the
journal and the bearing is called
a) Zero film bearing
b) Boundary lubricated bearing
c) Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
d) Hydrostatic lubricated bearing
2. In a boundary lubricated bearing, there is a ................ of lubricant between the journal and
the bearing.
a) Thick film
b) Thin film
c) Zero film
d) Solid film
3. A bearing is designated by the number 405. It means that a bearing is of

a) Light series with bore of 25 mm
b) Medium series with bore of 25 mm
c) Heavy series with bore of 25 mm
d) Light series with width of 20 mm
4. When the bearing is subjected to large fluctuations of load and heavy impacts, the bearing
characteristic number should be ............... the bearing modulus.
a) 5 times
b) 10 times
c) 15 times
d) 20 times
83
5. When the length of the journal is equal to the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is
said to be a
a) Short bearing
b) Long bearing
c) Medium bearing
d) Square bearing
6. If Z = Absolute viscosity of the lubricant in kg/m-s, N = Speed of the journal in r.p.m., and
p =Bearing pressure in N/mm2, then the bearing characteristic number is
a) Zp/n
b) Zn/p
c) Z/pn
d) pn/Z
7. The ball bearings are usually made from

a) Low carbon steel
b) Medium carbon steel
c) High speed steel
d) Chrome nickel steel
8. In radial bearings, the load acts

a) Along the axis of rotation
b) Perpendicular to the axis of rotation
c) parallel to the axis of rotation
d) in any direction
84
9. When the length of the journal is less than the diameter of the journal, then the bearing is
said to be a
a) short bearing
b) long bearing
c) medium bearing
d) square bearing
10. The angular contact ball bearing can be used for
a) Radial load only

b) axial load only
c) both radial and axial loads
d) to adjust for misalignments

b) medium series with bore of 25 mm
d) extra light series with width of 25 mm
12. The spherical roller bearing can be used for
a) Radial load only

b) axial load only
c) both radial and axial loads
d) to adjust for misalignments
85
13. When the length of the journal is greater than the diameter of the journal, then the bearing
is said to be a
a) short bearing
b) long bearing
c) medium bearing
d) square bearing

b) medium series with bore of 25 mm
d) extra light series with width of 25 mm
15. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is increased, then the
pressure angle
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unchanged
d) none of these
16. Lewis equation in spur gears is applied

a) only to the pinion
b) only to the gear
c) to stronger of the pinion or gear
86
d) to weaker of the pinion or gear
17. In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the
pitch cylinders normal to the teeth, is called
a) normal pitch
b) axial pitch
c) diametral pitch
d) module
18. The root angle of a bevel gear is equal to

a) pitch angle addendum angle
b) pitch angle + addendum angle
c) pitch angle dedendum angle
d) pitch angle + dedendum angle
19. The contact ratio for gears is
a) zero
b) less than one
c) greater than one
d) none of these
20. The allowable static stress for steel gears is approximately __________of the ultimate
tensile stress.
a) one-fourth
b) one-third
c) one-half
87
d) double
21. When bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch angles connect two shafts whose
axes intersect at right angle, then they are known as
a) angular bevel gears

b) crown bevel gears
c) internal bevel gears
d) mitre gears
22. When the spiral angle of a bevel gear is zero, it is called as_________
a) crown gear
b) zerol bevel gear
c) meter gear
d) spiral bevel gear
23. The face angle of a bevel gear is equal to
a) pitch angle addendum angle

b) pitch angle + addendum angle
c) pitch angle dedendum angle
d) pitch angle + dedendum angle
24. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accommodate small particles
of dust, grit etc., without scoring the material of the journal, is called
a) bondability
88
b) embeddability
c) comformability
d) fatigue strength
25. The material used for lining of friction surfaces of a clutch should have ............
coefficient of friction.
a) low
b) high
c) medium
d) zero
26. In case of a multiple disc clutch, if n1 are the number of discs on the driving shaft and n2
are the number of the discs on the driven shaft, then the number of pairs of contact surfaces
will be
a) n1 + n2
b) n1 + n2 1
c) n1 + n2 + 1
d) none of these
27. A jaw clutch is essentially a
a) Positive action clutch

b) cone clutch
c) friction clutch
d) disc clutch
89
28. The cone clutches have become obsolete because of
a) small cone angles

b) exposure to dirt and dust
c) difficulty in disengaging
d) all of these
29. To restore stable operating condition in a hydrodynamic journal bearing, when it

encounters higher magnitude of loads,
a) oil viscosity is to be decreased
b) oil viscosity is to be increased
c) oil viscosity index is to be increased
d) oil viscosity index is to be decreased
30. Total slip will occur in a belt drive when

a) angle of rest is zero
b) angle of creep is greater than angle of rest
c) angle of rest is greater than angle of creep
d) angle of creep is zero
31. To make a worm drive reversible, it is necessary to increase

a) centre distance
b) worm diameter factor
c) number of starts
d) reduction ratio
32. the basic load rating of a ball bearing is
90
a) the maximum static radial load that can be applied without causing any plastic deformation
of bearing components.
b) the radial load at which 90% of the group of apparently identical bearings run for one
million revolutions before the first evidence of failure.
c) the maximum radial load that can be applied during operation without any plastic
deformation of bearing components.
d) a combination of radial and axial loads that can be applied without any plastic
deformation
33. The difference between tensions on the tight and slack sides of a belt drive is 3000 N. if
the belt speed is 15 m/s, the transmitted power in kW is
a) 45
b) 22.5
c) 90
d) 100
34. With regard to belt drives with given pulley diameters, centre distance and coefficient of
friction between the pulley and the belt materials, which of the statement below are FALSE?
a) a crossed flat belt configuration can transmit more power than an open flat belt
configuration
b) a V-belt has greater power transmission capacity than an open flat belt
c) power transmission is greater when belt tension is higher due to centrifugal effects than the
same belt drive when centrifugal affects are absent.
d) power transmission is the greatest just before the point of slipping is reached.
35. the ratio of tension on the tight side to that on the slack side in a flat belt drive is
a) proportional to the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle
b) an exponential function of the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle
c) proportional to the lap angle
91
d) proportional to the coefficient of friction
36. A 1.5 kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min, it is to be connected to a stirrer running at 36

rev/min. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is
a) Differential gear
b) helical gear
c) bevel gear
d) worm gear
37. For transmission of the power between the shafts which are parallel to each other. The
gearing arrangement suitable for this application is
b) helical gear
c) bevel gear
d) worm gear
38. For transmission of the power between the shafts which are intersecting each other. The
gearing arrangement suitable for this application is
a) spur gear
b) helical gear
c) bevel gear
d) worm gear
39. For transmission of the power between the shafts which are nonintersecting and
nonparallel to each other. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is
b) helical gear
c) bevel gear
92
d) worm gear
40. The life of a ball bearing at a load of 10 kN is 8000 hours. Its life in hours, if the load is
increased to 20 kN, keeping all other conditions the same, is
a) 4000
b) 2000
c) 1000
d) 500
41. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion to operate without interference in standard
full height involute teeth gear mechanism with 20 degree pressure angle is
a) 14
b) 12
c) 18
d) 32
stub involute teeth gear mechanism with 20 degree pressure angle is
a) 14
b) 12
c) 18
d) 32
full height involute teeth gear mechanism with 14.5 degree pressure angle is
a) 14
b) 12
c) 18
93
d) 32
composite teeth gear mechanism with 14.5 degree pressure angle is
a) 14
b) 12
c) 18
d) 32
45. Large speed reductions (greater than 20) in one stage of a gear train are possible through
a) spur gearing
b) worm gearing
c) bevel gearing
d) helical gearing
46. A wire rope is designated as 6 x 19 standard hoisting. The numbers 6 x 19 represent

a) diameter in millimeter x length in meter
b) diameter in centimeter x length in meter
c) number of strands x number of wires in each strand
d) number of wires in each strand x number of strands
47. In a band brake the ratio of tight side band tension to the tension on slack side is 3. If the
angle of overlap of band on the drum is 1800 the coefficient of friction required between
drum and the band is
a) 0.20
b) 0.25
c) 0.30
d) 0.35
94
48. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200
rpm and transmits a torque of 20 N-m. The torque transmitted by the gear is
a) 6.6 N-m
b) 20 N-m
c) 40 N-m
d) 60 N-m
49. Match the following

Type of gears
Arrangement of shafts
P. Bevel gears
1. Non-parallel off-set shafts
Q. Worm gears
2. Non-parallel intersecting shafts
R. Herringbone gears
S. Hypoid gears
a) P-4
Q-2
R-1
b) P-2
Q-3 R-4
c) P-3
Q-2
d) P-1
Q-3 R-4
R-1
3. Non-parallel, non-intersecting shafts

4. Parallel shafts
S-3
S-1
S-4
S-2
50. Which of the following is a criterion in the design of hydrodynamic journal bearings?
a) Rotation factor
b) rating life
c) Specific dynamic capacity
d) Sommerfeld number
95
51. A disc clutch is required to transmit 5 kW at 2000 rpm. The disc has a friction lining with
coefficient of friction equal to 0.25. Bore radius of friction lining is equal to 25 mm. Assume
uniform contact pressure of 1 MPa. The value of outside radius of the friction lining is
a) 39.4 mm
b) 49.5 mm
c) 97.9 mm
d) 142.9 mm
52. Twenty degree full depth involute profiled 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gear are in mesh.
If the module is 5 mm, the center distance between the gear pair will be
a) 140 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 280 mm
d) 300 mm
53. A ball bearing operating at a load F has 8000 hours of life. The life of the bearing, in
hours, when the load is doubled to 2F is
a) 8000
b) 6000
c) 4000
d) 1000
54. A natural feed journal bearing of diameter 50 mm and length 50 mm operating at 20

revolution/second carries a load of 2 kN. The lubricant used has a viscosity of 20 mPa.s. The
radial clearance is 50 m. The Sommerfeld number for the bearing is
a) 0.062
b) 0.125
c) 0.250
d) 0.785
96
55. A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively. Assuming a
uniform pressure of 2 MPa and coefficient of friction of liner material is 0.4, the torque
carrying capacity of the clutch is
a) 148 N-m
b) 196 N-m
c) 372 N-m
d) 490 N-m
56. A spur gear has a module of 3 mm, number of teeth 16, a face width of 36 mm and a
pressure angle of 20 degree. It is transmitting a power of 3 kW at 20 rev/sec. taking a velocity
facor of 1.5, and a form factor of 0.3, the stress in the gear tooth is about
a) 32 MPa
b) 46 MPa
c) 58 MPa
d) 70 MPa
57. Match the type of gears with their most appropriate description.
Type of gear
Description
P. Helical gear
1. Axes non-parallel and non-intersecting
Q. Spiral Bevel
2. Axes parallel and teeth are inclined to the axis
R. Hypoid
3. Axes parallel and teeth are parallel to the axis
S. Rack and pinion
4. Axes are perpendicular and intersecting, and teeth are

Inclined to the axis
5. Axes are perpendicular and used for large speed reduction
6. Axes parallel and one of the gears has infinite radius.
97
a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-6

b) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-6
c) P-2, Q-6, R-4, S-2
d) P-6, Q-3 , R-1, S-5
58. A band brake having band-width of 80 mm, drum diameter of 250 mm, coefficient of
friction of 0.25 and angle of wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a friction torque of 1000
N-m. the maximum tension (in kN) developed in the band is
a) 1.88
b) 3.56
c) 6.12
d) 11.56
59. A lightly loaded full journal bearing has journal diameter of 50 mm, bush bore of 50.05
mm and bush length of 20 mm. If rotational speed of journal is 1200 rpm and average
viscosity of liquid lubricant is 0.03 Pa-sec, the power loss(in W) will be
a) 37
b) 74
c) 118
d) 237
60. In involute gears, the pressure angle is

a) dependent on the size of teeth
b) dependent on the size of gears
c) always constant
d) always variable
98
99
DESIGN OF TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS
1. Starting friction is low in

a) Hydrostatic lubrication
b) Hydrodynamic lubrication
c) Semi-fluid lubrication
d) Boundary lubrication
2. The most suitable bearing for resisting heavy loads under slow speed is
a) Hydrodynamic bearing
b) ball bearing
c) Roller bearing
d) Hydrostatic bearing
3. Pivoted segment thrust bearing is used to provide

a) Uniform distribution of load
b) uniform wear
c) Converging film of oil
d) easy flow of oil
4. In the design of connecting rod small end bearing, the value of permissible bearing
pressure to be used is
a) Less than that used for big end bearing

b) more than that used for big end bearing
c) Equal to that used for big end bearing
100
5. Removal of metal particles from the race-way of a rolling contact bearing is a king of
failure of bearing, known as
a) Pitting
b) wearing
c) spalling
d) scuffing
6. Which of the following is an anti-friction bearing

a) Pedestal bearing
b) Collar bearing
c) Hydrostatic bearing
d) Needle bearing
7. Basic dynamic load of a ball or roller bearing, determine its
a) Life expectancy
b) axial thrust
c) stress
d) size
8. Creep in belt drive is due to
a) Material of the belt

b) material of the pulley
101
c) Uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension

d) expansion of belt
9. In a horizontal flat belt drive, it is customary to use
a) Bottom side of belt as slack side

b) top side of the belt as slack side
c) crossed belting
d) idler in-between
10. In a belt drive, the coefficient of friction at the smaller pulley
a) Must be same as that at bigger pulley

b) must be less than that at bigger pulley
c) Must be more than that at bigger pulley
d) Can be same or different from that at bigger pulley
11. The length of V-belt is designated by
a) Inside length
b) outside length
c) length at the centre of belt
12. In a multiple V-belt drive; when a single belt is damaged, it is preferable to change the
complete set, to
102
a) Reduce vibration
b) reduce slip
c) ensure uniform loading
d) ensure proper alignement
13. In the design of cast pulleys; curved arms, joining rim to the hub are used, in order to
a) Reduce distortion or tearing
b) improve strength
c) improve aesthetics
d) aid in balancing the pulley
14. Wire ropes are used for applications, experiencing
a) Low speeds and low tension

b) low speeds and high tension
c) High speeds and low tension
d) high speeds and high tension
15. In the designation 6 x 19 for the wire rope; 6 and 19 stand for
a) Diameter of wire rope and number of strands

b) Diameter of wire rope and number of wires
c) Number of wires and number of strands
d) Number of strands and number of wires
103
16. In order to have smooth operation, the minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket
should be
a) 15
b) 17
c) 21
d) 25
17. The size of a gear is specified by
a) Addendum circle diameter

b) pitch circle diameter
c) dedundum circle diameter
d) base circle diameter
18. In involute gears, the pressure angle is

a) Dependent on the size of the teeth
b) dependent on the size of the gear
c) always constant
d) always variable
19. In which type of teeth, variation in centre distance, within certain limits, does not affect
the velocity ratio of the mating gears
a) Cycloidal
b) involute
c) hypoid
104
d) epicycloid
20. Interference is inherently absent in the following types of gears:
a) Involute
b) Stub
c) cycloidal
d) Epi-cycloid
21. If both the pinion and gear are made of the same material, then the power transmitting
capacity is decided by
a) Gear
b) Pinion
c) pinion or gear
d) both pinion and gear
22. For the possible wear to be permitted in a gear drive,
a) Wear load should be greater than the dynamic load

b) Wear load should be less than the dynamic load
c) Wear load should be greater than the beam strength
d) Wear load should be greater than the tangential tooth load
23. The role of hunting tooth in a gear drive is that it
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a) Increases efficiency of transmission

b) distributes wear uniformly
c) reduces vibration
d) permits stable operation
24. The transverse section of a helical gear is identical to

a) Bevel gear
b) spur gear
c) worm gear
25. In helical gears, the right hand helix will mesh with
a) Right hand helix

b) left hand helix
c) both of the above
26. Zero axial thrust is experienced in
a) Helical gears
b) bevel gears
c) spiral gears
d) herringbone gears
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27. Helical gears are used for
a) External meshing only

b) either external or internal meshing
c) internal meshing only
28. Angular bevel gears are the gears mounted on intersecting shafts which make an angle
______ degree
a) 90
b) less than 90
c) more than 90
d) other than 90
29. For a crown (bevel ) gear, shaft angle is ____ degree
a) 90
b) 45
c) 180
d) 0
30. Mitre gears are
a) Right angled bevel gears, having the same number of teeth

b) Spur gears of equal diameter and pitch
c) Helical gears of same module
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d) A kind of worm and worm gear
31. In a worm drive, the axial pitch of the worm is
a) Equal to circular pitch of the gear

b) Equal to half the circular pitch of the gear
c) Equal to twice the circular pitch of the gear
d) None of the above
32. The gear reduction of a worm gear set, with worm gear of 50 teeth and worm of double
start threads, would be
a) 50:1
b) 100:1
c) 25:1
33. If the lead angle of a worm is 20 degree, then the helix angle will be_____ degree.
a) 20
b) 70
c) 80
34. In a worm drive, with self-locking feature,
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a) Worm only can act as a driver

b) Worm wheel only can act as a driver
c) Either worm or worm wheel can act as a driver
35. A jaw clutch is a

a) Positive clutch
b) friction clutch
c) centrifugal clutch
d) cone clutch
36. The friction torque, with the assumption of uniform pressure, compared to uniform wear
is
a) Same
b) greater
c) lower
d) could be anything
37. A multi-disc clutch has three discs on the driving shaft and two discs on the driven shaft.
Number of pairs of contact surfaces is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
38. Brakes convert
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a) Heat energy to kinetic energy

b) Kinetic energy or potential energy into heat energy
c) Heat energy into potential energy
d) Kinetic energy into potential energy
39. The brake commonly used on locomotive bogies is

a) Internal expanding brake
b) band and block brake
c) shoe brake
d) band brake
40. The type of brake used in motor cars is

a) Block or shoe brake
b) band brake
c) band and block brake
d) internal expanding shoe brake
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1. Critical damping is afunction of

a) mass and stiffness
b) mass and damping co-efficient
c) stiffness and natural frequency
d) natural frequency and damping co-efficient
2. The amplitude of underdamping a small damping varies with time as

a) linearly
b) arithmetically
c) geometrically
d) exponenially
3. Ratio of two successive oscillations in an underdamped system is

a) constant
b) linear
c) logarithmic
d) exponential
4. Critical or whirling speed is the speed at which the shaft tends to vibrate violently in
a) transverse direction
b) longitudinal direction
c) linear direction
5. Rotating shafts tend to of vibrate violently at whirling speeds because

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a) the shafts are rotating at vary speeds

b) bearing centre line coincide with the shaft axis
c) the system is unbalanced
d) resonance is caused due to the heavy weight of the rotor
6. The natural frequency of an undamped vibrating system is 100 rad/s. A damper with a
damping factor of 0.8 is introduced into the system. The frequency of vibration of the
damped system, in rad/s is
a) 60
b) 75
c) 80
d) 100
7. The un-damped natural frequency oscillations of the bar about the hinge point is
a) 42.43 rad/s
b) 30 rad/s
c) 17.32 rad/s
d) 14.14 rad/s
8. The earth can be assumed as a uniform sphere. Suppose the earth shrinks by 1% in
diameter, then new day period
a) not change from 24 hrs.
b) reduce by about 2%
c) reduce by about 1%
d) increase by about 1%
9. Whirling speed of a shaft coincide with the natural frequency of the

a) longitudinal vibration
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b) transverse vibration
c) torsional vibration
d) coupled between torsional vibration
10. The damping coefficient in the vibration equation is given by

a) 500 Nms/rad
b) 500 N/(m/s)
c) 80 Nms/rad
d) 80 N/(m/s)
Dynamics of Machinery
1. When the ratio of excitation freuency to natural frequency is 1.414 ,then transmissibility
ratio will be
a) infinite
b) 1
c) <1
d) >1
2. Critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is equal to the natural frequency
of the system in
a) Torsional vibrations
b) Longitudinal vibrations
c) Transverse vibration
d) Longitudinal vibration provided the shaft is vertical
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3. If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel
whose mean radius is half the mean radius of the former, then energy stored in the later at the
same speed will be
a) Four times the first one
b) Same as the first one
c) One fourth of the first one
d) One and half times the first one
4. The deflection of a spring with 20 active turns under a load of 1000N is 10 mm.The
springs is made into two pieces each of 10 active coils and places in parallel under the same
load. The deflection of this system is
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 2.5 mm
5. In a four cylinder 4 stroke inline IC engine, the angle between two successive crank should
be 180 degree.But this rule is violated for cranks 2 and 3 (i.e. inner cranks) and the angle is
made 0 degree.This is done to achieve primary force
a) and secondary force balancing
b) and secondary couple balancing
c) primary and secondary couple balancing
d) secondary force and primary couple balancing
6. If the speed of the engine varies between 390 and 410 rpm in a cycle of operation, the
coefficient of fluctuation of speed will be
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.05
d) 0.07
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7. In a flywheel, the safe stress is 25.2 MN/m2 and the density is 7 g/cm3.Then what is the
maximum peripheral velocity (in m/s)?
a) 30
b) 60
c) 45
d) 120
8. A reciprocating engine, running at 80rad/s, is supported on springs. The static deflection of

the spring is 1mm.Take g=10m/s2.when the engine runs what will be the frequency of
vibration of the system?
a) 100 rad/s
b) 120 rad/s
c) 80 rad/s
d) 90 rad/s
9. The static deflection of a shaft under a flywheel is 4 mm. Take g=10m/s2.What is the
critical speed in rad/s?
a) 20
b) 50
c) 40
d) 2.5
10. Hammer blow

a) is the maximum horizontal unbalanced force caused by the mass provided to balance the
reciprocating masses.
b) is the maximum vertical unbalanced force caused by the mass added to balance the
reciprocating masses
c) varies as the square root of the speed
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d) varies inversely with the square of the speed
11. The balancing weights are introduced in planes parallel to the plane of rotation of the
disturbing mass. To obtain complete dynamic balance, the minimum number of balancing
weights to be introduced in different planes is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
12. Critical damping is a function of

a) Mass and damping coefficient
b) Mass and stiffness
c) Stiffness and natural frequency
d) Natural frequency and damping coefficient
13. Whirling speed of the shaft is the speed at which

a) Shaft tends to vibrate in longitudinal direction
b) torsional vibrations occur
c) shaft tends to vibrate vigorously in transverse direction
d) combination of transverse and longitudinal vibration occurs
14. In a system subjected to damped forced vibrations, the ratio of maximum displacement to
the static deflection is known as
a) Critical damping ratio
b) Damping factor
c) Logarithmic decrement
d) Magnification factor
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15. For steady state forced vibrations, the phase lag at resonance is
a) 0
b) 45
c) 90
d) 180
16. In reciprocating engines primary forces

a) are completely balanced
b) are partially balanced
c) are balanced by secondary forces
d) cannot be balanced
17. A governor is said to be isochronous when the equilibrium speed for all radii of rotation
of the balls within the working range
a) is not constant
b) is constant
c) varies uniformly
d) has uniform acceleration
18. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves upwards, the governor speed
a) increases
b) first increases and then decreases
c) decreases
d) remains unaffected
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19. When the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed,
the governor is said to be
a) hunt
b) unstable
c) isochronous
d) stable
20. In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the compression stroke is
a) negative during major portion of the stroke

b) negative throughout
c) positive throughout
d) positive during major portion of the stroke
21. when a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous
a) steering
b) pitching
c) rolling
d) steering and rolling
22. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when seen from the tail end and
the aeroplane
takes a turn to the left. The effect of the gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be
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a) to raise the nose and dip the tail

b) to dip the nose and raise the tail
c) to raise the nose and tail
d) to dip the nose and tail
23. The air screw of an aeroplane is rotating clockwise when looking from the front. If it
makes a left turn,
the gyroscopic effect will
a) tend to depress the nose and raise the tail

b) tend to raise the nose and depress the tail
c) tilt the aeroplane
d) roll the aeroplane
24. In an automobile, if the vehicle makes a left turn, the gyroscopic torque
a) increases the forces on the outer wheels

b) decreases the forces on the outer wheels
c) does not affect the forces on the outer wheels
d) increases the forces on the inner wheels
25. A motor car moving at a certain speed takes a left turn in a curved path. If the engine
rotates in the
same direction as that of wheels, then due to the centrifugal forces
a) the reaction on the inner wheels increases and on the outer wheels decreases
b) the reaction on the outer wheels increases and on the inner wheels decreases
c) the reaction on the front wheels increases and on the rear wheels decreases
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d) the reaction on the rear wheels increases and on the front wheels decreases
26. A rigid body, under the action of external forces, can be replaced by two masses placed at
a fixed
distance apart. The two masses form an equivalent dynamical system, if
a) the sum of two masses is equal to the total mass of the body
b) the centre of gravity of the two masses coincides with that of the body
c) the sum of mass moment of inertia of the masses about their centre of gravity is equal to
the mass
moment of inertia of the body
d) all of these
27. In an engine, the work done by inertia forces in a cycle is
a) positive
b) zero
c) negative
d) infinite
28. The maximum fluctuation of energy is the
a) sum of maximum and minimum energies

b) difference between the maximum and minimum energies
c) ratio of the maximum energy and minimum energy
d) ratio of the mean resisting torque to the work done per cycle
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29. In a turning moment diagram, the variations of energy above and below the mean
resisting torque line
is called
a) fluctuation of energy
b) maximum fluctuation of energy
c) coefficient of fluctuation of energy
d) minimum fluctuation of energy
30. The equation of motion for a viscous damped vibration is 3 d2x/dt2 + 9dx/dt + 27x = 0.
The damping factor will be
a) 0.25
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1
31. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed is called
a) fluctuation of speed
b) maximum fluctuation of speed
c) coefficient of fluctuation of speed
d) minimum fluctuation of speed
32. The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of inclination of the crank
with the line
of stroke is
a) 0
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b) 90
c) 180
d) 360
33. The partial balancing means
a) balancing partially the revolving masses

b) balancing partially the reciprocating masses
c) best balancing of engines
d) complete balancing
34. A flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8 kgm2 fluctuates by 30 rpm for a fluctuation in
energy of 1936 Joules. The mean speed of the flywheel is (in rpm)
a) 600
b) 900
c) 968
d) 2940
35. In order to facilitate the starting of locomotive in any position, the cranks of a locomotive,
with two
cylinders, are placed at . . . . . . to each other.
a) 45
b) 90
c) 120
d) 180
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36. In a locomotive, the ratio of the connecting rod length to the crank radius is kept very
large in order to
a) minimise the effect of primary forces

b) minimise the effect of secondary forces
c) have perfect balancing
d) start the locomotive quickly
37. The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclina
of stroke ( ) is equal to
a) 45 and 135
b) 90 and 135
c) 135 and 225
d) 45 and 225
38. The tractive force is maximum or minimum when the angle of inclination of the crank to
the line of
stroke ( ) is equal to
a) 90 and 225
b) 135 and 180
c) 180 and 225
d) 135 and 315
39. The swaying couple is due to the
a) primary unbalanced force

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b) secondary unbalanced force

c) two cylinders of locomotive
d) partial balancing
40. In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force along the
perpendicular to the
line of stroke, is known as
a) tractive force
b) swaying couple
c) hammer blow
d) pullout
41. Secondary forces in reciprocating mass on engine frame are
a) of same frequency as of primary forces

b) twice the frequency as of primary forces
c) four times the frequency as of primary forces
d) half times the frequency as of primary forces
42. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) In any engine, 100% of the reciprocating masses can be balanced dynamically

b) In the case of balancing of multicylinder engine, the value of secondary force is higher
than
the value of the primary force
c) In the case of balancing of multimass rotating systems, dynamic balancing can be directly
started without static balancing done to the system
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d) In the case of balancing of multicylinder engine, the value of secondary force is lower than
the value of the primary force
43. For static balancing of a shaft,
a) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero

b) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero
c) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to infinite
d) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to infinite
44. For dynamic balancing of a shaft,
a) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero

b) the net couple due to dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to zero
c) the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to infinite
d) the net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is equal to infinite
45. In order to have a complete balance of the several revolving masses in different planes
a) the resultant force must be zero

b) the resultant couple must be zero
c) both the resultant force and couple must be zero
d) the resultant couple must be infinite
46. The Bifilar suspension method is used to determine

a) Mass moment of inertia
b) position of balancing weights
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c) centripetal acceleration
d) angular accelaration of the body
47.
In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40 N/m/s and critical damping
coefficient is 420 N/m/s, then logarithmic decrement is equal to
a) 0.2
48. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and
frequency is equal to
a) 1
49. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is
a) diameter of disc
b) span of shaft
c) eccentricity
d) diameter of disc,span of shaft and eccentricity
50.
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If the ratio of frequency of excitation to the natural frequency of vibrations is 1.414, then the
transmissibility of vibration will the
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 0
51. In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration
a) decreases linearly with time

b) increases linearly with time
c) decreases exponentially with time
d) increases exponentially with time
52. The steering of a ship means
a) movement of a complete ship up and down in vertical plane about transverse axis
b) turning of a complete ship in a curve towards right or left, while it moves forward
c) rolling of a complete ship side-ways
d) tilting of a complete ship
53. A Hartnell governor is a
a) dead weight governor

b) pendulum type governor
c) spring loaded governor
d) inertia governor
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54. A shaft carrying three rotors will have
a) no node
b) one node
c) two nodes
d) three nodes
55. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a small amplitude under
the action of the force of gravity, the body is known as
a) torsional pendulum
b) simple pendulum
c) second's pendulum
d) compound pendulum
56. The secondary unbalanced force is maximum __________ in one revolution of the crank.
a) four times
b) two times
c) eight times
d) sixteen times
57. For two governors A and B, the lift of sleeve of governor A is more than that of governor
B, for a given fractional change in speed. It indicates that
a) governor A is more sensitive than governor B
b) both governors A and B are equally sensitive
c) governor B is more sensitive than governor A
d) both governors A and B are isochronous
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58. In order to double the period of a simple pendulum, the length of the string should be
a) halved
b) both governors A and B are equally sensitive
c) governor B is more sensitive than governor A
d) both governors A and B are isochronous
59. Which of the following is used to control the speed variations of the engine caused by the
fluctuations of the engine turning moment?
a) Governor
b) flywheel
c) connecting rod
d) piston
60. A system in dynamic balance implies that

a) there will absolutely no wear of bearings
b) there is no critical speed in the system
c) the system is critically damped
d) the system is also statically balanced
61. The coriolis component of acceleration leads the sliding velocity by
a) 45
b) 135
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c) 90
d) 180
62. In a spring mass vibrating system, the natural frequency of vibration is reduced to half the
value when a second spring is added to the first spring in series. Determine the stiffness of the
second in terms of that of the first spring.
a) 1/3 of first spring
b) 3 times of first spring
c) 2 times of first spring
d) as the same of first spring
63. What is the minimum damping ratio for an underdamped system such that its overshoot is
limited
to 10 percent.
a) 0.59
b) 0.69
c) 1
d) 1.59
64. Which of the following statement is correct ?
a) The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is maximum at the
mean position
b) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is directly
proportional to its angular velocity
c) The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zero at the mean
position
d) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken by a
particle for one complete oscillation
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65. Typewriter constitutes

a) machine
b) structure
c) mechanism
d) inversion
66. If magnification factor is high for costant damping factor

a) the excitation frequecy may get resonanace or nearby the resonanace
b) the excitation frequecy may be higher than resonanace
c) the excitation frequecy may be lower than resonanace
d) the excitation frequecy may be 0.5 times of resonanace
67. The natural frequency of torsional circular bar depends on

a) shear modulus, diameter, length and density
b) shear modulus, diameter and length
c) diameter, length and density
d) shear modulus,length and density
68. The natural frequency of axial circular bar depends on

a) Young's modulus, diameter, length and density
b) diameter, length and density
c) Young's modulus, length and density
d) diameter, length and density
69. If the circular bar gets resonanace with its longitudinal frequency
a) bar will deforms
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b) bar will get angular deformation

c) bar will deflect
d) bar will get twisted
70. What type of vibration is predomint in the beam structure?

a) Transverse
b) longitudinal
c) torsional
d) random
1. Which of the following disciplines provides study of inertia forces arising from the
combined effect of the mass and the
motion of the parts
a) theory of machines
b) Applied mechanics
c) mechanisms
d) kinetics
2. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to
turn or revolve about a fixed axis of another element is known as
a) turning pair
b) rolling pair
c) sliding pair
d) spherical pair
3. Which of the following is a lower pair

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a) gear drive
b) piston and cylinder
c) cam and follower
d) belt drive
4. The Klein's method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism
a) is based on acceleration diagram

b) is a simplified form of instantaneous center method
c) utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine
d) enables determination of Corioli's component
5. In elliptical trammels
a) all four pairs are turning

b) three pairs turning and one pair sliding
c) two pairs turning and two pairs sliding
d) one pair turning and three pairs sliding
6. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to input is
a) less
b) more
c) equal
d) may be less or more depending on efficiency
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7. Inertia force acts
a) perpendicular to the accellerating force

b) along the direction of accellerating force
c) opposite to the direction of accellerating force
d) in any direction w.r.t. accellerating force depending on the magnitude
8. The Bifilar suspension method is used to determine
a) natural frequency of vibration

c) moment of inertia
d) centripetal acceleration
9. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous
centers lie on
a) a triangle
b) a point
c) two lines
d) a straight line
10. Which of the following conditions should be satisfied for static balancing?
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1. Dynamic forces acting on the system should be zero

2. Couple acting on the system due to dynamic force should be zero
3. Centrifugal forces acting on the system should be zero
4. Couple acting on the system due to centrifugal forces should be zero
a) Condition 1 and condition 2
b) Condition 3 and condition 4
c) Condition 1 and condition 3
d) Condition 2 and condition 3
11. In which type of vibrations, amplitude of free vibration goes on decreasing every cycle?
a) Free damped vibrations
b) Free undamped vibrations
c) Force damped vibrations
d) Force undamped vibrations
12. What are deterministic vibrations?
a) Vibrations caused due to known exciting force

b) Vibrations caused due to unknown exciting force
c) Vibrations which are aperiodic in nature
d) Vibrations which are periodic in nature
13. According to which method, maximum kinetic energy at mean position is equal to
maximum potential energy at extreme position?
a) Energy method
b) Rayleigh's method
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c) Equilibrium method
d) Newtonian method
14. Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000
N/m and mass of 20 kg?
a) 12.32 Hz
b) 6.16 Hz
c) 4.10 Hz
d) 8.10 Hz
15. What is meant by phase difference or phase angle in forced vibrations?

a) Difference between displacement vector (xp) and velocity vector Vp
b) Angle in which displacement vector leads 90 degree force vector by (F0 sint)
c) Angle in which displacement vector (xp) lags force vector (F0 sint)
d) Angle in which displacement vector leads force vector by (F0 sint)
16. Magnification factor is the ratio of

a) zero frequency deflection and amplitude of steady state vibrations
b) amplitude of steady state vibrations and zero frequency deflection
c) amplitude of unsteady state vibrations and zero frequency distribution
d) zero frequency distribution and amplitude of unsteady state vibrations
17. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. Magnification factor is minimum at resonance

2. The maximum value of amplification factor increases as damping factor decreases
3. The maximum value of amplification factor increases as damping factor increases
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4. Magnification factor is maximum at resonance

a) Statement 1 and statement 2
b) Statements 1,2 and 3
c) Statement 2 and statement 4
d) Statement 2 and statement 3
18. Simulation is a process which _________
a) Involves formation of a prototype

b) Explores behavior of a model by varying input variables
c) Develops geometry of an object
d) Develops attribiites of an object
19. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. Torsional vibrations do not occur in a three rotor system, if rotors rotate in same direction
2. Shaft vibrates with maximum frequency when rotors rotate in same direction
3. Zero node behavior is observed in rotors rotating in opposite direction
4. All of the above
a) Statement 1
b) Statement 2
c) Statement 3
d) Statement 2 and 3
20. Seismometer can be used to measure acceleration of any instrument only if _____
a) It's natural frequency is high
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b) it generates output signal which is proportional to relative acceleration of the vibrating

object
c) It's natural frequency is high and it generates output signal which is proportional to relative
acceleration of the vibrating object
d) it's natural frequency is low
21. Which type of monitoring system uses stroboscope to measure speed of the machine?
a) Portable condition monitoring system
b) Basic condition monitoring system
c) Computer based condition monitoring system
d) structural condition monitoring system
22. Which of the following vibrometers have frequency ratio (/n) << 1?
a) Accelerometers
b) Velometers
c) displacement meter
d) optical sensor
23. Which of the following conditions is/are to be satisfied by the seismometer for it to be
used as velometer?
a) It's natural frequency should be large
b) It's natural frequency should be small
c) It's output signal should be proportional to relative acceleration of the vibrating body
d) It's output signal should be proportional to relative velocity of the vibrating body
24. Which of the following methods can be used to reduce excitation level at the source?
a) Lubrication of joints
b) Balancing inertia forces
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c) Lubrication of joints and Balancing inertia forces

d) providing dampers
25. Which of the following is a type of untuned vibration absorber?

a) Houdaille damper
b) Torsional vibration absorber
c) Centrifugal pendulum absorber
d) viscous damper
26. Which basic document describes general requirements for measurement and evaluation of
machine vibrations using shaft measurements?
a) ISO 10816-1
b) ISO 7919-1
c) ISO 10816-1 and ISO 7919-1
d) ISO 7901
27. In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40 N/m/s and critical damping
coefficient is 420 N/m/s, then logarithmic decrement is equal to
a) 0.2
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.8
28. The cam follower mechaism has a type of
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a) sliding pair
b) rolling pair
c) lower pair
d) higher pair
29. The balancing of a rigid rotor can be achieved by appropriately placing balancing masses
in
a) a single plane
b) two planes
c) three planes
d) four planes
30. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and
frequency is equal to
a) Zero
b) One
c) /2
d)
31. In a spring controlled governor, when the controlling force ________ as the radius of
rotation increases, it is said to be a stable governor.
a) Remains constant
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) logrithmically decreases
32. If the radius of gyration of a compound pendulum about an axis through e.g. is more, then
its frequency of oscillation will be
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a) Less
b) More
c) Same
d) infinite
33. Under logarithmic decrement, the amplitude of successive vibrations are

a) Constant
b) In arithmetic progression
c) In geometric progression
d) In logarithmic progression
34. A spring controlled governor is said to be stable if the controlling force line when
produced intersects the Y-axis
a) At the origin
b) Below the origin
c) Above the origin
d) zero
35. The dynamic friction is the friction experienced by a body, when the body
a) Is in motion
b) Is at rest
c) Just begins to slide over the surface of the other body
d) gets the constant load
36. When the relation between the controlling force (Fc) and radius of rotation (r) for a spring
controlled governor is Fc = ar + b, then the governor will be
a) Stable
b) Unstable
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c) Isochronous
d) Equilibrium
37. A watt's governor can work satisfactorily at speeds from

a) 60 to 80 rpm.
b) 80 to 100 rpm.
c) 100 to 200 rpm.
d) 200 to 300 rpm.
38. Sensitiveness of the governor is defined as the ratio of the

a) Mean speed to the maximum equilibrium speed
b) Mean speed to the minimum equilibrium speed
c) Difference of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to the mean speed
d) Sum of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to the mean speed
39. A spring controlled governor is found unstable. It can be made stable by

a) Increasing the spring stiffness
b) Decreasing the spring stiffness
c) Increasing the ball mass
d) Decreasing the ball mass

a) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken by a
particle for one complete oscillation.
b) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is directly
proportional to its angular velocity.
c) The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zero at the mean
position.
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d) The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is maximum at the
mean position.
Engineering Mechanics
1. A mass m1 of 100 kg travelling with a uniform velocity of 5 m/s along a line collides with
a stationary mass m2 of 1000 kg. After the collision, both the masses travel together with the
same velocity. The coefficient of restitution is
a) 0.6
b) 0.1
c) 0.01
d) 0
2. An annular disc has a mass m, inner radius R and outer radius 2R. The disc rolls on a flat
surface without slipping. If the velocity of the centre of mass is v, the kinetic energy of the
disc is
a) 9/16 mv^2
b) 11/16 mv^2
c) 13/16 mv^2
d) 15/16 mv^2
3. A tourist covers half of his journey by train at 60 km/h, half of the remainder by bus at 30
km/h and the rest by cycle at 10 km/h. The average of the tourist in km/h during his entire
journey is
a) 36
b) 30
c) 24
d) 18
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4. A circular disc of uniform thickness 20 mm, radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg is used as a
flywheel. If it rotates at 600 rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel in Joules is
a) 395
b) 790
c) 1580
d) 3160
5. A solid disc of radius r rolls without slipping on the horizontal floor with angular velocity
angular acceleration . The magnitude of the acceleration of the point of contact on the disc
is
a) Zero
b) r
c) ((r)^2+(r^2)^2 )
d) r^2
6. The coefficient of restitution of a perfectly plastic impact is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) infinity
Engineering Mechanics Winter 2015 2016
1. Two forces of 6 and 8 act at right angles to each other, the resultant force will be
a) 10
b) 28
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c) 41
d) 14
2. The angle of projection when the range is equal to the distance through which the particle
would have fallen in order to acquire a velocity equal to the velocity of projection will be
a) 22.5 degree
b) 30 degree
c) 45 degree
d) 15 degree
3. The direction of projection for the range of a projectile to be maximum on an inclined

plane having angle of inclination 30 deg to the horizontal, should be
a) 30 deg with horizontal
b) 30 deg with vertical
c) 45 deg with horizontal
d) 45 with inclined plane
4. For perfectly elastic bodies, the value of the coefficient of restitution is

a) 0
b) 0.372
c) 0.5
d) 1
5. A wound watch spring possesses energy in the form of

a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Spring energy
d) Mechanical potential energy
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6. A ball weighing 250 gm is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 980 cm/sec. The
time that the ball will take to return back to earth would be
a) 1 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 3 sec
d) 4 sec
7. A ball weighing 250 gm is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 980 cm/sec. The
maximum height attained by the ball would be
a) 100 cm
b) 49 cm
c) 490 cm
d) 980 cm
8. For the maximum range of a projectile the angle of projection should be

a) 22.5 deg
b) 30 deg
c) 45 deg
d) 60 deg
9. A stone is thrown up from the foot of tower 50 m high with a velocity of 25 m/s and at the
same time another stone is dropped from the top of tower, the two stones will cross each
other after
a) 2 sec
b) 3 sec
c) 4 sec
d) 4.5 sec
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10. Identify the incorrect statement if any

a) The C.G. of a square is at the intersection of diagonals
b) The C.G. of an equilateral triangle is the intersection of medians
c) The C.G. of an ellipse is at the intersection of major and minor axes.
d) The C.G. of a semi-circle is at a distance r/2 from the centre.
11. The C.G. of a hemisphere is from its base measured along the vertical radius r s at a
distance from the base
a) 3R/8
b) 3R/4
c) 3Pi/4R
d) 4Pi/3R
12. The C.G. of a right circular cone lies on the axis at a height (h is total height of cone)
from base
a) h/4
b) h/3
c) 3/4 h
d) 3/5 h
13. When a body moves round a fixed axis it will have

a) A circular motion
b) A rotary motion
c) A translatory motion
d) A swinging motion
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14. A ball of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 2 m/s collides directly with a stationary
ball of mass 2 kg. If the first ball comes to rest after the impact the veocity of second ball
after the impact will be
a) Zero
b) 0.5 m/sec
c) 1.0 m/sec
d) 1.5 m/sec
15. A flywheel weighs 400 kg and has a radius of gyration of 30 cm about its axis of rotation.
It is mounted on a shaft subjected to a moment of 40 kgm.If the flywheel starts from rest its
speed after 3 seconds will be
a) 10.9 rad/sec
b) 19 rad/sec
c) 16.35 rad/sec
d) 3.33 rad/sec
16. A crate weighing 40 kg rests on a cart moving with an acceleration W. The coefficient of
friction between the cart and the crate is 0.25. The maximum acceleration so that the crate
does not slip along the cart will be
a) 0.25 m/sec2
b) 2.45 m/sec2
c) 1.25 m/sec2
d) 4.00 m/sec2
17. The motion of bicycle wheel is

a) Linear
b) Rotary
c) Translatory
d) Rotary as well as translatory
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18. A body weighing 500 kg falls 8 cm and strikes a 500 kg/cm spring. The deformation of
the spring will be
a) 8 cm
b) 0.8 cm
c) 2 cm
d) 4 cm
19. A body of weight W is resting at a plane inclined at 30 deg to the horizontal. It is attached
to a string making an angle of 60 deg with horizontal. If the angle of friction be 30 deg the
tension in the string would be
a) Zero
b) W
c) W/2
d) 2W
20. The locus of instantaneous centre of a moving rigid body

a) Involute
b) Cycloid
c) Epicycloid
d) Centrode
21. The resultant of a force acting on a body will be zero, if the body
a) Rotates
b) Does not rotate
c) Rotates with uniform acceleration
d) Moves along a curved path
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22. The tension in the wire rope supporting a lift moving with a uniform velocity
a) is more when the lift is moving down wards
b) is less when the lift is moving up wards
c) is more when the lift is moving upwards
d) remains constant irrespective of the lift movement
23. A particle is of weight 8 kg. When it is allowed to fall under the force of gravity its
momentum at the time t = 2 sec would be
a) 2 kg sec
b) 8 kg sec
c) 16 kg sec
d) 32 kg sec
24. A car travelling at a speed of 60 km/hr is brakedand comes to rest 6 seconds after the
brakes are applied. The minimum coefficient of friction between the wheels and the road
would be
a) 0.107
b) 0.283
c) 0.3
d) 0.417
25. If g1 and g2 are gravitational accelerations at two mountains A and B respectively, the
weight of the body when transported from A to B will be multiplied by
a) g1
b) g2
c) g2/g1
d) g1/g2
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26. The work done in sliding a block of weight of 50 kg up a plane inclined at an angle of 30
deg to the horizontal so that the block is lifted through 1 m (coefficient of friction is 0.3)
would be
a) More than 50 kg m
b) 50 kg m
c) less than 50 kg m
d) 15 kg m
27. If the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled the weight W of a body will
become
a) W/2
b) 2W
c) 0.77W
d) W/0.77
28. A stone of weight 100 kg is thrown vertically upwards by a man of height y = 1.8 m with
an initial velocity of 20 m/sec. The maximum height to which it will rise would be
a) 10 m
b) 15.1 m
c) 20.2 m
d) 22.2 m
29. A train starts from rest on a curved track of radius 800. Its speed increases uniformly and
after 3 minutes it is 72 km/hr. The tangential acceleration after 2 minute would be
a) 1/9 m/s2
b) 2/9 m/s2
c) 1/2m/s2
d) 1 m/s2
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30. A wedge is used to split logs. If is the angle of friction between the wedge and the log,
the maximum angle of the wedge so that it will remain embedded in the log would be
a)
b) 1.414
c) 1.5
d) 2
31. The moment of a force

a) occurs about a point
b) Measures the capacity to do useful work
c) Measures the ability to produce turning or twisting about an axis
d) Occurs only when bodies are in motion
32. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to

a) n-3
b) n-2
c) 2n-3
d) 2n-2
33. The moment of inertia of a thin ring about an axis perpendicular to plane of ring is
a) Mr
b) Mr^2
c) Mr^2/2
d) Mr^3/3
34. The moment of inertia of a hollow circular section whose external diameter is 8 cm and
internal diameter is 6 cm about the axis passing through its centre is
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a) 33.4 cm4
b) 66.8 cm4
c) 137.5 cm4
d) 275 cm4
35. If the angle of friction is zero a body will experience

a) Infinite friction
b) Zero friction
c) The force of friction will act normal to the plane
d) The force of friction will act in the direction of motion
36. A rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of these forces when
a) These forces equal
b) The lines of action of these forces are parallel
c) The lines of action of these forces meet at a point
d) (B) and (C) above
37. The roattion of a pulley is defined by the relation =2t^4-30t^(2 )+6 where is measured
in radians and t in seconds. The values of angular velocity in radians per second after 4
seconds would be
a) 246
b) 272
c) 324
d) 446
38. The angular acceleration of a flywheel decreases uniformly from 8 rad/sec2 to 2 rad/sec2
in 6 sec at which time its angular velocity is 42 rad/sec. The initial angular velocity was
a) 3 rad/sec
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b) 6 rad/sec
c) 12 rad/sec
d) 24 rad/sec
39. Which of the following is scalar quantity

a) Displacement of a particle
b) Area of a triangle
c) Acceleration of car
d) Velocity of a gear
40. In the impact problems the following conditions must always be satisfied:
a) The total kinetic energy remains unchanged
b) The total linear momentum remains unchanged
c) The magnitude of the total linear momentum is multiplied by the coefficient of restitution
d) The kinetic energy of the system is reduced by a factor proportional to the coefficient of
restitution
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Engineering Mechanics
1. Non-coplaner concurrent forces are those forces which

a) do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
b) meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
c) meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane
d) do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane

a) The kinetic energy of a body during impact remains constant.
b) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is equal to the kinetic energy of a body after
impact.
c) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is less than the kinetic energy of a body after
impact.
d) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is more than the kinetic energy of a body after
impact.
3. The principle of transmissibility of forces states that, when a force acts upon a body, its
effect is
a) maximum, if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body
b) minimum, if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body
c) same at every point on its line of action
d) different at different points on its line of action
4. In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.

a) less than
b) none of these
c) greater than
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d) equal to
5. Concurrent forces are those forces whose lines of action

a) meet at one point
b) meet on the same plane
c) none of these
d) lie on the same line
6. The angular velocity (in rad / s) of a body rotating at N revolutions per minute is
a) N/180
b) N/60
c) 2N/60
d) 2N/180
7. According to the law of moments, if a number of coplaner forces acting on a particle are in
equilibrium, then
a) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their
resultant force about the same point.
b) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
c) their lines of action are at equal distances
d) their algebraic sum is zero
8. A machine having an efficiency less than 50%, is known as

a) ideal machine
b) non-reversible machine
c) reversible machine
d) neither reversible nor non-reversible machine
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9. The centre of gravity of a semi-circle lies at a distance of __________ from its base
measured along the vertical radius.
a) 3r/4
b) 4r/ 3
c) 3r/ 8
d) 8r/3
10. The motion of a particle round a fixed axis is

a) rotary
b) translatory
c) circular
d) translatory as well as rotatry
11. A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose angle of
inclination with the horizontal is . The effort applied parallel to the plane is given by(where
= tan = Coefficient of friction between the plane and the body.)
a) P = W tan( + )
b) P = W tan
c) P = W (sin + cos)
d) P = W (cos + sin)
12. If a number of forces are acting at a point, theirresultant will be inclined at an angle
with the horizontal, such that
a) tan = H/V
b) tan = VxV
c) tan = VxH
d) tan = V/H
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13. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a) Speed
b) Velocity
c) Force
d) Acceleration
14. The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and
takes place in the same direction in which the force acts. This statement is known as
a) Newton's first law of motion
b) Newton's second law of motion
c) Newton's third law of motion
d) none of these
15. The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts, irrespective of its position, is
known as
a) moment of inertia
b) centre of percussion
c) centre of gravity
d) centre of mass
16. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

a) dyne
b) kg-m
c) joule
d) watt
17. A couple produces

a) translatory motion
158
b) none of the above

c) combined translatory and rotational motion
d) rotational motion
18. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is no loss of velocity after
rebounding, the ball will rise to a height of
a) 1m
b) 4m
c) 3m
d) 2m
19. The angle of inclination of the plane at which the body begins to move down the plane, is
called
a) angle of repose
b) angle of projection
c) angle of friction
d) none of these
20. Varingons theorem of moments states that if a number of coplaner forces acting on a
particle, then
a) their algebraic sum is zero
b) their lines of action are at equal distances
c) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
d) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their
resultant force about the same point.
21. Whenever a force acts on a body and the body undergoes a displacement, then
a) none of these
159
b) body has kinetic energy of translation

c) power is being transmitted
d) work is said to be done
22. The rate of doing work is known as

a) power
b) potential energy
c) kinetic energy
d) none of these
23. Onejoule is equal to

a) 0.1 N-m
b) 1 N-m
c) 10 N-m
d) 100 N-m
24. The resultant of the two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is
perpendicular to P. Then
a) Q = 2R
b) Q = R
c) P = Q
d) none of these
25. When the spring of a watch is wound, it will possess

a) kinetic energy
b) heat energy
c) electrical energy
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d) strain energy
26. The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies

a) is minimum in the start and maximum at the end
b) is maximum in the start and minimum at the end
c) varies from point to point
d) is constant at every instant
27. The static friction

a) is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces
b) bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surfaces
c) always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends to move
d) all of the above
28. The forces, which meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane,
are known as
a) non-coplaner non-concurrent forces
b) coplaner concurrent forces
c) coplaner non-concurrent forces
d) non-coplaner concurrent forces
29. Which of the following are vector quantities?

a) all of these
b) Angular acceleration
c) Angular displacement
d) Angular velocity
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30. The term centroid is

a) the point of suspension
b) the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate
about a certain axis
c) none of the above
d) the same as centre of gravity
31. The centre of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius (r) at a distance
of
a) 0.5r
b) 0.7r
c) 0.6r
d) 0.8r
32. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing
through its vertex and parallel to the base, is __________ than that passing through its C.G.
and parallel to the base.
a) seven times
b) five times
c) nine times
d) six times
33. According to lamis theorem

a) the three forces must be at 120 to each other
b) the three forces must be in equilibrium
c) the three forces must be equal
d) if the three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, then each force is proportional to the
sine of the angle between the other two
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34. The matter contained in a body, is called

a) momentum
b) impulsive force
c) mass
d) weight
35. Moment of inertia is the

a) second moment of area
b) second moment of mass
c) second moment of force
d) all of these
36. If P is the force acting on the body, m is the mass of the body and a is the acceleration of
the body, then according to Newtons second law of motion,
a) P - m.a = 0
b) P + m.a = 0
c) P x m.a = 0
d) P/m.a = 0
37. The coefficient of restitution for inelastic bodies is

a) more than one
b) one
c) between zero and one
d) zero
38. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position, is called
a) potential energy
163
b) chemical energy
c) kinetic energy
d) electrical energy
39. A lead ball with a certain velocity is made to strike a wall, it falls down, but rubber ball of
same mass and with same velocity strikes the same wall, it rebounds. Select the correct
reason from the following:
a) both the balls undergo an equal change in momentum
b) the change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is more than the lead ball
c) the change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is less than the lead ball
40. A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and leaning against a rough vertical wall. The
force of friction will act
a) away from the wall at its upper end
b) towards the wall at its upper and
c) downward at its upper end
d) upward at its upper end
41. Which of the following statement is correct in connection with projectiles?

a) The angle, with the horizontal, at which a projectile is projected is known as angle of
projection.
b) A path, traced by a projectile in the space, is known as trajectory.
c) The velocity with which a projectile is projected, is known as the velocity of projection.
d) all of the above
42. The forces, whose lines of action are parallel to each other and act in the same directions,
are known as
a) coplaner non-concurrent forces
164
b) like parallel forces

c) unlike parallel forces
d) coplaner concurrent forces
43. A pendulum which executes one beat per second is known as

a) second's pendulum
b) compound pendulum
c) simple pendulum
d) coplaner concurrent forces
44. The acceleration of a body sliding down an inclined surface is

a) g sin
b) g cos
c) g tan
d) none of these
45. In order to completely specify angular displacement by a vector, it must fix

a) direction of the axis of rotation
b) magnitude of angular displacement
c) sense of angular displacement
d) all of these
46. Two forces are acting at an angle of 120. The bigger force is 40N and the resultant is
perpendicular to the smaller one. The smaller force is
a) 40 N
b) 30 N
c) 20 N
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d) none of these
47. The centre of gravity a T-section 100 mm x 150 mm x 50 mm from its bottom is
a) 87.5mm
b) 75mm
c) 50mm
d) 125mm
48. If a body is acted upon by a number of coplaner non-concurrent forces, it may

a) be completely at rest
b) rotate about itself without moving
c) move in any one direction rotating about itself
d) all of these
49. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium, if

a) sumof resolved parts in the vertical direction is zero (i.e. V = 0)
b) all the forces are equally inclined
c) sum of all the forces is zero
d) none of these
50. A force acting on a body may

a) introduce internal stresses
b) balance the other forces acting on it
c) retard its motion
d) all of the above.
51. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ?

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a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sidesof a polygon taken
in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
b) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
c) if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
d) none of the above.
52. If a number of forces act simultaneously on

a particle, it is possible
a) not to replace them by a single force
b) to replace them by a single force
c) (c) to replace them by a single force through C.G.
d) to replace them by a couple
53. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ?

a) Momentum and impulse
b) Torque and energy
c) Torque and work
54. The weight of a body is due to

a) centripetal force of earth
b) gravitational pull exerted by the earth
c) forces experienced by body in atmosphere
d) gravitational force of attraction towards the center of the earth.
55.
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Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the
ball with velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move
with a velocity
a) v
b) v/2
c) v/4
d) v/8
56. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is __________ the range on upward
inclined plane for the same velocity of projection and angle of projection.
a) less than
b) more than
c) equal to
d) All of these
57.
If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the
angle between the two forces is
a) 30
b) 60
c) 90
d) 120
58. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis perpendicular to the section is
a) d3/16
b) d3/32
c) d4/32
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d) d4/64
59. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing
through its C.G. and parallel to the base, is
a) bh3/4
b) bh3/8
c) bh3/12
d) bh3/36
60. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal
to the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
a) forces
b) independence of forces
c) balance of force
d) resolution of forces.
61. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied

a) coplanar force
b) non-coplanar forces
c) moment
d) couple
62. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if

a) their total sum is zero
b) two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions are both zero
169
63. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction

a) balance each other
b) constitute a moment
c) constitute a couple
d) constitute a moment of couple
64. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
a) these forces are equal
b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel
65. D' Alembert's principle is used for

a) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
b) determining stresses in the truss
c) stability of floating bodies
d) solving kinematic problems
66. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
c) the floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
d) will be in equilibrium under all conditions.
67. Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments

b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force
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c) are equivalent
d) can not balance each other.
68. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
a) resultant couple
b) moment of the forces
c) moment of the couple
69. Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
a) one-fourth of the total height above base
b) one-third of the total height above base
c) three-eighth of the total height above the base
70. The coefficient of friction depends on

a) area of contact
b) nature of surface
c) strength of surfaces
d) all of the above
71. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as

a) coefficient of friction
b) angle of friction
c) angle of repose
d) friction resistance.
171
72. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
a) proportional to normal load between the surfaces
b) dependent on the materials of contact surface
c) proportional to velocity of sliding
d) independent of the area of contact surfaces
73. Coulomb friction is the friction between

a) bodies having relative motion
b) two dry surfaces
c) two lubricated surfaces
d) solids and liquids
74. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is

a) same
b) more
c) less
d) may be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
75. A single force and a couple acting in the

same plane upon a rigid body
b) cannot balance each other
c) produce moment of a couple
76. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide
over another surface is called
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a) limiting friction
b) sliding friction
c) rolling friction
d) kinematic friction
77. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance
covered in 5 sec is most nearly
a) 38 m
b) 62.5 m
c) 96 m
d) kinematic friction
78. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions
made is nearly equal to
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 250
79. A boat is traveling along a circular path having a radius of 20 m. Determine the
magnitude of the boat's acceleration if at a given instant the boat's speed is v = 5 m/s and the
rate of increase in speed is v = 2 m/s2.
a) a = 2.00 m/s2
b) a = 2.36 m/s2
c) a = 1.25 m/s2
d) a = 12.50 m/s2
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80. A train travels along a horizontal circular curve that has a radius of 200 m. If the speed of
the train is uniformly increased from 30 km/h to 45 km/h in 5 s, determine the magnitude of
the acceleration at the instant the speed of the train is 40 km/h.
a) a = 0.617 m/s2
b) a = 1.037 m/s2
c) a = 1.451 m/s2
d) a = 0.833 m/s2
174
Engineering Thermodynamics
1. A mono-atomic ideal gas ( = 1.67,molecular weight = 40) is compressed adiabatically

from 0.1 MPa, 300 K to 0.2 MPa. The universal gas constant is 8.314 kJ/molK. The work of
compression of the gas (in kJ/kg) is
a) 29.7
b) 19.9
c) 13.3
d) zero
2. An irreversible heat engine extracts heat from a high temperature source at a rate of 100
kW and rejects heat to a sink at a rate of 50 kW. The entire work output of the heat engine is
used to drive a reversible heat pump operating between a set of independent isothermal heat
reservoirs at 17C and 75C. The rate (in kW) at which the heat pump delivers heat to its high
temperature sink is
a) 5o
b) 250
c) 300
d) 360
3. A gas expands in a frictionless piston-cylinder arrangement. The expansion process is very

slow and is resisted by an ambient pressure of the 100 kPa. During the expansion process, the
pressure of the system (gas) remains consant at 300 kPa. The change in volume of he gas is
0.01 m3. The maximum amount of work that could be utilized from the above process is
a) zero
b) 1 kJ
c) 2 kJ
d) 3 kJ
4. A 100 W electirc bulb was swithed on in a 2.5 m x 3 m x 3 m size thermally insulated

room having a temperature of 20C. The room temperature at the end of 24 h will be
175
a) 321C
b) 338C
c) 450C
d) 470C
5. A reversible thermodynamic cycle containing only three processes and producing work is
to be constructed. The constrains are (a) there must be one isothermal process, (b) there must
be one isentropic process, (c) the maximum and minimum cycle pressures and clearance
volume are fixed and (d) polytropic processes are not allowed. Then the number of possible
cycles is/are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
6. Nitrogen gas (molecular weight=28) is enclosed in a cylinder by a piston, at the initial

conditions of 2 bar, 298 K and 1 m3. In a particular process, the gas slowly expands under
isothermal condition, untill the volume becomes 2 m3. Heat exchange occurs with the
atmosphere at 298K during this process. the work interaction for the nitrogen gas is
a) 200 kJ
b) 138.6 kJ
c) 2 kJ
d) -200 kJ
7. For a giveb set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle, the highest efficiency
occurs for
a) saturated cycle
b) superheated cycle
c) reheat cycle
d) regenerative cycle
176
8. An Otto cycle operates with volumes of 40 cm3 and 400 cm3 at Top Dead Centre and
Bottom Dead Centre respectively. If the power output is 100 kW, what is the heat input in
kJ/s?
a) 166
b) 145
c) 110
d) 93
9. A football was inflated to a gauge pressure of 1 bar when the ambient temperature was
15C. When the game started next day, the air temperature at the stadium was 5C. Assume
that the volume of the football remains constant at 2500 cm3,the amount of heat lost by the
air in the football and the gauge pressure of air in the football at the stadium respectively
equal to
a) 30.6 J, 1.94 bar
b) 21.8 J, 0.93 bar
c) 61.1 J, 1.94 bar
d) 43.7 J, 0.93 bar
10. A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 kW/m2 transforms it to the
internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is used to
run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power,
the minimum area of the solar collector required would be
a) 8.33 m2
b) 16.66 m2
c) 39.68 m2
d) 79.36 m2
177
Engineering Thermodynamics
1. Which of the following temperature scales doesnt have negative numbers?

a) Celsius
b) Kelvin
c) Fahrenheit
d) Galileo
2. Work done in a free expansion process is

a) Zero
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) Maximum
3. Which of the following could NOT be used to indicate a temperature change? A change
in:
a) color of a metal rod
b) length of a liquid column
c) electrical resistance
d) mass of one mole of gas at constant pressure
4. An electric fan in a closed room is switched on. The room will get
178
a) Cooler
b) warmer
c) stays the same
d) cool down or get warmer depending upon the atmospheric conditions
5. The property of a system that does not change when the system is undergoing adiabatic
process
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Quantity of Heat
6. If the system undergoes contraction in volume then work done by the system is
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) neither positive nor negative
d) work done is zero
7. For the expression pdv to represent the work, which of the following conditions should
apply?
a) The system is closed one and process takes place in non-flow system
b) The process is non-quasi static
c) The boundary of the system should not move in order that work may be transferred
d) If the system is open one, it should be non-reversible
8. Ice kept in a well insulated thermo flask is an example of which system?

a) Closed system
b) Isolated systems
179
c) Open system
d) Equilibrium system
9. A heat engine takes in some amount of thermal energy and performs 50 J of work in each
cycle and rejects 150 J of energy. What is its efficiency?
a) 500 %
b) 400 %
c) 25 %
d) 20 %
10. A rigid container holds an ideal gas (Cv = 0.75 kJ/(kgK) ). The container is cooled from
110 to 20. Find the specific heat transfer (kJ/kg) for the process
a) 67.5 kJ/ kg
b) 67.5 kJ / kg
c) -96 kJ/kg
d) 96 kJ/kg
11. A thermally insulating container has a membrane separating the container into two equal
parts. In one part is a vacuum. In the other part is an ideal gas of temperature T and internal
energy U. The membrane is punctured and the gas rushes into the region which was a
vacuum. After the system has returned to equilibrium, which of the following is NOT true for
the gas?
a) The temperature of the gas is changed
b) No work is done by the gas on the surroundings
c) There is no heat exchanged by the gas with the surroundings
d) There is no entropy change of the system
12. Match items in List-I (Process) with those in List-II (Characteristic) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
180
List-I
List-II
A. Throttling process
1. No work done
B. Adiabatic process
2. No heat transfer
C. Free expansion
3. Constant internal energy
D. Isothermal process
4. Constant enthalpy
a) A B C
4
b) A B C
1 2
d) A B C
1 3
c) A B C
4
13. In thermodynamics it is very important to state any assumptions at the beginning of a

problem. If you are asked to find the work of a cycle of a piston and cylinder, which of the
following would you assume?
a) Work only occurs across the boundary
b) Changes in kinetic energy and potential energy are negligible
c) It is a closed system
d) all of the choices
14. Think about how a refrigerator works and the system of the refrigerator and the area
outside of the refrigerator at ambient temperature. Is the high temperature the body
refrigerator or the ambient air around the refrigerator?
a) Not enough information to answer
b) Provided the refrigerator is working, the refrigerator is the higher temperature body
181
c) Provided the refrigerator is working, the area around the refrigerator is the higher
temperature body
d) Provided the refrigerator is working, the bodies are of the same temperature
15. One kg of steam at 1.01325 bar has a saturation temperature of ___________

a) 273 K
b) 273C
c) 100C
d) 100 K
16. A rigid vessel contains a pure substance and it passes through the critical state on heating
only if the initial state is
a) subcooled water
b) wet
c) dry
d) superheated
17. When saturation pressure of vapour increases which one of the following statements is
correct?
a) Saturation temperature decreases
b) Enthalpy of evaporation increases
c) Enthalpy of evaporation decreases
d) specific volume remains constant
18. Increase in entropy of a system represents

a) Increase in availability of energy
b) increase in temperature
c) decrease in pressure
182
d) degradation of energy
19. The temperature of water flowing through the turbine increases from 25C to 27C due to
friction. If there is no heat transfer, determine the change of entropy of water.
a) 2.8 J/kgK
b) 28J/kgK
c) -2.8kJ/kgK
d) -28kJ/kgK
20. A paddle wheel fitted with a 300 W motor is used to stir water in a large container. The
water in the container is maintained at 300 K and if the motor runs for 2 hours, determine the
change in entropy of water.
a) 7200 J/K
b) -7200 J/K
c) 0
d) 72 J/K
21. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from
0.3 kJ/kgK to 0.4 kJ/kgK. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from
80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. Determine the process.
a) Reversible and isothermal
b) Irreversible
c) Reversible
d) Impossible
22. When pressure is raised in an isentropic process, the enthalpy of the substance
a) Remains same
b) Increases
c) decreases
183
d) First increases and then decreases
23. The dryness fraction at the end of expansion of a Reheat cycle operating under the same
temperature limits has
a) Same as that of Rankine cycle
b) More than that of Rankine cycle
c) Less than that of Rankine cycle
d) Not able to correlate with provided data.
24. Which one of the following thermodynamic relations is incorrect

a) T.dS = du + p.dv
b) T.dS = dh + v.dp
c) dH = T.dS + v.dp
d) dG = Vdp S.dT
25. Which one of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?
a) Volume
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Density
26. The sequence of events that eventually returns the working fluid to its original state is
known as
a) process
b) cycle
c) path
d) property
184
27. If C is the number of components and is the number of phases in a system, the number
of independent intensive properties required to specify the state of the system
a) F=C--2
b) F=C++2
c) F=C-+2
d) F=C+-2
28. Does a heat engine that has a thermal efficiency of 100 percent necessarily violate?
a) The first law
b) The second law
c) Both first law and second law
d) neither first nor second law
29. Specific internal energy of an ideal gas depends on ________________ of the gas.
a) pressure
b) volume
c) mass
d) temperature
30. A control mass refers to a ____________ system

a) open
b) closed
c) isolated
d) adiabatic
31. Which one of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?
a) Enthalpy
185
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Density
32. In a reversible heat engine operating between source and sink temperatures T1 and T2
respectively and surrounded by ambient temperature (T0), the maximum work done is
obtained when T2 is equal to
a) T2 = T1
b) T2 = T1/2
c) T2 = T0
d) T2=2T0
33. Which of the following statement is true:

a) Heat can be completely converted into work.
b) Entropy of the universe is always constant.
c) The energy of the universe keeps on increasing
d) All work can be converted into heat.
34. The change in entropy during a process is zero when

a) Reverse and adiabatic.
b) When it is reversible
c) When there is no heat transfer
d) All of these
35. The rate of exergy loss is directly proportional to

a) Entropy generation
b) Increase in energy
c) Leads to increase in irreversibility
186
d) efficiency
36. The effect of increase in mean temperature of heat addition in an ideal Rankine cycle
leads to
a) decrease in efficiency of the cycle
b) increase in efficiency of the cycle
c) does not affect the efficiency of the cycle
d) first increases and then decreases the efficiency of the cycle.
37. A saturation state is a state from which a change of phase may occur without
a) change in temperature
b) change in pressure
c) change in temperature and pressure
d) volume
38. Which of the following curve has a negative slope for water as working fluid in the P-T
phase diagram
a) Fusion curve
b) evaporation curve
c) triple point line
d) sublimation curve.
39. The work output of a Reheat cycle operating under the same temperature limits is:
a) Same as that of Rankine cycle
b) Greater than that of Rankine cycle
c) Lesser than that of Ranking cycle
d) Not able to correlate with provided data.
187
40. Which of the following statements about absolute zero temperature is true?
a) At absolute zero all translational motion of the particles ceases.
b) At absolute zero all rotational motion of the particles ceases.
c) Absolute zero is defined at 273.15C.
d) All the above.
41. What mass of He gas occupies 8.5 liters at 0C and 1 atmosphere? (The molar mass of He
= 4.00 g/mol.)
a) 10.5 g
b) 1.52 g
c) 0.38 g
d) 2.6 g
42. A gas has a density X at standard temperature and pressure. What is the new density
when the absolute temperature is doubled and the pressure increased by a factor of 3?
a) (2/3)X
b) (4/3)X
c) (3/2)X
d) (3/4)X
43. A rigid container of air is at atmospheric pressure and 27C. To double the pressure in the
container, heat it to
a) 54C
b) 300C
c) 327C
d) 600C
188
44. If a mass of oxygen gas occupies a volume of 8 L at standard temperature and pressure,
what is the change in the volume if the temperature is reduced by one half and the
pressure is doubled?
a) It increases to 12 L.
b) It decreases to 6 L.
c) It decreases to 2 L.
d) It increases to 24 L.
45. If the pressure and volume of an ideal gas are both reduced to half their original value, the
absolute temperature of the gas is
a) unchanged.
b) increased by a factor of 4.
c) doubled.
d) decreased by a factor of 4.
46. The relationship between the pressure and the volume of a gas expressed by Boyle's law
holds true
a) for some gases under any conditions.
b) for all gases under any conditions.
c) if the container of the gas can expand with increasing pressure.
d) if the temperature is constant.
47. The air around us has 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen. If the pressure is 1 atm, the
pressure due to oxygen is
a) 0.21 atm
b) 0.78 atm
c) 1 atm
d) 0.67 atm
189
48. An ideal gas whose original temperature and volume are 27C and 0.283 m3 undergoes an
isobaric expansion. If the final temperature is 87C, then the final volume is approximately
a) 0.0340 m3
b) 0.0552 m3
c) 0.170 m3
d) 0.340 m3
49. To raise the temperature of a 2.0-kg piece of metal from 20 to 100C, 61.8 kJ of heat is
added. What is the specific heat of this metal?
a) 0.39 kJ/kgK
b) 1.2 kJ/kgK
c) 0.31 kJ/kgK
d) 0.77 kJ/kgK
50. A 2.0-kg mass of iron (specific heat = 0.12 kcal/kgC) at a temperature of 430C is
dropped into 0.4 kg of ice and 0.4 kg of water both at 0C. With no heat losses to the
surroundings, the equilibrium temperature of the mixture is approximately
a) 0C
b) 100C
c) 23C
d) 69C
51. On a hot summer day, water collects on the outside of a glass of ice lemonade. The water
comes from
a) inside the glass since glass is porous.
b) the condensation of the water vapor due the fact that the glass is much colder than
the air.
c) the straw you use to drink your lemonade.
190
d) the mixture of water and lemonade.
52. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process in which total (positive) work W is done by the
gas. What total heat is added to the gas in one cycle?
a) W
b) - W
c) zero
d) 2W
53. The pressure of a gas in an isobaric expansion remains constant. In such an expansion,
a) no work is done.
b) work is done by the gas.
c) work is done on the gas.
d) work is or is not done depending on whether the temperature of the gas changes.
54. The change in the entropy of the universe due to an operating Carnot engine
a) is zero.
b) must be positive
c) must be negative
d) is meaningless to consider, because a Carnot engine has no connection to entropy
55. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a reversible isothermal expansion from a volume of 1
L to a volume of 2 L. The change in entropy of the gas in terms of the universal gas constant
R is
a) R/2
b) 2R
c) R ln(2)
d) R ln()
191
56. The thermal efficiency of theoretical Otto cycle

a) increases with increase in compression ratio
b) increases with increase in isentropic index
c) does not depend upon the pressure ratio
d) follows all the above.
57. With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine plant with
fixed turbine inlet temperature
a) decreases
b) increases
c) first increases and then decreases
d) first decreases and then increases.
58. For same compression ratio

a) thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is greater than that of Diesel cycle
b) thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is less than that of Diesel cycle
c) thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is same as that for Diesel cycle
d) thermal efficiency of Otto cycle cannot be predicted
59. The work output of theoretical Otto cycle

b) increases with increase in pressure ratio
c) increases with increase in adiabatic index
d) follows all the above.
60. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
192
a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet

b) change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet.
61. Thermodynamic work is the product of

a) Two intensive properties
b) two extensive properties
c) an intensive property and change in an extensive property
d) an extensive property and change in an intensive property
62. If the thermal efficiency of a Carnot heat engine working between two temperature
reservoirs is 1/3, then COP of a Carnot refrigerator is given by
a) 3
b) 1/2
c) 2
d) 4
63. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of diesel cycle as compared to otto cycle is
a) less
b) more
c) same
d) equal
64. A cycle consisting of two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric
processes is known as
a) Otto cycle
b) Ericsson cycle
193
c) Stirling cycle
d) Brayton cycle
65. A cycle consisting of two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isochoric
processes is known as
a) Otto cycle
b) Ericsson cycle
c) Stirling cycle
d) Brayton cycle
66. A chemical fuel is a substance which releases____________on combustion.

a) chemical energy
b) heat energy
c) sound energy
d) magnetic energy.
67. For each mole of oxygen, number of moles of nitrogen required for complete combustion
of carbon are
a) 20/21
b) 2/21
c) 77/21
d) 79/21
68. An analysis which includes the steam in the exhaust is called

a) dry analysis
b) wet analysis
c) dry and wet analysis
d) flue gas analysis
194
69. The Orsat apparatus gives

a) volumetric analysis of the dry products of combustion
b) gravimetric analysis of the dry products of combustion
c) gravimetric analysis of products of combustion including H2O
d) volumetric analysis of products of combustion including H2O.
70. Bomb calorimeter is used to find the calorific value of ___________ fuels.
a) solid
b) gaseous
c) solid and gaseous
d) solid, liqiud and gaseous
71. When the fuel is burned and the water appears in the vapour phase, the heating value of
fuel is called
a) enthalpy of formation
b) lower heating value
c) higher heating value
d) enthalpy of fusion
72. When the fuel is burned and water is released in the liquid phase, the heating value of fuel
is called
a) higher heating value
b) lower heating value
c) enthalpy of formation
d) enthalpy of fusion
73. In the Orsat apparatus KOH solution is used to absorb

195
a) carbon monoxide
b) carbon dioxide
c) oxygen
d) nitrogen
74. Enthalpy of formation is defined as enthalpy of compounds at

a) 25C and 10 atmospheres
b) 25C and 1 atmosphere
c) 0C and 1 atmosphere
d) 100C and 1 atmosphere.
75. Moisture, ash content, volatile matter and fixed carbon are measured for coal as part of
a) Proximate analysis
b) Ultimate analysis
c) Proximate and utlimate analysis
d) wet analysis
76. For the same compression ratio and heat input, the cycles in decreasing order of thermal
efficiency are
a) Otto, Dual, Diesel
b) Diesel, Otto, Dual
c) Dual,Diesel, Otto
d) Otto, Diesel, Dual
77. The triple point of water is

a) 54.35 K
b) 13.84 K
196
c) 216.55 K
d) 273.16 K
78. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Mollier diagram
a) the inclination of constant pressure lines equals the absolute temperature
b) the constant pressure lines bend slightly downward in the heated region
c) the expansion process through a turbine is represented by a vertical line parallel to the
ordinate
d) the diagram helps to readly find out the total heat content of a steam of specified pressure
and quality
79. In which process, a solid changes directly to the gaseous form without ever being a liquid
a) condensation
b) evaporation
c) sublimation
d) crystalisation
80. which of the following parameters remains constant during superheating of steam?
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) enthalpy
d) internal energy
81. The enthalpy of vaporisation is minimum at

a) absolute zero
b) 373.16 K
c) critical temperature
d) triple point
197
82. The heat absorbed by water at its saturation temperature to get converted into dry steam at
the same temperture is called as
a) sensible heat
b) specific heat
c) latent heat
d) total heat
83. Which form of the vapour has a behaviour close to that of a gas?
a) wet vapour
b) dry and saturated
c) wet and dry vapour
d) superheated vapour
84. The internal energy of a perfect gas does not change during
a) adiabatic process
b) isibaric process
c) isothermal process
d) isochoric process
85. The characteristic gas equation pv = mRT is essentially valid for a

a) real gas
b) perfect gas
c) monoatomic gas
d) mixture of gases
86. For any natural process, the entropy change would be
198
a) zero
b) positive
c) negative
d) unpredictable
87. For obtaining maximum work in the act of a gas expanding in a closed system, the
expansion process must takes place at
a) constant temperature
b) constant pressure
c) constant entropy
d) constant enthalpy
88. Which of the following is not a feature of the free expansion process?
a) irreversible process
b) non-quasistatic process
c) there is transfer of energy to the system
d) pressure and volume are not related through the equation of state
89. Work output from a system is at the expense of internal energy in a non flow process
carried out
a) at constant pressure
b) at constant volume
c) adiabatically
d) polytropically
90. All of the following statements are true for a quasi-static process except
a) proceeds very slowly
b) can proceed in either direction
199
c) need not be a reversible process

d) occurs when the driving force is finite but very small
91. Zeroth law of thermodynamics forms the basis of ______________ measurement

a) pressure
b) heat exchange
c) temperature
d) work
92. Which does not constitute the theoritical cycle for the working of a practical I.C engine?
a) Otto cycle
b) Diesel cycle
c) Dual cycle
d) Ericsson cycle
93. Steam coming out of the whistle of a pressure cooker is most likely to be
a) wet vapour
b) dry and saturated vapour
c) superheated vapour
d) supercritical
94. Which of the following processes is not associated with Diesel cycle?
a) constant volume
b) constant pressure
c) isothermal
d) adiabatic
200
95. For successful working of throttling calorimeter to determine the value of dryness fraction
of steam, the steam after throttling must be in
a) wet steam
b) Dry and saturated steam
c) superheated steam
d) saturated liquid
96. Joule Thomson expansion is

a) isochoric process
b) isobaric process
c) isentropic process
d) isenthalpic process
97. When wet steam flows through a throttle valve and remains wet at exit, its
a) quality increases
b) quality decreases
c) quality remains constant
d) quality can not be determined. Insuffient data
98. Three moles of an ideal gas are compressed to half the initial volume at a constant
temperature of 300k. The work done in the process is
a) 5188 J
b) 2500 J
c) -2500 J
d) -5188 J
201
99. In a reversible isothermal expansion process, the fluid expands from 10 bar and 2 m3 to 2
bar and 10 m3. During the process the heat supplied is at the rate of 100 kW. What is the rate
of work done during the process?
a) 20 kW
b) 80 kW
c) 100 kW
d) 35 kW
100. The entropy of a mixture of pure gases is the sum of the entropies of constituents
evaluated at
a) temperature and pressure for the mixture
b) temperature of the mixture and the partical pressure of the constituents
c) temperature and volume of the mixture
d) pressure and volume of the mixture
101. Which one of the following relationships defines Gibb's free energy G?
a) G=H + TS
b) G=H-TS
c) G= U+ TS
d) G= U-TS
102. Which one of the following is correct?

When a real gas undergoes Joule-Thomson expansion, the temperature
a) may remain constant.
b) always increases.
c) may increase or decrease
d) always decreases.
202
103. The throttling of certain gasses may be used for getting the refrigeration effect. What is
the value of Joule Thomson coefficient () for such a throttling process?
a) = 0
b) = 1
c) < 1
d) > 1
104. A gas having a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient (< 0), when throttled, will
a) become cooler
b) become warmer
c) remain at the same temperature
d) either be cooler or warmer depending on the type of gas
105. For a reversible power cycle, the operating temperature limits are 800 K and 300 K. It
takes 400kJ of heat. The unavailable work will be
a) 250 kJ
b) 150 kJ
c) 120 kJ
d) 100 kJ
106. In which one of the following situations the entropy change will be negative
a) Air expands isothermally from 6 bars to 3 bars
b) Air is compressed to half the volume at constant pressure
c) Heat is supplied to air at constant volume till the pressure becomes three folds
d) Air expands isentropic ally from 6 bars to 3 bars
203
107. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases
from 0.35 kJ/kg-K to 0.45 kJ/kg-K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings
decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
a) Reversible and isothermal
b) Irreversible
c) Reversible
d) Impossible
108. In the T-S diagram shown in the figure, which one of the following is represented by the
area under the curve? <img src="New Picture (4).png" alt="New Picture (4).png"
title="New Picture (4)" width="215" height="207"></img>
a) Total work done during the process
b) Total heat absorbed during the process
c) Total heat rejected during the process
d) Degree of irreversibility
109. Two ideal heat engine cycles are represented in the given figure.<img src="pv.png"
alt="pv.png" title="pv" width="210" height="142"></img> Assume VQ =QR, PQ = QS and
UP =PR =RT. If the work interaction for the rectangular cycle (WVUR) is
48 Nm, then the work interaction for the other
cycle PST is
a) 12Nm
b) 18 Nm
c) 24 Nm
d) 36 Nm
204
1. The available energy is

a) high grade energy
b) portion of energy as useful work
c) theoritical maximum amount of work
d) low grade energy
2. To improve the work capacity of energy transfer as heat from high temperature to low
temperature,
a) lower temperature should be lowerd, keeping the temperature difference same
b) higher temperature should be increased keeping the difference same
c) temperature difference should be increased
d) temperature difference should be decreased
3. The degradation of energy is responsible for

a) entropy generation within the system
b) decrease of entropy within the system
c) maximum work done by the system
d) minimum work done by the system
4. Maxwell's thermodynamic relations are valid for

a) all process
b) a closed system
c) a thermodynamic system in equilibrium
d) an open system
5. The mean effective pressure of an engine is defined as
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a) work done/stroke volume

b) work done per cycle/cylinder volume
c) work done per cycle/stroke volume
d) work done per kg/stroke volume
6. The efficiency of standard Otto cycle depends on

a) pressure ratio in the cycle
b) temperature ratio in the cycle
c) compression ratio in the cycle
d) mean effective pressure
7. The efficiency of standard Diesel cycle depends on

a) cut-off ratio in the cycle
b) compression ratio in the cycle
c) cut-off ratio and compression ratio
d) mean effective pressure
8. Which process is included in air standard Diesel cycle?

a) Polytropic compression
b) Isochoric heat addition
c) Isobaric heat addition
d) Isochoric and isobaric heat addition
9. Which one of the following is part of air standard dual cycle?

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10. Which one of the following is part of air standard Braytion cycle?
11. Which one of the following is part of air standard Stirling cycle?
a) Reversible isothermal compression
b) Polytropic expansion
d) Reversible isetropic compression
12. Which one of the following is part of air standard Ericsson cycle?
a) Reversible isothermal compression
b) Polytropic expansion
c) Isochoric heat addition
d) Reversible isetropic compression
13. Gas power cycle is not used for

a) Diesel cycle engine
b) Otto cycle engine
c) Locomotive engine
d) Aircraft engine
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14. Which one of the following has the maximum thermal efficiency for a given range of
temperatures?
a) Carnot cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Joule cycle
d) Binary cycle
15. Why is Rankine cycle considered as most practical cycle?

a) Saturation steam enters the turbine
b) Pump handle water vapour mixture
c) Complete condensation of steam in the condenser
d) Complete condensation of steam in the low pressure turbine
16. The back work ratio is defined as

a) Net work done in the cycle/Heat supplied
b) Pump work/Turbine work
c) Net work output/Turbine work
d) Turbine work/pump work
17. In the Rankine cycle, heat is added

a) isohermally
b) at constant volume
c) at constant pressure
d) adiabatically
18. Specific steam consumption of Rankine cycle can be reduced steam

a) superheating
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b) reheating
c) regeneration
d) condensation
19. Rankine cycle efficiency of well maintained steam power plant is in the range of
a) less than 10%
b) 10% to 20%
c) 35% to 45%
d) 50% to 60%
20. Rankine cycle with multiple regeneration can be approximated as

a) ideal Brayton cycle
b) Carnot vapour cycle
c) ideal Stirling cycle
d) Otto cycle
21. In regenerative Rankine cycle, the feed water is heated by

a) exhaust steam
b) condensed steam
c) bled-off steam
d) fresh steam
22. Specific steam consumption of a power plant is expressed as

a) pump work / turbine work
b) 3600 kJ / Wnet (kJ/kg)
c) 3600 (kJ) / th(kWh)
d) turbine work / pump work
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23. A house hold refrigerator with a COP of 1.8 removes heat from a refrigerated space at a
rate of 90 kJ/min. Then the electrical power consumed is
a) 0.633 kW
b) 0.733 kW
c) 0.833 kW
d) 0.933 kW
24. A house hold refrigerator with a COP of 1.8 removes heat from a refrigerated space at a
rate of 90 kJ/min. Then the heat rejected to the surroundings are
a) 130 kJ/min
b) 140 kJ/min
c) 150 kJ/min
d) 160 kJ/min
25. In an internal combustion engine, during the compression stroke the heat rejected to the
cooling water is 50 kJ/kg and the work input is 100 kJ/kg. The change in internal energy of
the working fluid is
a) 0
b) 50 kJ/kg, gain
c) 50 kJ/kg, loss
d) 100 kJ/kg, loss
26. A reversible heat engine rejects 50% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If
this engine is reversed and operates as a heat pump, then what is its coefficient of
performance?
a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
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d) 2.5
27. A ballon which is initially collapsed and flat is slowly filled with a gas at 100 kPa, so as
to form it into a sphere of 1m radius. The work done by the gas in tha ballon during the filling
process is
a) 428.9 kJ
b) 418.9 kJ
c) 420.9 kJ
d) 416.9 kJ
28. 2 kg of water at 80C are mixed with adiabatically with 3 kg of water at 30C in a
constant pressure process of 1 atm. The increase in the entropy of the total mass of water due
to mixing process is
a) -0.05915 kJ/K
b) 0.05915 kJ/K
c) 0
d) 5.915 kJ/K
29. 0.1 cubic metres of hydrogen initially at 1.2 MPa, 200C undergoes a reversible
isothermal expansion to 0.1 MPa. The change in entropy of the gas is (gamma = 1.4)
a) -0.4889 kJ/kgK
b) 0.4886 kJ/kgK
c) -0.6294 kJ/kgK
d) 0.6294 kJ/kgK
30. 80 kg of water at 100C are mixed with 50 kg of water at 60C while the temperature of
the surroundings is 15C. Determine the decrese in available enrgy due to mixing
a) 234.8 kJ
b) 130.04 kJ
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c) 307.25 kJ
d) 406.09 kJ
31. Which one of the following phenomena occurs when gas in a piston-in-cylinder assembly
expands reversibiliy at constant pressure?
a) Heat is added to the gas
b) Heat is removed from the gas
c) Gas does work from its own stored energy
d) Gas undergoes adiabatic expansion
32. In which one of the following processes, in a closed system the thermal energy
transferred to a gas is completely converted to internal energy resulting in an increase in gas
temperature
a) Isochoric process
b) Adiabatic process
c) Isothermal process
d) free expansion
33. Determine the entropy of 1 kg of wet steam at a pressure of 6 bar and 0.8 dry, reckoned
from freezing point (0C). Given at p = 6 bar, Ts = 158.8C, hfg = 2085 kJ/kg
a) 5.7 kJ/kgK
b) 3.4 kJ/kgK
c) 2.9 kJ/kgK
d) 7.2 kJ/kgK
34. A Carnot engine rejects 30% of absorbed heat to a sink at 30C. The temperature of the
heat source is
a) 100C
b) 433C
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c) 737C
d) 1010C
35. An engine operates between temperature limits of 900 K, T2 and another between T2 and
400 K. For both to be equally efficient, the value of T2 will be
a) 700 K
b) 600 K
c) 750 K
d) 650 K
36. A Carnot engine operates between 27C and 327C. If the engine produces 300 kJ of
work, what is the entropy change during heat addition?
a) 0.5 kJ/K
b) 1.0 kJ/K
c) 1.5 kJ/K
d) 2.0 kJ/K
37. The entropy of a mixture of ideal gases is the sum of the entropies of constituents
evaluted at
a) temperature and pressure of the mixture
b) temperature of the mixture and the partial pressure of the constituents
c) temperature and volume of the mixture
d) pressure and volume of the mixture
38. An inventor states that his new engine rejects to the sink 40% of heat absorbed from the
source while the source and sink temperatures are 327C and 27C respectively. Therfore, his
engine is equivalent to
a) Joule engine
b) Stirling engine
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c) impossible engine
d) Carnot engine
39. An ideal gas at 27C is heated at constant pressure till its volume becomes three times.
Then, what would be the temperature of gas?
a) 81C
b) 627C
c) 543C
d) 327C
40. 0.7 kg/s of air enters with a spefic enthalpy of 290 kJ and leaves it with 450 kJ of specific
enthalpy. Velocities at inlet and exit are 6 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. Assuming adiabatic
process, what is power input to the compressor?
a) 120 kW
b) 118 kW
c) 115 kW
d) 112 kW
FLUID MECHANICS
1. For steady incompressible flow through a closed-conduit of uniform cross-section, the

direction of flow will always be,
a) from higher to lower elevation
b) from higher to lower pressure
c) from higher to lower velocity
d) from higher to lower piezometric head
2. A circular pipe has a diameter of 1m, bed slope of 1in 1000, and Mannings roughness
coefficient equal to 0.01. It may be treated as an open channel flow when it is flowing just
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full, i.e., the water level just touches the crest. The discharge in this condition is dented by
Q(full). Similarly, the discharge when the pipe is flowing half-full, i.e. with a flow depth of
0.5m, is denoted by Q(half). The ratio of Q(full)/ Q(half)
a) 1
b) 1.414
c) 2
d) 4
3. A triangular gate with a base width of 2m and a height of 1.5 m lies in a vertical plane.
The top vertex of the gate is 1.5m below the surface of a tank which contains oil of specific
gravity 0.8. Considering the density of water and acceleration due to gravity to be 1000
kg/cu.m and 9.81 m/s2 respectively, the hydrostatic force (in KN) exerted by the oil on the
gate is
a) 2.5
b) 1.4
c) 3.4
d) 4.5
4. A pipe of 0.7m diameter has a length of 6 km and connects two reservoirs A and B. The
water level in reservoir A is at an elevation 30m above the water level in reservoir B.
Halfway along the pipe line. There is a branch through which water can be supplied to a third
reservoir C. The friction factor of the pipe is 0.024. The quantity of water discharged into
reservoir C is 0.15 cumecs. Considering the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2 and
neglecting minor losses, the discharge (in cumes) in to the reservoir B is,
a) 1.56
b) 0.9
c) 2.25
d) 0.56
5. An isohyet is a line joining points of

a) equal temperature
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b) equal humidity
c) equal rainfall depth
d) equal evaporation
FLUID MECHANICS
1. A perfect fluid (also known as an ideal fluid is)

a) a real fluid
b) the one which obeys perfect gas laws
c) compressive and gasseous
d) incompressible and frictionless
2. When a shear stress is applied to a substance it is found to resist it by elastic deformation.

The substance is
a) liquid
b) solid
c) gas
d) fluid
3. The viscosity of
a) liquids increases with temperature
b) gases increases with temperature
c) fluids decreases with temperature
d) fluids increases with temperature
4. A real fluids is any fluid which

a) has surface tension and is incompressible
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b) has zero shear stress

c) has constant viscosity and density
d) has density
5. Typical example of a non-Newtonian fluid of pseudoplastic variety is

a) Water
b) Air
c) Blood
d) Printing ink
6. In a sample of water an increase of pressure by 18 MN/m2 caused 1% reduction in the

volume. The bulk modulus of elasticity of this sample, in MN/m2 is
a) 1.8
b) 180
c) 1800
d) 0.18
7. Broadly speaking, water is

a) 10 times more compressible than steel
b) 80 times more compressible than steel
c) 80 times less compressible than steel
d) 800 times les compressible than steel
8. If a capillary rise of water is a 2mm diameter tube is 1.5cm, the height of capillary rise in a
0.5mm diameter tube, in cm, will be
a) 10.0
b) 1.5
c) 6.0
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d) 24.0
9. If the surface tension of water-air interface is 0.073 N/m, the guage pressure inside a rain
drop of 1mm diameter is,
a) 146.0 N/m2
b) 0.146 N/m2
c) 73.0 N/m2
d) 292.0 N/m2
10. The excess pressure (above atmospheric ) inside a soap bubble of diameter 1cm, by
assuming the surface tension of soap solution to be 0.04 N/m, is
a) 32.0 N/m2
b) 16.0 N/m2
c) 160.0 N/m2
d) 0.32 N/m2
11. The capillary rise in a 3 mm tube immersed in a liquid is 15 mm. If another tube of
diameter 4mm is immersed in the same liquid the capillary rise would be
a) 11.25mm
b) 20.00mm
c) 8.4 mm
d) 26.67 mm
12. An apparatus produces

of water in air is 0.07N/m, the diameter of a tube that can be used to keep the capillary height
between 1.80 cm to 2.00 cm is,
a) 1.65 mm
b) 3.33 cm
c) 1.65 cm
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d) 1.40 cm
13. At a liquid-airThe liquid is,

a) Wetting
b) Non-wetting
c) Ideal
d) Does not form a stable bubble
14. At 20 deg. Centigragde, pure water will have a vapour pressure, in kPa, of about
a) 0.5
b) 2.34
c) 101.3
d) 8.67
15. At 100 deg. Centigrade, at sea level, pure water will have a vapour pressure, in kPa, of
about
a) 0.50
b) 2.3
c) 10.1
d) 101.3
16. For a fluid at rest

a) the shear stress depends upon the coefficient of velocity
b) the shear stress is maximum on a plane inclined at 45 deg. To horizontal
c) the shear stress is zero
d) the shear stress is zero only on horizontal plane
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17. Normal stresses are of the same magnitude in all directions at a point in a fluid
a) only when the fluid is frictionless
b) only when the fluid is at rest
c) only when there is no shear stress
d) in all cases of fluid motion
18. Local atmospheric pressure is measured by

a) Hydrometer
b) Barometer
c) Hygrometer
d) Altimeter
19. Identify the correct statement

a) Local atmospheric pressure is always less than the standard atmospheric pressure
b) Local atmospheric pressure depends only on the elevation of the place
c) A barometer reads the difference between the local and standard atmospheric pressure
d) Standard atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury
20. Bourdon gauge measures

a) absolute pressure
b) gauge pressure
c) local atmospheric pressure
d) standard atmospheric pressure
21. When the barometer reads 740.00mm of mercury, a pressure of 10kPa suction at that
location is equivalent to
a) 10.02 m of water (abs)
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b) 9.87 m of water (abs)

c) 88.53 kPa (abs)
d) 0.043 kPa (abs)
22. The standard atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. At a certain location the
barometer reads 710 mm of mercury. At this place an absolute pressure of 360mm of mercury
corresponds to a gauge pressure, in mm of mercury
a) 400 mm of vaccum
b) 350 mm of vaccum
c) 760 mm of vaccum
d) 710 mm
23. A barometer at a given location

a) shows the local atmospheric pressure which is variant with time
b) always shows the local atmospheric pressure which may change with time
c) shows the standard atmospheric pressure, if it is of aneroid type
d) shows the local temperature if it of mercury column type
24. A U-tube manometer measures

a) absolute pressure at a point
b) local atmospheric pressure
c) difference in total energy between two points
d) difference in pressure between two points
25. A U-tube open at both ends and made of 8mm diameter glass tube has mercury in the
bottom to a height of 10 cm above the horizontal limb. If 19 cc of water is added to one the
limbs, the difference in mercury levels at equilibrium is
a) 3.0 cm
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b) 2.8 cm
c) 1.0 cm
d) zero
26. A cylindrical tank of 2m diameter is laid with its axis horizontal and is filled with water
just to its top. The force on one of its end plates is kN, is
a) 123.0
b) 61.51
c) 30.76
d) 19.58
27. The centre of buoyancy of a submerged body

a) coincides with the centre of gravity of the body
b) coincides with the centroid of the displaced volume of the fluid
c) is always below the centre of gravity of the body
d) is always above the centroid of the displaced volume of liquid
28. An object weighing 100N in air was found to weigh 75 N when fully submerged in water.
The relative density of the object is
a) 4.0
b) 4.5
c) 2.5
d) 1.25
29. An iceberg has 12% of its volume projecting above the surface of the sea. If the density of
sea water is 1025 kg/cu.m, the density of the iceberg is
a) 875 kg/cu.m
b) 1000 kg/cu.m
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c) 1148 kg/cu.m
d) 902 kg/cu.m
30. A metal block is thrown into a deep lake. As it sinks deeper in water, the buoyant force
acting on it
a) increases
b) remains the same
c) decreases
d) first increases and then decreases
31. When a block of ice floating on water in a container melts, the level of water in the
container
a) rises
b) first falls and then rises
c) remains the same
d) falls
32. When a ship enters sea from a river one can expect it
a) to rise a little
b) to sink a little
c) to remain at the same level of draft
d) to rise or fall depending on whether it is of wood or steel
33. Buoyant force is the

a) lateral force acting on a submerged body
b) resultant force acting on a submerged body
c) resultant hydrostatic force on a body due to fluid surrounding it
d) the resultant force due to water on a body
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34. If B=centre of buoyancy, G=is the centre of gravity and M=metacentre of a floating body,
the body will be in stable equilibrium if
a) MG=0
b) M is below G
c) BG=0
d) M is above G
35. A liquid undergoing a rigid body rotation in a container is said to have

a) circulatory flow
b) circulation
c) forced vertex motion
d) free vortex motion
36. The Flow of a liquid at a constant rate in a conically tapered pipe is classified as
a) steady, uniform flow
b) steady, non-uniform flow
c) unsteady, uniform flow
d) unsteady, non-uniform flow
37. A pathline is the

a) mean direction of a number of particles at the same instant of time
b) instantaneous picture of positions of all particles in the flow which passed a given point
c) trace made by a single particle over a period of time
d) path traced by continuously injected tracer at a point
38. A streamline is a line
224
a) which is normal to the velocity vector at every point

b) which represents lines of constant velocity potential
c) which is normal to the lines of constant stream function
d) which is tangential to the velocity vector everywhere at a given instant
39. In a steady flow

a) streamlines and pathlines are identical but are different from streakline
b) streakline and pathlines are identical but are different from streamlines
c) streamline, streakline and pathline can all be different from each other
40. In a rectangular channel 3m wide the depth of flow is 1.3m and the velocity is 1.6m/s. At
a hydraulic structure 1.24 m3/s of discharge is withdrawn and the canal width is reduced to
2.5m. The depth of flow in this section at a velocity of 1.5 m/s is
a) 1.21m
b) 1.00m
c) 1.33m
d) 1.66m
41. A flow has diverging straight streamlines. If the flow is steady, the flow
a) is a uniform flow with local acceleration
b) has convective normal acceleration
c) has convective tangential acceleration
d) has convective normal as well as tangential accelerations
42. A flow has parallel curved streamlines and is steady. This flow has
a) tangential convective acceleration
b) local acceleration
225
c) normal convective as well as local acceleration

d) normal convective acceleration
43. A velocity potential exists

a) whenever the real fluids flow exists
b) when the flow is real and rotational
c) when the flow satisfies the conditions of irrotational motion
d) when the flow satisfies the equations of continuity
44. If a stream function exists it implies that

a) the stream function represent a possible flow field
b) the flow is irrotational
c) the flow is steady, incompressible
d) the potential function also exists
45. Indicate the incorrect statement:
A flow net
a) is applicable to irrotational fluid flow

b) for a given boundary is the same whether the flow is in one direction or the other
c) for a given boundary is applicable to one chosen direction of flow; if the flow is reversed
the flow net will change
d) will be so constructed that the size of the mesh is inversely proportional to the local
velocity
46. Bernoulli equation is applicable between any two points

a) in any rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
226
b) in any type of irrotational flow of a fluid

c) in steady rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
d) in steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
47. The piezometric head of a flow is

a) the sum of the velocity head and datum head
b) the sum of the pressure head and velocity head
c) the sum of the pressure head and velocity head
d) the sum of the velocity head, pressure head and datum head
48. In a flow of a real fluid with no addition of energy

a) the energy line will be horizontal or sloping upward in the direction of the flow
b) the energy line can never be horizontal or sloping upward in the direction of the flow
c) the piezometric line can never be horizontal or sloping downward in the direction of the
flow
d) the centre line of the pipe can never be above the energy line
49. The total head in a flow is the sum of

a) potential head and datum head
b) piezometric head and pressure head
c) piezometric head and velocity head
d) piezometric head, velocity head and datum head
50. The difference between the total head line and the hydraulic grade line represents
a) the velocity head
b) the piezometric head
c) the pressure head
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d) the elevation head
51. In a pipeline the hydraulic grade line is above the pipe centre line is the longitudinal
section at point A and below the pipe centre line at another point B. From this it can be
inferred that
a) vaccum pressure prevail at B
b) vaccum pressure prevail at A
c) the flow is from A to B
d) the flow is from B to A
52. In a two-dimensional duct flow air flows in the bottom half of the duct with uniform
velocity and there is no flow in the upper half. The value of the kinetic energy correction
factor for this flow is
a) 2.0
b) 2.25
c) 4.0
d) 3.0
53. A 15 cm diameter pipe carries a flow of 70 lit/s of an oil (RD=0.75). At a section 12 cm

above the datum the pressure is vaccum of 2 cm of mercury. If the kinetic energy correction
factor for this section is 1.1,the total head at the section in meters of oil is
a) 0.648
b) 0.728
c) 0.557
d) 0.637
54. A nozzle direct a liquid jet at an angle of elevation 45 deg. The hydraulic grade line for
the jet
a) coincides with the centre line of the jet
b) will be horizontal at the level of the jet
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c) will be horizontal at the level of the energy line

d) coincides with the energy line
55. A pump delivers 50 L/s of water and delivers 7.5 kW of power to the system. The head
developed by the pump is
a) 7.5m
b) 5.0m
c) 1.53m
d) 15.32m
56. The linear momentum equation is based on

a) Newtons law of viscosity
b) Newtons first law
c) Newtons second law
d) Newtons third law
57. A control volume is

a) the volume of fluid flowing per unit of time
b) a volume fixed in space
c) the volume in which a control device is situated
d) the volume of the fluid controlling device
58. The line momentum equation is

a) scalar relation
b) an approximate relation for engineering analysis
c) a relation applicable to incompressible fluids only
d) a vector relation
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59. The linear momentum equation applied to a control volume in a flow through a nozzle
yielded the resultant reaction force R, on the fluid in the control volume. The force required
to keep the nozzle in position is
a) the same as R in magnitude and direction
b) equal to R but opposite in direction
c) equal to the x-component of R
d) equal to R minus the friction force
60. A jet of oil (R=0.8) has an area of 0.02 sq.m and a velocity of 10 m/s. If it strikes a plate
normally, the force exerted on the plate is
a) 1597 N
b) 1996 N
c) 15665 N
d) 19581 N
61. A water jet has an area of 0.03 sq.m and impinges normally on a plate. If a force of 1 kN
is produced as a result of this impact, the velocity of the jet, in m/s, is
a) 15
b) 33.4
c) 3.4
d) 5.78
62. A water jet 0.015 sq.m in area has a velocity of 15 m/s. If this jet impinges normally on a
plate which is moving at a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction of the jet, the force on the plate
due to this impact is
a) 3368 N
b) 2246 N
c) 14907 N
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d) 14686 N
63. A fire hose has a nozzle attached to it and the nozzle discharges a jet of water into the
atmosphere at 20 m/s. This places the joint of the nozzle
a) in compression
b) in tension
c) in a state of zero stress
d) in bending stresses
64. A two-dimensional jet strikes a fixed two-dimensional plane at 45 deg. To the normal to
the plane. This causes the jet to split into two streams whose discharges are in the ratio
a) 1.0
b) 2.41
c) 5.83
d) 1.414
65. The velocity distribution over one half of a cross section is uniform and is zero over the
remaining half. The momentum correction factor for this cross section is
a) 2.0
b) 4.0
c) 1.0
d) 3.0
66. Hydraulic grade line for flow in a pipe of constant diameter is

a) always above the centreline of the pipe
b) always above the energy grade line
c) always sloping downwards in the direction of the flow
d) coincides with the pipe centreline
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67. The minor loss due to sudden contraction is due to

a) flow contraction
b) expansion of flow after sudden contraction
c) boundary friction
d) cavitation
68. Minor losses in a pipe flow are those losses

a) which are insignificantly small
b) which can be neglected always
c) caused by local disturbance due to pipe fittings
d) caused by frictional resistance
69. Two identical pipes of length L, diameter D and friction factor f, are connected in series
between two reservoirs. The size of a pipe of length L and of the same friction factor f,
equivalent to the above pipes, is
a) 0.5D
b) 0.87D
c) 1.15D
d) 1.40D
70. Two identical pipes of length L, diameter D and friction factor f, are connected in parallel
between two reservoirs. The size of a pipe of length L and of the same friction factor f,
equivalent to the above pipes, is
a) 0.5D
b) 0.87D
c) 1.40D
d) 2.0D
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71. In using Darcy-Weisbach equation for flow in a pipe, the friction factor is misjudged by
+25%. The resulting error in the estimated discharge Q is
a) +25%
b) -16.67%
c) -5%
d) -12.5%
72. A pipeline connecting two reservoirs has its diameter reduced by 10% over a length of
time due to chemical deposit action. If the friction factor remains unaltered, for a given head
difference in the reservoirs this would reflect in a reduction in discharge of
a) 10%
b) 14.6%
c) 23.2%
d) 31.6%
73. Three pipes are connected in series. Then

a) the head loss in each pipe is the same
b) the total discharge is the sum of the discharges in the individual pipes
c) the discharge through each pipe is the same
d) the Reynolds number for each pipe is the same
74. The discharge Q in a pipe of know f is estimated by using the head loss hf in a length L
and diameter D. If an error of 1% is involved in the measurement of D, the corresponding
error in the estimation of Q is
a) 2.5%
b) 1.0%
c) 0.4%
d) 5%
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75. In a pipe network

a) the algebraic sum of discharges around each elementary circuit must be zero
b) the head at each node must be the same
c) the algebraic sum of the piezometric head drops around each elementary circuit is zero
d) the piezometric head loss in each line of a circuit is the same
76. The equations of motion for laminar flow of a real fluid are known as
a) Eulers equation
b) Bernoulli equation
c) Navier-Stokes equation
d) Hagen-Poiseuille equation
77. Identity the incorrect statement

a) Laminar flow is rotational
b) Loss of head in laminar flow in a pipe is proportional to square of the velocity
c) In laminar flow the friction factor f is directly proportional to the Reynolds number
d) In laminar flow in a conduit the shear stress varies linearly across the pipe
78. In a two-dimensional, steady, horizontal, uniform laminar flow the shear gradient in the
normal direction is equal to
a) the velocity gradient in the normal direction
b) the velocity gradient in the longitudinal direction
c) the pressure gradient in the normal direction
d) the pressure gradient in the direction of flow
79. An oil of kinematic viscosity 0.25 stokes flows through a pipe of diameter 10cm. The
flow is critical at a velocity of
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a) 7.2 m/s
b) 5.0 m/s
c) 0.5 m/s
d) 0.72 m/s
80. In a steady flow of an oil in a pipe in laminar regime the shear stress is
a) constant across the pipe
b) maximum at the centre and decreases parabolically towards the sides
c) zero at the boundary and increases linearly towards the centre
d) zero at the centre and increases linearly towards the boundary
81. Oil of viscosity 1.5 Pa.s and relative density 0.9 flows through a circular pipe of diameter
5cm with a mean velocity of 1.2 m/s. The shear stress at the wall in Pa is
a) 360
b) 288
c) 180
d) 144
82. In a circular pipe of certain length carrying oil at a Reynolds number 100, it is proposed
to triple the discharge. If the viscosity remains unchanged, the power input will have to be
a) decreased to 1/3 its original value
b) increased by 100%
c) increased to 3 times the original value
d) increased to 9 times its original value
83. The minimum value of friction factor f that can occur in laminar flow through a circular
pipe is
a) 0.025
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b) zero
c) . 0.064
d) 0.032
84. A 20cm diameter pipe carries a fluid of relative density 0.9. If the boundary shear stress
in the pipe is 0.50 Pa, the head loss in a length of 100m of the pipe line is
a) 11.35m
b) 4.54m
c) 0.36m
d) 9.08m
85. The friction factor f in a laminar pipe flow was found to be 0.04.The Reynolds number of
the flow was
a) 2000
b) 1000
c) 800
d) 1600
86. Uniform flow in a channel is characterised by the following statement:

a) Total energy remains constant along the channel
b) Gradient of the total energy is parallel to the channel bed
c) Specific energy decreases along the channel
d) The total energy line either rises or falls depending upon the Froude number
87. Uniform flow in an open channel exists when the flow is steady and the
a) channel is frictionless
b) channel is non-prismatic
c) channel is prismatic
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d) channel is prismatic and the depth of flow is constant along the channel
88. In defining a Froude number applicable to channels of any shape, the length parameter
used is the
a) depth of flow
b) hydraulic radius
c) ratio of area to top width
d) wetted perimeter
89. The flow can be uniform in

a) a non-prismatic channel
b) a wide rectangular channel
c) a horizontal trapezoidal channel
d) a frictionless rectangular channel
90. The term alternate depths in open channel flow is used to designate the depths
a) at the beginning and end of hydraulic jump
b) having the same kinetic energy for a given discharge
c) having the same specific energy for a given discharge
d) at the beginning and end of a gradually varied flow profile
91. Which of the following is not a dimensionless number:

a) Darcy-Weisbach friction factor f
b) Coefficient of drag Cd
c) Mannings coefficient n
d) coefficient of velocity Cv
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92. Which of the following is a dimensionless number:

a) Mannings coefficient n
b) Pipe friction factor f
c) Chezy coefficient C
d) Hazen-William coefficient CH
93. Dynamic similarity is said to exist between two fluids flows when at corresponding points
there are
a) geometrical similarity and similarity of forces involved
b) kinematic similarity and dynamic similarity
c) interaction of inertia and viscous forces
d) interaction between inertia, viscous and pressure forces
94. In hydraulic modelling of flow pattern around a body submerged in a fluid the nondimensional number which has to be kept the same in the model and prototype is
a) Weber number
b) Froude number
c) Reynolds number
d) Strouhal number
95. The fall velocity of a sand grain in water is to be modelled by using particles of the same
relative density as sand and a liquid whose kinematic viscosity is 100 times larger than that of
water. The diameters of the particles in the model that will have the same fall velocity as the
prototype will be
a) 10 times smaller
b) 10 times larger
c) 100 times smaller
d) 100 times larger
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96. The drag force on a body

a) is the net frictional force on the body
b) is the net pressure force on the body
c) is the component of the resultant force in the direction of the relative velocity
d) is the component of the resultant force in a direction perpendicular to the direction of
gravity
97. The lift force on a body

a) is due to buoyant force
b) is always in the direction of the gravity
c) is the component of the resultant force in a vertical directions
d) is the component of the resultant force in a direction normal to relative velocity
98. In calculating the drag force using CD the area used is

a) always the frontal area
b) the planform area when the body is flat like an airfoil
c) the planform area when the body is bluff like a sphere
d) always the planform area
99. Pressure drag results due to

a) formation of wake
b) turbulence in the wake
c) existence of stagnation point in the front of a body
d) high Reynolds number
100. A streamlined body with a round nose and a tapering back is generally best suited for
a) creeping motion
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b) turbulent sub-sonic flow

c) supersonic flow
d) laminar flow with low Reynolds number
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FLUID MECHANICS
1. The bulk modulus of elasticity for a liquid, K

a) is a function of both temperature and pressure
b) at any given temperature decreases continuously with pressure
c) at any pressure increases continuously with temperature
d) is a constant
2. The predominant fluid property associated with cavitation phenomenon is,

a) Surface tension
b) Vapour pressure
c) Mass density
d) Bulk modulus of elasticity
3. A rectangular plate 0.75mx2.4m is immersed in a liquid of relative density 0.85 with its
0.75m side horizontal and just at the water surface. If the plane of the plate makes an angle of
60 deg. With the horizontal, the pressure force on one side of the plate in kN is,
a) 15.6
b) 7.8
c) 24.0
d) 18.0
4. An object weights 50N in water and 80N in an oil of relative density 0.80. Its volume in
litres is
a) 15.3
b) 60.0
c) 30.6
d) 50.0
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5. Lines of constant stream function

a) are parallel streamlines
b) are parallel to the streamlines
c) are normal to the streamlines
d) can intersect each other
6. The potential function exist for

a) irrotional motion of incompressible fluids only
b) irrotational motion of fluids whether compressible or incompressible
c) for two-dimensional irrotational flow only
d) for steady flows only
7. In a siphon the summit is 4m above the water level in the reservoir from which the flow is
being discharged out. If the head loss from the inlet of the siphon to the summit is 2m and the
velocity head at the summit is 0.5n the pressure at the summit is
a) -63.64 kPa
b) -9.0m of water
c) 6.5m of water (abs)
d) -39.16 kPa
8. Two pipelines of equal length and diameter of 20 cm and 30 cm respectively are connected
in parallel between two reservoirs. If the friction actor f is the same for both the pipes, the
ration of the discharges in the smaller to the larger size of the pipe is
a) 0.363
b) 0.444
c) 0.667
d) 0.137
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9. In a pipeline design the usual practice is to assume that due to aging

a) the effective factor increases linearly with time
b) the friction factor increases linearly with time
c) the pipe become smoother with time
d) the friction factor decreases linearly with time
10. The pressure drop in an 8 cm horizontal pipe is 75 kPa in a distance of 15m. The shear
stress at the pipe wall, in kPa is
a) 0.2
b) 2.0
c) 5.0
d) 0.4
11. The Reynolds number for the flow of oil in a certain pipe is 640. The Darcy-Weisbach
friction factor f for the flow is
a) 0.02
b) 0.01
c) 0.1
d) 0.064
12. The sequent depths in a hydraulic jump formed in a 4.0m wide rectangular channel are
0.2m and 1.0m. The discharge in the channel in cumecs is
a) 5.00
b) 1.12
c) 2.17
d) 4.34
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13. In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel the sequent depths are
0.25m and 1.25m. The energy loss in this jump is
a) 0.8m
b) 1.0m
c) 1.25m
d) 1.50m
14. In an automobile travelling at 60 km/h the power expended in overcoming wind

resistance in 1.5 kN. If the automobile travels in 90 km/h the power expended in overcoming
wind resistance in kW is
a) 2.25
b) 3.38
c) 5.06
d) 7.59
15. In the flow past bluff bodies

a) the frictional drag is larger than the pressure drag
b) the pressure drag forms considerably large portion of the total drag
c) total drag is considerably smaller than that for a corresponding streamlined body
d) frictional drag forms considerably large portion of the drag
16. In a fluid flow, point A is at a higher elevation than point B. The head loss between these
points is HL. The total heads at A and B are Ha and Hb respectively. The flow will takes
place
a) from A to B if Ha+HL=Hb
b) from B to A if Ha+HL=Hb
c) from B to A if Ha+HL=Hb
d) always from A to B
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17. In a siphon the summit is 4m above the water level in the reservoir from which the flow is
being discharged out. If the head loss from the inlet of the siphon to the summit is 2m and the
velocity head at the summit is 0.5m the pressure at the summit is
a) -63.64 kPa
b) -9.0m of water
c) 6.5m of water (abs)
d) -39.16 kPa
18. In a turbulent pipe flow, inside the laminar boundary layer the velocity distribution is
a) parabolic
b) linear
c) logarithmic
d) exponential decay type
19. In a turbulent flow through a pipe the centreline velocity is 3.61 m/s and the friction
factor f=0.002. The mean velocity of the flow in m/s is
a) 4.80
b) 3.00
c) 2.21
d) 0.96
20. The head loss in 100m length of a 0.1m diameter pipe (f=0.02) carrying water is 10m.
The boundary shear stress, in kPa, is
a) 9.79
b) 0.298
c) 0.1958
d) 0.0245
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Fundamentals of Manufacturing Processes
1. A cube shaped casting solidifies in 5 minutes. The solidificaiton time of the cube of same
material which is 8 times heavier than the original casting, will be,
a) 10 min
b) 20 min
c) 24 min
d) 40 min
2. Two cubes of same material and size are cast using the sand casting process. The top face
of one cube is completely insulated. The ratio of the solidification time of the cube with top
face insulated to the other cube is,
a) 25/36
b) 36/25
c) 1
d) 6/5
3. While cooling, a cubical casting of side 40mm undergoes 3%, 4% and 5% volume
shrinkage during liquid state, phase transition state and solid state, respectively. The volume
of metal compensation from the riser is
a) 2%
b) 7%
c) 8%
d) 9%
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4. Two streams of liquid metal which are not hot enough to fuse properly result in to a casting
defect known as
a) cold shut
b) swell
c) sand wash
d) scab
5. In a gating system, the ratio 1:2:4 represents

a) Sprue base area: runner area: ingate area
b) Pouring basin area: ingate area: runner area
c) Sprue base area:ingate area:casting area
d) Runner area: ingate area: casting area
6. A solid cylinder of diameter 100mm and height 50mm is forged between two frictionless
flat dies to a height of 25mm. The percentage change in diameter is
a) 0
b) 2.01
c) 20.7
d) 41.4
7. The welding process which uses a blanket of fusible granular flux is

a) Tungsten inert gas welding
b) Submerged arc welding
c) Electroslag welding
d) Thermit welding
8. In a full-mould (cavity-less) casting process, the pattern is made of

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a) Expanded polystyrene
b) Wax
c) Epoxy
d) Plaster of paris
9. A strip with a cross section of 150mm x 4.5 mm is being rolled with 20% reduction of area
using 450mm diameter rolls. The angle subtended by the deformation zone at the roll center
in radians, is,
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.03
d) 0.06
10. In deep drawing of sheets, the values of limiting draw ratio depends on
a) Percentage elongation of sheet metal
b) Yield strength of sheet metal
c) Type of press used
d) Thickness of sheet
1. When a metal is specified as tough in the part drawing, the manufacturing engineer
should understand that this metal:
a) resists grinding
b) does not deform plastically but breaks into pieces when stressed
c) dulls tools almost immediately
d) resists being broken or deformed by mechanical shock forces
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2. This process recognizes the inherent interrelationships between design and manufacturing:
a) Design for manufacture
b) Design for manufacture and assembly
c) Design for concurrent engineering
d) Design for assembly
3. This is a solid shape that fits inside the mold and forms a hole in a cooled cast metal or
molten plastic object:
a) Core
b) Cavity
c) Prototype
d) Hole mold
4. When a metal is specified as hard, then the manufacturing engineer should understand
that :
a) the metal resists indentation
b) penetration and scratching
c) the same thing as toughness
d) the metal can deform plastically
5. Which of the following is the best engineering plastics material that has high tensile
strength, high compressive strength, with minimal elongation to use for a product that will be
injection molded?
a) polycarbonate
b) polystyrene
c) phenolic
d) epoxy
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6. The best process for making a kitchen drawer divider tray out of plastic sheets is:
a) pultrusion
b) thermoforming
c) compression forming
d) blow molding
7. A turning operation is to be done on a piece of alloy steel that has a diameter of 90mm. If
the depth of cut is set at 3.175 mm, the feed is set at 0.30 mm per revolution, and the
recommended cutting speed using a carbide tool is 90 meters per minute, what rotational
speed you will set on the machine, from the following available speeds on machine, in rpm?
a) 118
b) 218
c) 318
d) 418
8. The purpose of a riser in a mold is

a) to help raise the mold from the floor while preparing the mold
b) to do a function same as the cope while preparing the mold
c) to enhance the draft
d) to feed liquid metal into the body of casting as it solidifies
9. Emulsified oils which are used in machine shop are

a) high in sulphur content
b) mixture of oil and water used for lubricating and cooling
c) lubricating oils diluted with naphta, kerosene or other petroleum-base solvents.
d) oils that have degraded over time
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10. Chills are used in moulds to
a) reduce the possibility of blow holes

b) achieve directional solidification
c) reduce freezing time
d) smoothen metal flow for reducing splatter
11. In foundry work, a runner is which one of the following:

a) channel in the mold leading from the downsprue to the main mold cavity
b) foundryman who moves the hot molten metal from the furnace to the mold
c) vertical channel into which the metal is poured into the mold from a laddle
12. Total solidification time is defined as which one of the following:

a) time between pouring and
complete solidification
b) time between pouring and cooling to room temperature
c) time between solidification and cooling to room temperature
d) time to give up the heat of fusion
13. Chvorinov's rule states that total solidification time is proportional to which one of the
following quantities? ( where A = surface area of casting, Hf = heat of fusion, Tm = melting
temperature, and V = volume of casting, X^y means X raised to power y)
a) (A / V)^n
b) Hf
c) Tm
d) V
e) V/A
f) (V/A)^2
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14. In a sand-casting mold, the V/A ratio of the riser should be

a) equal to the V/A ratio of the casting itself
b) greater than the V/A ratio of the casting itself
c) smaller than the V/A ratio of the casting itself
15. In sand casting, the volumetric size of the pattern is

a) bigger than the cast part
b) same size as the cast part
c) smaller than the cast part
16. Given that Wm = weight of the molten metal displaced by a core and Wc = weight of the
core, the buoyancy force is which one of the following?
a) downward force = Wm + Wc
b) downward force =Wm - Wc
c) upward force = Wm + Wc
d) upward force = Wm - Wc
17. Which of the following materials require largest shrinkage allowance while making a
pattern for a casting?
a) Plain Carbon steel
b) Aluminum
c) Brass
d) Cast Iron
18. Disposable patterns are made of

a) wood
b) rubber
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c) polystyrene
d) metal
19. Shrinkage allowance on pattern is provided to compensate for shrinkage when

a) temperature of metal drops from pouring to room temperature
b) metal changes from liquid state to solid state at freezing temperature
c) temperature of solid phase drops from freezing temperature to room temperature
d) temperature of liquid metal drops from pouring to freezing temperature of the metal
20. The purpose of chaplets in a mould is to

a) provide venting
b) induce directional solidification
c) compensate for shrinkage from pouring temperature to freezing temperature
d) to support the core
21. In sand molding, core prints are used to

a) strengthen the core so that it will not crumble while pouring
b) form seat to support and hold the core in place
c) fabricate the core
22. In sand molding draft is provided on the

a) casting
b) cavity
c) pattern
23. Shell moulding requires

a) Wooden patterns
253
b) Sand patterns
c) Metal patterns
d) Polystyrene patterns
24. In a casting process, fluidity is mostly influenced by

a) melting temperature
b) tapping temperature
c) pouring temperature
d) solidification temperature
25. Sprue in sand casting refers to

a) gate
b) runner
c) riser
d) vertical passage
26. In sand molding there is no need to provide one of the following allowance, it is
a) Shrinkage allowance
b) draft allowance
c) distortion allowance
d) machining allowance
27. In sand molding, a slick refers to

a) a round sieve
b) a long, flat metal plate fitted with an offset handle
c) used to make or repair corners in the mould
d) used to scoop sand deep in the mould
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28. The purpose of sprue is to

a) feed the cavity at a rate consistent with the rate of solidification
b) act as a reservoir for molten metal
c) help feed the casting until the solidification takes place
d) feed molten metal from pouring basin to gate
29. In sand mold, the purpose of gate is to

b) act a a reservoir for molten metal
c) help feed the casting until all solidification takes place
d) feed molten metal from pouring basin to the gate
30. The purpose of riser is to

b) act as a reservoir for molten metal
c) help feed the casting until solidification takes place
d) feed molten metal from pouring basin to gate
31. Preheating of parent metal plates before welding is done to

a) make the steel softer
b) burn away oil, grease, etc from the plate surface
c) prevent cold cracks
d) prevent plate distortions
32. Metal better weldable with itself is

a) stainless steel
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b) copper
c) bronze
d) mild steel
33. Metal which can be suitable welded by TIG welding is

a) aluminum
b) stainless steel
c) pure titanium
d) aluminum, stainless steel and pure titanium
34. Main advantage of MIG welding (GMAW) over TIG welding is that
a) the former can be used to weld hard metals
b) former permits use of large currents there by allowing higher deposition
c) welding rate is very fast
d) welding is completely automatic
35. Thermit welding is

a) a process which uses a mixture of iron oxide and granular aluminum
b) accomplished by maintaining a hot molten metal pool between plates
c) a process in which arc is maintained under a blanket of flux
d) not a welding process
36. Submerged arc welding is

b) accomplished by maintaining a hot molten metal pool between the plates
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37. In gas welding, maximum temperature occurs at

a) the tip of flame
b) the inner cone
c) next to the inner cone
d) at the outer cone
38. Temperature of the plasma torch is of the order of

a) 1000 deg C
b) 5000 deg C
c) 10000 deg C
d) 30000 deg C
39. In reverse polarity welding

a) electrode holder is connected to negative polarity and the work to the positive poloarity
b) electrode holder is connected to positive polarity and the work to the negative polarity
c) work is positive and the holder is earthed
d) holder is positive and the work is earthed
40. Amperage setting in the electric arc welding (SMAW) depends on

a) work thickness
b) arc gap
c) electrode rod diameter
41. Consumable electrode is used in the following welding process: a) TIG

b) MIG(GMAW)
c) Thermit
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d) LBM
42. Ratio of oxygen to acetylene for complete combustion is

a) 1:1
b) 1.5:1
c) 2:1
d) 2.5:1
43. If two pieces of different metals are to be welded by projection welding, then the
projection should be done on the metal piece having
a) higher conductivity
b) lower conductivity
c) same conductivity
44. Multi spot welding is infact a

a) seam welding
b) projection welding
c) thermit welding
d) percussion welding
45. Meterial difficult to be spot welded is

a) stainless steel
b) copper
c) mild steel
46. In fusion welding, porosity defect is due to

a) high welding speed
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b) low welding speed

c) wrong size of electrode
d) poor base metal
47. Voltage during the arc-striking compared to the voltage during welding in electric arc
welding is
a) same
b) more
c) less
d) unpredictable
48. The weld pool is surrounded by an inert gas in

a) arc welding (SMAW)
b) carbon arc welding
c) MIG(GMAW)
d) submerged arc welding
49. Filler metal is used in

a) electric spot welding
b) electric arc welding
c) projection welding
50. Electroslag welding is

b) accomplished by maintaining a hot molten metal pool between plates
d) there is nothing called electro slag welding
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51. Arc length in an arc welding should be equal to

a) half the diameter of the electrode rod
b) diameter of the electrode rod
c) twice the diameter of the electrode rod
d) 2.5 times the electrode rod diameter
52. Filler material is essentially used in

a) gas welding
b) spot welding
c) seam welding
53. Grey iron is generally welded by

a) gas welding
b) arc welding
c) TIG welding
d) MIG welding
54. Copper is
a) easily spot welded
b) very difficult to be spot welded
c) suitable for spot welding just as anyother metal
d) preferred to be welded by spot welding
55. In electrical resistance welding

a) voltage is high and current is low
b) voltage if low and current is high
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c) both voltage and current are high

d) both voltage and current are low
56. An example of plastic welding is

a) arc welding
b) gas welding
c) forge welding
57. In sintering stage of powder metallurgy, which of the following process take place?
a) all the pores reduce in size
b) the powder particles fuse and join together
c) Particles do not meet, but a bond is formed between them
d) some of the pores grow
58. In production of precision components, the use of powder metallurgy technique mainly
reduces
a) material cost
b) machining cost
c) equipment cost
d) tool-related costs
59. Widely used metal powder production method for powder metallurgy is
a) crushing using impact
b) liquid metal spray
c) electrolytic deposition
60. One of the process used to manufacture crankshafts is
261
a) cold heading
b) casting
c) pressure die casting
d) investment casting
61. Most suitable process for manufacturing carburettor body is

a) cold heading
b) casting
62. Most suitable process for manufacturing nails is

a) cold heading
b) casting
63. Extrusion process can effectively reduce the cost of production through
a) in-process tooling costs
b) material saving
c) saving in adminstrative cost
64. Major problem in hot extrusion is

a) design of punch
b) design of die
c) wear and tear of die
d) wear of punch
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65. An extrusion process is not the process where

a) complex sections are extruded from bar stocks
b) good surface finish and close tolerances are achievable
c) strength of finished product is improved if done in cold working
d) pulling foces are involved
66. Upsetting or cold heading is a

a) rolling process
b) extrusion process
c) bending process
d) forging process
67. Material good for extrusion is

a) stainless steel
b) brass casting
c) low carbon annealed steel
d) low carbon work hardened steel
68. Seam less tube can be produced by

a) two high rolling mill
b) ring rolling combined with stretch forming
c) piercing
d) steam hammer forging
69. A tooth paste tube can be produced by

a) solid forward extrusion
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b) solid backward extrusion

c) hollow backward extrusion
d) hollow forward extrusion
70. Rolling process can not be used to produce

a) a T section bar
b) a hollow circular section
c) a channel section bar
d) an I-section bar
71. Bottom side of the sheet (tension side) do not have any contact with the die in
a) V-bending
b) air bending
c) wipe bending
72. Stretch forming is a process in which

a) all deformations occur in the direction of stretch
b) all forces are applied in the direction of stretch
c) Plastic state induced due to stretch is exploited
d) no dies are used
73. Advantage of cold forming is

a) grain refinement takes place
b) strength and hardness increase
c) no subsequent heat treatent is needed
d) force required is relatively small
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74. Close dimensional tolerances are maintained in cold formed parts because
a) dies are made of exact dimensions
b) no shrinkage occurs
c) strength increases
d) higher deforming force is applied
75. Effect associated with the parts that are cold formed is
a) shrinkage
b) strain hardening
c) surface decoloring
d) surface roughness
76. Which of the following machine part is not cold-formed?

a) Food container
b) stainless steel vessel
c) crankshaft
d) heating duct
77. In sheet metal press operation, the size of the blanked part is dependent on the size of the
a) punch
b) die
c) average of punch and die
d) die plus clearance
78. Which of the following processes start with a material that is in a fluid or semifluid state
and solidifies the material in a cavity (two best answers):
a) casting
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b) forging
c) machining
d) molding
e) pressing
79. Which one of the following engineering materials is defined as a compound containing
metallic and nonmetallic elements:
a) ceramic
b) composite
c) metal
d) polymer
80. Deformation processes include which of the following (two correct answers):
a) casting
b) drilling
c) extrusion
d) forging
e) milling
81. Which one of the following is a machine used to perform extrusion:

a) forge hammer
b) milling machine
c) rolling mill
d) press
e) torch
82. Which of the following metals are used as the matrix material in fiber-reinforced MMCs
(two best answers):
266
a) aluminum
b) copper
c) iron
d) magnesium
e) zinc
83. Ceramic matrix composites are designed to overcome which of the following weaknesses
of ceramics (two best answers):
a) compressive strength
b) hardness
c) hot hardness
d) modulus of elasticity
e) tensile strength
f) toughness
84. Which one of the following polymer types are most commonly used in polymer matrix
composites:
a) elastomers
b) thermoplastics
c) thermosets
85. In glass working, a lehr is which of the following:

a) a lion's den
b) a melting furnace
c) a sintering furnace
d) an annealing furnace
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86. Which of the following are sections of a conventional extruder barrel for thermoplastics?
(three best answers):
a) compression section
b) die section
c) feed section
d) heating section
e) metering section
f) shaping section
87. Which two of the following are the principal components of an injection molding
machine?
a) clamping unit
b) hopper
c) injection unit
d) mold
e) part ejection unit
88. In rotational molding, centrifugal force is used to force the polymer melt against the
surfaces of the mold cavity where solidification occurs:
a) true
b) false
89. Hand lay-up is classified in which of the following general categories of PMC shaping
processes (two best answers)?:
a) closed mold process
b) compression molding
c) contact molding
d) filament winding
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e) open mold process
90. Copper is a relatively easy metal to weld because its thermal conductivity is high:
a) true
b) false
91. Metals that are easiest to weld in resistance welding are ones that have low resistivities
since low
resistivity assists in the flow of electrical current:
a) true
b) false
92. Which one of the following arc-welding processes produces the highest temperatures?
a) CAW
b) PAW
c) SAW
d) TIG
93. MIG welding is a term sometimes applied when referring to which one of the following
processes?
a) SMAW
b) GMAW
c) GTAW
d) SAW
94. Which of the following processes are classified as fusion welding (three correct
answers)?:
a) electrogas welding
269
b) electron-beam welding
c) explosion welding
d) forge welding
e) laserbeam welding
f) ultrasonic welding
95. Welding can only be performed on metals that have the same melting point; otherwise,
the metal
with the lower melting temperature always melts while the other metal remains solid:
a) true
b) false
96. The holding force in cup-drawing is most likely to be

a) greater than the maximum cup-drawing force
b) equal to the maximum cup-drawing force
c) less than the maximum cup-drawing force
97. Which of the following processes are classified as high-energy-rate forming processes
(two best answers):
a) electrochemical machining
b) electromagnetic forming
c) electron beam cutting
d) explosive forming
e) Guerin process
f) hydroforming
g) redrawing
h) shear spinning
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98. Which of the following are variations of sheet-metal-bending operations (two best
answers):
a) flanging
b) hemming
c) ironing
d) notching
e) shear spinning
f) trimming
g) tube bending
99. Springback in a sheet-metal-bending operation is the result of which one of the

following?:
a) elastic modulus of the metal
b) elastic recovery of the metal
c) overbending
d) overstraining
e) yield strength of the metal
100. Which one of the following is the best definition of bend allowance?:
a) amount by which the die is larger than the punch
b) amount of elastic recovery experienced by the metal after bending
c) safety factor used in calculating bending force
d) length of the straight sheetmetal section to be bent, before bending
1. Directional solidification in castings can be improved using

271
a) chills and chaplets

b) chills and padding
c) chaplets and padding
d) chills, chaplets and padding
2. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to

a) very high pouring temperature of the metal
b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal.
d) improper alignment of the mould flasks
3. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

(1) Pit moulding...for large jobs
(2) Investment casting...Lost wax process
(3) Plaster moulding...Mould prepared in gypsum
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
4. If the melting ratio of a cupola is 10:1, then the coke requirement for one ton melt will be
a) 0.1 ton
b) 10 tons
c) 1 ton
d) 11 tons
5. Which of the following are the requirements of an ideal gating system?

272
1.The molten metal should enter the mould cavity with maximum possible velocity.
2. It should facilitate complete filling of the mould cavity.
3. It should be able to prevent the flowing molten metal from absorbing the air or gases from
surroundings
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
6. A spherical drop of molten metal of radius 2 mm is found to solidify in 10 seconds. A

similar drop of radius 4 mm would solidify in
a) 14.14 seconds
b) 20 seconds
c) 18.3 seconds
d) 40 seconds
7. During solidification of a casting, the compensation for solid contraction is

a) Provided by the oversize pattern
b) Achieved by properly placed risers.
c) Obtained by promoting direction solidification.
d) Made by providing chills
8. The main purpose of chaplets is

a) To ensure directional solidification
b) To provide efficient venting
c) For aligning the mould boxes
d) To support the cores
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9. Which one of the following processes produce a casting where the pressure forces the
molten metal into the mould cavity?
a) Shell moulding
b) Investment casting
c) Die casting
d) Continuous casting
10. Shell moulding can be used for

a) producing milling cutters
b) making gold ornaments
c) producing heavy and thick walled casting
d) producing thin casting
11. In liquid-state welding process, the zones formed are

a) gas sheilded zone, fusion zone, and unaffected original base metal zone
b) liquid zone, fusion zone and heat afftected unmelted zone
c) liquid-shielded zone, gas-shielded zone and flux-metal reactive zone
d) fusion zone, heat affected unmelted zone and unaffected original base metal zone
12. Weldability depends on

a) Thermal conductivity and Surface condition only
b) Thermal conductivity and Change in microstructure only.
c) Thermal conductivity, Surface condition and Change in microstructure
d) Surface condition and Change in microstructure only
13. The advantage of metal welding process is

a) It relieves the joint from residual stresses
274
b) It helps in checking of distortion of work piece

c) Large number of metals and alloys, both similar and / or dissimilar can be joined
d) Heat produced during the welding does not produce metallurgical changes
14. Brittle welds are mainly obtained due to

a) Wrong electrode, faulty prheating and metal hardened by air
b) Faulty welds, faulty sequence and rigid joints
c) Wrong welding speed, current improperly adjusted and faulty preparation
d) Uneven heat, improper sequence and deposited metal shrinks
15. Which of the following factors improves weldability of steel?

a) Low carbon content and Good affinity to oxygen
b) High carbon content and Good affinity to oxygen
c) Low carbon content and Poor affinity to oxygen
d) High carbon content and Poor affinity to oxygen
16. In arc welding, the arc length should be equal to

a) 4.5 times the rod diameter
b) 3 times the rod diameter
c) 1.5 times the rod diameter
d) Rod diameter
17. In an inert gas welding process, the commonly used gas is

a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Helium or Argon
d) Krypton
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18. Good example for the application of friction welding can be

a) Uniting large-area sheets
b) Welding a rod to a flat surface
c) Fabrication of nuclear reactor components
d) Welding of very thin metal parts
19. By which of the following welding process, gray-iron is usally welded?

a) TIG welding (GTAW)
b) MIG welding (GMAW)
c) Gas welding
d) Arc welding
20. Best example for the application of explosive welding is

a) Welding a rod to a flat surface
b) Fabrication of nuclear reactor components
c) Welding very thin metal parts
d) Uniting large-area sheets
21. A toothpaste tube can be produced by

a) solid forward extrusion
b) solid backward extrusion
c) hallow backward extrusion
d) solid forward extrusion
22. In hot die forging, thin layer of material all around the forging is
a) gutter space, which fills up hot gases
276
b) flash, the width of ti is an indicator of the pressure developed in the cavity

c) coining, which indicates the quality of forging
d) cavity, which is filled with hot impurities in the material
23. Extrusion process can effectively reduce the cost of product through
a) Material saving
b) Process time saving
c) Saving in tooling cost
d) Saving in adminstrative cost
24. Which of the following is a high energy rate forming process?

a) Roll forming
b) Electrohydraulic forming
c) Rotary forging
d) Forward extrusion
25. Which of the folowing stresses is involved in wire drawing process?

a) Compressive only
b) Tensile only
c) A combination of tensile and compressive stresses
d) A combination of tensile, compressive and shear stresses
26. Which one of the following is NOT a high energy rate forming process?
a) Electro-magnetic
b) Roll-forming
c) Explosive forming
d) Electro-hydraulic forming
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27. Which of the following metal forming process is used for manufacture of long steel wire?
a) Deep drawing
b) Drawing
c) Forging
d) Extrusion
28. Which of the following properties do the hydrostatic pressure in extrusion process
improve
a) Ductility
b) Compressive strength
c) Brittleness
d) Tensile strength
29. The process of removing burrs or flash from a forged component in drop forging is called
a) Swaging
b) Peroforating
c) Trimming
d) Fettling
30. In a forging operation, fullering is done to

a) draw out the material
b) bend the material
c) upset the material
d) extrude the material
31. In the rolling process, roll separating force can be decreased by
278
a) reducing the roll diameter

b) increasing the roll diameter
c) providing back-up rolls
d) increasing friction between the rolls and the material
32. Best position of crank for blanking operation in a mechanical press is

a) top dead centre
b) 20 degrees below the tdc
c) 20 degrees before the bottom dead centre
d) bottom dead centre
33. Which of the following is the correct temperature range for hot extrusion of aluminium?
a) 300-400 deg C
b) 350-400 deg C
c) 430-480 deg C
d) 550-600 deg C
34. Which of the following metal forming process is associated with the term 'camber'?
a) Drawing
b) Rolling
c) Wire drawing
d) Sheet metal forming
35. Which of the following metal forming process has the associated term 'Pilots'?
a) Drawing
b) Rolling
c) wire drawing
279
36. Which one of the following metal forming process has the associated term 'soap
solutions'?
a) Drawing
b) Rolling
c) Wire drawing
37. Which one of the following is an advantage of the forging process?

a) Good surface finish
b) Low tooling cost
c) Close tolerance
d) Improved physical property
38. In the wire drawing process, a bright shining surface on the output wire is obtained if one
a) is not using a lubricant
b) is using a lubricant
c) uses thick paste lubricant
d) uses thin fluid lubricant
39. The defect 'chevron cracks' is associated with the following metal forming process,
a) Drawing
b) Extrusion
c) Sheet metal forming
d) forging
280
40. Metal surfaces having higher hardness & fatigue strength can best be obtained by
a) Roll forming
b) Shot peening
c) Forging
d) Cold forming
281
Heat and Mass Transfer
1. The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of

a) temperature and pressure
b) volume and pressure
c) volume and pressure
d) temperature only
2. Consider one-dimensional steady state heat conduction, without heat generation, in a plane
wall; with boundary conditions as shown in the figure below. The conductivity of the wall is
given by k = k0 + bT ; where k0 and b are positive constants, and T is temperature.
As x increases, the temperature gradient ( dT/dx ) will
a) remain constant
b) be zero
c) increase
d) decrease
3. Consider one-dimensional steady state heat conduction along x-axis (0 x L), through a
plane wall with the boundary surfaces (x=0 and x=L) maintained at temperatures of 0C and
100C. Heat is generated uniformly throughout the wall. Choose the CORRECT statement.
a) The direction of heat transfer will be from the surface at 100C to the surface at 0C.
b) The maximum temperature inside the wall must be greater than 100C.
c) The temperature distribution is linear within the wall.
d) The temperature distribution is symmetric about the mid-plane of the wall.
4. A steel ball of diameter 60 mm is initially in thermal equilibrium at 1030C in a furnace. It

is suddenly removed from the furnace and cooled in ambient air at 30C, with convective
heat transfer coefficient h = 20 W/m2K. The thermo-physical properties of steel are: density
= 7800 kg/m3, conductivity k = 40 W/mK and specific heat c = 600 J/kgK. The time
required in seconds to cool the steel ball in air from 1030C to 430C is
282
a) 519
b) 931
c) 1195
d) 2144
5. Two large diffuse gray parallel plates, separated by a small distance, have surface
temperatures of 400 K and 300 K. If the emissivities of the surfaces are 0.8 and the StefanBoltzmann constant is 5.67 10-8W/m2K4, the net radiation heat exchange rate in kW/m2
between the two plates is
a) 0.66
b) 0.79
c) 0.99
d) 0.87
6. Which one of the following configurations has the highest fin effectiveness?
a) Thin, closely spaced fins
b) Thin, widely spaced fins
c) Thick, widely spaced fins
d) Thick, closely spaced fins
7. Water (Cp = 4.18 kJ/kg.K) at 80C enters a counterflow heat exchanger with a mass flow
rate of 0.5 kg/s. Air (Cp = 1kJ/kg.K) enters at 30C with a mass flow rate of 2.09 kg/s. If the
effectiveness of the heat exchanger is 0.8, the LMTD (in C) is
a) 7
b) 4
c) 10
d) 8
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8. In a condenser of a power plant, the steam condenses at a temperature of 60oC. The

cooling water enters at 30C and leaves at 45C. The logarithmic mean temperature
difference (LMTD) of the condenser is
a) 16.2 C
b) 21.6 C
c) 30 C
d) 37.5 C
9. A pipe of 25 mm outer diameter carries steam. The heat transfer coefficient between the
cylinder and surroundings is 5 W/m2 K. It is proposed to reduce the heat loss from the pipe
by adding insulation having a thermal conductivity of 0.05 W/mK. Which one of the
following statements is TRUE?
a) The outer radius of the pipe is equal to the critical radius
b) The outer radius of the pipe is less than the critical radius
c) Adding the insulation will reduce the heat loss
d) Adding the insulation will increase the heat loss
10. A spherical steel ball of 12 mm diameter is initially at 1000 K. It is slowly cooled in a

surrounding of 300K. The heat transfer coefficient between the steel ball and the surrounding
is 5 W/m2 K. The thermal conductivity of steel is 20 W/mK. The temperature difference
between the centre and the surface of the steel ball is
a) large because conduction resistance is far higher than the convective resistance
b) large because conduction resistance is far less than the convective resistance
c) small because conduction resistance is far higher than the convective resistance
d) small because conduction resistance is far less than the convective resistance
284
Heat and Mass Transfer - MEE303
1. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and size are heated to the same
temperature and allowed to cool in the same surroundings. If the temperature difference
between the body and that of the surrounding is T, then
a) The hollow sphere will cool at a faster rate for all the values of T
b) Both the spheres will cool at the same rate for small values of T
c) Both the spheres will cool at the same rate for all values of T
d) The solid sphere will cool at a faster rate for all the values of T
2. A furnace is made of a red brick wall of thickness 0.5 m and conductivity 0.7 W/mK. For
the same heat loss and the temperature drop, this can be replaced by a layer of diatomite earth
of conductivity of 0.14 W/mK and thickness should be
a) 0.5 m
b) 0.1 m
c) 0.2 m
d) 0.4 m
3. Heat transfer takes place according to the statement of

a) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b) First Law of Thermodynamics
c) Second Law of Thermodynamics
d) Third Law of Thermodynamics
4. In a long cylindrical rod of radius R and a surface heat flux of Q, the uniform internal heat
generation rate is
a) Q/R
b) 2Q/R
c) 3Q/R
285
d) 4Q/R
5. For a current carrying metallic ball of 20 mm diameter exposed to air (h=25 W/m2K),
maximum heat distribution occurs when the thickness of the insulation (K=0.5 W/mK) is
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 30 mm
d) 40 mm
6. Consider the following statements:

1. Under certain conditions, an increase in thickness of insulation may increase the heat loss
from a heated pipe.
2. The heat loss from an insulated pipe reaches a maximum when the outside radius
insulation is equal to the ratio of thermal conductivity to surface coefficient.
3. Small diameter tubes are invariably insulated.
4. For a steam pipe economic insulation is based on minimum heat loss from pipe.
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2

The Fourier Heat conduction equation presumes:
1. Steady state conditions.
2. Constant value of thermal conductivity.
3. Uniform temperatures at the wall surfaces.
4. One-dimensional heat flow.
Of these statements, the correct statements are
286
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
8. Two insulating materials of thermal conductivity k and 2k are available for lagging a pipe
carrying a hot fluid. If the radial thickness of each material is the same
a) Material with higher thermal conductivity should be used for inner layer and one with
lower thermal conductivity for the outer.
b) It is immaterial in which sequence the insulating materials are used.
c) It is not possible to judge unless numerical values of dimensions are given.
d) Material with lower thermal conductivity should be used for inner layer and one with
higher thermal conductivity for the outer.
9. A solid wall conducts 45 W of heat. It is desired to reduce the heat transfer rate to 15W by
changing only the wall thickness. Then the thickness of the wall, now should be
a) 1/3rd of the original
b) 6 times the original
c) 3 times the original
d) 1/6th of the original
10. Heat is lost through a brick wall (k=0.72W/mK), which is 4m long, 3m wide, and 25cm
thick at a rate of 500W. If the inner surface of the wall is at 22 oC, the temperature at the
midplane of the wall is
a) 0.8 oC
b) 11.3 oC
c) 14.8 oC
d) 22.1 oC
287
11. Consider two different materials A and B. The ratio of thermal conductivities of A and B
is 13, the ratios of densities of A and B is 0.045 and the ratio of specific heats of A and B is
16.90. Then the ratio of thermal diffusivities of A to B is
a) 17.1
b) 16.1
c) 13.3
d) 10.6
12. A gas filled tube has 2 mm inside diameter and 25 cm length. The gas is heated by an
electrical wire of diameter 50 m located along the axis of the tube. Current and voltage drop
across the heating element are 0.5 amps and 4 volts, respectively. If the measured wire and
inside tube wall temperatures are 175 oC and 150 oC respectively, find the thermal
conductivity of the gas filling tube
a) 0.12 W/m.K
b) 0.15 W/m.K
c) 0.16 W/m.K
d) 0.19 W/m.K
13. Electric current is passed through a copper ball 1 mm in diameter. The ball is submerged
in liquid water at atmospheric pressure, and the current is increased until the water boils. For
this situation h = 5000 W/m2.K. How much electric power must be supplied to the wire to
maintain the ball at 114 oC?
a) 0.2199 W
b) 21.99 W
c) 25.64 W
d) 0.2564 W
14. Which of the following is having same dimensions as Thermal diffusivity

a) Thermal conductivity
b) kinematic viscosity
288
c) dynamic viscosity
d) heat capacity
15. A 3-cm-long, 2 mm 2 mm rectangular cross-section aluminum fin (k = 237 W/mC) is

attached to a surface. If the fin efficiency is 65 percent, the effectiveness of this single fin is
a) 30
b) kinematic viscosity
c) dynamic viscosity
d) heat capacity
16. Which of the following materials have low temperature gradient for same thickness of the
slab
a) silver
b) copper
c) alumnum
d) carbon steel
17. Radial heat transfer rate through hollow cylinder decreases as the ratio of outer to inner
radius
a) decreases
b) increases
c) constant
d) can not predict
18. From a metallic wall at 100 oC, a metallic rod protrudes to the ambient air. The
temperature at the tip will be minimum when the rod is made of
a) aluminum
b) gold
289
c) diamond
d) silver
19. Which of the following is correct with respect to thermal conductivity (k) of material
a) kgases > Kinsulators > Kliquids
b) kgases = Kinsulators = Kliquids
c) both a & b
d) kgases<Kinsulators<Kliquids
20. A steel ball of mass 1kg and specific heat 0.4 kJ/kg is at a temperature of 60C. It is
dropped into 1kg water at 20C. The final steady state temperature of water is
a) 23.5C
b) 32.3C
c) 13.5C
d) 42.1C
21. In current carrying conductors, if the radius of the conductor is less than the critical
radius, then addition of electrical insulation is desirable, as
a) It reduces the heat loss from the conductor and thereby enables the
conductor to carry a higher current.
b) It increases the heat loss from the conductor and thereby enables the
c) It increases the thermal resistance of the insulation and thereby enables the
d) It reduces the thermal resistance of the insulation and thereby enables the
290
22. A steam pipe is to be lined with two layers of insulating materials of different thermal
conductivities. For minimum heat transfer
a) The better insulation must be put inside
b) The better insulation must be put outside
c) One could place either insulation on either side
d) One should take into account the steam temperature before deciding as to which insulation
is put where.
23. In order to substantially reduce leakage of heat from atmosphere into cold refrigerant
flowing in small diameter copper tubes in a refrigerant system, the radial thickness of
insulation, cylindrically wrapped
around the tubes, must be:
a) Higher than critical radius of insulation
b) Slightly lower than critical radius of insulation
c) Equal to the critical radius of insulation
d) Considerably higher than critical radius of insulation
24. From a metallic wall at 100C, a metallic rod protrudes to the ambient air. The
temperatures at the tip will be minimum when the rod is made of:
a) Aluminum
b) Steel
c) Copper
d) Silver
25. Provision of fins on a given heat transfer surface will be more it there are:
a) Fewer number of thick fins
b) Fewer number of thin fins
c) Large number of thin fins
d) Large number of thick fins
291
26. In order to achieve maximum heat dissipation, the fin should be designed in such a way
that:
a) It should have maximum lateral surface at the root side of the fin
b) It should have maximum lateral surface towards the tip side of the fin
c) It should have maximum lateral surface near the centre of the fin
d) It should have minimum lateral surface near the centre of the fin
27. Consider the following statements pertaining to large heat transfer rate using fins:
1. Fins should be used on the side where heat transfer coefficient is small
2. Long and thick fins should be used
3. Short and thin fins should be used
4. Thermal conductivity of fin material should be large
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
28. Consider the following statements pertaining to heat transfer through fins:
1. Fins are equally effective irrespective of whether they are on the hot side or cold side of
the fluid.
2. The temperature along the fin is variable and hence the rate of heat transfer varies along
the elements of the fin.
3. The fins may be made of materials that have a higher thermal conductivity than the
material of the wall.
4. Fins must be arranged at right angles to the direction of flow of the working fluid.
Of these statements:
292
a) 1 and 2 are correct

b) 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 2 and 3 are correct
29. The value of Biot number is very small (less than 0.01) when
a) The convective resistance of the fluid is negligible
b) The conductive resistance of the fluid is negligible
c) The conductive resistance of the solid is negligible
d) None of these
30. A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706 mm is to be used for the

measurement of temperature of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer co-efficient on the
bead surface
is 400 W/m2K. Thermophysical properties of thermocouple material are k = 20 W/mK, C
=400 J/kg, K and = 8500 kg/m3. If the thermocouple initially at 30C is placed in a hot
stream
of 300C, then time taken by the bead to reach 298C, is:
a) 2.35 s
b) 4.9 s
c) 14.7 s
d) 29.4 s
31. A small copper ball of 5 mm diameter at 500 K is dropped into an oil bath whose
temperature is 300 K. The thermal conductivity of copper is 400 W/mK, its density 9000
kg/m3 and its
specific heat 385 J/kg.K.1f the heat transfer coefficient is 250 W/m2K. What will be the
value of Biot number?
a) 0.0005208
b) 0.00123
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c) 0.004923
d) 0.0093234
32. Which one of the following statements is correct? The curve for unsteady state cooling or
heating of bodies
a) Parabolic curve asymptotic to time axis
b) Exponential curve asymptotic to time axis
c) Exponential curve asymptotic both to time and temperature axis
d) Hyperbolic curve asymptotic both to time and temperature axis
33. A thermocouple in a thermo-well measures the temperature of hot gas flowing through
the pipe. For the most accurate measurement of temperature, the thermo-well should be made
of:
a) Steel
b) Brass
c) Copper
d) Aluminum
34. Heisler charts are used to determine transient heat flow rate and temperature distribution
when:
a) Solids possess infinitely large thermal conductivity
b) Internal conduction resistance is small and convective resistance is large
c) Internal conduction resistance is large and the convective resistance is small
d) Both conduction and convention resistance are almost of equal significance
35. Assertion (A): During the temperature measurement of hot gas in a duct that has
relatively cool walls, the temperature indicated by the thermometer will be lower than the
true hot gas
temperature. Reason(R): The sensing tip of thermometer receives energy from the hot gas and
loses heat to the duct walls.
294
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
36. The Biot number can be thought of as the ratio of

a) the conduction thermal resistance to the convective thermal resistance.
b) the convective thermal resistance to the conduction thermal resistance.
c) The thermal energy storage capacity to the conduction thermal resistance.
d) The thermal energy storage capacity to the convection thermal resistance.
37. Heating or Cooling of a road surface can be analysed using

a) lumped parameter model
b) Infinite slab model
c) Semi infinite slab model
d) none of these
38. Choose the correct statement, Semi infinite model can be adopted when
a) thickness of the solid is very large
b) heat diffusion is very slow
c) short time period
d) all of these
39. A 320 cm high vertical pipe at 15 oC wall temperature is in a room with still air at 10 oC.
This pipe supplies heat at the rate of 8 kW into room air by natural convection. Assuming
laminar flow, the height of the pipe needed to supply 1 kW only is
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
295
c) 40 cm
d) 80 cm
40. Free convection flow depends on all of the following except

a) Density
b) Coefficient of viscosity
c) Gravity
d) Velocity
41. Peclet number is the product of _______________ number and ______________ number.
a) Reynolds, Nusselt
b) Reynolds, Prandtl
c) Nusselt, Reynolds
d) Nusselt, Grasshoff
42. In bank of tubes, heat transfer will be highest when arrangement is

a) Linear with lower longitudinal pitch
b) Staggered with lower longitudinal pitch
c) Staggered equal pitch
d) Linear with square pitch
43. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layer is equal if

a) Prandtl Number = Nusselt Number
b) Prandtl Number = 1
c) Nusselt Number = 1
d) Grashoff Number = 1
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44. If velocity of water inside a smooth tube is doubled, then turbulent flow heat transfer
coefficient between the water and the tube will:
a) Remain unchanged
b) Increase to double its value
c) Increase but will not reach double its value
d) Increase to more than double its value
45. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all made of same material and having same
mass are initially heated to a temperature of 250 oC and then left in air at room temperature
for
cooling. Then, which one of the following is correct?
a) All will be cooled at the same rate
b) Circular plate will be cooled at lowest rate
c) Sphere will be cooled faster
d) Cube will be cooled faster than sphere but slower than circular plate
46. A thin flat plate 2 m by 2 m is hanging freely in air. The temperature of the surroundings
is 25C. Solar radiation is falling on one side of the rate at the rate of 500 W/m2. The
temperature
of the plate will remain constant at 30C, if the convective heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2
C) is:
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 200
47. Air at 20C blows over a hot plate of 50 60 cm made of carbon steel maintained at
220C. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 25 W/m2K. What will be the heat loss
from the plate?
a) 1500 W
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b) 2500 W
c) 3000 W
d) 4000 W
48. For calculation of heat transfer by natural convection from a horizontal cylinder, what is
the characteristic length in Grashof Number?
a) Diameter of the cylinder
b) Length of the cylinder
c) Circumference of the base of the cylinder
d) Half the circumference of the base of the cylinder
49. Assertion (A): For the similar conditions the values of convection heat transfer
coefficients are more in forced convection than in free convection.
Reason (R): In case of forced convection system the movement of fluid is by means of
external agency.
b) Both A and R individually true but R in not the correct explanation of A
50. The properties of mercury at 300 K are: density = 13529 kg/m3, specific heat at constant
pressure = 0.1393 kJ/kg-K, dynamic viscosity = 0.001523 N.s/m2 and thermal conductivity =
8.540 W/mK. The Prandtl number of the mercury at 300 K is:
a) 0.0248
b) 2.48
c) 24.8
d) 248
298
51. Assertion (A): A slab of finite thickness heated on one side and held horizontal will lose
more heat per unit time to the cooler air if the hot surface faces upwards when compared with
the
case where the hot surface faces downwards.
Reason (R): When the hot surface faces upwards, convection takes place easily whereas when
the hot surface faces downwards, heat transfer is mainly by conduction through air.
52. Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient at 30C.
If the Nusselt number is 25 and thermal conductivity of air is 0.03 W/mK, then the heat
transfer co-efficient in W/m2.K will be:
a) 7.5
b) 16.2
c) 25.2
d) 30
53. Which one of the following non-dimensional numbers is used for transition from laminar
to turbulent flow in free convection?
a) Reynolds number
b) Grashoff number
c) Peclet number
d) Rayleigh number
54. Which one of the following numbers represents the ratio of kinematic viscosity to the
thermal diffusivity?
a) Gashoff number
b) Prandtl number
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c) Mach number
d) Nusselt number
55. Nusselt number for a pipe flow heat transfer coefficient is given by the equation NuD =
4.36. Which one of the following combinations of conditions does exactly apply for use of
this equation?
a) Laminar flow and constant wall temperature
b) Turbulent flow and constant wall heat flux
c) Turbulent flow and constant wall temperature
d) Laminar flow and constant wall heat flux
56. A 320 cm high vertical pipe at 150C wall temperature is in a room with still air at 10C.
This pipe supplies heat at the rate of 8 kW into the room air by natural convection. Assuming
laminar flow, the height of the pipe needed to supply 1 kW only is:
a) 10 cm
b) 20 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 80 cm
57. Natural convection heat transfer coefficients over surface of a vertical pipe and vertical
flat plate for same height and fluid are equal. What is/are the possible reasons for this?
1. Same height
2. Both vertical
3. Same fluid
4. Same fluid flow pattern
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
300
c) 3 and 4
d) 4 only
58. The average Nusselt number in laminar natural convection from a vertical wall at 180C
with still air at 20C is found to be 48. If the wall temperature becomes 30C, all other
parameters
remaining same, the average Nusselt number will be:
a) 8
b) 16
c) 24
d) 32
59. The ratio of energy transferred by convection to that by conduction is called

a) Stanton number
b) Nusselt number
c) Biot number
d) Peclet number
60. Consider the following phenomena:

1. Boiling
2. Free convection in air
3. Forced convection
4. Conduction in air
Their correct sequence in increasing order of heat transfer coefficient is:
a) 4, 2, 3, 1
b) 4, 1, 3, 2
c) 4, 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 4, 1, 2
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61. Consider the following statements regarding condensation heat transfer:

1. For a single tube, horizontal position is preferred over vertical position for better heat
transfer.
2. Heat transfer coefficient decreases if the vapour stream moves at high velocity.
3. Condensation of steam on an oily surface is dropwise.
4. Condensation of pure benzene vapour is always dropwise.
Of these statements
62. When all the conditions are identical, in the case of flow through pipes with heat transfer,
the velocity profiles will be identical for:
a) Liquid heating and liquid cooling
b) Gas heating and gas cooling
c) Liquid heating and gas cooling
d) Heating and cooling of any fluid
63. Drop wise condensation usually occurs on

a) Glazed surface
b) Smooth surface
c) Oily surface
d) Coated surface
64. Consider the following statements regarding nucleate boiling:

1. The temperature of the surface is greater than the saturation temperature of the liquid.
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2. Bubbles are created by the expansion of entrapped gas or vapour at small cavities in the
surface.
3. The temperature is greater than that of film boiling.
4. The heat transfer from the surface to the liquid is greater than that in film boiling.
Of these correct statements are:
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
65. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, fins are used advantageously
when the entire surface is exposed to:
a) Nucleate boiling
b) Film boiling
c) Transition boiling
d) All modes of boiling
66. When a liquid flows through a tube with sub-cooled or saturated boiling, what is the
process known?
a) Pool boiling
b) Bulk boiling
c) Convection boiling
d) Forced convection boiling
67. For film-wise condensation on a vertical plane, the film thickness and heat transfer
coefficient h vary with distance x from the leading edge as
a) decreases, h increases
b) Both and h increase
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c) increases, h decreases
d) Both and h decrease
68. Saturated steam is allowed to condense over a vertical flat surface and the condensate
film flows down the surface. The local heat transfer coefficient for condensation
a) Remains constant at all locations of the surface
b) Decreases with increasing distance from the top of the surface
c) Increases with increasing thickness of condensate film
d) Increases with decreasing temperature differential between the surface and
vapour

1. If a condensing liquid does not wet a surface drop wise, then condensation will take place
on it.
2. Drop wise condensation gives a higher heat transfer rate than filmwise condensation.
3. Reynolds number of condensing liquid is based on its mass flow rate.
4. Suitable coating or vapour additive is used to promote film-wise condensation.
b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 4 alone is correct
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
70. A hollow encloser is formed between two infinitely long concentric cylinders of radii 1 m
ans 2 m, respectively. Radiative heat exchange takes place between the inner surface of the
larger cylinder (surface-2) and the outer surface of the smaller cylinder (surface- I). The
radiating surfaces are diffuse and the medium in the enclosure is non-participating. The
fraction of
the thermal radiation leaving the larger surface and striking itself is:
304
a) 0.25
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1
71. The shape factors with themselves of two infinity long black body concentric cylinders
with a diameter ratio of 3 are ___________ for the inner and ________________ for the
outer.
a) 0, 2/3
b) 0, 1/3
c) 1, 1/9
d) 1, 1/3
72. The radiative heat transfer rate per unit area (W/m2) between two plane parallel grey
surfaces (emissivity = 0.9) maintained at 400 K and 300 K is:
(Stefan Boltzman constant. = 5.67 108 W/m2 K4)
a) 992
b) 812
c) 464
d) 567
73. Fraction of radiative energy leaving one surface that strikes the other surface is called
a) Radiative flux
b) Emissive power of the first surface
c) View factor
d) Re-radiation flux
305
74. Assertion (A): Heat transfer at high temperature is dominated by radiation rather than
convection.
Reason (R): Radiation depends on fourth power of temperature while convection depends on
unit power relationship.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the of A
75. Consider following parameters:

1. Temperature of the surface
2. Emissivity of the surface
3. Temperature of the air in the room
4. Length and diameter of the pipe
The parameter(s) responsible for loss of heat from a hot pipe surface in a room without fans
would include
a) 1 alone
b) 1 and 2
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
76. When is absorbtivity, is reflectivity and is transmisivity, then for diathermanous

body, which of the following relation is valid?
a) = 1, = 0, = 0
b) = 0, = 1, = 0
c) = 0, = 0, = 1
d) + = 1, = 0
306
77. If the temperature of a solid state changes from 27C to 627C, then emissive power
changes which rate
a) 6 : 1
b) 9 : 1
c) 27 : 1
d) 81 : 1
78. An enclosure consists of the four surfaces 1, 2, 3 and 4. The view factors for radiation
heat transfer (where the subscripts 1, 2, 3, 4 refer to the respective surfaces) are F11 = 0.1,
F12 =
0.4 and F13 = 0.25. The surface areas A1 and A4 are 4 m2 and 2 m2 respectively. The view
factor F41 is:
a) 0.75
b) 0.5
c) 0.25
d) 0.1
79. Two long parallel surfaces, each of emissivity 0.7 are maintained at different
temperatures and accordingly have radiation exchange between them. It is desired to reduce
75% of this
radiant heat transfer by inserting thin parallel shields of equal emissivity (0.7) on both sides.
What would be the number of shields?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
80. For an opaque plane surface the irradiation, radiosity and emissive power are respectively
20, 12 and 10 W/m2.What is the emissivity of the surface?
a) 0.2
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b) 0.4
c) 0.8
d) 1.0
81. In a counter flow heat exchanger, for the hot fluid the heat capacity = 2 kJ/kg K, mass
flow rate = 5 kg/s, inlet temperature = 150C, outlet temperature = 100C. For the cold fluid,
heat
capacity = 4 kJ/kg K, mass flow rate = 10 kg/s, inlet temperature = 20C. Neglecting heat
transfer to the surroundings, the outlet temperature of the cold fluid in C is:
a) 7.5
b) 32.5
c) 45.5
d) 70.0
82. In a condenser, water enters at 30C and flows at the rate 1500 kg/hr. The condensing
steam is at a temperature of 120C and cooling water leaves the condenser at 80C. Specific
heat
of water is 4.187 kJ/kg K. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 2000 W/m2K, then heat
transfer area is:
a) 0.707 m2
b) 7.07 m2
c) 70.7 m2
d) 141.4 m2
83. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (LMTD) of a counterflow heat exchanger is
20C. The cold fluid enters at 20C and the hot fluid enters at 100C. Mass fl0w rate of the
cold
fluid is twice that of the hot fluid. Specific heat at constant pressure of the hot fluid is twice
that of the cold fluid. The exit temperature of the cold fluid is
a) 40C
308
b) 60C
c) 80C
d) can not be determined
84. In a counter flow heat exchanger, hot fluid enters at 60C and cold fluid leaves at 30C.
Mass flow rate of the hot fluid is 1 kg/s and that of the cold fluid is 2 kg/s. Specific heat of
the hot
fluid is 10 kJ/kgK and that of the cold fluid is 5 kJ/kgK. The Log Mean Temperature
Difference (LMTD) for the heat exchanger in C is:
a) 15
b) 30
c) 35
d) 45
85. For the same inlet and outlet temperatures of hot and cold fluids, the Log Mean
Temperature Difference (LMTD) is:
a) Greater for parallel flow heat exchanger than for counter flow heat
exchanger.
b) Greater for counter flow heat exchanger than for parallel flow heat
exchanger.
c) Same for both parallel and counter flow heat exchangers.
d) Dependent on the properties of the fluids.
86. Hot oil is cooled from 80 to 50C in an oil cooler which uses air as the coolant. The air
temperature rises from 30 to 40C. The designer uses a LMTD value of 26C. The type of
heat exchanger is:
a) Parallel flow
b) Double pipe
c) Counter flow
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d) Cross flow
87. Air can be best heated by steam in a heat exchanger of

a) Plate type
b) Double pipe type with fins on
steam side
c) Double pipe type with fins on air side
d) Shell and tube type
88. Which one of the following heat exchangers gives parallel straight line pattern of
temperature distribution for both cold and hot fluid?
a) Parallel-flow with unequal heat capacities
b) Counter-flow with equal heat capacities
c) Parallel-flow with equal heat capacities
d) Counter-flow with unequal heat capacities
89. For a balanced counter-flow heat exchanger, the temperature profiles of the two fluids
are:
a) Parallel and non-linear
b) Parallel and linear
c) Linear but non-parallel
d) Divergent from one another

The flow configuration in a heat exchanger, whether counterflow or otherwise, will NOT
matter if:
1. A liquid is evaporating
2. A vapour is condensing
310
3. Mass flow rate of one of the fluids is far greater

d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

In a shell and tube heat exchanger, baffles are provided on the shell side to:
1. Prevent the stagnation of shell side fluid
2. Improve heat transfer
3. Provide support for tubes
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
92. In a heat exchanger, the hot liquid enters with a temperature of 180 C and leaves at 160
C. The cooling fluid enters at 30 C and leaves at 110 C. The capacity ratio of the heat
exchanger is:
a) 0.25
b) 0.4
c) 0.5
d) 0.55
93. Assertion (A): It is not possible to determine LMTD in a counter flow heat exchanger
with equal heat capacity rates of hot and cold fluids.
311
Reason (R): Because the temperature difference is invariant along the length of the heat
exchanger.
94. Given the following data,

Inside heat transfer coefficient = 25 W/m2K, Outside heat transfer coefficient = 25 W/m2K,
Thermal conductivity of bricks (15 cm thick) = 0.15 W/mK,
The overall heat transfer coefficient (in W/m2K) will be closer to the
a) Inverse of heat transfer coefficient
b) Heat transfer coefficient
c) Thermal conductivity of bricks
d) Heat transfer coefficient based on the thermal conductivity of the bricks
alone
95. In a heat exchanger with one fluid evaporating or condensing the surface area required is
least in
a) Parallel flow
b) Counter flow
c) Cross flow
d) Same in all above
96. After expansion from a gas turbine, the hot exhaust gases are used to heat the compressed
air from a compressor with the help of a cross flow compact heat exchanger of 0.8
effectiveness. What is the number of transfer units of the heat exchanger?
a) 2
312
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
97. In a counter flow heat exchanger, the product of specific heat and mass flow rate is same
for the hot and cold fluids. If NTU is equal to 0.5, then the effectiveness of the heat
exchanger is:
a) 1.0
b) 0.5
c) 0.33
d) 0.2
98. -NTU method is particularly useful in thermal design of heat exchangers when
a) The outlet temperature of the fluid streams is not known as a priori
b) Outlet temperature of the fluid streams is known as a priori
c) The outlet temperature of the hot fluid streams is known but that of the cold
fluid streams is not known as a priori
d) Inlet temperatures of the fluid streams are known as a priori
99. A cross-flow type air-heater has an area of 50 m2. The overall heat transfer coefficient is
100 W/m2K and heat capacity of both hot and cold stream is 1000 W/K. The value of NTU
is:
a) 1000
b) 500
c) 5
d) 0.2
100. A counter flow shell - and - tube exchanger is used to heat water with hot exhaust gases.
The water (Cp = 4180 J/kgC) flows at a rate of 2 kg/s while the exhaust gas (1030 J/kgC)
313
flows at the rate of 5.25 kg/s. If the heat transfer surface area is 32.5 m2 and the overall heat
transfer coefficient is 200 W/m2C, what is the NTU for the heat exchanger?
a) 1.2
b) 2.4
c) 4,5
d) 8.6
ADDITIONAL QUESTION
1. Which of the following statement is wrong?

a) The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to convection.
b) The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon the material of the body.
c) The thermal conductivity of solid metals increases with rise in temperature,
d) Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the arithmetic mean temperature
difference.
2. Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the arithmetic mean temperature
difference.
a) Reynold's number
b) Grashoff's number
c) Reynold's number, Grashoff's number
d) Prandtl number, Grashoff's number
3. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is __________ heat absorbed.

a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
314
d) none of the options
4. Thermal diffusivity is a
a) function of temperature
b) physical property of a substance
c) dimensionless parameter
d) all of these
5. The total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is __________ fourth power
of the absolute temperature. This statement is known as Stefan-Boltzmann law.
a) equal to
b) directly proportional to
c) inversely proportional to
d) none of these answers
6. The amount of radiation mainly depends upon the

a) nature of the body
b) temperature of the body
c) type of surface of the body
d) all of these
7. The highest thermal diffusivity is of

a) iron
b) lead
c) concrete
d) wood
315
8. The heat transfer takes place according to

a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b) First law of thermodynamics
c) Second law of thermodynamics
d) Kirchhoff's law
9. Thermal conductivity of water __________ with rise in temperature.

a) remains same
b) decreases
c) increases
d) may increase or decrease depending upon temperature
10. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layer is equal if Prandtl number is
a) equal to one
b) greater than one
c) less than one
d) equal to Nusselt number
11. A perfect black body is one which

a) is black in colour
b) absorbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
c) reflects all the heat radiations
d) transmits the heat radiations
12. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the resistance to heat flow is
a) maximum
b) minimum
316
c) zero
d) none of these
13. Upto the critical radius of insulation,

a) Added insulation will increase heat loss
b) Added insulation will decrease heat loss
c) Convective heat loss will be less than conductive heat loss
d) Heat flux will decrease
14. Unit of thermal diffusivity is

a) m/hr
b) m/hr C
c) kcal/m hr
d) kcal/m. hr C
15. The rate of energy transferred by convection to that by conduction is called

a) Stanton number
b) Nusselt number
c) Biot number
d) Peclet number
16. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on

a) Moisture
b) Density
c) Temperature
d) All the answers given in the options.
317
17. A designer chooses the values of fluid flow rates and specific heats in such a manner that
the heat capacities of the two fluids are equal. A hot fluid enters the counter flow heat
exchanger at 100C and leaves at 60C. A cold fluid enters the heat exchanger at 40C. The
mean temperature difference between the two fluids is
a) 20C
b) 40C
c) 60C
d) 66.7C
18. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared to parallel flow heat
exchanger is
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) same
d) Depends on the area of heat exchanger
19. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference between temperatures
of
a) Cold water inlet and outlet
b) Hot medium inlet and outlet
c) Hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
d) Hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
20. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, baffles are provided on the shell side to
a) Improve heat transfer
b) Provide support for tubes
c) Prevent stagnation of shell side fluid
d) All of the options given
318
21. Fourier's law of heat conduction gives the heat flow for
a) Irregular surfaces
b) Nonuniform temperature surfaces
c) One dimensional cases only
d) Two dimensional cases only
22. The value of Prandtl number for air is about

a) 0.1
b) 0.3
c) 0.7
d) 1.7
23. The product of Reynolds number and Prandtl number is known as

a) Stanton number
b) Biot number
c) Peclet number
d) Grashoff number
24. An electric cable of aluminium conductor (k = 240 W/mK) is to be insulated with rubber
(k = 0.15 W/mK). The cable is to be located in air (h = 6 W/m). The critical thickness of
insulation will be
a) 25 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 160 mm
d) 800 mm
25. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by

a) Conduction
319
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Conduction and radiation combined
26. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally

a) More than those for liquids
b) Less than those for liquids
c) More than those for solids
d) Dependent on the viscosity
27. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the body to another is called conduction,
when the particles of the body
a) Move actually
b) Do not move actually
c) Affect the intervening medium
d) Does not affect the intervening medium
28. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by a black
body per unit
a) Temperature
b) Thickness
c) Area
d) Time
29. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy falling on it is called
a) Absorptive power
b) Emissive power
c) Absorptivity
320
d) Emissivity
30. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally transparent body is reflected
back. If the transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the emissivity of surface is
a) 0.45
b) 0.55
c) 0.40
d) 0.75
31. The amount of radiation mainly depends on

a) Nature of body
b) Temperature of body
c) Type of surface of body
d) All the options given
32. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque when

a) P = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
b) P=1, x = 0 and a = 0
c) P = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
d) X = 0, a + p = 1
33. The emissive power of a body depends upon its

a) Temperature
b) Wave length
c) Physical nature
d) All of the given options
321
34. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity

a) At all temperatures
b) At one particular temperature
c) When system is under thermal equilibrium
d) At critical temperature
35. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000C and 70C. The heat transfer
will take place mainly by
a) Convection
b) Radiation
c) Forced convection
d) Free convection
36. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes place by

a) Direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
b) A complete separation between hot and cold fluids
c) Flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
d) Generation of heat again and again
37. A perfect black body is one which

a) Is black in colour
b) Reflects all heat
c) Transmits all heat radiations
d) Absorbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
38. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in temperature
322
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain constant
d) May increase or decrease depending on temperature
39. In free convection heat transfer transition from laminar to turbulent flow is governed by
the critical value of the
a) Reynold's number
b) Grashoff's number
c) Reynold's number, Grashoff's number
d) Prandtl number, Grashoff's number

a) The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to convection
b) The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon the material of the body
c) The thermal conductivity of solid metals increases with rise in temperature
d) Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the arithmetic mean temperature
difference
Industrial Engineering and Management

1. In computer aided process planniing determination of process sequence for manufacture of
any part design without predefined standard plans is known as
a) Variant type process planning
b) Reteival type process planning
c) Generative type process planning
d) Group technology based process planning
2. Aline balancing problem is solved inthe context of

323
a) Process layout
b) Product layout
c) Fixed position layout
d) Production scheduling
3. Material Requirements Planning DOES NOT incude

a) Material price
b) Bill of material
c) Inventory level
d) Production Schedule
4. As per the principles of motion economy which one of the following is NOT a PIVOT for
a classified movement of a human body
a) Knee
b) Wrist
c) Torso
d) Elbow
5. Which one of the following is NOT in the scope of Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
system?
a) General ledger entries
b) Materials management system
c) Order management system
d) Employee promotion policy
6. In a flexible manufacturing sytems AGVs move at a speed of 50 m/min, cover an average

distance of 150 m to deleiver and 100 m for return. If the time required to pick-up and drop is
30 seconds each, neglecting idle times, the number of AGVs required to meet the demand of
50 deliveries per hour is
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a) 7
b) 6
c) 5
d) 8
7. A manufacturing line requires 7.2 minutes to make a product. The line has six workstations.Total production required is 300 products in 7.5 hours. At steady state, the line
efficiency is
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 83%
d) 84%
8. A single facility is to be located to meet the demand at coordinates (1,2), (2,3), (3,5), and
(4,1). the demand at these points is 700, 100, 300, and 500 respectively. Using the rectilinear
distance and weighted distance minimization criterion, the facility should be located
a) Anywhere on the line joining points (2,2) and (3,2)
b) at the point (2,3)
c) Anywhere on the line joining points (2,3) and (3,3)
d) at the point (3,3)
9. In a time study experiment, the observed time is 15 minutes, operator rating is 90%,
personal need allowance is 4%, fatigue allowance is 3%, contingency allowance for work is
3%, contingency allowance for delay is 2%. The total work content in minutes is
a) 15.34
b) 14
c) 16
d) 13.5
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10. For a canteen, the actual demand for disposable cup was 500 units in January, 600 units in
February. The forecast for the month of January was 400 units. the forecast for the month of
March considering smoothing coefficient as 0.75 is
a) 568.75
b) 571
c) 567
d) 555
11. Annual demand of a product is 50000 units, and the ordering cost is Rs. 7000 per order.
Considering the basic EOQ model, the economic order quantity is 10000 units. The annual
inventory holding cost is
a) Rs.3.8/unit/year
b) Rs.3.6/unit/year
c) Rs.3.5/unit/year
d) Rs.3.9/unit/year
12. Number of units sold in January, February, March, April and May are 10, 11, 16, 19, and
25 respectively. Regarding forecast for the month of June, which of the following statements
is TRUE?
a) Moving average will forecast a higher valuecompared to regression.
b) Higher the value of order N, the greater will be the forecast value by moving average.
c) Exponential smoothing will forecast a higher valuecompared to regression.
d) Regression will forecast a higher valuecompared to moving average.
13. Amanufacturer has the following data regarding a product. Fixed cost Rs.50000; Variable
cost Rs.200; Selling price per unit Rs.300; Production capacity 1500 units per month; If the
production is carried out at 80% of the rated capacity, then the monthly profit is
a) 65000
b) 70000
c) 66000
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d) 71000
14. The annual demand for an item is 10000 units. The unit cost is Rs.100 and the carrying
cost is 14.4% of the unit cost per annum. The cost of one procurement is Rs.2000. The time
between two consecutive orders to meet the above demand is
a) 1.41 months
b) 1.53 months
c) 1.6 months
d) 1.7 months
15. The demand for two wheeler was 900 units and 1030 units in april 2015 and May 2015
respectively. The forecast for the month April was 850, considering smoothing constant of
0.6, forecast for the month of June 2015 is
a) 850 units
b) 927 units
c) 965 units
d) 970 units
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1. Qualitative forecasting methods

a) are made objectively by the forecaster
b) are made subjectively by the forecaster
c) are made using existing data sources
d) are based on mathematical models
2. Which forecasting method seeks to develop a consensus among a group of experts?

a) Market research
b) Executive opinion
c) Delphi method
d) Nave method
3. Which forecasting method is particular good for predicting technological changes and
scientific advances?
a) Market research
b) Executive opinion
c) Delphi method
d) Nave approach
4. Which forecasting method assumes that next periods forecast is equal to this periods
actual value?
a) Simple mean
b) exponential smoothing
c) Basic
d) Nave
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5. Suppose that you are using the nave forecasting method with trend to forecast sales. If
sales have been declining by 20% per week, and this weeks sales amounted to $200, what
would your forecast be for next week?
a) $200
b) $ 40
c) $240
d) $160
6. Suppose that you are using the simple mean to make a forecast. This periods forecast was
equal to 100 units, and it was based on 6 periods of demand. This periods actual demand
was 86 units. What is your forecast for next period?
a) 98
b) 100
c) 93
d) 86
7. Suppose that you are using the four-period simple moving average method to forecast
sales, and sales have been decreasing by 10% every period. How will your forecasts
perform?
a) Forecasts will be lower than actual.
b) Forecasts will be higher than actual.
c) Forecasts will equal actual.
d) Forecasts will be decreasing by 2.5% every period.
8. In exponential smoothing, what values can the smoothing constant have?

a) [-1, 1]
b) [1, 100]
c) [0, -1]
d) [0, 1]
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9. In linear regression, what are we trying to forecast?

a) Beta parameter
b) Dependent variable
c) Independent variable
d) Y-intercept of the line
10. What does the linear regression line do?

a) Minimizes sum of errors
b) Minimizes product of squared errors
c) Minimizes sum of squared errors
d) Minimizes product of errors
11. What value of the correlation coefficient implies that there is a perfect positive linear
relationship between the two variables of a linear regression model?
a) 100
b) 0
c) 0.5
d) 1
12. In a linear regression analysis, coefficient of determination value 0.984 implies what?
a) 98.4% of the variability of the independent variable is explained by the dependent variable
b) 98.4% of the variability of the dependent variable is explained by the independent variable
c) 1.6% of the variability of the independent variable is explained by the dependent variable
d) 1.6% of the variability of the dependent variable is explained by the independent variable
13. What value of the correlation coefficient implies that there is no relationship between the
two variables of a linear regression model?
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a) 1
b) 0
c) 0.5
d) 1
14. What is the statistic that measures the direction and strength of the linear relationship
between two variables?
a) Coefficient of determination
b) Coefficient of variation
c) Variance
d) Correlation coefficient
15. Which of the following values of the correlation coefficient implies that the value of the
dependent variable decreases as the value of the independent variable increases?
a) -0.2
b) 0
c) 0.2
d) 1
16. The following correlation coefficient values come from five different linear regression
models. Which model fits the data the best?
a) 0.99
b) 0.5
c) -1
d) 0
17. Suppose that Sallys company uses exponential smoothing to make forecasts. Further
suppose that last periods demand forecast was for 20,000 units, and last periods actual
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demand was 21,000 units. Sallys company uses a smoothing constant () equal to 40%.
What should be the forecast for this period?
a) 20,000
b) 21,000
c) 20,600
d) 20,400
sales, and sales have been increasing by 20% every period. How will your forecasts
perform?
a) Forecasts will be lower than actual.
d) Forecasts will be increasing by 5.0% every period.
sales, and sales have been increasing by 40% every period. How will your forecasts
perform?
a) Forecasts will be decreasing by 53.76% every period.
d) Forecasts will be increasing by 10.0% every period.
20. Which of the following is has positive price elasticity?
a) Products that do not obey the law of demand

b) Products that obey the law of demand
c) Substitute goods
d) Essential goods
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21. The coefficient of determination for an independent variable in a linear regression model
is 0.81. The correlation coefficient is
a) 0.8175
b) 0.6561
c) 0.9
d) 0.6
22. Economics indicates that the world economy fluctuates over the long term. What type of
data pattern would this be?
a) cycles
b) linear
c) seasonal
d) level
23. Price elasticity is equal to 1 for a product, which of the following is true?
a) Total revenue will not change
b) Total revenue will decrease
c) Total revenue will increase
d) total revenue will increse by 20%
24. The variation in the actual sales of a product can be described using a single independent
variable if the
a) Correlation coefficient is close to 1
b) Coefficient of determination is exactly 1
c) the mean of the dependent variable is more than 200
d) the trend and seasonal factors are occasionally present
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25. A hospital wants to improve its existing layout. Which algorithm would you suggest
a) ALDEP
b) CRAFT
c) CORELAP
d) Rank order clustering
26. CRAFT considers exchange of locations for those departments which

a) Have the same area
b) Have a common border
c) Departments in the centre
d) Have same costs per unit distance
27. While using the ALDEP algorithm for layout design, the algorithm starts with the
randomly selected department to be positioned in the top left corner of the layout. The
adjacent department is selected based on
a) Closeness rating
b) Placement rating
c) The size of the department and TCR value
d) Minimum department preference (MDP)
28. Ship building and construction of dams are the typical examples of
a) Fixed position layout
b) Functional layout
c) Product layout
d) Project type layout
29. Which of the following is a two handed process chart

a) SIMO
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b) Flow process chart (Material)

c) Operation process chart
d) Flow process chart(Operator type)
30. Repetitive strain injuries can be reduced by

a) Time study
b) Method study
c) Ergonomic design of work place
d) Work sampling
31. The challenge in process layouts is to arrange resources to maximize _____ and minimize
____
a) movement, effectiveness
b) effectiveness, efficiency
c) efficiency, waste of movement
d) efficiency, effectiveness
32. A company with a pure continuous processing system is most likely to use which layout
type?
a) inverted
b) hybrid
c) process
d) product
33. Process layouts have

a) less automation
b) more automation
c) fewer employees
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d) more cycle time
34. A job shop is most likely to use which layout type?

a) inverted
b) hybrid
c) process
d) fixed position
35. A grocery store is most like which of the following layout types?
a) inverted
b) circular
c) process
d) fixed position
36. A company with a pure intermittent processing system is most likely to use which layout
type?
a) Product
b) Process
c) Cellular
d) Fixed position
37. A single-line cafeteria is an example of which layout type?

a) product
b) process
c) cellular
d) hybrid
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38. A car wash is an example of which layout type?

a) product
b) process
c) cellular
d) fixed position
39. A high-volume paper mill is an example of which layout type?

a) process
b) product
c) hybrid
d) cellular
40. Which of the following is least like a product layout?

a) high-volume paper mill
b) automobile plant
c) hospital
d) car wash
1. Which company is widely considered to be the leader of just-in-time production?

a) Ford
b) Timex
c) Gateway
d) Toyota
2. What are the two primary tools used to identify closeness measures during the layout
design process?
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a) REL chart and from-to matrix

b) MRP chart and from-to matrix
c) x-bar chart and from-to matrix
d) MRP chart and x-bar chart
3. How many different layout solutions are possible with 7 departments?

a) 7
b) 720
c) 28
d) 5040
4. How many pairs of departments you have to swap if the given layout has 5 departments
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
5. What is the term for the maximum amount of time each workstation has to complete its
assigned task?
a) output rate
b) task time
c) station time
d) cycle time
6. Group technology creates groupings of products primarily based on what?

a) product cost
b) raw materials requirements
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c) similar processing requirements

d) operating characteristics
7. What technique eliminates unnecessary tasks and improves the process for completing
tasks?
a) method study
b) time study
c) work sampling
d) ergonomics
8. Method study results in

a) a graph of how long each step takes
b) an evaluation of current employees
c) guidance for designing jobs
d) a standard, detailed procedure for an operation
9. The steps involved in a time study include all except which of the following?
a) Time each element, record the times, and rate the workers performance.
b) Tell the worker whose job you will be studying.
c) Calculate the number of cycles you must observe.
d) Determine the probability distribution that best fits the observed times.
10. Typically the job chosen for the time study will be
a) a routine job that is labor intensive
b) a simple job performed by many different people
c) done primarily by machine
d) done only occasionally
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11. The formula for determining the number of observations needed depends upon all except
which of the following values?
a) the number of standard deviations needed for the desired confidence
b) the maximum observed value in the sample
c) the standard deviation of the sample observations
d) the mean of the sample observations
12. How many standard deviations is required for a 98% confidence level?
a) 2
b) 2.05
c) 2.17
d) 2.33
13. What is the effect of an increase in the desired confidence level on the number of
observations necessary in a time study?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unchanged
d) may increase or decrease
14. When performing a time study, the analyst converts the observed time into the time an
"average" worker would require working at an acceptable pace by using which of the
following?
a) allowance factor
b) mean time modulation
c) methods analysis
d) performance rating factor
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15. Which of the following values for performance rating factor would be for an aboveaverage work pace?
a) 90%
b) 100%
c) 65%
d) 140%
16. In a time study, personal time, fatigue, and unavoidable delays (PFD) during the typical
work day are accounted for in what?
a) the normal time
b) an allowance factor
c) the performance rating
d) how the work elements are defined
17. If OT = the mean observed time, PRF = the performance rating factor, F = the frequency
of occurrence, and PFD = the percentage allowance based on time worked, what is the
formula to compute the standard time?
a) (OT)(PRF)(F)
b) (OT)(PRF)(F)(1 + PFD)
c) (OT)(PRF)(F) / (1 PFD)
d) (OT)(PRF)(F) / (1 + PFD)
18. If OT = the mean observed time, PRF = the performance rating factor, F = the frequency
of occurrence, and PFD = the percentage allowance adjustment based on job time, what is the
formula to compute the standard time?
a) (OT)(PRF)(F)
b) (OT)(PRF)(F)(1 + PFD)
c) (OT)(PRF)(F) / (1 PFD)
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d) (OT)(PRF) / (F)
19. Which of the following would not be a basic element into which a job would be split
when using predetermined time data?
a) reach
b) sort
c) grasp
d) insert
20. Which of the following is a basic difference of work sampling compared to a time study?
a) It does not require any observations.
b) It requires fewer observations to accomplish the same thing.
c) It is better suited for short, repetitive tasks.
d) It does not provide standard times.
21. Work sampling provides

a) normal time
b) standatrd time
c) proportion of time a person is spending on each of the assigned tasks
d) allowances
22. Cross price elasticity of demand for substitutes

a) positive
b) negative
c) exponential
d) cannot be estimated
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23. Cross price elasticity of demand for compliments

a) positive
b) negative
c) unity
d) zero
24. which of the following will have positive price elasticity

a) vanity bags
b) budget cars
c) movie ticket
d) petrol
25. Vebeln goods are

a) very costly goods
b) cheap goods
c) moderately priced goods
d) rare items
26. Giffin goods are

a) very costly goods
b) cheap goods
c) moderately priced goods
d) substitutes
27. petrol and car are

a) substitte goods
b) complement goods
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c) essential goods
d) luxary goods
28. Opening stock of raw material should be

a) added to the prime cost
b) added to the factory cost
c) added to the total cost
d) added to the administarive overhead
29. opening stock of work in progress should be

a) added to the prime cost
b) added to the factory cost
c) added to the total cost
d) added to the cost of production
30. Depreciation of machineries should be added to

a) prime cost
b) factory cost
c) cost of production
d) total cost
31. Ergonomics deals with

a) work system design
b) method study
c) safety
d) time study
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32. JIT aims at

a) maximum inventory
b) single piece flow
c) enhancing the worker safety
d) minimizing the material handling
33. KANBAN is a
a) push system
b) pull system
c) method study process
d) work sampling process
34. The number of 1s outside the machine-part cells are called as

a) voids
b) exceptional elements
c) unproductive activity
d) non-critical activity
35. The number of zeros inside the machine-part cells are called as
a) voids
c) non critical elements
d) critical elements
36.
In the CORELAP algorithm for layout design, the department with maximum TCR is placed
in the
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a) top left corener

b) top right corner
c) center
d) bottom left corner
37. Placement rating is used in the CORELAP algorithm for

a) deciding the position of the first department with maximum TCR
b) deciding the position for the second department
c) deciding the position of the third department and the subsequent departments
d) deciding the number of iterations required
38. Grouping efficacy of the machine-part cells is calculated using

a) voids
c) voids and exceptional elements
d) total number of 1s in the matrix, exceptional elements and voids
39. Total number of 1s in the machine-part incidence matrix is 40. The number of exceptional
elements and voids are 5 and 4 respectively. The grouping efficacy is
a) 0.6534
b) 0.7954
c) 0.7132
d) 0.8345
40. Total number of 1s in the machine-part incidence matrix is 100. The number of
exceptional elements and voids are 15 and 13 respectively. The grouping efficacy is
a) 0.7522
b) 0.6522
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c) 0.5522
d) 0.8522
41. The Mean observed time of an activity is 90 seconds. If the rating factor is 110%, what is
the normal time?
a) 109 seconds
b) 99 seconds
c) 103 seconds
d) 89 seconds
42. The Mean observed time of an activity is 90 seconds. If the rating factor is 110%, 13%
PFD allowance is given. What is the Standard time based on the time worked?
a) 112.79
b) 111.79
c) 114.79
d) 113.79
43. The standard deviation and the mean of a time study experiment based on 10 observations
are 0.010 and 0.12 respectively. How many observations are required to deicde the standard
time to be within 5% of the true mean with 95% confidence (z = 1.96).
a) 15
b) 10
c) 23
d) 11
44. For all the goods except the veblen and giffin goods, the price elacticity of demand is
a) negative
b) positive
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c) infinity
d) between 2 and 3
45. Operation process chart is for recording

a) two hand movements of an operator
b) operations and inspections
c) flow of material
d) flow of operator
Kinematics of Machinery
1. The mechanism used in a shaping machine is
a) a closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs
b) a closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs
c) a closed 4-bar chain having 2 revolute pair and 2 sliding pairs
d) an inversion of the single slider-crank chain
2. The legnths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with revolute pairs only are p, q, r and s units.
Given that p < q < r < s. Which of these links should be the fixed one, for obtaining a
"double crank" mechanism?
a) links of length p
b) links of length q
c) links of length r
d) links of length s
3. The number of degrees of reedom of a planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute
joint is
a) 1
b) 2
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c) 3
d) 4
4. In a four- bar linkage, S denotes the shortest link length, L is the longest link length, P and
Q are the lengths of other two links. At least one of the three moving links will rotate by 360
degree if
a) S + L less than or equal to P + Q
b) S + L > to P + Q
c) S + P less than or equal to L + Q
d) S + P > to L + Q
5. Mobility of a statically indeterminate structure is

a) Less than equal to -1
b) 0
c) 1
d) Greater than or equal to 2
6. For a four bar linkage in toggle position, the value of mechanical advantage is?
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) infinite
7. A 1.5kW motor is running at 1440 rev/min. It is to be connected to a stirrer running at 36

rev/min. The gearing arrangement suitable for this application is?
a) differential gear
b) helical gear
c) spur gear
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d) spur gear
8. The cam follower generally used in automobile engines is

a) knife edge follower
b) knife edge follower
c) spherical faced follower
d) roller follower
9. A chain consisting of four links and four joints is called ....

a) kinematic chain
b) pair
c) structure
d) redundant chain
10. The inversion of a mechanism is

a) changing of a higher pair to a lower pair
b) turning its upside down
c) obtained by fixing different links in a kinematic chain
d) obtained by reversing the input and output motion
Kinematics of Machinery
1. When particle moves with a uifrom velocity along a circular path, then the particle has
a) tangetial acceleration only
b) centreipetal acceleration only
c) both centreipetal acceleration and tangetial acceleration only
d) coriolis only
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2. The connection between the piston and cylinder in reciprocating corresponding to

a) completly constrained kinematic pair
b) incompletly constrained kinematic pair
c) Sucessfully constrained kinematic pair
d) single link
3. which of the following are examples of force closed kinmatics pairs

1. cam and roller mechanism
2. Door closing mechanism
3. slider crank mechanism
4. Automotive clutch opearting mechansim
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2,3 and 4
d) 1,2,3 and 4
4. consider the following pairs

1. pair of gear in mesh
2. Belt and pulley
3. cylinder and pistonn
4. cam and follower
Among these, the higher pairs are
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 4
c) 1,2 and 3
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d) 1,2 and 4
5. A linkage is shown below in the figure in which ABC and DEF are ternary links where as
AF, BE and CD are binary links.
The degree of freedom of the linkage when link ABC is fixed are
<img src="dof.png" alt="dof.png" title="dof" width="477" height="298"></img>
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
6. The centre of gravity of the coupler link in a 4-bar mechanism would

experience
a) No acceleration
b) only linear acceleration
c) Only angular acceleration
d) both linear and angular accelerations
7. In order to draw the acceleration diagram, it is necessary to determine the

Coriolis component of acceleration in the case of
a) crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism

b) slider-crank mechanism
c) four bar mechanism
d) pantograph
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8. In a mechanism, the fixed instataneous centres are those centres which

a) remain in same place for all configration of the mechanism
b) vary with the configuration of the mechansim
c) moves as the mechanism moves
d) fixed
9. when a slider moves on a curved surface, their instantanous center liies

a) on the poin of contact
b) at the center of curvature
c) at the center of circle
d) at the pin joint
10. The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with respect to another point on the
same link is
a) parallel to the link
b) perpendicular to the link joining the points
c) at 45 degree to the link joining the points
d) at 30 degree
11. In a reciprocating engine, which of the following forms a kinematic link

a) cylinder and piston
b) piston and connecting rod
c) crank shaft and flywheel
d) flywheel and engine frame
12. Ball and socket forms a

a) turning pair
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b) rolling pair
c) sliding pair
d) spherical pair
13. The lead screw of lathe with nut forms a

a) turning pair
b) rolling pair
c) screw pair
d) force closed pair
14. when the element of the pair are kept in contact by the action of external forces, the pairs
are said to be
a) lower pair
b) higher pair
c) self closed pair
d) force closed pair
15. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relative motion between
link is completly constrained, is called as
a) structure
b) mechanism
c) kinematic chain
d) inversion
16. The relation between number of pairs (p) forming a kinematic chain and number of links
(l) is
a) l = 2p - 2
b) l = 2p - 3
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c) l = 2p - 4
d) l = 2p - 5
17. A kinematic chian is known as a mechanism when

a) none of the links fixed
b) one of the links fixed
c) two of the links fixed
d) all of the links are to be fixed
18. which of the following is an inversion of slider crank chain?

a) beam engine
b) watt indicator
c) elliptical trammel
d) whit worth quick return motion mechanism
19. which of the following is an inversion of double slider crank chain ?

a) coupling of a locomotive
b) pendulum pump
c) elliptical trammel
d) oscilating cylinder engine
20. When relative motion between two element is completely or successfully constrained, the
these two elements from a
a) mechanism
b) machine
c) kinematic pair
d) kinematic chain
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21. Ball bearing and roller bearing form a

a) turning pair
b) rolling pair
c) sliding pair
d) spherical pair
22. Which one of the following is a lower pair?

a) ball and roller bearing
b) automobile steering gear
c) cam and follower
d) belt and chain drives
23. Choose the correct statement

a) sliding pair has incompletely constrained motion
b) a pair of friction discs constitutes a lower pair
c) rectilinear motion of a piston is converted into rotary motion by slider crank
d) automobile steering gear is an example of higher pair
24. The motion of a shaft with collars at each endin a circular hole is an example of
a) incompletely constrained motion
b) completely constrained motion
c) successfully constrained motion
25. motion of a shaft a circular hole is an example of

a) incompletely constrained motion
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b) completely constrained motion

c) successfully constrained motion
d) force closed
26. The differential mechanism of an automobile is having degree of freedom

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
27. The Ackermann steering gear is the inversion of

a) slider crank chain
b) four bar chain
c) crossed slider crank chain
d) double slider crank chain
28. Oldham's coupling and elliptic trammels are the inversion of

a) double slider crank chain
b) single slider crank chain
c) four bar chain
d) crossed slider crank chain
29. any point on a link connecting double slider chain will trace a
a) straight line
b) circle
c) ellipse
d) parabola
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30. a mechanism is assemblage of

a) two links
b) three linnks
c) four links or more than four links
d) five link
31. a sliding crank chain consists of following number of turning and sliding pairs
a) 1, 3
b) 2,2
c) 3,1
d) 4,1
32. The tendency of body to resist change from rest or motion is known as
a) resisting torque
b) friction
c) inertia
d) resisting force
33. Typewriter constitutes

a) Machine
b) structure
c) mechansim
d) pair
34. A cam mechanism imparts following motion

a) rotating
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b) ocsillating
c) reciprocating
d) not any of the above
35. open pairs are thosee which have

a) point or line contact
b) surface contact
c) elements of pair are not held together mechanically
d) two elements permits relative motion
36. For a kinematic chain to be considered as mechanism

a) two links should be fixed
b) one links should be fixed
c) none of the above
d) there is no such criterion
37. In simplest form, a cam mechanism consists of following number of links

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
38. In SHM motion, acceleration is proportional to

a) velocity
b) displacement
c) rate of change of velocity
d) stroke
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39. For a SHM motion of the follower, a cosine curve represents

a) displacement
b) velocity
c) acceleration
d) jerk
40. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a reciprocating engine mechanism are
a) 4,6
b) 4,5
c) 5,4
d) 6,4
41. According to kennndys theorem, if three bodies have plane motion, their instantaneous
centers lie on
a) triangle
b) a point
c) two lines
d) a straight line
42. Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the

a) centrepetal component of accelration with length of link
b) tangential component of accelration with length of link
c) resultant with link length
d) velocity
43. Klien's construction is useful to determine
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a) velocity of various parts

b) acceleration of various parts
c) displacement of varoius parts
d) angular accelearion of various parts
44. A circle passing through the pitch point with its center at the center of cam axis is known
as
a) pitch circle
b) base circle
c) prime circle
d) cam circle
45. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the
axis of the shaft. This arrangement is called
a) Spur gearing
b) helical gearing
c) Bevel Gear
d) Spiral gear
46. The size of the gear is usually give by

a) Addendum circle
b) Dedendum
c) pitch circle
d) clearance circle
47. The radial distance of tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth is called
a) Dedendum
b) addendum
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c) clearance
d) working depth
48. The product of diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to

a) 1
b) 1/
c)
d) 2
49. Involute profile is preferred to cycloid because

a) The pitch is easy to cut
b) Only one curve is required to cut
c) all of above
50. The contact ratio for gear is

a) 0
b) 1
c) more than 1
d) 1.5
51. cam size depends on

a) base circle
b) pitch circle
c) prime circle
d) outer circle
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52. The maximum value of pressure angle in case of cam is kept as

a) 10 degree
b) 14 degree
c) 20 degree
d) 30 degree
53. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller base circle will give
a) small value of pressure angle
b) large value of pressure angle
c) there is no such relation
d) something else
54. A rigid body possesses_____degrees of freedom.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
55. Transmission angle is the angle between

a) Input link and coupler
b) Input link and fixed link
c) Output link and coupler
d) Output link and fixed link
56. ________ is an inversion of Double slider crank chain.

a) Coupling rod of a locomotive
b) Scotch yoke mechanism
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c) Hand pump
d) Reciprocating engine
57. The Kutzbach criterion for determining the number of degrees of freedom (n) is (where l
= number of links, j = number of joints and h = number of higher pairs)
a) n = 3(l-1)-2j-h
b) n = 2(l-1)-2j-h
c) n = 3(l-1)-3j-h
d) n = 2(l-1)-3j-h
58. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having 50 teeth. The two gears
are connected by an arm. The number of turns made by the smaller gear for one revolution of
arm about the centre of bigger gear is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
59. Which gear is used for connecting two coplanar and intersecting shafts?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) worm gear
60. Module of a gear is

a) D/T
b) T/D
c) 2D/T
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d) 2T/D
61. Length of arc of contact is given by

a) Arc of approach - Arc of recess
b) Arc of approach + Arc of recess
c) Arc of approach / Arc of recess
d) Arc of approach x Arc of recess
62. The type of gears used to connect two non parallel and non intersecting shafts is
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Spiral gear
63. In which of the following type of gear train the first gear and the last gear are co-axial.
a) Simple gear train
b) Compound gear train
c) Reverted gear train
d) epicyclic
64. Which gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in a small space?
d) Epicyclic gear train
65. Which type of gear train is used in clock mechanism to join hour hand and minute hand?
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d) Epicyclic gear train
66. Which type of gearing is used in steering system of an automobile?

a) Rack and pinion
b) Worm and wheel
c) Spiral gears
67. Which one of the following is an exact straight line mechanism using lower pairs?
a) Watts mechanism
b) Grasshopper mechanism
c) Roberts mechanism
d) Paucelliers mechanism
68. Consider the following mechanisms:
1.Oscillating cylinder engine mechanism

2.Toggle mechanism
3. Radial cylinder engine mechanism
4. Quick return mechanism
Which of the above are inversions of slider crank mechanism?
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
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d) 1, 3 and 4
69. Which of the following is open pair

a) journal bearing
b) Ball and socket joint
c) leave screw and nut
d) all of the above
70. which of the gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in small space?
a) simple gear train
b) compound gear train
c) reverted gear train
d) epicyiclic gear train
71. The component of acceleration,parallel to the veloity of the particle, at the given instant is
called
a) radial component
b) tangential componnent
c) coriolis component
d) resultant
72. The radial distance of a tooth from pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is called
a) dedundum
b) addendum
c) clearance
d) working depth
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73. The module is reciprocal of

a) diametral pitch
b) circular pitch
c) pitch diameter
d) pressure angle
74. Mitre gears are used for

a) great speed reduction
b) equal speed
c) minimum axial thrust
d) minimum backlash
75. The condtion for correct gearing is

a) pitch line velocities of teeth be same
b) radius of curavture of two profile be same
c) common normal to the pitch surface cuts the line of centres at a fixed point
d) pitch line velocities of teeth different
76. Involute profile is prefered to cycloid because

a) the profile is easy to cut
b) only one curve is required to cut
c) the rack has straight line profile and hence can be cut accurately
d) smoother operation
77. Interfernece can be avoided in involute gears with 20 degree pressure angle by
a) cutting involute correctly
b) using as small umber of teeth as possible
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c) using more than 20 teeth

d) using more than 8 teeht
78. In simple gear train, if the number of idle gears is odd, then the motion of driven gear will
a) be same as that of driving gear
b) be opposite as that of driving gear
c) depend upon the number of teeth on the driving gear
79. The train value of gear is

a) equal to velocity ration of a gear train
b) reciprocal of velocityy ratio of a gear train
c) always greater that unity
d) always less than unity
80. In a gear train, when the axes of the shafts, over which the gears are mounted, move
relative to a fixed axis is called
a) epicyclic gear train
b) reverted gear train
c) compound gear train
d) simple gear train
81. A differential gear in an automobile is a

b) epicyclic
c) compound gear train
d) compound gear
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82. A differential gear in automobile is used to

a) reduce the speed
b) assist in changing in speed
c) provide jerk free movement of vehicle
d) help in turning
83. The angle between the direction of the follower motion and a normal to the pitch curve is
called
a) pitch angle
b) prime angle
c) base angle
d) pressure angle
84. The cam follower generally used in automobile

a) kife edge follower
b) flat faced folower
c) spherical faced follwer
d) roller follwer
85. The cam follower extensively used in air craft engines is

b) flat faced follower
d) roller follwer
86. In a radial cam, the follower moves
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a) in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis

b) in a direction parallel to cam axis
c) in any direction irrespective of the cam axis
d) along the cam axis
87. A radial follower is one

a) That reciprocates in the guides
b) that ocillates
c) in which the follower translates along an axis passing throgh the cam centre of rotation
d) translates
88. offset is provided to a cam follower mechanism to

a) minimise the side thrust
b) accelerate
c) avoid jerk
d) reduced the noise
89. For a low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should move with
a) uniform velocity
b) simple harmonic motion
c) uniform acceleration and retardation
d) cycloidal motion
90. For high speed engines, the cam and follwer should move with
a) uniform velocity
b) simple harmonic motion
c) uniform acceleration and retardation
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d) cycloidal motion
91. which of the following displacement diagrams should be chosen for better dynamic
perforamance of cam follower motion
a) simple harmonic motion
b) parabolic motion
c) cycloidal motion
d) tangent
92. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the relaitve motion between
the linkage is compltly constrained is called as
a) structure
b) mechanism
c) kinematic chain
d) inversion
93. The mechanism forms a structure, when the number of degree of freedom is equal to
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) -1
94. In a four bar chain or quadric cycle

a) each of the four pairs is turning pair
b) one is a turning pair and three sliding pairs
c) three are turning pairs and one is sliding pair
d) all are sliding pairs
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95. The total number of instantaneous centers for a mechanism consiting of n links are
a) n/2
b) n
c) (n-1)/2
d) [n(n-1)]/2
96. The instantaneous centers which vary with the configuration of the mechanism are called
a) permanet instantaneous centres
b) fixed instantaneous centres
c) neither fixed norpermanet instantaneous centres
d) flexible instantaneous centres
97. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having parallel teeth to the
axis of the shaft. the arrangement is called
a) spur gearing
b) helical gearing
c) bevel gearing
d) spiral gearing
98. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action gives the same motion as the actual gear
is called
a) addendum circle
b) dedundum circle
c) pitch circle
d) clearance circle
99. which of the following is incorrect relationship for gears

a) circular pitch X diameteral pitch = 3.14
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b) module = pcd/No of teeth

c) dedendum = 1.157 module
d) addedendum = 2.157 module
100. The train value of a gear train is

a) equal to velocity ratio
b) reciprocal of velocity ratio
c) >1
d) <1
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1. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion which will mesh with any gear without
interference for 20 full depth involute teeth will be
a) 12
b) 14
c) 18
d) 24
2. The coriolis component of acceleration leads the sliding velocity by

a) 45 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 135 degree
d) 180 degree
3. The magnitude of linear velocity of a point B on a link AB relative to point A is (where

= Angular velocity of the link AB)
a) x AB
b) (AB)2
c) (AB)2
d) (AB)2
4. The mechanism in which two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs, is called a
a) double slider crank chain
b) crank slider
c) four bar
d) beam engine
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5. Which of the following is an inversion of a double slider crank chain?

a) Oldham's coupling
b) beam engine
c) engine mechanism
d) elliptical trammel
6. Which of the following is a turning pair?

a) Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine
b) shaft with collars at both ends fitted into a circular hole
c) lead screw
d) Ball and a socket joint
7. The method of obtaining different mechanisms by fixing in turn different links in a

kinematic chain, is known as
a) structure
b) machine
c) inversion
d) compound mecahnism
8. The mechanismm used in a petrol engine is

a) crank mechanism
b) slider mechanism
c) crank slider mechanism
d) circular mechanism
9. The coriolis component of acceleration is taken into account for
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a) slider crank mechanism

b) four bar chain mechanism
c) quick return motion mechanism
d) straight line mechanism
10. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies move relatively to each other, their
instantaneous centres will lie on a
a) straight line
b) parabolic curve
c) triangle
d) triangle
11. The relation l = (j + 2) apply only to kinematic chains in which lower pairs are used. This
may be used to kinematic chains in which higher pairs are used, but each higher pair may be
taken as equivalent to
a) one lower pair and two additional links
b) two lower pairs and one additional link
c) two lower pairs and two additional links
d) any one of these
12. The relation between number of links (l) and number of joints (j) in a kinematic chain is
a) l = (j + 2)
b) l = 2/3 (j + 2)
c) l = (j + 2)
d) l = j + 4
13. In a pantograph, all the pairs are

a) turning pairs
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b) sliding pairs
c) spherical pairs
d) self-closed pairs
14. The velocity of a body moving with simple harmonic motion is __________ at the mean
position
a) zero
b) unity
c) minimum
d) maximim
15. The magnitude of velocities of the points on a rigid link is
a) directly proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
parallel to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
b) directly proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
perpendicular to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
c) inversely proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
parallel to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
d) inversely proportional to the distance from the points to the instantaneous centre and is
perpendicular to the line joining the point to the instantaneous centre
16. The mechanism consisting of three turning pairs and one sliding pair, is called a
a) single slider crank chain
b) single slider crank chain
c) crank and slotted lever quick return motion mechanism
d) all above
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17. When the nature of contact between the elements of a pair is such that one element can
turn about the other by screw threads, the pair is known as a
a) screw pair
b) spherical pair
c) turning pair
d) sliding pair
18. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to the difference between a machine
and a structure?
a) The parts of a machine move relative to one another, whereas the members of a structure
do not move relative to one another
b) The links of a machine may transmit both power and motion, whereas the members of a
structure transmit forces only
c) A machine transforms the available energy into some useful work, whereas in a structure
no energy is transformed into useful work
d) all of the above
19. he dedendum circle diameter is equal to (where = Pressure angle)

a) pitch circle dia. x cos
b) addendum circle dia. x cos
c) clearance circle dia. x cos
d) pitch circle dia. x sin
20. Pitch point of a cam is

a) a point on the pitch curve having minimum pressure angle
b) a point on the pitch curve having maximum pressure angle
c) any point on the pitch curve
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d) any point on the prime circle
21. Which of the following mechanism is an approximate straight line motion mechanism?
a) Watt's mechanism
b) Watt's mechanism
c) Robert's mechanism
d) all of above
22. The maximum velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
a)
b) r
c) 2r
d) /r
23. In gears, interference takes place when

a) the tip of a tooth of a mating gear digs into the portion between base and root circles
b) gears do not move smoothly in the absence of lubrication
c) pitch of the gears is not same
d) gear teeth are undercut
24. The two links OA and OB are connected by a pin joint at O. If the link OA turns with
angular velocity 1 rad/s in the clockwise direction and the link OB turns with angular
velocity 2 rad/s in the anti-clockwise direction, then the rubbing velocity at the pin joint O
is (where r = Radius of the pin at O)
a) 1.2.r
b) ( 1 - 2)r
c) ( 1 + 2)r
d) ( 1 - 2)2r
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25. The size of cam depends upon

a) base circle
b) base circle
c) prime circle
d) pitch curve
26. The acceleration of a flat-faced follower when it has contact with the flank of a circular
arc cam, is given by
a) 2R cos
b) 2(R - r1)cos
c) 2(R - r1)sin
d) 2r1 sin
27. The sense of coriolis component 2 v is same as that of the relative velocity vector v
rotated at
a) 45 in the direction of rotation of the link containing the path
b) 45 in the direction of rotation of the link containing the path
c) 90 in the direction of rotation of the link containing the path
d) 180 in the direction opposite to the rotation of the link containing the path
28. A point B on a rigid link AB moves with respect to A with angular velocity rad/s. The
total acceleration of B with respect to A will be equal to
a) vector sum of radial component and coriolis component
b) vector sum of radial component and coriolis component
c) vector sum of radial component and tangential component
d) vector difference of radial component and tangential component
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29. The Ackerman steering gear mechanism is preferred to the Davis steering gear
mechanism, because
a) whole of the mechanism in the Ackerman steering gear is on the back of the front wheels
b) the Ackerman steering gear consists of turning pairs
c) the Ackerman steering gear consists of turning pairs
d) both (a) and (b)
30. In a gear having involute teeth, the normal to the involute is a tangent to the
a) pitch circle
b) base circle
c) addendum circle
d) dedendum circle
31. The component of the acceleration, parallel to the velocity of the particle, at the given
instant is called
a) radial component
b) tangential component
c) coriolis component
d) resultant
32. The example of successfully constrained motion is a

a) motion of an I.C. engine valve
b) motion of the shaft between a foot-step bearing
c) piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
d) all of the above
33. The cam follower generally used in air-craft engines is

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b) flat faced follower

d) roller follower
34. The following are the data for two crossed helical gears used for speed reduction
Gear I : Pitch circle diameter in the plane of rotation 80 mm and helix angle 300
GEAR II : Pitch circle diameter in the plane of rotation 120 mm and helix angle 22.50
a) 1200
b) 900
c) 875
d) 720
35. In a circular arc cam with roller follower, the acceleration in any position of the lift will
depend only upon
a) total lift, total angle of lift, minimum radius of cam and cam speed
b) radius of circular arc, cam speed, location of centre of circular arc and roller diameter
c) mass of cam follower linkage, spring stiffness and cam speed
d) total lift, centre of gravity of the cam and cam speed
36. When the connection between the two elements is such that only required kind of relative
motion occurs, it is known as
a) force closed
b) self-closed pair.
c) open
d) both a and b
37. The Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is formed in a slider crank chain when
the
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a) coupler link is fixed

b) longest link is a fixed link
c) slider is a fixed link
d) smallest link is a fixed link
38. An automobile steering gear is an example of

a) sliding pair
b) rolling pair
c) lower pair
d) higher pair
39. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a

b) reverted gear train
c) sun and planet gear
d) differential gear
40. The working depth of a gear is the radial distance from the
a) pitch circle to the bottom of a tooth
b) pitch circle to the top of a tooth
c) top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth
d) addendum circle to the clearance circle
384
Machining Processes and Metrology
1. Built-up edge formation decreases under the conditions listed below EXCEPT
a) At low cutting speeds
b) Using large positive rake angle
c) With sharper tool
d) Using cutting fluid
2. During turning of mild steel work material, the maximum temperature is observed at
a) Primary deformation zone
b) tool and chip interface
c) tool-flank and work interface
d) machined sub-surface
3. Which of the following DO NOT influence the material removal rate in Electrical
Discharge Machining process
(i) Hardness of the work piece material (ii) Melting temperature of the work piece material
(iii) Hardness of tool material (iv) Discharge current and frequency
a) (i) and (II)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. The angle of a twist drill that determines its rake angle is

a) lip relief angle
b) chisel edge angle
c) helix angle
d) point angle
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5. Which one of the following statements related to grinding process is INCORRECT

a) Grinding wheels made up of finer abrasive grains produce better surface finish
b) Abrasive grains tend to fracture frequently during the grinding process
c) Specific energy in grinding is higher than that in turning
d) cutting speed in grinding process is much lower than that in face milling
6. Two cuttng tools are been compared for a machining operation. The tool life equations are
(i) Carbide tool: VT^1.6 = 3000 (ii) HSS tool: VT^0.6 = 200. In these equations, V is the
cutting speed in m/min and T is the tool life in min. The carbide tool will provide higher tool
life if the cutting speed in m/min exceeds
a) 15.0
b) 39.4
c) 49.3
d) 60.0
7. In water jet machining, the water jet is issued through a 0.3mm diameter orifice at a
pressure of 400 MPa. THe density of water is 1000 kg/cubic meter. The coefficient of
discharge is 1.0. Neglecting all loses during water jet formation through the orifice, the
power of the water in kW is _________
a) 25.3
b) 50.6
c) 75.9
d) 101.2
8. In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100mm diameter with a feed of 0.25mm/rev, depth of cut
of 4mm and cutting velocity of 90 m/min, it is observed that the main (tangential) cutting
force is perpendicular to the friction force acting at the chip-tool interface. If the main
(tangential) cutting force is 1500 N, the orthogonal rake angle of the cutting tool is
___________
a) ZERO Degrees
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b) 3.58 Degrees
c) 5.0 Degrees
d) 7.16 Degrees
9. In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100mm diameter with a feed of 0.25mm/rev, depth of cut
of 4mm and cutting velocity of 90 m/min, it is observed that the main (tangential) cutting
force is perpendicular to the friction force acting at the chip-tool interface. If the main
(tangential) cutting force is 1500 N, the normal force acting at the chip-tool interface is
________
a) 1000 N
b) 1500 N
c) 2000 N
d) 2500 N
10. A disc of 200mm outer and 80mm inner diameter is faced at a feed of 0.1 mm/rev with a
depth of cut of 1mm. The facing operation is undertaken at a constant cutting speed of
90m/min in a CNC lathe. The main (tangential) cutting force is 200 N. Neglecting the
contribution of feed force towards cutting power, the specific cutting energy is _________
a) 0.2 Joules/cubic mm
b) 2.0 Joules/cubic mm
c) 200 Joules/cubic mm
d) 2000 Joules/cubic mm
11. A disc of 200mm outer and 80mm inner diameter is faced at a feed of 0.1 mm/rev with a
depth of cut of 1mm. The facing operation is undertaken at a constant cutting speed of
90m/min in a CNC lathe. The main (tangential) cutting force is 200 N. Assuming approach
and over-travel of the cutting tool to be Zero, the machining time is __________
a) 2.93 minutes
b) 5.86 minutes
c) 6.66 minutes
d) 13.33 minutes
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Machining Processes and Metrology
1. Segmental chips are formed during machining

a) cast iron
b) high speed steel
c) mild steel
d) high carbon steel
2. A single point thread cutting tool should ideally have

a) point angle
b) zero rake angle
c) positive rake angle
d) negative rake angle
3. Cast iron during machining produces

a) discontinuous chips
b) continuous chips
c) continuous chips with built-up-edge
d) none of these
4. When the cutting edge of the tool is dull, then during machining
a) discontinuous chips are formed
b) continuous chips with built-up edge are formed
c) continuous chips are formed
d) no chips are formed
388
5. The tool made of cemented carbide wear out faster at

a) fast speeds
b) slow speeds
c) medium speeds
d) very fast speeds
6. The silicon carbide abrasive is chiefly used for grinding

a) ceramic
b) cast iron
c) cemented carbide
d) all of these
7. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle

a) between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from the
point perpendicular to the base
b) by which the face of the tool is inclined towards back
c) by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
d) between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right angles to
the centre line of the point of the tool
8. The cutting tool in a milling machine is mounted on

a) spindle
b) column
c) knee
d) arbor
9. Drilling is an example of
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a) orthogonal cutting
b) uniform cutting
c) oblique cutting
d) simple cutting
10. Crater wear occurs mainly on the

a) cutting edge only
b) face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only
c) nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
d) front face only
11. A push broach as compared to pull broach

a) has less number of teeth
b) removes less material for each pass of the tool
c) is short and stocky
d) all of the above
12. The lip angle of a single point tool is usually

a) 40 to 60
b) 20 to 40
c) 60 to 80
d) none of these
13. A twist drill is a

a) end cutting tool
b) side cutting tool
c) front cutting tool
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d) none of these
14. The maximum production of small and slender parts is done by

a) sliding head stock automatic lathe
b) multispindle automatic lathe
c) watch maker's lathe
d) capastan lathe
15. The method of grinding used to produce a straight or tapered surface on a workpiece, is
a) surface grinding
b) internal cylindrical grinding
c) form grinding
d) external cylindrical grinding
16. Gear lapping is an operation

a) prior to heat treatment
b) after heat treatment
c) for gear reconditioning
d) none of these
17. In up milling, the thickness of chip is

a) minimum at the beginning of the cut and maximum at the end of the cut
b) maximum at the beginning of the cut and minimum at the end of the cut
c) uniform throughout the cut
d) none of these
18. The facing is an operation of

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a) bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece

b) embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece
c) reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a very narrow surface
d) machining the ends of a workpiece to produce a flat surface square with the axis
19. The lathe spindles are usually made hollow and provided with
a) internal taper
b) internal and external taper
c) external taper
d) no taper
20. Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference of lathe cutting tools?
a) The base is that surface of the shank which bears against the support and takes tangent
pressure of the cut
b) The flank of the tool is the surface or surfaces below and adjacent to the cutting edges
c) The nose is the corner, arc or chamfer joining the side cutting and the end cutting edges
d) The heel is that part of the tool which is shaped to produce the cutting edges and face
21. In machining metals, chips break due to __________ of work material.

a) work hardening
b) toughness
c) elasticity
d) ductility
22. The lead screw of a lathe has __________ threads.

a) multi-start square
b) double start square
392
c) single start square

d) any one of these
23. Lapping is an operation of

a) making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
b) smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
c) sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
d) producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool
24. Which of the following parameters influence the axial feed rate in centreless grinding?
a) Angle between the axes of grinding and regulating wheels
b) Speed of the regulating wheel
c) Regulating wheel diameter
d) all of the above
25. The machining of titanium is difficult due to

a) chemical reaction between tool and work
b) high thermal conductivity of titanium
c) low tool-chip contact area
d) none of these
26. High speed steel drills can be operated at about __________ the speed of high carbon
steel drills.
a) four times
b) one-fourth
c) one-half
d) double
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27. The rear teeth of a broach

a) remove minimum metal
b) perform burnishing operation
c) remove maximum metal
d) remove no metal
28. In hot machining, tool is made of

a) stainless steel
b) tungsten carbide
c) brass or copper
d) diamond
29. Grinding wheels should be tested for balance

a) only at the time of manufacture
b) before starting the grinding operation
c) at the end of grinding operation
d) occasionally
30. In ultrasonic machining, the metal is removed by

a) using abrasive slurry between the tool and work
b) direct contact of tool with the work
c) maintaining an electrolyte between the work and tool in a very small gap between the two
d) erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges between the tool and work
31. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

a) increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
394
b) increasing the length of the arm

c) decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
d) decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever
32. In metal machining, the work-tool contact zone is a zone where heat is generated due to
a) friction between the moving chip and the tool face
b) burnishing friction
c) plastic deformation of metal
33. The method of centreless grinding used to produce taper is

a) through feed grinding
b) infeed grinding
c) endfeed grinding
d) any one of these
34. The angle made by the face of the tool and the plane parallel to the base of cutting tool is
called
a) cutting angle
b) rake angle
c) clearance angle
d) lip angle
35. Which of the following statement is correct for orthogonal cutting system?
a) The cutting edge clears the width of the workpiece on either ends.
b) The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel.
c) The chip flows over the tool face and the direction of the chip flow velocity is normal to
the cutting edge.
395
d) all of the above
36. The abrasive recommended for grinding materials of high tensile strength is
a) silicon carbide
b) aluminium oxide
c) sand stone
d) diamond
37. Crater wear is predominant in

a) tungsten carbide tools
b) carbon tool steels
c) high speed steel tools
d) ceramic tools
38. The factor responsible for the formation of continuous chips with built up edge is
a) high cutting speed and small rake angle
b) high cutting speed and large rake angle
c) low cutting speed and small rake angle
d) low cutting speed and large rake angle
39. Glazing in grinding wheels can be decreased by

a) using a softer wheel or by decreasing the wheel speed
b) using a softer wheel or by increasing the wheel speed
c) using a harder wheel or by increasing the wheel speed
d) using a harder wheel or by decreasing the wheel speed
40. The cutting speed is minimum while machining __________ with a high speed steel tool.
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a) cast iron
b) brass
c) mild steel
d) aluminium
41. In centreless grinding, the surface speed of regulating wheel is

a) 5 to 15 m/min
b) 60 to 90 m/min
c) 15 to 60 m/min
d) 90 to 120 m/min
42. A process of removing metal by pushing or pulling a cutting tool is called

a) up milling
b) down milling
c) forming
d) broaching
43. An important geometrical quantity in the cutting of metals which can be used as a
criterion for machinability of metals is
a) feed rate
b) shear angle
c) cutting speed
d) tool geometry
44. In metal cutting, use of low feeds and high cutting speeds is desired when the objective is
a) surface finish
b) dry machining
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c) high metal removal rate

d) use of soft cutting tool
45. The angle on which the strength of the tool depends is

a) cutting angle
b) lip angle
c) rake angle
d) clearance angle
46. Larger than 15 side cutting edge angle

a) decreases tool life
b) increases tool life
c) produces chipping and decreases tool life
d) results in excessive stress concentration and greater heat generation
47. The swing diameter over the bed is __________ the height of the centre measured from
the bed of the lathe
a) twice
b) thrice
c) equal to
d) one and a half
48. Which of the following operations can be performed with milling cutters?
a) cutting external screw threads
b) cutting teeth of spur gears
c) cutting key ways on shafts
d) all of these
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49. In grinding irregular, curved, tapered, convex and concave surfaces, the grinder used is
a) tool and cutter grinder
b) cylindrical grinder
c) internal grinder
d) surface grinder
50. Down milling is also called

a) end milling
b) climb milling
c) conventional milling
d) face milling
51. The hardness of a grinding wheel is specified by

a) Rockwell hardness number
b) Brinell hardness number
c) Vickers pyramid number
d) letter of alphabet
52. Any number of equal divisions can be obtained on milling machine by

a) simple indexing
b) differential indexing
c) direct indexing
d) compound indexing
53. The type of tool used on lathe, shaper and planer is

a) two point cutting tool
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b) multi-point cutting tool

c) three point cutting tool
d) single point cutting tool
54. In order to grind soft material

a) fine grained grinding wheel is used
b) medium grained grinding wheel is used
c) coarse grained grinding wheel is used
d) any one of these
55. The type of reamer used for reaming operation in a blind hole, is
a) straight fluted reamer
b) left hand spiral fluted reamer
c) right hand spiral fluted reamer
d) any one of these
56. The depth of cut in drilling is __________ the drill diameter.

a) one-half
b) equal to
c) one-fourth
d) double
57. In a single point tool, the angle between the surface of the flank immediately below the
point and a line drawn from the point perpendicular to the base, is known as
a) side rake angle
b) side relief angle
c) end relief angle
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d) back rake angle
58. A set of eight form relieved milling cutters for each module is provided to enable cutting
of gears of different
a) width of gears
b) number of teeth
c) types of gears
d) materials
59. The purpose of jigs and fixtures is to

a) increase machining accuracy
b) facilitate interchangeability
c) decrease expenditure on quality control
d) all of these
60. The trade name of a non-ferrous cast alloy composed of cobalt, chromium and tungsten is
called
a) diamond
b) ceramic
c) cemented carbide
d) stellite
61. The velocity of tool along the tool face is known as

a) chip velocity
b) shear velocity
c) cutting velocity
d) mean velocity
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62. The grinding operaion is a

a) forming operation
b) shaping operation
c) surface finishing operation
d) dressing operation
63. The machine tool guideways are of

a) flat type
b) dovetail type
c) V-type
d) any one of these
64. A measurement system only includes operators and gauges

a) Can't predict
b) False
c) Always True
d) May be true or false
65. Precision is related to the accuracy of the measurements

a) True
b) Always False
c) May be true or false
d) can't predict
66. Which one of the following methods produces gear by generating process
a) Hobbing
b) Casting
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c) Punching
d) Milling
e) Broaching
67. In metrology, a feeler gauge is used to check

a) Radius
b) Screw pitch
c) Surface roughness
d) Thickness of clearance
68. In surface roughness measurements, the term "secondary texture" represents ______
a) roughness
b) Flaw
c) Lay direction
d) Waviness
69. Tomlinson's surface meter and Taylor Hobson Talysurf are _______ instruments
a) surface roughness measuring
b) lay direction measuring
c) Surface waviness measuring
70. Slip gauges are _________standards

a) wave length
b) secondary
c) Line
d) end
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71. Dial gauge is a ________

a) linear measring instrument
b) Angular measuring instrument
c) Surface measuring instrument
d) None of these
72. Among the various terminologies related to surface roughness, 'Ra' represents _______
a) Roughness average
b) Root Mean square value
c) Mean roughnes depth
d) sampling length
73. The least measurement that can be detected by a measuring instrument is _______
a) accuracy
b) Sensitivity
c) calibration
d) Precision
74. The closeness of the measured value to the actual value is ________
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Repeatability
d) Sensitivity
75. The comparators eliminate the __________

a) Measuring time
b) need for machining
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c) surface roughness
d) sourface waviness
76. The scientist 'Carl Edvard Johansson' invented ________

a) Sine bar
b) Comparators
c) Slip gauges
d) Surface table
77. Primary standards are kept at all leading industries across the globe
a) True
b) False
78. The closeness among the measured value is ___________

a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Repeatability
d) Calibration
79. The outer most profile circle of a gear is ________

a) pitch circle
b) Addendum circle
c) Dedendum circle
80. In gears, the face width is the width of ___________

a) Top land
b) Face
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c) Bottom land
d) clearance
81. In gears, the inner most profile circle is _________

a) Addendum
b) dedundum
c) Pitch
d) Clearance
82. Milling machine uses a ___________

a) Single point cutting tool
b) Diamond tool
c) Multipoint cutting tool
d) Drill bit
83. If the milling cutter axis is parallel to the surface generated, it comes under the category
of _________
a) face milling
b) peripheral milling
c) end milling
d) straddle miling
84. _____________milling refers to the use of two or more milling cutters mounted on the
same arbor
a) Profile milling
b) gang milling
c) End milling
d) form milling
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85. The measured forces/force in Merchant Circle diagram are/is _______

a) Friction force
b) shear force and Cutting force
c) Cutting force and tangential force
d) Normal force
86. In grinding wheel designation, the structure of the grinding wheel is represented by
________
a) an alphabet
b) a number
c) a special character
87. In milling machine operations, 'T-slots' are made by ______________

a) Form cutters
b) T-Slot milling cutters
c) End mill and T-slot milling cutter
d) Profile milling cutter
88. Simple indexing mechanism consists of _____________

a) Worm, worm gear assembly
b) Index plates
c) Worm worm gear assembly and Index plates
d) spur gear and worm gear assembly
89. In a lathe, 'Half-nut' mechanism is engaged during ________ operation

a) taper turning
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b) Step turning
c) Facing and turning
d) Thread cutting
90. In lathe turning parameters, another name for depth of cut is __________
a) longtitudinal feed
b) facing
c) cross feed
d) speed
91. In a lathe, the best possible way to hold irregular work piece is by using a ___________
a) 3-Jaw self centering chuck
b) 4-jaw independent chuck
c) face plates and clamps
d) Magnetic chuck
92. In shaper, the clapper box mechanism _____

a) lifts the cutting tool vertically up during cutting stroke
b) lifts the cutting tool vertically up during return stroke
c) Lowers the shaper table
d) Swivels the cutting tool during the return stroke
93. While a drill bit drills a hole, the chips are removed through _________
a) the other side of the work piece
b) the flutes
c) the shank
d) land
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94. A boring tool __________ a hole

a) generates
b) super finishes
c) enlarges
d) all the above
95. Choose the most appropriate option to match the terminology "rise per teeth".
a) Broach tool
b) grinding wheeel abrasives
c) Angular milling cutter
d) Milling cutter
96. Merchant Circle Diagram is ____________

a) an analytical approach find the friction force, Normal friction force, Shear force and
Normal shear force.
b) a Finite element method
c) a graphical approach to find the cutting force and tangential force
d) a graphical approach to find the friction force, Normal friction force, Shear force and
Normal shear force.
97. Taylor's tool life equation optimises _________

a) Cutting speed and tool life
b) tool life and cutting angle
c) cutting speed and end relif angle
98. In a shaper, the Pawl mechanism is to provide ____________

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a) feed movement to the tool

b) feed movement to the table
c) Swivel the tool head
d) Rotate the bull gear
99. In metrology, angular measurements are made using __________

a) sine bar alone
b) surface platesand slip gauges
c) Sine bar and slip gauges
d) Slip gauge alone
100. In metrology, calibration is performed to __________

a) manufacture the equipments
b) measure the repeatabiity of the instrument.
c) measure the surface roughness
d) to fix the errors
Machining Processes and Metrology (Fresh 40 questions)
1. Double helical gears are also known as _________

a) Herringbone gears
b) double bevel gears
c) rack and pinion geras
d) Conical gears
2. _________ gears transmit power between two perpendicular shafts

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a) Conical
b) Spur
c) Bevel
d) helical
3. ____________ is mandatory for electrochemical machining

a) copper material
b) Electrolyte
c) brass material
d) water bath
4. The energy domain in water jet machining ang abrasive jet machining is different
a) True
b) False
c) It depends on the work piece material
d) It depends on the jet pressure
5. _________ is an essential part in abrasive jet machining.

a) gear pump
b) gears
c) Nozzle
d) oxygen cylinder
6. In lathe, the half nut mechanism is to engage automatic _________ movement.

a) speed
b) depth of cut
c) speed and depth of cut
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d) feed
7. In conventional machining process, the tool is ______ than the work piece.
a) softer
b) Smaller
c) Longer
d) Harder
8. Gear honing is a collective name for both gear finishing and gear forming operations.
a) False
b) Cannot judge
c) True, but depends on the gear material
d) Always true
9. EDM stands for _____________

a) Electric Dielectric Machining
b) Electro Discharge Machining
c) Energy Discharge Machining
d) None of these answers
10. __________ comes under non-conventional machining process

a) turning
b) grinding
c) lapping
d) drilling
11. In laser beam machining, the work piece comes as a part of the electrical circuit
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a) True
b) Partially true
c) partially false
d) always False
12. Prolonged usage of a loaded grinding wheel produces ___________

a) grinding wheel fracture
b) glazed surface
c) superfinshed work piece
d) dressed grinding wheel.
13. In broaching operation, RPT means ______________

a) Rotations Per Tooth
b) Rise Per Tooth
c) Radius Per Tooth
d) Robustness Per Tooth
14. In a milling machine, the position of _________ determines the type of milling machine
a) work table
b) radial arm
c) column
d) Arbor
15. Can a drill bit produce square holes?

a) Yes, with an ordinary drill bit
b) Yes, with special drill bits
c) Yes, with a simple indexing mechanism
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d) Never
16. In shaper, the maximum pssible one side travel of the ram is temed as ____________
a) Stroke length
b) Skew length
c) Indexing length
d) Pitch circle diameter
17. Rack is type of gear with ______ radius

a) Finite, but less than 50mm
b) infinite
c) 60mm
d) 60.55mm
18. The use of metal working fluids

a) increase the tool life
b) produce better surface finish
c) prevent rise in temperature
d) All the options are correct
19. Which of the following is added to the cutting fluids so that soapy film is produced
between the workpiece and tool and chip and tool face?
a) Sulphur
b) Chlorine
c) Both Sulphur and Chlorine
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20. Usually no cutting oil is used in

a) Broaching
b) Planning and shaping
c) Thread rolling
d) Honing
21. Which one of the following process is not a machining process?

a) Planing
b) Boring
c) Turning
d) Forging
22. What is the disadvantage of the machining processes?

a) Machining processes cannot produce complex geometries.
b) Machining processes cannot produce dimensions to very close tolerances.
c) In machining processes there is loss of material in the form of chips.
d) Only a few numbers of materials can be machined
23. Which one of the following is NOT a guideline for the designing of the machined parts?
a) Whenever possible, machining processes should be used to manufacture a part.
b) Sharp corners and sharp points in the cutting tool should be avoided.
c) Avoiding interrupted cuts, undercutting.
d) Providing relief space for the burr removal.
24. Which of the following tool is BEST used for turning?

a) Multi point cutting tool
b) Single point cutting tool
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c) Hand tool
d) End cutting tool
25. Turning is an operation in which

a) Work piece rotates and tool reciprocates
b) Work piece is fixed and tool rotates and reciprocates
c) Tool is fixed and work piece reciprocates
d) Tool rotates and work piece reciprocates
26. In turning, the metal removal takes place by_____________

a) Plastic deformation
b) Plastic deformation and shearing
c) Shearing
d) Elastic deformation
27. In the drilling process, the drill bit should be always _____________to the drilling
surface.
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) Angular (45 degrees)
28. Which is the costliest process for making round holes?

a) Boring
b) Reaming
c) Drilling
d) Perforatting
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29. Accuracy of the drilled holes depends on_____________

a) correctness of drill sharpening
b) Thermal coefficient of expansion of material
c) Drill bushing
d) All the answers are correct
30. In reamed holes, what is the recommended tolerance for the hole diameter over 50 mm?
a) 0.025
b) 0.05
c) 0.08
d) All the answers are correct
31. In milling operation, materials having higher hardness require the cutting speed and
feed per tooth.
a) Higher cutting speed and reduced feed
b) Lower cutting speed and increased
feed
c) Lower cutting speed and reduced feed
d) Higher cutting speed and increased
feed
32. Which type cutters are more prone to vibration, chatter, and deflection of tool and
machine components?
a) Small size
b) Large size
c) Both
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33. In peripheral milling, the machining is performed by cutting edges

a) On both the ends of the cutter
b) On the outside periphery of the cutter
c) On the inner periphery of the cutter
34. Which one milling process is an economical approach if product design permits
stacking or slicing operations?
a) Plain milling
b) Face milling
c) Form milling
d) Spot facing
35. Which type of materials is processed by milling process?

a) Ferrous
b) Nonferrous
c) Both ferous and non ferrous
36. In planning the motion is accomplished by the ______________.

a) Work piece
b) Tool
c) Cross slide
d) Arbor
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37. Inaccessible surfaces those cannot be machined with other types of equipment can be
produced by __________.
a) Turning
b) Broaching
c) Grinding
d) Shaping
38. Which of the following is not a design recommendation for broaching?

a) A part to be broached should be designed so that it can be easily located
b) The forged parts should be kept as close dimension as possible, allowing only minimum
stock for finishing
c) Thin wall sections are to be provided
d) If similar broaching operation is to be carried out for a group of parts, then it is advisable
to design the parts in such a way that same broaching tool is used
39. What is broaching?

a) Broaching is the cutting of a machinable material using single point cutting tool by moving
the tool linearly relative to the work in the direction of tool axis
b) Broaching is the cutting of a machinable material using multiple tooth cutting tools
by moving the tool linearly relative to the work in the direction of tool axis
c) Broaching is the cutting of a machinable material using multiple tooth cutting tools
by moving the tool perpendicularly relative to the work in the direction of tool axis
40. Which of the following does not require broaching operation?

a) Square, circular or irregular holes
b) Gears and ratchets
c) Cam forms
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420
Materials Engineering & Technology
1. Which one of the following metals is commonly alloyed with iron to improve its corrosion
resistance?
a) Co
b) Cr
c) Ti
d) Nb
2. The number of slip systems in a metal with FCC crystal structureis

a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
3. The material property which depends only on the basic crystal structure is
a) Fatigue strength
b) Work hardening
c) Fracture strength
d) Elastic constant
4. What is a surface imperfection, which separates crystals of different orientations in a polycrystalline aggregate, called?
a) Edge dislocation
b) Stacking fault
c) Grain boundary
d) Screw dislocation
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5. The B.C.C. and H.C.P. metals undergo plastic deformation by:

a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Edge dislocation
d) Twinning in combination with slip
6. Martensite is a super-saturated solution of carbon in

a) Alpha iron
b) Beta iron
c) Gamma iron
d) Delta iron
7. Which one of the following cast irons consists of carbon in rosette form?
a) White cast iron
b) Gray cast iron
c) Malleable cast iron
d) Nodular cast iron
8. Monel metal is an alloy of

a) Iron and carbon
b) Copper and zinc
c) Aluminium and copper
d) Copper and nickel
9. Cutting tool material 18-4-1 HSS has which one of the following compositions?
a) 18% W, 4% Cr, 1% V
b) 18% Cr, 4% W, 1% V
422
c) 18% W, 4% Ni, 1% V
d) 18% Cr, 4% Ni, 1% V
10. Cubic boron nitride

a) Has a very high hardness which is comparable to that of diamond.
b) Has a hardness which is slightly more than that of HSS.
c) Is used for making cylinder blocks of aircraft engines.
d) Is used for making optical glasses.
MATERIALS ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY
1. The number of atoms present in the unit cell of face centered cubic (FCC) structure is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
2. Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of packing density for the given
crystal structures of metals?
a) Simple cubic Face centred cubic Body centred cubic

b) Body centred cubic - Simple cubic - Face centred cubic
c) Simple cubic - Body centred cubic - Face centred cubic
d) Face centred cubic - Body centred cubic - Simple cubic -
3. The number of atoms present on (100) plane in the unit cell of face centered cubic (FCC)
structure is:
423
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
4. Which one of the following factors is more relevant to represent complete solubility of two
metals in each other?
a) Chemical affinity
b) Valency factor
c) Crystal structure factor
d) Relative size factor
5. Decreasing grain size in a polycrystalline material

a) increases yield strength and corrosion resistance.
b) decreases yield strength and corrosion resistance
c) decreases yield strength but increases corrosion resistance
d) increases yield strength but decreases corrosion resistance
6. The reaction that yields two solid phases on cooling a single solid phase is called
a) eutectic
b) peritectoid
c) peritectic
d) eutectoid
7. Phase formed of diffusionless reaction:

a) Coarse Pearlite
b) Fine Pearlite
424
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
8. Pearlite phase in steel is made up of

a) alternate layers of martensite and cementite
b) alternate layers of ferrite and cementite
c) alternate layers of ferrite and martensite
d) alternate layers of bainite and cementite
9. Which one of the following is not correct

a) Martensite has a BCC structure
b) Austenite has FCC structure
c) -ferrite has BCC structure
d) alternate layers of bainite and cementite
10. Frenkel and Schottky defects are:

a) dislocations in ionic crystals
b) grain boundaries in covalent crystals
c) point defects in ionic crystals
d) point defects in covalent crystals
11. -iron has BCC structure. In a unit cell of -iron, the iron atoms occupy
a) 74% of volume of unit cell
b) 80% of volume of unit cell
c) 68% of volume of unit cell
d) 90% of volume of unit cell
425
12. Consider the following temperature ranges: (a) Room temperature

(b) 0 to 910
degree C (c) 910 degree C to 1400 degree C (d) 1400 degree C to below melting point
In which of the above temperature ranges ferrite with body centered cubic (BCC) structure is
indicated in the Fe-Fe3C phase diagram?
a) a, b, d
b) b, c, d
c) a, c
d) b, c
13. A measure of Rockwell hardness is the

a) depth of penetration of indenter
b) surface area of indentation
c) projected area of indentation
d) height of rebound
14. Consider the following statements about FCC and HCP crystal structure: (a) Both have
same coordination number and atomic packing fraction, (b) Both represent closely packed
crystal structures, (c) Both structures are generated by stacking of close packed plants on top
of one another, but only the stacking sequence is different. Which of the statements given
above are correct?
a) a, b
b) b, c
c) a, b, c
d) a, c
15. Chemicals attack atoms within grain boundaries preferentially because they have
a) lower energy than those in the grains
b) higher energy than those in the grains
426
c) higher number of atoms than in the grains

d) lower number of atoms than in the grains
16. What is the movement of block of atoms along certain crystallographic planes and
directions, termed as?
a) Glide
b) Twinning
c) Slip
d) Jog
17. The B.C.C. and H.C.P. metals undergo plastic deformation by:
a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Edge dislocation
d) Twinning in combination with slip
18. Consider the following statements about medium carbon steel: (a) It can be quenchhardened but not case-hardened, (b) It cannot be quench-hardened but case-hardening can be
done,(c) It exhibits distinct yield point under tension test. Which of the following statements
given above are correct?
a) a & b
b) b & c
c) a & c
d) a, b & c
19. Which of the following factors influence in a plain carbon steel? (a) Percentage carbon,
(b) Quenching media, (c) Work size.
a) a & b
427
b) a & c
c) b & c
d) a, b & c
20. According to Gibbs' phase rule, the number of degrees of freedom of an eutectic point in
a binary system is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
21. In a eutectic system, two elements are completely

a) insoluble in solid and liquid states
b) soluble in liquid state
c) soluble in solid state
d) insoluble in liquid state
22. Eutectic reaction for iron-carbon system occurs at

a) 600C
b) 723C
c) 1150C
d) 1493C
23. Increase of ferrite phase in steel increases:

a) Strength
b) Hardness
c) Ductility
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d) Brittleness
24. Pearlite consists of

a) 6.67% C and 93.33% ferrite
b) 13% Fe and 87% cementite
c) 13% C and 87% ferrite
d) 13% cementite and 87% ferrite
25. Which one of the following sets of constituents is expected in equilibrium cooling of a
hypereutectoid steel from austenitic state?
a) Ferrite and pearlite
b) Cementite and pearlite
c) Ferrite and bainite
d) Cementite and martensite
26. Which one of the following sets of constituents is expected in equilibrium cooling of a
hypoeutectoid steel from austenitic state?
a) Ferrite and pearlite
b) Cementite and pearlite
c) Ferrite and bainite
d) Cementite and martensite
27. Martensite is a super-saturated solution of carbon in

a) alpha iron
b) beta iron
c) gamma iron
d) delta iron
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28. Nodular grey cast iron is obtained from the grey cast iron by adding a small amount of
a) Manganese
b) Phosphorus
c) Magnesium
d) Chromium
29. An iron-carbon binary alloy has 0.5% C by weight. What is this alloy called?
a) Eutectoid alloy
b) Eutectic alloy
c) Hypo-eutectoid alloy
d) Hypereutectoid alloy
30. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of

a) 0.25 to 0.75 percent
b) 1.25 to 1.75 percent
c) 3 to 4 percent
d) 8 to 10 percent
31. 18/8 stainless steel contains

a) 18% stainless, 8% chromium
b) 18% chromium, 8% nickel
c) 18% tungsten, 8% nickel
d) 18% tungsten, 8% chromium
32. TTT diagram indicates time and temperature transformation of

a) Cementite
b) Pearlite
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c) Ferrite
d) Austenite
33. The ductility of a material with work hardening

a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) unpredictable
34. Tempering is a process of annealing

a) martensite at low temperatures
b) martensite at higher temperatures
c) bainite at low temperatures
d) bainite at higher temperatures
35. Austempering is employed to obtain:

a) 100% martensitic structure
b) 100% bainitic structure
c) 50% martensitic and 50% bainitic structure
d) 100% pearlitic structure
36. Martempering is employed to obtain:

a) 100% martensitic structure
b) 100% bainitic structure
c) 50% martensitic and 50% bainitic structure
d) 100% pearlitic structure
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37. Tempering of quenched martensitic steel is necessary to improve the

a) hardness of the metal
b) surface texture or the metal
c) corrosion resistance of the metal
d) ductility or the metal
38. On completion of heat treatment, the resulting structure will have retained Austenite if
a) rate of cooling is greater than the critical cooling rate
b) rate of cooling is less than the critical cooling rate
c) martensite formation starting temperature is above the room temperature
d) martensite formation finish temperature is below the room temperature
39. The complete phase recrystallization and fine grain structure is obtained in casting,
forging and rolled parts by:
a) Process annealing
b) Normalizing
c) Spheroidizing
d) Austenising
40. Heating the hypo eutectoid steels to 30 degC above the upper critical temperature line,
soaking at that temperature and then cooling slowly to room temperature to form a coarse
pearlite and ferrite structure, is known as
a) Full Annealing
b) Process Annealing
c) Spherodizing
d) Normalizing
41. Globular form of cementite in the structure of steel is obtained through

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a) Normalizing
b) Malleabilising
c) Spheroidizing
d) Carbonizing
42. During heat treatment of steel, the hardness of various structures in increasing order is
a) martensite, fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spherodite
b) fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spherodite, martensite
c) martensite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, spherodite
d) spherodite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, martensite
43. In case carburising Carbon is introduced to form a high carbon layer at the surface. The
carbon is introduce in the form of
a) graphite flakes
b) pearlite
c) cementite
d) free carbon
44. Induction hardening is basically a

a) carburising process
b) surface hardening process
c) core-hardening process
45. Carburized machine components have high endurance limit because carburization
a) raises the yield point of the material
b) produces a better surface finish
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c) introduces a compressive layer on the surface

d) suppresses any stress concentration produced in the component.
46. Yield stress is

a) stress corresponding to proportional limit
b) stress causing materials to break
c) stress causing a specific permanent deformation usually 0.1% or 0.2%
d) not related with engineering
47. Which one of the following is the correct definition of ultimate tensile strength, as
derived from the results of a tensile test on a metal specimen:
a) the stress encountered when the stress strain curve transforms from elastic to plastic
behavior
b) the maximum load divided by the final area of the specimen
c) the maximum load divided by the original area of the specimen
d) the stress observed when the specimen finally fails
48. In brittle material, normally, fracture stress is:

a) higher than ultimate stress
b) lower than ultimate stress
c) equals with ultimate stress
49. With melting points given in brackets, tick the material which will creep significantly at
180 degC
a) Pb (327 degC)
b) Fe (1538 degC)
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c) Cu (1084 degC)
d) W (3410 degC)
50. The treatment in which the brittleness of martensite is reduced is called which one of the
following
a) annealing
b) austenitizing
c) normalizing
d) tempering
51. Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following:
a) 01XX
b) 10XX
c) 11XX
d) 12XX
52. Glass products are based primarily on which one of the following minerals:
a) alumina
b) corundum
c) kaolinite
d) silica
53. What are the materials which show direction dependent properties, called?
a) Homogeneous materials
b) Viscoelastic materials
c) Isotropic materials
d) Anisotropic materials
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54. Quartz is a
a) ferroelectric material
b) ferromagnetic material
c) piezoelectric material
d) diamagnetic material
55. Which one of the following is true?

a) Structure of metallic materials consists of atoms having valence of 5, 6 or 7
b) Ceramic materials have long range electron matrix bond
c) Polymers are composed of long chain of repeating molecules
d) Ceramics are weaker than metals because of weak electrostatic bond
56. Weldable type plastic(s) include (s)

a) thermosets alone
b) thermoplastics alone
c) both thermosets and thermoplastics
d) neither thermosets and thermoplast
57. Which one among the following is the most effective strengthening mechanism of nonferrous metal?
a) Solid solution hardening
b) Strain hardening
c) Grain size refinement
d) Precipitation hardening
58. The Jominy end-quench test is designed to indicate which one of the following:
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a) cooling rate
b) ductility
c) hardenability
d) hardness
59. The correct order of coordination number in BCC, FCC and HCP unit cells is
a) 12, 8, 6
b) 8, 12, 12
c) 6, 8, 12
d) 12, 8, 24
60. Magnesium crystallizes in HCP structure. If the lattice constant is 0.32 nm, the nearest
neighbour distance in magnesium is
a) 0.64 nm
b) 0.32 nm
c) 0.16nm
d) 0.8 nm
61. In Hume Rothery rules for extensive solid solubility, the atomic diameter of the solute
and the solvent atoms should not differ by more than
a) 15 %
b) 50 %
c) 2 %
d) 0 %
62. In a tensile test, necking starts at

a) Ultimate tensile stress
b) Lower yield stress
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c) Upper yield stress

63. Which phenomenon is not used in the measurment of hardness?

a) Wear
b) Fracture
c) Scratch
d) Indentation
64. Which hardness method can measure hardness of a grain?

a) Knoop
b) Brinel
c) Vicker
d) Rockwell
65. The fatigue strength of mild steel is

a) equal to its yield strength
b) lower than its yield strength
c) equal to its tensile strength
d) lower than its tensile strength
66. The reaction that on heating one solid phase yields another solid phase together with one
liquid phase is termed
a) peritectic
b) peritectoid
c) eutectic
d) eutectoid
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67. Burgers vector of an edge dislocation is

a) parallel to dislocation line
b) perpendicular to dislocation line
c) at any angle with dislocation line including 0 and 90
68. Yield point in mild steel occurs because

a) carbon atom occupy the vacancy line just below the dislocation and anchor dislocation by
reducing
its energy.
b) slip is promoted by carbon atoms to take place in several parallel plans simultaneously
c) carbon atoms form iron carbide with iron
69. The metals which do not form adherent oxide film on surface are
a) Gold and Silver
b) Iron and Steel
c) Copper and Aluminium
d) Nickel and Titanium
70. The highest percentage of chromium that can be added to steel is usually
a) 25
b) 18
c) 15
d) Nickel and Titanium
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71. Whiskers are

a) very thin steel wires
b) very thin copper wires
c) very thin single crystals
72. Copper is ductile, because

a) it is a perfect crystal.
b) it contains a very high density of dislocations.
c) it has glassy structure.
d) the stress to move a dislocation in it is low.
73. The ASTM grain size number of a material which has 64 grains per sq. in. at a
magnification 50 X is about
a) 14
b) 7
c) 5
d) 6
74. A silicate glass has a relatively low fracture strength, because

a) the Young's modulus of glass is low
b) the cracks propagate, before Griffith criterion is satisfiiied
c) plastic deformation during crack propagation causes fracture
d) the cracks are sharp and propagate as soon as Griffith condition is met
75. Liberty ships in world war II failed by brittle fracture due to:
a) going above the ductile-brittle transition temperature
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b) going below the ductile-brittle transition temperature

c) glass superstructure
d) defective reveting
76. The matrix phase of fibrous composites may be

a) a metal only
b) a polymer only
c) a ceramic only
d) a metal, polymer, or ceramic
77. A laminar composite is composed of

a) one-dimensional sheets or panels
b) two-dimensional sheets or panels
c) three-dimensional sheets or panels
78. Major load carrier in dispersion-strengthened composites

a) Matrix
b) Fiber
c) Both
d) Cant define
79. Following is not the 2-dimensional imperfection

a) Twin boundary
b) Dislocation
c) Surface
d) Grain boundary
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80. Thermodynamically stable defects

a) Point defects
b) Line defects
c) Surface defects
d) Volume defects
81. Which of the following is false?

a) Line defects are thermodynamically stable
b) Dislocation can end inside a crystal without forming loop
c) ABC ABC ABCis stacking sequence for HCP crystal
d) All
82. Plastic deformation results from the following

a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Both
d) None
83. Minimum number of slip systems that must be operative during plastic deformation
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
84. If ASTM grain size number is 1, approximate grain diameter (in mm)
a) 0.1
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b) 0.2
c) 0.25
d) 10
85. Usually materials with following crystal structure fail in ductile mode
a) FCC
b) BCC
c) HCP
d) None
86. Brittle fracture is more dangerous than ductile fracture because

a) No warning sign
b) Crack propagates at very high speeds
c) No need for extra stress during crack propagation
d) All
87. Not a characteristic property of ceramic material

a) high temperature stability
b) high mechanical strength
c) low elongation
d) low hardness
88. Mechanical properties of fiber-reinforced composites depend on

a) Properties of constituents
b) Interface strength
c) Fiber length, orientation, and volume fraction
d) All the above
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89. Kevlar is commercial name for

a) Glass fibers
b) Carbon fibers
c) Aramid fibers
d) Cermets
90. Which of the following material can elongate the most in room temperature?
a) Metal
b) Polymer
c) Ceramic
d) Composite
91. Which one of the following is not the purpose of full annealing
a) refines grains
b) induces softness
c) removes strains and stresses
d) produces hardest material
92. Miller indices of the diagonal plane of a cube are

a) (200)
b) (111)
c) (110)
d) (100)
93. Find out the degree of freedom when BCC and FCC iron coexist in equilibrium.
a) 0
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b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
94. Which of the following statement is incorrect about duralumin?

a) It is prone to age hardening
b) It can be forged
c) It has good machining properties
d) It is lighter than pure aluminium
95. Wood is a natural composite consisting of which of the following?

a) Lignin fibres in collagen matrix
b) Lignin fibres in apatite matrix
c) Cellulose fibres in apatite matrix
d) Cellulose fibres in lignin matrix
96. Which one of the following processes or processing steps is not applicable in
glassworking:
a) annealing
b) pressing
c) quenching
d) sintering
97. Which one of the following processes for the new ceramic materials accomplishes
shaping and sintering simultaneously:
a) doctor-blade process
b) freeze drying
c) hot pressing
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d) injection molding
98. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be roughly predicted from following
hardness test
a) Brinell
b) Rockwell
c) Vicker
99. Which one of the following elements is an austenite stabilizer?

a) Nickel
b) Chromium
c) Vanadium
d) Tungsten
100. To be considered corrosion resistant, steels have to include minimally:

a) 11 %
b) 18 %
c) 6 %
d) 3 %
1. All are attributes of ceramics,except

a) covalent bond
b) low melting point
c) high stiffness
d) high hardness
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2. What class of material might be useful at temperatures 1100C?

a) pure metals
b) polymer-polymer composites
c) ceramic-cermic composites
d) lead-tin metal alloy
3. Steel is best characterized as a:

a) Al-Cu alloy, possibly with other alloying elements
b) Cu-Zn alloy
c) Fe-Ni alloy
d) Fe-C alloy, possibly with other alloying elements
4. Malleable iron is made from which of the following irons

a) Pig iron
b) White cast iron
c) Gray cast iron
d) Wrought iron
5. Which one of the following is not a synthetic abrasive material?

a) Silicon Carbide
b) Aluminium Oxide
c) Titanium Nitride
d) Cubic Boron Nitride
6. Which one of the following is not a ceramic?

a) Alumina
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b) Porcelain
c) Whisker
d) Pyrosil
7. Carburized machine components have high endurance limit because carburization

a) Raises the yield point of the material
b) Produces a better surface finish
c) Introduces a compressive layer on the surface
d) Suppresses any stresss, concentration produced in the component.
8. The iron-carbon diagram and the TTT curves are determined under
a) Equilibrium and non-equilibrium conditions respectively
b) Non-equilibrium and equilibrium conditions respectively
c) Equilibrium conditions for both
d) Non-equilibrium conditions for both.
9. TTT diagram indicates time and temperature transformation of

a) Cementite
b) Pearlite
c) Ferrite
d) Austenite
10. The correct composition of austenitic stainless steel used for domestic utensils is
a) 0.08% C, 18% Cr, .8% Ni, 2% Mn, 1% Si
b) 0.08% C, 24% Cr, 12% Ni, 2% Mn, 1% Si
c) 0.15% C, 12% Cr, 0.5% Ni, 1% Mn, 1% Si
d) 0.30% C, 12% Cr, 0.4% Ni, 1% Mn, 1% Si
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11. Which of the following composites are 'dispersion-strengthened composites?

a) Particulate composites
b) Laminar composites
c) Fiber reinforced composites
d) Short-fiber discontinuous composites
12. Which one of the following materials is not a composite?

a) Wood
b) Concrete
c) Plywood
d) Sialon
13. Which one of the following is true?

a) Structure of metallic materials consists of atoms having valence of 5, 6 or 7
b) Ceramic materials have long range electron matrix bond
c) Polymers are composed of long chain of repeating molecules
d) Ceramics are weaker than metals because of weak electrostatic bond
14. For a ductile material, toughness is a measure of

a) resistance to scratching
b) ability to absorb energy up to fracture
c) ability to absorb energy till elastic limit
d) resistance to indentation
15. Which of the following descriptions would not be applicable to ceramics?

a) Mixed ionic and covalent bonding
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b) Brittle
c) Ductile
d) Structure comprising Metal cations with non-metallic anions
16. One close packed direction in an FCC unit cell can be described as
a) [100]
b) [010]
c) [110]
d) [111]
17. Epoxy is an example of a

a) metal
b) ceramic
c) thermoplastic polymer
d) thermoset polymer
18. Which one of the following crystal structures has the fewest slip directions and therefore
the metals with this structure are generally more difficult to deform at room temperature?
a) FCC
b) BCC
c) HCP
d) None
e) None
19. Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat?
a) aluminum
b) concrete
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c) polyethylene
d) water
20. Of the following quenching media, which one produces the most rapid cooling rate?
a) air
b) brine
c) oil
d) pure water
21. In precipitation hardening, the hardening and strengthening of the metal occurs in which
one of the following steps (one answer only)?
a) aging
b) quenching
c) solution treatment
d) annealing
22. A family of directions is represented by

a) (hkl)
b) <uvw>
c) {hkl}
d) [uvw]
23. Which one of the following does NOT improve fatigue life of a steel component?
a) Nitriding
b) Decarburization
c) Improving surface finish
d) Shot-peening
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24. Binary phase diagrams of two component systems are usually

a) two dimensional plots of temperature and pressure.
b) two dimensional plots of temperature and composition.
c) two dimensional plots of pressure and composition.
d) two dimensional plots of pressure, temperature and composition.
25. Solder is an alloy consisting of

a) tin, antimony, copper
b) tin and lead
c) lead and copper
d) lead and antimony
26. Pure iron is the structure of

a) ferrite
b) pearlite
c) cementite
d) bainite
27. Slow plastic deformation of metal under a constant stress is known as

a) Creep
b) fatigue
c) endurance
d) non plastic deformation
28. The fraction of pearlite in a 0.55% C steel is

a) 0.55
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b) 0.31
c) 0.69
d) 0
29. Heat treatment that requires heating a part below A1 temperature, i.e. between 550C and
650C is called as
a) hardening
b) normalizing
c) process annealing
d) full annealing
30. Which one of the following is not correct

a) Martensite has a BCC structure
b) Austenite has FCC structure
c) Martensite is a solid solution of carbon in BCC iron
d) The martensite which is formed during quenching is too brittle
31. Decreasing grain size in a polycrystalline material

a) Increases yield strength and corrosion resistance
b) Decreases yield strength and corrosion resistance
c) Decreases yield strength but increases corrosion resistance
d) Increases yield strength but decreases corrosion resistance.
32. When the temperature of a solid metal increases,

a) Strength of the metal decreases but ductility increases
b) Both strength and ductility of the metal decrease
c) Both strength and ductility of the metal increase
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d) Strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases
33. Which one of the following factors is more relevant to represent complete solubility of
two metals in each other?
a) Chemical affinity
b) Valency factor
c) Crystal structure factor
d) Relative size factor
34. Assertion (A): Elements are classified into metals and non-metals on the basis of their
atomic weights.
Reason (R): The valence electron structures contribute to the primary bonding between the
atoms to form aggregates.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
35. Which of the following statement is true about brittle fracture?

a) High temperature and low strain rates favour brittle fracture
b) Many metal with HCP crystal structure commonly show brittle fracture
c) Brittle fracture is always preceded by noise
d) Cup and cone formation is characteristic for brittle materials
36. Assertion (A): Cast iron is generally hard, brittle and wear resistant.
Reason (R): Cast iron contains more than 2% carbon and as such the percentage cementite in
it is higher.
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37. Assertion (A): The notch sensitivity of cast iron component is zero.
Reason (R): Cast iron does not have a yield point.
38. Addition of magnesium to cast iron increases its

a) Hardness
b) Ductility and strength in tension
c) Corrosion resistance
d) Creep strength
39. Assertion (A): Machine tool beds are generally made of grey cast iron.
Reason (R): Cast iron possesses good self-lubricating properties.
40. Assertion (A): Austenitic stainless steel contains 18% chromium and 8% nickel. Since it
retains its austenitic structure at room temperature, it is called austenitic stainless steel.
Reason (R): Chromium present in the steel improves its corrosion resistance by forming a
thin film of chromium oxide on the surface.
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456
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
1. Customers arrive at a ticket counter at a rate of 50 per hr and tickets are issued in the order
of their arrival. The average time taken for issuing a ticket is 1 min. Assuming that customer
arrivals form a Poisson process and service times are exponentially distributed, the average
waiting time in queue in min is
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
2. A linear programming problem is shown below.

Maximize 3x + 7y
Subject to 3x + 7y 10
4x + 6y 8
x, y 0
It has
a) an unbounded objective function
b) exactly one optimal solution.
c) exactly two optimal solutions.
d) infinitely many optimal solutions.
3. Cars arrive at a service station according to Poissons distribution with a mean rate of 5 per
hour. The service time per car is exponential with a mean of 10 minutes. At steady state, the
average waiting time in the queue is
a) 10 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 25 minutes
d) 50 minutes
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4. Littles law is relationship between

a) stock level and lead time in an inventory system
b) waiting time and length of the queue in a queuing system
c) number of machines and job due dates in a scheduling problem
d) uncertainty in the activity time and project completion time
5. Simplex method of solving linear programming problem uses

a) all the points in the feasible region
b) only the corner points of the feasible region
c) intermediate points within the infeasible region
d) only the interior points in the feasible region.
6. The project activities, precedence relationships and durations are described in the table.
The critical path of the project is
Activity
Precedence
R,S
R,S
10
Duration (in days)
a) P-R-T-V
b) Q-S-T-V
c) P-R-U-W
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d) Q-S-U-W
7. Four jobs are to be processed on a machine as per data listed in the table.
Job
Processing time (in days)
19
17
Due date
If the Earliest Due Date (EDD) rule is used to sequence the jobs, the number of jobs delayed
is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
8. Consider the following Linear Programming Problem (LPP):
Maximize z = 3x + 2y
Subject to x 4
y6
3x + 2y 18
x 0, y 0
a) The LPP has a unique optimal solution
b) The LPP is infeasible
c) The LPP is unbounded
d) The LPP has multiple optimal solutions
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9. Jobs arrive at a facility at an average rate of 5 in an 8 hour shift. The arrival of the jobs
follows Poisson distribution. The average service time of a job on the facility is 40 minutes.
The service time follows exponential distribution. Idle time (in hours) at the facility per shift
will be
a) 5/7
b) 14/3
c) 7/5
d) 10/3
10. The total number of decision variables in the objective function of an assignment problem
of size n n (n jobs and n machines) is
a) n x n
b) 2n
c) 2n1
d) n
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
1. Linear programming is a tool most useful in------a) Production management

b) Project implementation
c) Reducing tax liability
d) Energy management
2. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limiteed resourcees in an optimum
manner is called
a) Operations research
b) Linear programming
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c) Network analysis
d) Queuing theory
3. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results, the

a) Relation between factors must be linear (positive)
b) Relation between factors must be linear (negative)
c) Relation between factors must be linear (Both positive and negative)
d) Only one factor should change at a time, others remaining consant
4. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like

a) Iron and steel
b) Food processing
c) Oil and chemical
5. The simplex method is the basic method for

a) Value analysis
b) Operation research
c) Linear programming
d) Model analysis
6. Graphical method, simplex method and transportation method are concerned with
a) Value analysis
b) Linear programming
c) Break even analysis
d) Queuing theory
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7. In simplex method of linear programming, the objective row of the matrix consists of
a) Basic variables
b) Coefficient of the objective function, which is the profit contribution per unit of each of
the products
c) Slack variables
d) None of the options given
8. In linear programming shadow prices are

a) Cost of brought out items
b) Maximum cost per item
c) Vaalue assigned to one unit of capacity
d) Lowest sale prices
9. In the graphical method of linear programming problem, the optimum solution would lie in
the feasible polygon at
a) Its one corner
b) Its center
c) Middle of any side
10. In the simplex method, the variables which have not been assigned the value zero, during
an iteration, are called
a) Basic variable
b) Artificial variable
c) Actual variable
d) Non basic variable
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11. In the simplex method, the existence of more than one optimum solution is indicated,
when
a) Values of the index row, Cj-Zj under one or more of the non-base decision variables is are
zero
b) Sum of the values in the constant column (bi) are zero
c) All the replacement ratio, bi/ais (s is the key column) are negative
d) the values of index row, cj-zj, indicate optimality, with artificial variable in the base
12. The values of base variable in the assignment model is

a) 2 or 4
b) 1 or 0
c) 1 or 2
d) 0 or 4
13. The initial simplex table corresponds to what aspect of a graphical solution in a two
variable maximization problem?
a) Feasible solution space
b) Point where the two constraint lines intesect
c) Intersection of X and Y axes
d) Intersection of the first constraint line with Y axis
14. A basic feasible solution in simplex method is one, when all the
a) decision variables are in the base
b) decision variables and surplus variables are assigned zero values
c) base variables are non-negative
d) base variables satisfy the constraint equations
15. Artificial variable is introduced, in the simplex method to

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a) determine the initial basic feasible solution, when surplus variable is present
b) convert the inequation with the sign greater than or equal to, in the form of an equation
c) aply Big-M method for solution to linear programming problems
d) indicate the sensitivity of the surplus variable
16. Limitations of linear prograamming models are based on criterio of

a) proportionality
b) additivity
c) divisibility
d) all the options given
17. The artificial variables are made to leave the base and never to enter in the further
iteration by the application of
a) Big M method
b) Two phase method
c) Simplex method
d) Big M method and Two phase method
18. At the optimal solution

a) value of the objective is same for the optimal and dual
b) values of the decision variable (Wi) in the dual problem indicates the contribition per unit
of the ith resource, to the value of the objective
c) Value of the objective is same for the optimal and dual and the values of the decision
variable (Wi) in the dual problem indicates the contribition per unit of the ith resource, to the
value of the objective
19. If the primal contains 'n' decision variables and 'm' constraints, its dual would contain
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a) 'n' decision variables and 'm' constraints

b) 'm' decision variables and 'n' constraints
c) 'm' decision variables and 'm' constraints
d) 'n' decision variables and 'n' constraints
20. Dual of the dual is the

a) dual
b) primal
c) either dual or primal
d) neither dual or nor primal
21. If all the variables are unrestricted in sign and in the normal canonical form, then its dual
would have all the constraaints in the form of equations and the dual variable would be
a) negative
b) non-negative
c) positive
d) none of the options given
22. The performance of a system, as expressed in the form of linear programming model can
be improved by
a) increasing the activities contribution
b) increasing the availability of resources
c) reducing the activities consumption of resources
23. The optimality of a transportation problem is determined by the applicaation of

a) North west corner method
b) Least cost method
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c) Vogel's approximation method

d) Row minima method
24. In a transportation problem, there are four supply centers and five demand centers. The
total quantity of supply available is greater than the total demand.The number of allocations,
without degeneracy during an iteration is
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 0
25. Fulkerson's rule is connected with

a) numbering of event in PERT/CPM
b) the simulation model
c) queuing theory
d) Game theory
26. In a linear programming model, there are n variables and m constraints. The condition of
degeneracy is that during an iteration, the total number of allocated base calls should be
a) equal to (m+n-1)
b) more than (m+n-1)
c) less than (m+n-1)
d) equal to (m+n)
27. Optimality is reached when all index values are

a) zero
b) negative
c) positive
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28. In assignment model

a) degenearcy always present in all the problems
b) number of resources is equal to number of jobs
c) only one unit from the ith source can be assigned to any one of its destination
29. In a n X n matrix of an assignment problem, the optimality is reached when the minimum
number of straight line scoring all the zeros is
a) square of n
b) one divided by n
c) n
d) n+3
30. In a M/M/1 queue, with utilization factor of 0.5, the probability of only one person
waiting in the queue is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.125
d) 1.25
31. The city corporation is having a computer to record birthes in a locality, where it is
estimated that, on an average there is birth in every two hours. The probability that no-birth
takes place in a day, in this locality will be
a) 0.000006
b) 0.00006
c) 0.0006
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d) 0.006
32. In a M/M/1 queue, the service rate is

a) Poisson
b) Log normal
c) Linear
d) Non Linear
33. In a M/M/1 queue, the mean service rate as compared to mean arrival rate is
a) more
b) less
c) same
34. The ratio of mean arrival time to mean service time is found as 1.2. It indicates that the
queue would
a) become explosive
b) not become explosive
c) uncertain
35. In a single channel que, if mean waiting time in the system is 50 mins, the mean waiting
time in the queue is 30 min, then mean rate of service will be
a) 3/hour
b) 2/hour
c) 1/hour
d) 5/hour
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36. The utilization factor of a break down maintenance system with a single crew is 80%. The
expected number of machines down at any time will be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
37. As the ratio of mean arrival to mean service rate is increased, it is likely that,
a) Customer move through the system in less time, because utilization is increased
b) Customers move through the system slowly
c) Utilization is decreased because of the added strain on the system
d) The average number in the system decreases
38. A single server tool crib, with poisson arrival and exponential service, has an utilization
factor of 75%.Application of work study had doubled the mean service rate. The expected
time a worker spend in the system is
a) decreased by 20%
b) increased by 20%
c) decreased by 80%
d) increased by 80%
39. Simulation is basically a technique which is used for

a) Optimization
b) Testing alternatives
c) Cost minimization
d) Computerization
40. Simulation technique is used

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a) to analyze and evaluate a system performance

b) to accommodate a great degree of complexity
c) to determine the system outcome
41. The Pseudo random number generated should produce the sequence which is
a) uniformly distributed
b) statistically independent
c) reproducible
42. Method used to generate Pseudo-random numbers is

a) Mid-square method
b) Additive congruential method
c) Multiplicative congruential method
43. If seed number = 3, a = 2, b = 3, m = 10, then period of cycling by congruential method

will be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
44. A set of two or more vertices which belong to the network and may represent event,
place, stage or a storage point is called
a) node
b) vertice
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c) points
45. For any network, value of the maximum flow from the source to sink is equal to the
capacity of
a) Maximal cut
b) minimal cut
c) Both Maximal cut and minimal cut
46. A collection of oriented branches such that every oriented path from source to sink
contains at least one branch in it, is
a) a cut in a network
b) capacity of thee cut
c) minimal cut
47. In a flow network, arcs A and B only are directly connected with the source and arcs P,
Q, R are directly connected with the sink. The capacities of the arcs A, B, P, Q, R are as 70,
50, 30, 40, and 20 respectively. The maximum flow through the network cannot exceed
a) 30
b) 50
c) 70
d) 90
48. The target date of completion of a project is the length of the critical path. The earliest
occurance of the events of the tail node (i) and head node (j) of an activity, i-j, in the critical
path are 10 days and 15 days respectively. The free float of this activity is
a) 5 days
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b) 0 days
c) 2.5 days
d) 2 days, if its activity durations time is 3 days.
49. The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an activity is called
a) Normal time
b) slow time
c) crash time
d) standard time
50. In the PERT network, distribution of the project completion time is assumed to follow
a) Beta distribution
b) Poisson distribution
c) Normal distribution
d) Binomial distribution
51. The estimated duration of times for an activity, in the PERT network under the worst and
best environment are as 9 and 3 days. The variance of this activity is
a) 6 days
b) 1 day
c) 2 days
d) 9 days
52. CPM is
a) time oriented technique
b) activity oriented technique
c) event oriented technique
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d) work oriented technique
53. PERT and CPM are

a) decision making techniques
b) techniques to determine project status
c) aids to the decision maker
54. A delay in the activity which is on the non-critical path

a) would not increase the completion time of the project
b) would increase project completion time, if the amount of delay is greater than free slack
c) increase the project cpmpletion time, if amount of delay exceeds total slack
d) would increase project completion time
55. A PERT activity has an optimistic time of three days, pessimistic time of 15 days and
expected time is 7 days. The most likely time of the activity is
a) 5 days
b) 6 days
c) 7 days
d) 9 days
56. In the PERT network, duration of activities only are considered so as to follow
a) Normal distribution
b) Beta distribution
c) Linear distribution
d) Gamma distribution
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57. In the PERT network, thee project completion time is considered to follow
c) Linear distribution
58. In PERT network, Beta distribution is assumed because

a) It is continuous
b) It is unimodal
c) There are two non-negative intercepts in the abscissa with b>a
59. The most likely time is 'mode' of

c) Bionomial distribution
60. While crashing an activity in the critical path, the project cost would
a) increase and the indirect cost would decrease
b) decrease and the indirect cost would decrease
c) increase and the indirect cost would increase
d) decrease and the indirect cost would decrease
61. Problems to relating to situations in which queue is formed is covered by

a) PERT/CPM
b) Waiting line theory
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c) Game theory
d) LPP
62. Which of the following is not an assumption of M/M/1:FCFS// model?

a) Queue discipline is first come first served
b) The calling population is finite
c) There is more than one channel
d) The mean arrival rate is less than the mean service rate for each channel
63. At a certain petrol pump customers arrive according to a poisson distribution with an
average time of 5 minutes between arrivals. The service time is exponentially distributes with
mean time 2 min. Service is first come first served. What is the probability of no units in the
queue?
a) 4/3
b) 3/5
c) 2/3
d) 3/2
64. Which of the following replacement policy is used for replacement of items that fail
suddenly?
a) Individual replacement policy
b) Group replacement policy
c) Both Individual and Group replacement policy
65. Customer arrival before a saving bank window follows poisson distribution with average
12 customers per hour. The service time follows exponential distribution with average service
time 4 minutes. Assuming M/M/1 model, what is the fraction of time the service is busy?
a) 80%
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b) 75%
c) 125%
d) 90%
66. Re-order level is

a) Safety stock
b) EOQ
c) Consumption during lead time
67. Shortage cost is

a) Inventory holding cost
b) Procurement price
c) Penalty cost
d) Transportation cost
68. The main objective of inventory control is

a) To keep inactive item at maximum level
b) To maximize inventory holding cost
c) To maintain investment in inventory at lowest level
d) To maintain inventory at zero level
69. Which of the following method is used to solve sequencing problem?

a) MODI method
b) Hungarian method
c) Johnsons Algorithm
d) Simplex method
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70. Which of the following one is correct in relation to Sequencing Problems?

a) Minimization total transportation cost
b) Minimization of total elapsed time
c) Minimization of total idle time of machines
d) Both minimization of total elapsed time and minimization of total idle time of machines
71. Which of the following one is not correct in relation to game theory?
a) Saddle point is identified as that element where the minimax and maximin strategies of the
players intersect.
b) Game value is the expected loss to a player if he and his opponent use their best strategies.
c) In game theory, best strategies are determined on the basis of minimax and maximin
criterion of optimality.
d) Dominance method consists of eliminating certain strategies whose removal will not affect
the final solution.
72. Which of the following is always true about a critical activity?

a) LS = EF
b) LF = LS
c) ES = LS
d) EF = ES
73. The critical path

a) Is any path that goes from the starting node to the completion node
b) Is a combination of all paths
c) Is the shortest path
d) Is the longest path
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74. Which of these is not correct?

a) PERT is probabilistic in nature
b) CPM is deterministic in nature
c) CPM is event oriented
d) CPM and PERT use similar terminology but were developed independently
75. Mark the wrong statement

a) All activities on a critical path are critical activities
b) A project network may have one, or more critical paths
c) A delay in critical activity surely delays the completion of project
d) Each critical activity has identical earliest and the latest start times
76. Which of the following is not correct in respect of PERT calculations?

a) Expected time of an activity is a weighted average of three times estimates, a, m, and b
with respective weights of 1, 4, and 1.
b) The completion time of an activity is assumed to follow normal distribution
c) The standard deviation of activity completion time is one-sixth of the excess of pessimistic
over optimistic time
d) The sum total of variances of critical activity times gives the variance of the overall project
completion time
77. In the simplex method, variables with non-zero values are called---a) Non-basic variables
b) Basic solutions
c) Slack variables
d) Basic variables
78. Which of the following one is used in assigning crews to commercial airline flights?
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a) Linear programming Problem

b) Assignment problem
c) Transportation Problem
d) Sequencing Problem
79. In LPP having only greater than or equal to constraints the initial basic feasible was
provided by using
a) Slack variables
b) Surplus variables
c) Artificial variables
d) Both Surplus variables & Artificial variables
80. The technique of LPP is could be applied if the objective function is

a) Non linear in nature
b) Linear in nature
c) Curvilinear in nature
d) Quadratic in nature
81. A basic feasible solution in transportation problem with m sources and n destinations
have non zero basic variable is less than
m+n-1
a) Optimum
b) Degenerate
c) In feasible
d) Non-degenerate
82. In any Linear programming problem having two variables x1 and x2

a) x1 should be more than zero, x2 can be less than zero
b) x2 should be more than zero and x1 equal to zero
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c) x1 and x2 should be greater to or equal to zero

d) x1 and x2 should be less than or equal to zero
83. Which of the following one is a degenerate form of the transportation problem?
a) Linear programming Problem
b) Assignment problem
c) Transportation Problem
d) Sequencing Problem
84. Independent float occurs when all the

a) earliest activities are done late
b) later activities are done early
c) early activities are finished within time
d) Both earliest activities are done late and later activities are done early
85. PERT and CPM are

a) techniques to determine project status
b) decision making techniques
c) aids to determine the cost implications of project
86. critical activiites are those for which

a) float = 0
b) float =1
c) float < 1
d) float >1
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87. An acievement of one more activiities in a project is called

a) event
b) result
c) outcome
88. A job requiring time and resources for its completion is an

a) activity
b) event
c) both activity and event
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
1. Who coined the term Operations Research?

a) J.F. McCloskey
b) F.N. Trefethen
c) P.F. Adams
d) Both J.F. McCloskey and F.N. Trefethen
2. The term Operations Research was coined in the year

a) 1950
b) 1940
c) 1978
d) 1960
3. This innovative science of Operations Research was discovered during

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a) Civil War
b) World War I
c) World War II
d) Industrial Revolution
4. Who defined Operations Research as scientific method of providing executive departments

with a quantitative basis for decisions regarding the operations under their control?
a) Morse and Kimball (1946)
b) P.M.S. Blackett (1948)
c) E.L. Arnoff and M.J. Netzorg
5. Operations Research has the characteristics the it is done by a team of

a) Scientists
b) Mathematicians
c) Academics
6. Operations Research simply helps in improving the of the solution but does
not result in a perfect solution.
a) Quality
b) Clarity
c) Look
7. Operations Research involves attack of complex problems to arrive at the

optimum solution
a) Scientific
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b) Systematic
c) Both Scientific and Systematic
d) Statistical
8. Operations Research uses models built by quantitative measurement of the variables

concerning a given problem and also derives a solution from the model using of
the diversified solution techniques
a) Two or more
b) One or more
c) Three or more
d) Only One
9. A solution may be extracted from a model either by

a) Conducting experiments on it
b) Mathematical analysis
c) Both Conducting experiments on it and Mathematical analysis
d) Diversified Techniques
10. What have been constructed for Operations Research problems and methods for solving
the models that are available in many cases?
a) Scientific Models
b) Algorithms
c) Mathematical Models
11. Which technique is used in finding a solution for optimizing a given objective, such as
profit maximization or cost minimization under certain constraints?
a) Quailing Theory
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b) Waiting Line
c) Both Quailing Theory and Waiting Line
d) Linear Programming
12. What can be defined as a useful idle resource which has economic value eg; raw
materials, spare parts, finished items, etc?
a) Inventory Control
b) Inventory
c) Inventory Planning
13. Key concept under which technique are network of events and activities , resource
allocation, time and cost considerations, network paths and critical paths ?
a) Game Theory
b) Network Analysis
c) Decision Theory
14. Which technique is used to imitate an operation prior to actual performance ?

a) Simulation
b) Integrated Production Models
c) Inventory Control
d) Game Theory
15. What is concerned with the prediction of replacement costs and determination of the most
economic replacement policy ?
a) Search Theory
b) Theory of replacement
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c) Probabilistic Programming
16. What refers to Linear Programming that includes an evaluation of relative risks and
uncertainties in various alternatives of choice for management decisions ?
a) Probabilistic Programming
b) Stochastic Programming
c) Both Probabilistic Programming and Stochastic Programming
d) Linear Programming
17. What enables us to determine the earliest and the latest times for each of the events and
activities and thereby helps in the identification of the critical path?
a) Programme Evaluation
b) Review Technique (PERT)
c) Both Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
d) Deployment of resources
18. Linear Programming technique is used to allocate scarce resources in an optimum manner
in problems of ?
a) Schedule
b) Product Mix
c) Both Schedule and Product Mix
d) Servicing Cost
19. models involves the allocation of resources to activities in such a manner

that some measure of effectiveness is optimized.
a) Sequencing
b) Allocation Models
485
c) Queuing Theory
d) Decision Theory
20. In models, everything is defined and the results are certain

a) Deterministic Models
b) Probabilistic Models
c) Both Deterministic Models and Probabilistic Models
21. The operations Research technique, specially used to determine the optimum strategy is
a) Decision Theory
b) Simulation
c) Game Theory
22. are called mathematical models

a) Iconic Models
b) Analogue Models
c) Symbolic Models
23. Replacement Model is a model

a) Static Models
b) Dynamic Models
c) Both Static Models and Dynamic Models
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24. may be defined as a method of determining an optimum programme inter

dependent activities in view of available resources
a) Goal Programming
b) Linear Programming
c) Decision Making
25. The objective functions and constraints are linear relationship between
a) Variables
b) Constraints
c) Functions
d) All of the options given
26. Assignment problem helps to find a maximum weight identical in nature in a weighted
a) Tripartite graph
b) Bipartite graph
c) Partite graph
27. The solution need not be in numbers

a) Prime Number
b) Whole Number
c) Complex Number
28. Graphic method can be applied to solve a LPP when there are only variable
a) One
487
b) More than One

c) Two
d) Three
29. The variables whose coefficient vectors are unit vectors are called
a) Unit Variables
b) Basic Variables
c) Non basic Variables
30. A minimization problem can be converted into a maximization problem by changing the
sign of coefficients in the
a) Constraints
b) Objective Functions
c) Both Constraints and Objective Functions
31. In maximization cases , are assigned to the artificial variables as their

coefficients in the objective function
a) +m
b) m
c) 0
32. For maximization in TP , the objective is to maximize the total

a) Solution
b) Profit Matrix
c) Profit
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33. If the total supply is less than the total demand, a dummy source (row) is included in the
cost matrix with
a) Dummy Demand
b) Dummy Supply
c) Zero Cost
d) Both Dummy Demand and Dummy Supply
34. In a Transportagtion Problem, the number of nonnegative independent allocation is

than m+n1.
a) a)
Equivalent
b) b)
Greater
c) c)
Less
d) d)
None of the options given
35. Once the initial basic feasible solution has been computed , what is the next step in the
problem
a) VAM
b) Modified distribution method
c) Optimality test
36. State which of the two statements is correct
(i)
the cells in the transportation table can be classified in to occupied cells and
unoccupied cells
(ii)
optimal solution is a feasible solution (not necessarily basic ) which maximizes the
total cost
489
a) both (i) and (ii) are correct

b) Two only
c) One only
d) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
37. Optimal solution is a feasible solution (not necessarily basic ) which minimizes the
a) Time taken
b) Partial cost
c) Total cost
38. Optimality conditions are expressed as incase all nonbasic cells?

a) Negligent costs
b) Advanced costs
c) Reduced costs
39. A path formed by allowing horizontal and vertical lines and the entire corner cells of
which are occupied is called a
a) Occupied path
b) Open path
c) Closed path
40. Any set of nonnegative allocations (Xij>0) which satisfies the raw and column sum (rim
requirement )is called a
490
a) Linear programming
b) Basic feasible solution
c) Feasible solution
41. Which of the following is a valid objective function for a linear programming problem?
a) Max 5xy
b) Min 4x + 3y + (2/3)z
c) Max 5xy + 6y
d) Min (x1 + x2)/x3
42. To find the optimal solution to a linear programming problem using the graphical method
a) find the feasible point that is the farthest away from the origin.
b) find the feasible point that is at the highest location.
c) find the feasible point that is closest to the origin.
d) None of the options given.
491
Strength of Materials
1. Two identical circular rods of same diameter and same length are subjected to same
magnitude of axial tensile force. One of the rods is made out of mild steel having the modulus
of elasticity of 206 GPa. The other rod is made out of cast iron having the modulus of
elasticity of 100 GPa. Assume both the materials to be homogeneous and isotropic and the
axial force causes the same amount of uniform stress in both the rods. The stresses developed
are within the proportional limit of the respective materials. Which of the following
observations is correct?
a) Both rods elongate by the same amount
b) Mild steel rod elongates more than the cast iron rod
c) Cast iron rod elongates more than the mild steel rod
d) As the stresses are equal strains are also equal in both the rods
2. A long thin walled cylindrical shell, closed at both ends, is subjected to an internal
pressure. The ratio of the hoop stress (circumferential stress) to longitudinal stress developed
in the shell is
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
3. A simply supported beam PQ is loaded by a clockwise moment of 1kN-m at the mid-span

of the beam. The reaction forces at supports P and Q respectively are
a) 1kN downward, 1kN upward
b) 0.5kN upward, 0.5kN downward
c) 0.5kN downward, 0.5kN upward
d) 1kN upward, 1kN upward
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4. A column has a rectangular cross-section of 10mm x 20mm and a length of 1m. The
slenderness ratio of the column is close to
a) 200
b) 346
c) 477
d) 1000
5. A thin cylinder of inner radius 500mm and thickness 10mm is subjected to an internal
pressure of 5MPa. The average circumferential (hoop) stress in MPa is
a) 250
b) 500
c) 750
d) 1000
6. A rod of length L having uniform cross-sectional area A is subjected to a tensile force P. If

the Youngs modulus of the material varies linearly from E1 to E2 (Given that; E1>E2) along
the length of the rod, the normal stress
developed at the section-SS is
a) P/A
b) [P(E1-E2)]/[A(E1+E2)]
c) PE2/AE1
d) PE1/AE2
7. The threaded bolts A and B of same material and length are subjected to identical tensile
load. If the elastic strain energy stored in bolt A is 4 times that of the bolt B and the mean
diameter of bolt A is 12mm, the mean diameter of bolt B in mm is
a) 16
b) 24
c) 36
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d) 48
8. If the principal stresses in a plane stress problem, are 100MPa, and 40MPa, the magnitude
of the maximum shear stress (in MPa) will be
a) 10 MPa
b) 20 MPa
c) 30 MPa
d) 40 MPa
9. Plane stress for a point in a body are 10 MPa and 100 MPA. The design is to be done on
the basis of the maximum shear stress theory for yielding. Then, yielding will just begin if the
designer chooses a ductile material whose yield strength is
a) 45 MPa
b) 50 MPa
c) 55 MPa
d) 0
10. The Young's modulus of elasticity of a material is 2.5 times its modulus of rigidity. The
Posson's ratio for the material will be:
a) 0.25
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
494
1. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to
buckle in the direction of the
a) axis of load
b) perpendicular to the axis of load
c) maximum moment of inertia
d) minimum moment of inertia
2. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is
a) zero
b) minimum
c) maximum
d) infinity
3. Euler's formula holds good only for

a) short columns
b) long columns
c) both short and long columns
d) weak columns
4. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint

a) free from corrosion
b) stronger in tension
c) free from stresses
d) leak-proof
5. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15 C to 40 C and it is free to expand. The bar Will
induce
a) no stress
495
b) shear stress
c) tensile stress
d) compressive stress
6. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress
of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of
400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be
a) 400 MPa
b) 500 MPa
c) 900 MPa
d) 1400 MPa
7. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' transmit the same power. The speed of shaft 'A' is 250 r.p.m. and
that of shaft 'B' is 300 r.p.m. The shaft 'B' has the greater diameter.
a) True
b) False
c) Can't be dermined
d) None
8. A thick cylindrical shell having R and r as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is
a) [p(R^2 + r^2)]/[R^2 - r^2]
b) [p(R^2 - r^2)]/[R^2 + r^2]
c) [2pr^2]/[R^2 - r^2]
d) [R^2 - r^2]/[2pr^2]
9. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the stress induced
when the same load is applied gradually.
a) equal to
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b) one-half
c) twice
d) four times
10. Compression members always tend to buckle in the direction of the

a) axis of load
b) perpendicular to the axis of load
c) minimum cross section
d) least radius of gyration
11. If the slenderness ratio for a column is 100, then it is said to be a __________ column.
a) long
b) medium
c) short
d) all
12. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be punched from a plate of maximum shear
stress 1/4th of its maximum crushing stress of punch, is equal to (where t = Thickness of the
plate)
a) t
b) 2t
c) 4t
d) 8t
13. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all respects but the number of
turns of spring 'A' is half that of spring 'B' The ratio of deflections in spring 'A' to spring 'B' is
a) 2
b) 1/2
497
c) 1/4
d) 1/8
14. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is
a) (m-1)/(2m-1)
b) (2m-1)/(m-1)
c) (m-2)/(3m-4)
d) (m-2)/(5m-4)
15. In the torsion equation, the term J/R is called

a) shear modulus
b) section modulus
c) polar modulus
d) Young's modulus
16. Strain resetters are used to

a) measure shear strain
b) measure linear strain
c) measure volumetric strain
d) relative strain
17. When a rectangular cantilever beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive
stress is developed on the
a) top layer
b) bottom layer
c) middle layer
d) every cross-section
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18. The point of contraflexure is a point where

a) shear force changes sign
b) bending moment changes sign
c) shear force is maximum
d) bending moment is maximum
19. The simply supported beam 'A' of length l carries a central point load W. Another beam
'B' is loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is W. The
ratio of maximum deflections between beams A and B is
a) 5/8
b) 8/5
c) 5/4
d) 4/5
20. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at

a) smaller end
b) larger end
c) middle
d) anywhere
21. The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is known as
a) resilience
b) proof resilience
c) strain energy
d) impact energy
499
22. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along
a) the axis of load
b) an oblique plane
c) at right angles to the axis of specimen
d) would not occur
23. The bending stress in a beam is __________ section modulus.

a) directly proportional to
b) not directly proportional to
d) not inversely proportional to
24. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is __________ at that point.
a) zero
b) minimum
c) maximum
d) infinity
25. When a unconstrained bar is cooled to - 5C, it will develop

a) no stress
b) shear stress
c) tensile stress
d) compressive stress
26. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring constants k1 and k2 is
held between two rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent spring constant is
a) (k1+k2)/2
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b) (k1+k2)/(k1*k2)
c) (k1*k2)/(k1+k2)
d) k1*k2
27. Resilience is the

a) energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
b) energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of the specimen
c) maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body
28. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then its width will vary in
proportional to (where M = Bending moment)
a) M^(1/2)
b) M
c) M^2
d) M^3
29. A concentrated load is one which

a) acts at a point on a beam
b) spreads non-uniformly over the whole length of a beam
c) spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
d) varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
30. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the
pitch of rivets is
a) 0.2
b) 0.3
c) 0.5
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d) 0.8
31. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the
same length and depth but width is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam 'B' will be
__________ as compared to beam A.
a) same
b) double
c) four times
d) six times
32. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies

a) linearly
b) parabolically
c) hyperbolically
d) elliptically
33. The stress at which the extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to
the increase in load, is called
a) elastic limit
b) yield point
c) ultimate point
d) breaking point
34. When two main plates are kept in alignment butting each other and riveted with cover
plate on both sides of the main plates with two rows of rivets in each main plate, the joint is
known as __________ double cover butt joint.
a) single riveted
b) double riveted
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c) quarter riveted
d) four riveted
35. Whenever a material is loaded within elastic limit, stress is __________ strain
a) equal to
b) directly proportional to
d) none

a) The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.
b) The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.
c) The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
d) all of the above
37. The maximum tangential stress in a thick cylindrical shell is always __________ the
internal pressure acting on the shell.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) none
38. Principle plane is a plane on which the shear stress is

a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) any value
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39. When a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure, there will be
a) a decrease in diameter and length of the shell
b) an increase in diameter and decrease in length of the shell
c) a decrease in diameter and increase in length of the shell
d) an increase in diameter and length of the shell
40. A welded joint as compared to a riveted joint has __________ strength.

a) more
b) less
c) same
d) can't say
41. The point of contraflexure occurs in

a) cantilever beams
b) simply supported beams
c) overhanging beams
d) fixed beams
42. For a 25 mm hole drilled in plates, the diameter of rivet shank should be
a) 23mm
b) 25mm
c) 25.01mm
d) 26mm
43. A beam of uniform strength has

a) same cross-section throughout the beam
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b) same bending stress at every section

c) same bending moment at every section
d) same shear stress at every section
44. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumption is that the material of the beam is
isotropic. This assumption means that the
a) normal stress remains constant in all directions
b) normal stress varies linearly in the material
c) elastic constants are same in all the directions
d) elastic constants varies linearly in the material
45. The extremeties of any diameter on Mohr's circle represent

a) principal stresses
b) normal stresses on planes at 45
c) shear stresses on planes at 45
d) normal and shear stresses on a plane
46. The Poisson's ratio for cast iron varies from

a) 0.23 to 0.27
b) 0.25 to 0.33
c) 0.31 to 0.34
d) 0.32 to 0.42
47. The Rankine's theory for active earth pressure is based on the assumption that
a) the retained material is homogeneous and cohesionless
b) the frictional resistance between the retaining wall and the retained material is neglected
c) the failure of the retained material takes place along a plane called rupture plane
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d) all of the above
48. The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without suffering
permanent distortion, is known as
a) impact energy
b) proof resilience
c) proof stress
d) modulus of resilience
49. The resultant stress on an inclined plane which is inclined at an angle to the normal
cross-section of a body which is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane, is
a) sin
b) cos
c) sin 2
d) cos 2
50. The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called

a) linear strain
b) lateral strain
c) volumetric strain
d) Poisson's ratio
51. In a beam where shear force changes sign, the bending moment will be
a) zero
b) minimum
c) maximum
d) infinity
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52. The ductility of a material __________ with the increase in percentage reduction in area
of a specimen under tensile test.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) can't be determined
same length and width but depth is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam B will be
a) same
b) double
c) four times
d) six times
54. When a closely-coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load, it is said to be under
a) bending
b) shear
c) torsion
d) crushing
55. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) with one
end fixed and the other end free is __________ the crippling load for a similar column hinged
at both the ends.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) more than
d) half
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56. If percentage reduction in area of a certain specimen made of material 'A' under tensile
test is 60% and the percentage reduction in area of a specimen with same dimensions made of
material 'B' is 40%, then
a) the material A is more ductile than material B
b) the material B is more ductile than material A
c) the ductility of material A and B is equal
d) the material A is brittle and material B is ductile
57. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length, consists of
a) one right angled triangle
b) two right angled triangles
c) one equilateral triangle
d) two equilateral triangles
58. A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN/m^2 (tensile) and 10 kN/m^2
(compressive) acting perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear stress is
a) 5 kN/m^2
b) 10 kN/m^2
c) 15 kN/m^2
d) 20 kN/m^2
59. When a simply supported beam is loaded at its mid point, the maximum compressive
stress shall develop at
a) bottom fibrer
b) top fibre
c) neutral axis
d) centre of gravity
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60. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is __________ that of prismatic bar
of the same length.
a) equal to
b) half
c) one-third
d) two-third
61. When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that
there is a
a) point load at the two points
b) no loading between the two points
c) uniformly distributed load between the two points
d) uniformly varying load between the two points
62. The slenderness ratio is the ratio of

a) area of column to least radius of gyration.
b) length of column to least radius of gyration.
c) least radius of gyration to area of column.
d) least radius of gyration to length of column.
63. When two shafts of same length, one of which is hollow, transmit equal torques and have
equal maximum stress, then they should have equal
a) polar moment of inertia
b) polar modulus
c) diameter
d) angle of twist
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64. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) fixed at
both ends is __________ the crippling load for a similar column hinged at both ends.
a) equal to
b) two times
c) four times
d) eight times
65. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it
carries a
a) point load at the free end
b) point load at the middle of its length
c) uniformly distributed load over the whole length
66. A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the
assembly is subjected to a compressive load, then
a) rod is under compression
b) tube is under compression
c) both rod and tube are under compression
d) tube is under tension and rod is under compression
67. A bar of length L metres extends by l mm under a tensile force of P. The strain produced
in the bar is
a) 1/L
b) 0.1 l/L
c) 0.01 l/L
d) 0.001 l/L
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68. A shaft revolving at rad / s transmits torque (T) in N-m. The power developed is
a) T. watts
b) 2 T watts
c) 2 T/75 watts
d) 2 T/4500 watts
69. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of

a) stress, strain and pressure
b) stress, force and modulus of rigidity
c) strain, force and pressure
d) stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
70. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a pull of P, its
a) length, width and thickness increases
b) length, width and thickness decreases
c) length increases, width and thickness decreases
d) length decreases, width and thickness increases
71. A column with maximum equivalent length has

a) both ends hinged
b) length, width and thickness decreases
c) length increases, width and thickness decreases
d) length decreases, width and thickness increases
72. A column of length (L) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column
of length __________ with both ends hinged.
a) L/8
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b) L/4
c) L/2
d) L
73. The product of the tangential force acting on the shaft and its distance from the axis of the
shaft (i.e. radius of shaft) is known as
a) bending moment
b) twisting moment
c) torsional rigidity
d) flexural rigidity
74. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress () in one plane, the maximum shear
stress is __________ the maximum normal stress.
a) equal to
b) one-half
c) two-third
d) twice
75. A simply supported beam 'A' of length l, breadth b and depth d carries a central load W.
Another beam 'B' of the same dimensions carries a central load equal to 2 W. The deflection
of beam 'B' will be __________ as that of beam 'A'.
a) one-fourth
b) one-half
c) double
d) four times

a) A continuous beam has only two supports at the ends.
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b) A uniformly distributed load spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam.
c) The bending moment is maximum where shear force is maximum.
d) The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of length l with a central
point load W is WL/8.
77. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is
called
a) elastic limit
b) yield stress
c) ultimate stress
d) breaking stress
78. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p = ^2
EI/CL^2. In the Euler's formula, the value of C for a column with one end fixed and the other
end free, is
a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

a) In the theory of simple bending, the assumption is that the plane sections before bending
remains plane after bending.
b) In a beam subjected to bending moment, the strain is directly proportional to the distance
from the neutral axis.
c) At the neutral axis of a beam, the bending stress is maximum.
d) The bending stress in a beam is inversely proportional to the section modulus.
80. A beam of T-section is subjected to a shear force of F. The maximum shear force will
occur at the
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a) top of the section

b) bottom of the section
c) neutral axis of the section
d) junction of web and flange
81. Two bars of different materials and same size are subjected to the same tensile force. If
the bars have unit elongation in the ratio of 2:5, then the ratio of modulus of elasticity of the
two materials will be
a) 2:5
b) 5:2
c) 4:3
d) 3:4
82. A beam of uniform strength may be obtained by

a) keeping the width uniform and varying the depth
b) keeping the depth uniform and varying the width
c) varying the width and depth both
83. The springs in brakes and clutches are used to

a) to apply forces
b) to measure forces
c) to store strain energy
d) to absorb shocks
84. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam (Length = L) carrying a central point load lies
at
a) fixed ends
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b) L/2 of beam
c) L/3 from fixed ends
d) none of these

a) The stress is the pressure per unit area.
b) The strain is expressed in mm.
c) Hook's law holds good upto the breaking point.
d) Stress is directly proportional to strain within propertional limit.
86. A bolt is made to pass through a tube and both of them are tightly fitted with the help of
washers and nuts. If the nut is tightened, then
a) bolt arid tube are under tension
b) bolt and tube are under compression
c) bolt is under compression and tube is under tension
d) bolt is Under tension and tube is under compression
400 MPa on the same planes. The minimum normal stress will be
a) 400 MPa
b) 500 MPa
c) 900 MPa
d) 1400 MPa
88. The shear force diagram fora cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying
load from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is a
a) horizontal straight line
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b) vertical straight line

c) inclined line
d) parabolic curve
89. The thermal or temperature stress is a function of

a) increase in temperature
b) modulus of elasticity
c) coefficient of linear expansion
d) all of these
90. When a column is subjected to an eccentric load, the stress induced in the column will be
a) direct stress only
b) bending stress only
c) shear stress only
d) direct and bending stress both
91. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be
under
a) tensile stress
b) compressive stress
c) shear stress
d) bending stress
92. A column is said to be a short column, when

a) its length is very small
b) its cross-sectional area is small
c) the ratio of its length to the least radhis of gyration is less than 80.
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d) the ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than 80.
93. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the radial stress across the
thickness of the cylinder is
a) maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface
b) maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface
c) maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
d) maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface
94. Two closely-coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' of the same matenal, same number of turns
and made from same wire are subjected to an axial load W. The mean diameter of spring 'A'
is double the mean diameter of spring 'B'. The ratio of deflections in spring 'B' to spring 'A'
will be
a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 2
d) 4
95. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' have the same material. The shaft 'A' is solid of diameter 100 mm.
The shaft 'B' is hollow with outer diameter 100 mm and inner diameter 50 mm. The torque
transmitted by shaft 'B' is __________ as that of shaft 'A'.
a) 1/6
b) 1/8
c) 1/4
d) 15/16
96. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the maximum radial stress
at the inner surface of the shell is
a) zero
b) p (tensile)
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c) -p (compressive)
d) 2p (tensile)
97. A column that fails due to direct stress, is called

a) short column
b) long column
c) weak column
d) medium column
98. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a
simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum shear stress will be
a) -100 MPa
b) 250 MPa
c) 300 MPa
d) 400 MPa
99. For long columns, thevalue of buckling load is __________ crushing load.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) more than
1. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is _________ the stress induced when
the same load is applied gradually.
a) Equal to
b) One-half
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c) Twice
d) Four times
2. If Th is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ts is that of a solid shaft, of the
same material, length and weight. Then,
a) Th > Ts
b) Th < Ts
c) Th = Ts
d) Th/Ts = 0.5
3. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as compared to a solid shaft transmit

a) Same torque
b) Less torque
c) More torque
d) Unpredictable
4. The product of Young's modulus (E) and moment of inertia (I) is known as
a) Modulus of rigidity
b) Bulk modulus
c) Flexural rigidity
d) Torsional rigidity
5. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called

a) Unit mass
b) Modulus of rigidity
c) Bulk modulus
d) Modulus of Elasticity
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6. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to
buckle in the direction of the
a) Axis of load
b) Perpendicular to the axis of load
c) Maximum moment of inertia
d) Minimum moment of inertia
7. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all respects but the number of
turns of spring 'A' is half that of spring 'B' The ratio of deflections in spring 'A' to spring 'B' is
a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 1/2
d) 2
400 MPa on the same planes. The minimum normal stress will be
a) 400 MPa
b) 500 MPa
c) 900 MPa
d) 1400 MPa
9. A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut coil will be
a) Same
b) Double
c) Half
d) Thrice
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10. The bending stress in a beam is _________ section modulus.

a) Inversely proportional to two times
b) Directly proportional to
c) Inversely proportional to
d) Equal to
11. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know its
a) Ultimate shear stress of the column
b) Factor of safety
c) Torque resisting capacity
d) Slenderness ratio
12. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of

a) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
b) Volumetric stress to volumetric strain
c) Lateral stress to Lateral strain
d) Shear stress to shear strain
13. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic limit is known as
a) Young's modulus
b) Bulk modulus
c) Modulus of rigidity
d) Poisson's ratio
14. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length, consists of
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a) One right angled triangle

b) Two right angled triangles
c) One equilateral triangle
d) Two equilateral triangle

a) The stress is the pressure per unit area
b) The strain is expressed in mm
c) Hook's law holds good up to the breaking point
d) Stress is directly proportional to strain within elastic limit
16. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due to the applied couple varies
a) From maximum at the center to zero at the circumference
b) From zero at the center to maximum at the circumference
c) From maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference
d) From minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference
17. A column is said to be a short column, when

a) Its length is very small
b) Its cross-sectional area is small
c) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is less than 80
d) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than 80
18. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop

a) Thermal stresses
b) Tensile stress
c) Bending
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d) No stress
19. The shear force diagram of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly
distributed load of w per unit length will be
a) A right angled triangle
b) An isosceles triangle
c) An equilateral triangle
d) A rectangle
20. When a bar is subjected to a change of temperature and its deformation is prevented, the
stress induced in the bar is
a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Thermal stress
21. The bending equation is

a) T/J = /R = C/l
b) M/I = /y = E/R
c) M/R = T/J = C/l
d) T/l= /J = R/C
22. When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that
there is a
a) Point load at the two points
b) No loading between the two points
c) Uniformly distributed load between the two points
d) Uniformly varying load between the two points
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a) The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is called linear
strain.
b) The Poisson's ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain.
c) The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called volumetric strain.
d) The bulk modulus is the ratio of linear stress to the linear strain.
24. A pressure vessel is said to be a thick shell, when

a) It is made of thick sheets
b) The internal pressure is very high
c) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is less than 1/10.
d) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is greater than 1/10.
25. The deformation of a bar under its own weight compared to the deformation of same
body subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the body is
a) Same
b) Double
c) Half
d) Four times

a) The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.
b) The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.
c) The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
d) All of the above
27. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is

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a) Equal to the hoop stress

b) Twice the hoop stress
c) Half of the hoop stress
d) One fourth of hoop stress
28. A beam of uniform strength may be obtained by

a) Keeping the width uniform and varying the depth
b) Keeping the depth uniform and varying the width
c) Varying the width and depth both
d) Any one of the above
29. Which of the following has no unit?

a) Kinematic viscosity
b) Surface tension
c) Bulk modulus
d) Strain
30. Two closely-coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' of the same material, same number of turns
and made from same wire are subjected to an axial load W. The mean diameter of spring 'A'
is double the mean diameter of spring 'B'. The ratio of deflections in spring 'B' to spring 'A'
will be
a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 2
d) 4
31. The force acting along the circumference will cause stress in the walls in a direction
normal to the longitudinal axis of cylinder; This stress is called
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a) Longitudinal stress
b) Hoop stress
c) Yield stress
d) Ultimate stress
32. The change in length due to a tensile or compressive force acting on a body is given by
(where P = Tensile or compressive force acting on the body, L = Original length of the body,
A = Cross-sectional area of the body, and E = Young's modulus for the material of the body)
a) PLA/E
b) PL/AE
c) E/PLA
d) AE/PL
33. The hoop stress in a riveted cylindrical shell of diameter (d), thickness (t) and subjected to
an internal pressure (p) is (where = Efficiency of the riveted joint)
a) pd/ t
b) pd/ 2t
c) pd/ 4t
d) pd/ 8t
34. A thin spherical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure
(p). The stress in the shell material is
a) pd/t
b) pd/2t
c) pd/4t
d) pd/8t
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same length and width but depth is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam B will be
a) Same
b) Double
c) Four times
d) Six times
36. The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually
varying load from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is a
a) Horizontal straight line
b) Vertical straight line
c) Inclined line
d) Parabolic curve
37. In a tensile test, when the material is stressed beyond elastic limit, the tensile strain
__________ as compared to the stress.
a) Decreases slowly
b) Increases slowly
c) Decreases more quickly
d) Increases more quickly
38. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w
per unit length is _________ at the free end.
a) Zero
b) wl/4
c) wl/2
d) wl
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39. When a cantilever beam is loaded at its free end, the maximum compressive stress shall
develop at
a) Bottom fibre
b) Top fibre
c) Neutral axis
d) Center of gravity
40. The assumption made in the theory of the reinforced cement concrete beam is that
a) All the tensile stresses are taken up by the steel reinforcement only
b) There is a sufficient bond between steel and concrete
c) The steel and concrete are stressed within its elastic limit
d) All of the above
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Thermal Engineering Systems
1. The enthalphies at the beginning of compression, at the end of compression and at the end
of the condensation are 185 kJ/kg, 210 kJ/kg and 85 kJ/kg respectively. The COP of the
vapour compression refrigeration is
a) 0.25
b) 5.4
c) 4
d) 1.35
2. A two satge compressor takes in air at 1.1. bar and discharges at 20 bar. for minimum
compression work, the intermediate pressure is
a) 10.55 bar
b) 7.33 bar
c) 5.5 bar
d) 4.7 bar
3. Air ( Cp = 1.0 kJ/kg ratio of specific heat = 1.4) enter a compressor at a temperature of 27
deg.C. The compressor ratio is 4. Asuuming an mechanical efficiency of 80%, the
compressor work required in kJ/kg is
a) 160
b) 172
c) 182
d) 225
4. The latent heat load in an auditoriam is 25% of sensible heat load. The value of sensible
heat factor(SHF) is equal to
a) 0.25
b) 0.5
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c) 0.8
d) 1.0
5. A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of heat from a reservoir at 1000 K and a certain
amount of
heat from a reservoir at 800 K. It rejects 1 kJ of heat to a reservoir at 400 K. The net work
output (in kJ) of the cycle is
a) 0.8
b) 1.0
c) 1.4
d) 2.0
6. On a mollier chart, the free expansion from high pressure to low pressure is expressed by
a) Horizontal straight line
b) vertical straight line
c) curved line
d) all the answers
7. In a variable speed SI engine, the maximum torque will occur at maximum

a) speed
b) brake power
c) indicated power
d) volumetric efficiency
8. The spark advance is usually specified in terms of

a) engine spped in rev/sec
b) time in seconds
c) degree of crank rotation
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d) piston displacement from TDC
9. The centrifugical advance mechanism is located in the

a) engine crankshft
b) engine flywheel
c) distributor
d) induction coil
10. The another name of humidity ratio of psychrometric property is _____________

a) specific humidity
b) degree of saturation
c) relative humidity
d) all the answers
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THERMAL ENGINEERING SYSTEMS
1. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
2. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of
revolutions of crankshaft
a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
3. Supercharging is the process of

a) supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the
surrounding atmosphere
b) providing forced cooling air
c) Injecting excess fuel for raising more load
d) supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
4. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency
is called
a) net efficiency
b) efficiency ratio
c) relative efficiency
d) overall efficiency
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5. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given
compression ratio is
a) same
b) less
c) more
d) more or less depending on power rating
6. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) unpredictable
7. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the
%age increase in efficiency will be
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 8%
d) 14%
8. Combustion in compression ignition engines is

a) homogeneous
b) heterogeneous
c) homogeneous and hetrogeneous
d) laminar
9. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of

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a) 5-10 bar
b) 20-25 bar
c) 60-70 bar
d) 150-300 bar
10. The specific fuel consumption per kW hour for diesel engine is approximately
a) 0.15 kg
b) 0.2 kg
c) 0.25 kg
d) 0.3 kg
11. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for nearly
a) 180
b) 125
c) 235
d) 200
12. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine

a) 2-stroke petrol engine
b) gas turbine
c) diesel engine
d) steam turbine.
13. Pick up the false statement

a) Thermal efficiency of diesel engine is about 34%
b) Theoretically correct mixture of air an petrol is approximately 15 : 1
c) High speed compression igntion engines operate on dual combustion cycle
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d) S.I. engines are quality-governed engines
14. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine revolution or
size in following way
a) feeding more fuel
b) increasing flywheel size
c) heating incoming air
d) supercharging
15. The air-fuel ratio of the conventional petrol engine is controlled by

a) fuel pump
b) governor
c) injector
d) carburettor
16. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is

a) less difficult to ignite
b) just about the same difficult to ignite
c) more difficult to ignite
d) highly ignitable
17. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rpm will run at
a) 1500 rpm
b) 750 rpm
c) 3000 rpm
d) any value independent of engine speed
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18. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to diesel engine of same brake
power is
a) same
b) more
c) less
d) less or more depending on operating conditions
19. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the
a) maximum pressure developed
b) minimum pressure
c) average pressure
d) instantaneous pressure at any instant
20. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately
a) 1 : 1
b) 8:1
c) 15 : 1
d) 20 : 1.
21. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol engine for vehicles, is of the
order of
a) 9 : 1
b) 12 : 1
c) 15 : 1
d) 18 : 1
22. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to

a) instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge
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b) instantaneous auto iginition of last part of charge

c) reduction of delay period
d) all the options
23. Which is more viscous lube oil

a) SAE 40
b) SAE 50
c) SAE 80.
d) SAE 70
24. Ignition quailty of petrol is expressed by

a) octane number
b) cetane number
c) calorific value
d) distillation temperature
25. Iso-octane
a) has octane number of 0
b) has octane number of 50
c) has octane number of 100
d) is an index of detonation quality
26. Cetane number is determined by comparing the performance of diesel oil with the
following hydrocarbons
a) cetane
b) mixture of cetane and alphamethyl napthalene
c) ethylene dibromide
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d) mixture of cetane with tetra-ethyl lead
27. In order to prevent knock in the S.I. engines, the charge away from the spark plug should
have
a) low temperature
b) long ignition delay
c) rich mixture
d) all the options
28. To reduce the possibility of knock in the C.I. engines, the first elements of fuel and air
should have
a) high temperature
b) high density
c) short delay
d) all the options
29. The detonation tendency in petrol engines for specified conditions of fuel rating,
compression ratio, speed etc. can be controlled by having
a) smaller cylinder bore
b) bigger cylinder bore
c) medium cylinder bare
d) cylinder bore could be anything as it does not control detonation
30. The knocking in diesel engines for given fuel, will be

a) enhanced by increasing compression ratio
b) enhanced by decreasing compression ratio
c) unaflected by compression ratio
d) dependent on other factors
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31. The ignition of charge by some hot surface in the engine cylinder before operation of
spark plug is known as
a) auto ignition
b) preignition
c) retarded ignition
d) detonation
32. Ignition quality of diesel-fuel oil is expressed by an index called

a) octane number
b) cetane number
c) calorific value
d) carbon content
33. The specific gravity of diesel oil is

a) 1
b) 0.7
c) 0.85
d) 0.5
34. The specific gravity of petrol is about

a) 0.65
b) 0.75
c) 0.85
d) 0.95
35. Fuel consumption with increase in back pressure in engine will
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a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain unaffected
36. For same power and same speed, the flywheel of a four stroke engine as compared to
two-stroke I.C. engine will be
a) smaller
b) bigger
c) same size
d) dependent on other engine parameters
37. Diesel engines as compared to petrol engines require

a) bigger flywheel
b) smaller flywheel
c) same size flywheel
d) no flywheel
38. Thermal efficiency of high speed diesel engine at design load may be of the order of
a) 20%
b) 35%
c) 50%
d) 70%
39. In carburettors, the top of the fuel jet with reference to the level in the float chamber is
kept at
a) same level
b) slightly higher level
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c) slightly lower level

d) may be anywhere
40. In petrol engines, advancing the spark timing will

a) increase the knocking tendency
b) decrease the knocking tendency
c) not affect the knocking tendency
d) increase or decrease knocking tendency depending on strenght and time of spark
41. The ignition coil in diesel engines produces voltage of the order of
a) 6 to 12 volts
b) 240 volts
c) 1000 volts
d) 20,000 volts
42. In petrol engine using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, super
charging will
a) increase the knocking tendency
b) decrease the knocking tendency
c) not affect the knocking tendency
d) unpredictable.
43. Deposition of carbon in petrol engine cylinder would result in increase of

a) clearance volume
b) swept volume
c) compression ratio
d) volumetric efficiency
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44. If petrol is used in a diesel engine, then

a) higher knocking will occur
b) efficiency will be low
c) low power will be produced
d) lot of fuel will remain unburnt
45. For the same size and weight, a two stroke engine as compared to four stroke engine will
generate power
a) about twice
b) about 0.5 times
c) nearly equal
d) about 5 times
46. A nozzle is said to be a convergent nozzle

a) when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
b) when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
c) when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then
increases from its throat to exit
47. The most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it

a) isothermally
b) adiabatically
c) isentropically
d) isochronically
48. The compressor capacity with decrease in suction temperature

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a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) may increase or decrease depending on compressor capacity
49. Inter cooling in compressors

a) cools the delivered air
b) results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure
c) is the standard practice for big compressors
d) enables compression in two stages
50. Ratio of indicated power and brake power of air compressor is known as
a) mechanical efficiency
b) volumetric efficiency
c) isothermal efficiency
d) relative efficiency
51. The ratio of work doen per cycle to the swept volume in case of compressor is called
a) compression index
b) compression ratio
c) mean effective pressure
d) compressor effectiveness
52. Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be

a) as large as possible
b) as small as possible
c) about 50% of swept volume
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53. Volumetric efficiency of air compressor is

a) the ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston displacement
b) the ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
c) reciprocal of compression ratio
d) index of compressor performance
54. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with clearance volume

b) decreases with increase in compression ratio
c) in not dependent upon compression ratiomay increase/decrease depending on
compressor capacity
d) None of the options
55. A compressor at high altitude will draw

a) more power
b) less power
c) same power
56. The advantage of multistage compression over single stage compression is

a) lower power consumption per unit of air delivered
b) decreased discharge temperature
c) higher volumetric efficiency
d) all the options
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57. For minimum work in multistage compression, assuming same index of compression in
all stages
a) work done in first stage should be more
b) work done in subsequent stages should increase
c) work done in all stages should be equal
d) work done in subsequent stages should decrease
58. The volumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
59. steam nozzle covert

a) heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
b) potential energy of steam into kinetic energy
c) kinetic energy of steam into mechanical energy
d) heat energy of steam into mechanical energy
60. The smallest section in nozzle is known as

a) throat
b) venturi
c) convergent
d) divergent
61. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between

a) inlet and outlet
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b) throat and exit

c) inlet and thoroat
d) all the options
62. The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is

a) 0.58
b) 0.546
c) 0.56
d) 0.601
63. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as

a) isothermal flow
b) constant volume flow
c) constant pressure flow
d) isentropic flow
64. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the
available heat drop
a) is unpredictable
b) increases
c) decreases
d) remains the same
65. The steam leaves the nozzle at a

a) low pressure and a low velocity
b) high pressure and a low velocit
c) high pressure and a high velocity
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d) low pressure and a high velocity
66. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is

a) hyperbolic
b) polytropic
c) isothermal
d) isentropic

a) The pressure of steam at throat is called critical pressure.
b) The friction in the nozzle increases the dryness fraction of steam
c) The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows Rankine cycle.
d) all the options
68. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure
in steam nozzle is called
a) degree of undercooling
b) degree of supersaturation
c) degree of superheat
69. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends upon

a) velocity of steam
b) specific volume of steam
c) dryness fraction of steam
d) all the options
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70. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called
a) nozzle efficiency
b) condenser efficiency
c) boiler efficiency
d) vacuum efficiency
71. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
a) 0.58
b) 0.546
c) 0.59
d) 0.601
72. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of the ordinary saturated
vapour at the corresponding pressure.
a) 4 times
b) same as
c) 2 times
d) 8 times
73. The effect of supersaturation is that the

a) exit velocity of steam reduces
b) mass of the steam discharged increases
c) entropy and specific volume of the steam increases
d) all the options
74. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant

a) Ericsson
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b) Stirling
c) Carnot
d) Bell-coleman
75. Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires

a) very little work input
b) maximum work input
c) nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
d) zero work input
76. The relative coefficient of performance is

a) actual COP/theoretical COP
b) theoretical COP/actual COP
c) actual COP x theoretical COP
77. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid

a) After passing through the condenser
b) before passing through the condenser
c) after passing through the expansion throttle valve
d) before entering the compressor
78. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to formation
a) in 1 hour
b) in 1 minute
c) in 24 hours
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d) in 12 hours
79. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have

a) high sensible heat
b) high total heat
c) high latent heat
d) low latent heat
80. The COP of a domestic refrigerator

a) is less than 1
b) is more than 1
c) is equal to 1
d) depends upon the make
81. Air refrigeration systems operates on

a) Carnot cycle
b) Reversed Carnot cycle
c) Rankine cycle
d) Reversed Brayton cycle.
82. One of the purposes of sub-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to

a) reduce compressor overheating
b) reduce compressor discharge temperature
c) increase cooling effect
d) Increase the compressor work input
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83. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27C and evaporator
temperature of- 23C. The Cannot coefficient of performance of cycle will be
a) 0.2
b) 1.2
c) 5
d) 10
84. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid and vapour
between
a) condenser and expansion valve
b) compressor and evaporator
c) expansion valve and evaporator
d) compressor and condenser
85. In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

a) compressor
b) condenser
c) evaporator
d) expansion valve
86. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle ?
a) condenser
b) evaporator
c) compressor
d) expansion valve
87. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle

a) increases COP
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b) decreases COP
c) COP remains unaltered
d) unpredictable.
88. Sub-cooling in a refrigeration cycle

a) increases COP
b) decreases COP
c) COP remains unaltered
d) unpredictable
89. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called
a) degree of saturation
b) dry bulb depression
c) dew point depression
d) wet bulb depression
90. In aqua-ammonia and Lithium bromide - water vapour absorption refrigeration systems,
the refrigerants are
a) water and water
b) water and lithium bromide
c) ammonia and lithium bromide
d) ammonia and water
91. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains constant.
a) relative humidity
b) dew point temperature
c) dry bulb temperature
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d) wet bulb temperature
92. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is
20 kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the process will be
a) 0.37
b) 0.3
c) 0.6
d) 0.67
93. In a vapor compression refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

a) condenser
b) compressor
c) evaporator
d) expansion valve
94. During humidification process, __________ increases.

a) wet bulb temperature
b) dry bulb temperature
c) specific humidity
d) relative humidity
95. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

a) dry bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature
c) dew point temperature
d) relative humidity
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96. During sensible cooling of air __________ decreases.

a) wet bulb temperature
b) relative humidity
c) specific humidity
d) dry bulb temperature

a) The wet bulb temperature is a measure of enthalpy of moist air.
b) The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature lines
c) The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation condition.
d) all the options
98. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is
a) 420 kJ/min
b) 210 kJ/min
c) 21 kJ/min
d) 620 kJ/min
99. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the

a) dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
b) dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature
c) dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature
d) dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
100. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is

a) 50%
b) zero %
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c) 75%
d) 100%
101. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb temperature,
and RH = Relative humidity)
a) 20C DBT and 80% RH
b) 25C DBT and 100% RH
c) 22C DBT and 60% RH
d) 25C DBT and 40% RH
102. In chemical dehumidification process,

a) dry bulb temperature increases
b) wet bulb temperature decreases
c) dew point temperature decreases
d) all the options
103. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are
a) vertical and uniformly spaced
b) horizontal and uniformly spaced
c) horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
d) curved lines
104. A low wet bulb temperature indicates very __________ humidity.

a) low
b) high
c) low or high depends on other properties
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105. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the maximum amount
of water vapour into it, is called
a) dry air
b) moist air
c) saturated air
d) specific humidity
1. Ratio of work done per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is know as
a) compression ratio
b) compressor capacity
c) mean effective pressure
d) compressor efficiency
2. Find the volumetric efficiency of the compressor if air is compressed from 1 bar to 7 bar.
The expansion and compression are isentropic (n=1.3)and the clearance volume is 3% of
stroke volume.
a) 76.2%
b) 85.1%
c) 89.6 %
d) 91.5%
3. The ratio of high temperature to low temperature in reversed carnot cycle refrigerator is
1.1. The COP of the refrigerator will be
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a) 10
b) 4
c) 3.5
d) 4.5
4. The most suitable method for increasing the COP of vapour compression system is
a) sub cooling
b) lowering the suction pressure
c) Increasing the delivery pressure
5. Superheating in vapour compression refrigeration cycle is

a) Increases the specific volume of refrigerant vapour
b) Increases refrigeration effect
c) Increases work of compression
d) All the answers
6. The work input to air compressor is minimum if the compression law followed is
a) PV1.35= C
b) PV = C
c) PV = C
7. A 20 m3 of air per minute is

minimum power required to drive the compressor with 2-stage compression. Assume the
index of compression is 1.3.
a) 68.2 kW
b) 88.9 kW
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c) 78.8 kW
d) 58.8 kW
8. In a single stage air-compressor, the clearance volume is 1/19th of the swept volume. It
delivers 7.6 m3 of free air per minute from 100 kpa to 900 kpa. Assume the index of
compression and expansion as 1.2. Find the volumetric efficiency of compressor
a) 72.4 %
b) 82.4 %
c) 62.4 %
d) 90.4 %
nozzle. Calculate the velocity of steam at exit.

a) 618 m/s
b) 718 m/s
c) 918 m/s
d) 818 m/s
10. Dry saturated steam enters into steam nozzle at 12 bar and discharges at 1.5 bar. The
dryness fraction of exit steam is 0.95. Find the exit velocity if, initial velocity is 135 m/s.
a) 847.5 m/s
b) 747.7 m/s
c) 647.7 m/s
d) 452 m/s
11. In three stage reciprocating air-compressor how will the diameter of the cylinder when
the air is moving from L.P cylinder to H.P cylinder via I.P. cylinder. (D = diameter of
cylinder)
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a) D L.p= D I.P= D H.P

b) D L.p > D I.P >D H.P
c) D L.p < D I.P < D H.P
d) D L.p =D I.P = D H.P=0
12. Antiknock character of compression ignition engine fuel is increased by

a) Amyl nitrate
b) Tetra ethyl lead
c) Lead ethide
d) Napthane
13. Engine cooling beyond optimal limit usually results into

a) decrease in thermal efficiency
b) decrease in combustion efficiency
c) decrease in mechanical efficiency
d) all the answers
14. The antifreeze solutions commonly used in automobiles is

a) Ethylene glycol
b) Normal heptane
c) Iso-octane
d) Lead ethyl
15. A lubrication system in which a scoop connected at the lowest part of the connecting rod
is used to spread the lubricating oil on the cylinder wall is called
a) petroil system
b) splash system
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c) pressure system
d) dry sump system
16. The time duration for which both the intake and exhaust valves are remain in open
position is ___________
a) Turbo lag
b) Valve overlap
c) Scavenging
d) Tappet clearance
17. A 40 kW engine has a mechanical efficiency of 80 %. If the frictional power is assumed

to be constant with load, what is
the approximate value of the mechanical efficiency at 50% of the rated load?
a) 47%
b) 57%
c) 67%
d) 77%
18. During Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power
were taken at constant speed. The The mechanical efficiency of the engine is ___________
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
a) 81.07%
b) 78.23%
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c) 61.22%
d) 91.53%
19. ____________ valve is the bypass valve which will control the turbine speed in
turbocharger
a) Inlet valve
b) Waste gate valve
c) Exhaust valve
d) Check valve
20. The pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the throat pressure is called
as _________
a) Carburettor depression
b) Injection pressure
c) Volatility of fuel
d) All the above
21. In computing the engine performance, the heating value of fuel used is _______________
a) Higher heating value
b) Lower heating value
c) The Average of lower and higher heating values
22. Friction power of the IC engine will _________ if the engine speed is increased.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) no effect
d) depends of other engine torque
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23. Effectiveness of an engines induction process is called as _______________

a) volumetric efficiency
b) thermal efficiency
c) mechanical efficiency
d) relative efficiency
24. Mean piston speed of IC engine is equal to

a) Stroke x rpm
b) (stroke x rpm)/ 2
c) 2 x stroke x rpm
d) 4 x stroke x rpm
25. The thermostat in IC engines permitting hot water to go to radiator is set around
a) 70 - 80C
b) 80-85 C
c) Above 100 C
d) below 50 C
26. Incase of the pump circulation system, the pump is driven by

a) flywheel
b) engine crankshaft
c) cam shaft
d) generator
27. The component of the water cooling system which exchanges heat with the outside air is
called
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a) radiator
b) thermostat
c) pump
d) fan
28. The commercial refrigeration system which is closer to reversed carnot cycle in terms of
performance is
a) Vapour compression cycle
b) vapour absorption cycle
c) Air refrigeration system
d) cryogenic system
29. The air refrigeration system is working on _____________________ cycle

a) bell column cycle
b) carnot cycle
c) driving cycle
d) VCR cycle
30. The amount of heat removed from 1 ton (1000 kg) of pure water supplied at 00C to form
ice at 00C in 24 hours is known as _______________
a) One TR
b) 3.5 kW
c) 14000 kJ/hr
d) all the answers
31. Fundamental principle of refrigeration is based on _____________ law of

thermodynamics
a) First
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b) second
c) third
32. The main function of ___________ is to collapse the primary circuit for EMF generation
in battery ignition system.
a) Battery
b) Capacitor and breaker points
c) Ignition coil
d) rocker arm
33. A refrigerant should have low

a) boiling point
b) specific heat of liquid
c) specific volume of vapour
d) all of the answers
34. In reciprocating compressors, clearance is provided

a) To improve the volumetric efficiency of the compressor
b) To accommodate valves
c) To account for thermal expansion due to temperature variation
d) To reduce power consumption of the compressor
35. The temperature recorded by a thermometer when its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth
exposed to air.
a) Dry-bulb temperature
b) Wet-bulb temperature
c) Dew point temperature
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36. It is the temperature recorded by a thermometer when water vapour in air begins to
condense or dew is formed.
a) Dry bulb temperature
b) Wet-bulb temperature
c) Dew point temperature
d) All the answers
37. The mass of water vapour present in 1kg of dry air and is expressed as g/kg of air
a) Humidity ratio
b) Absolute humidity
c) Degree of Saturation
d) Relative humidity
38. ___________gives the fraction of air which does not come into contact with heating coil
surface
a) By pass factor
b) sensible heat factor
c) latent heat factor
d) total heat factor
39. _____________of air depends on the dew point temperature of air
a) latent heat
b) sensible heat
c) total heat
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40. Humidification or Dehumidification process is also called as

a) sensible heat process
b) latent heat process
c) total heat process
d) all the answers
41. Cooling with adiabatic humidification Process is known as

a) Evaporative cooling
b) Adiabatic chemical dehumidification
c) cooling and dehumidification
d) heating and humidification
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Turbomachines
1. Specific enthalpy and velocity of steam at inlet and exit of a steam turbine, running under
steady
state, are as given below:
&nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp
&nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp Specific enthalpy (kJ/kg) &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp
&nbsp
Velocity (m/s)
Inlet steam condition &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp3250
&nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp
180
Exit steam condition &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp 2360
&nbsp &nbsp &nbsp &nbsp
5
The rate of heat loss from the turbine per kg of steam flow rate is 5 kW. Neglecting changes
in
potential energy of steam, the power developed in kW by the steam turbine per kg of steam
flow rate, is
a) 901.2
b) 911.2
c) 17072.5
d) 17082.5
2. Steam at a velocity of 10 m/s enters the impulse turbine stage with symmetrical blading
having blade angle 300. The enthalpy drop in the stage is 100 kJ. The nozzle
angle is 200. The maximum blade efficiency (in percent) is
a) 88.3
b) 85.2
c) 81.3
d) 84.7
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3. In a pelton Wheel the bucket peripheral speed is 10 m/s, the water jet velocity is 25 m/s
and volumetric flow rate of the jet is 0.1m3/s. If the jet defection angle is
1200 and the flow is ideal, the power developed is
a) 7.5 kW
b) 15 kW
c) 22.5 kW
d) 37.5 kW
4. Specific speed of a Kaplan Turbine ranges between

a) 30 to 60
b) 60 to 300
c) 300 to 600
d) 600 to 1000
5. Cavitation in hydraulic turbine is most likely to occur at the turbine

a) entry
b) exit
c) stator exit
d) rotor exit
6. For a single stage impulse turbine with a rotor diameter of 2 m and a speed of 3000 rpm
when the
nozzle angle is 200, the optimum velocity of steam in m/s is
a) 334
b) 356
c) 668
d) 711
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7. A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a 50% reaction stage in a steam turbine are examples of
a) different types of impulse stages
b) different types of reaction stages
c) a simple impulse stage, a velocity compounded impulse stage and reaction stage
d) velocity compounded impulse stage, a simple impulse stage and a reaction stage
8. The isentropic heat drop in the nozzle of an impulse steam turbine with a nozzle efficiency
0.9, blade
velocity ratio 0.5, and mean blade velocity 150 m/s in kJ/kg is
a) 50
b) 40
c) 60
d) 75
9. Considering the variation of static pressure and absolute velocity in an impulse stream
turbine,
across one row of moving blades
a) both pressure and velocity decrease
b) pressure decreases but velocity increases
c) pressure remains constant, while velocity increases
d) pressure remains constant, while velocity decreases
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TURBOMACHINES
1. In a reaction turbine the enthalpy drop in a stage is 60 units. The enthalpy drop in the fixed
blades is 28 units. What is the degree of reaction?
a) 0.284
b) 0.533
c) 0.466
d) 1.875
2. In case of a centrifugal pump, cavitation will occur if

a) it operates above the minimum net positive suction head
b) it operates below the minimum net positive suction head
c) the pressure at the inlet of the pump is above the atmospheric pressure
d) the pressure at the inlet of the pump is equal to the atmospheric pressure
3. Manometric efficiency of a centrifugal pump is defined as the ratio of

a) suction head to the head imparted by the impeller to water
b) head imparted by the impeller to water to the suction head
c) manometric head to the head imparted by the impeller to water
d) manometric head to the head imparted by the impeller to water
4. A centrifugal pump delivers water at the rate of 50 litres/s against a total head of 40
metres. Then the power required to drive the pump is
a) 2 kW
b) 15.2 kW
c) 19.6 kW
d) 25.8 kW
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5. Match list 1 with list 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List 1 List 2
A. Head race 1. Channel, tunnel or pipes through which water is carried from reservoir to
the turbine
B. Tail race
2. Reservoir water level
C. Penstock
3. Diverging tube discharging water from the turbine to the atmosphere
D. Draft tube 4. The level at which water is discharged at atmospheric pressure

Codes:
a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
b) A-2, B- 4, C-1, D-3
c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
d) A-2, B-3, C-1 ,D-4
6. Considering the variation of static pressure and absolute velocity in an impulse steam
turbine, across one row of moving blades
a) pressure remains constant, while velocity decreases
b) pressure decreases but velocity increases
c) both pressure and velocity decrease
d) pressure remains constant, while velocity increases
7. In an axial flow impulse turbine, energy transfer takes place due to

a) Change in relative kinetic energy
b) Change in absolute kinetic energy
c) Change in pressure energy
d) Change in energy because of centrifugal force
8. An axial flow compressor has

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a) larger blades at gas entry and smaller blades at exit

b) smaller blades at gas entry and larger blades at exit
c) identical blades at exit as well as entry
d) size of blades remains same only angles changes
9. In a steady, irreversible adiabatic, incompressible flow process; in the absence of work

transfer:
a) The total pressure decreases but total temperature remains constant
b) Total pressure and total temperature decrease
c) Total pressure and total temperature remain constant
d) Total pressure and total temperature remain constant
10. Francis turbine is

a) A reaction radial flow turbine
b) An axial flow turbine
c) An impulse turbine
d) A tangential flow turbine
11. The hydraulic efficiency of a reaction turbine, is the ratio of

a) actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the wheel
b) power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
c) workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the turbine

1. The fluid enters the pump axially and is discharged radially
2. Maximum efficiency may be of the order of 90%
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3. Development of a low head

4. A limited suction capacity
Which of the above characteristics are possessed by axial flow pumps?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
13. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar,
then the delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
a) 256 bar
b) 64 bar
c) 1 bar
d) 16 bar
14. Do self priming pumps require priming ever? Assume the pipings are perfect and leak
proof.
a) Yes, once when it is installed
b) No, doesn't require priming at all
c) Yes, always
d) Cannot say
15. While flowing through the rotor blades in an axial flow air compressor, the relative
velocity of air:
a) Continuously increases
b) Continuously decreases
c) First increases and then decreases
d) First decreases and then increases
573
16. A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the pressure rise in the impeller
is equal to the
a) velocity head
b) manometric head
c) static head
d) kinetic head
17. Which one of the following statements is true?

a) In a multi-stage compressor, overall efficiency is less than stage efficiency
b) Preheat factor for a multi-stage compressor is greater than one
c) In a multi-stage turbine, overall e-efficiency is less than the stage e-efficiency
d) Preheat factor does not affect the multi-stage compressor performance
18. Which of the followings are the demerits of single impulse stage
1. Requirement of C-D nozzle
2. Enhanced shock associated losses
3. More boundary layer associated losses in comparison with single reaction stage
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
19. The isentropic heat drop in the nozzle of an impulse steam turbine with a nozzle
efficiency 0.9, blade velocity ratio 0.5, and mean blade velocity 150 m/s in kJ/kg is
a) 50
b) 40
574
c) 60
d) 75
20. Steam enters the rotor of a reaction turbine with an absolute velocity of 236 m/s and the
relative velocity of 132 m/s. It leaves the rotor with a relative velocity of 232 m/s absolute
velocity of 126 m/s. The specific work output is
a) 38.1 kJ/kg
b) 40.1 kJ/kg
c) 43.8 kJ/kg
d) 47.4 kJ/kg
21. The degree of reaction of a turbine is the ratio of enthalpy drop in

a) moving blades to enthalpy drop in fixed blades
b) fixed blades to enthalpy drop in moving blades
c) moving blades to enthalpy drop in the stage
d) fixed blades to enthalpy drop in the stage
22. At the inlet of a steam nozzle, stagnation enthalpy of steam is 787.07 kcal/kg at exit, the
static enthalpy of steam is 738.0 kcal/kg. For a frictionless adiabatic flow, the velocity of
steam at the exit will be (assume 1kcal = 4.18kJ)
a) 620 m/s
b) 582.2 m/s
c) 600.6 m/s
d) 640.5 m/s
23. In the phenomenon of cavitation, the characteristic fluid property involved is

a) bulk modulus of elasticity
575
b) vapour pressure
c) surface tension
d) viscosity

a) For the same overall size and rotational speed, pressure rise obtained with radial impeller is
lower than that of forward
swept impeller
b) For the same overall size and rotational speed Backward swept impeller generates
minimum pressure rise
c) For the same overall size and rotational speed, all three types of impellers generate same
pressure rise
d) For the same overall size and rotational speed forward swept impeller generates maximum
pressure rise
25. The static temperature and Mach number at the inlet of a centrifugal compressor are
300C and 0.5 respectively. The stagnation
temperature of the air at the inlet will be:
a) 34.6 degree Celcius
b) 45.15 degree Celcius
c) 60.3 degree Celcius
d) 31.5 degree Celcius
26. An impulse turbine produces 50 kW of power when the blade mean speed is 400 m/s.
What is the rate of change of momentum tangential to the rotor?
a) 150 N
b) 200 N
c) 125 N
d) 175 N
576
27. Euler equation for turbomachines is derived on the basis of

a) Rate of change of angular momentum
b) Conservation of mass
c) Rate of change of velocity
d) Rate of change of linear momentum

Cavitation in hydraulic machines occurs at the
1. Exit of a pump 2. Entry of the pump 3. Exit of a turbine.
Of these statement
a) 2 and 3 are correct.
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
29. Surging basically implies

a) forward motion of air at a speed above sonic velocity.
b) the surging action due to the blast of air produced in a compressor.
c) unsteady, periodic and reversed flow.
d) Only by increasing the tip speed
30. The total and static pressures at the inlet of a steam nozzle are 186 kPa and 178 kPa
respectively. If the total pressure at the exit is 180 kPa and static pressure is 100 kPa, then the
loss of energy per unit mass in the nozzle will be:
a) 2 kPa
b) 6 kPa
c) 8 kPa
577
d) 78 kPa
31. Stalling of blades in axial- flow compressor is the phenomenon of

a) motion of air at sonic velocity
b) unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
c) air steam not able to follow the blade contour
d) air stream blocking the passage
32. Which one of the following is used to bring down the speed of an impulse steam turbine
to practical limits?
a) A centrifugal governor
b) Compounding of the turbine
c) A large flywheel
d) A gear box
33. In aircraft gas turbines, the axial flow compressor is preferred because
a) of high pressure rise per stage
b) of high pressure rise
c) it is stall free
d) of low frontal area
34. The pressure rise in the impeller of centrifugal compressor is achieved by

a) the centrifugal action and decrease in volume
b) the centrifugal and diffusion action
c) the decrease in volume and diffusion action
d) the centrifugal and push-pull action
578
35. Impulse turbine requires

a) High head and low discharge
b) High head and high discharge
c) Low head and low discharge
d) Low head and high discharge
36. A Pelton wheel develops 1750 kW under a head of 100 metres while running at 200
r.p.m. and discharging 2500 litres of water per second. The unit power of the wheel is
a) 1.75 kW
b) 0.75 kW
c) 3.75 kW
d) 0.25 kW
37. In centrifugal compressor terminology, vane-less space refers to the space between
a) blades in the impeller
b) diffuser exit and volute casing
c) impeller tip and diffuser inlet edge
d) the inlet and blade inlet edge
38. In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is 600 kJ/kg, the compressor work is 400 kJ/kg
and the heat supplied is
1000 kJ/kg. The thermal efficiency of this cycle is :
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 20%
d) 80%
579
39. An axial flow compressor stage is suitable for

a) high volume flow rates with a small pressure rise
b) high volume flow rates with high pressure rise
c) low volume flow rates with low pressure rise
d) low volume flow rates with high pressure rise
40. Consider the following statements about modification in a gas turbine power plant
working on a simple Brayton cycle:
1. Incorporation of regeneration process increases specific work output as well as thermal
efficiency.
2. Incorporation of regeneration process increases thermal efficiency but specific work output
remains unchanged.
3. Incorporation of inter-cooling process in a multi-stage compression increases specific work
output but the heat input also increases.
4. Incorporation of inter-cooling process in a multi-stage compression system increases
specific work output, the heat addition remains unchanged.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 4
41. In a turbojet engine, subsequent to heat addition to compressed air, to get the power
output, the working substance
is expanded in
a) turbine blades, which is essentially an isochoric process.
b) turbine blades, which is essentially an isentropic process.
c) exit nozzle, which is essentially an isentropic process.
d) exit nozzle, which is a constant volume process.
580
42. A Francis turbine is used when the available head of water is

a) 0 to 25 m
b) 25 m to 250 m
c) 250 m to 500 m
d) Above 500 m
43. Steam enters De Laval steam turbine with an inlet velocity of 30 m/s and leaves with an
outlet velocity of 10 /s. the work done by one kg of steam is
a) 400 Nm
b) 600 Nm
c) 800 Nm
d) 1200 Nm
44. At a particular section of a reaction turbine, the diameter of the blade is 1.8m, the velocity
of flow of steam is
49m/s and the quantity of steam flow is 5.4m3/s. The blade height at this section
will be approximately:
a) 2 cm
b) 1 cm
c) 0.5 cm
d) 4 cm
45. In a centrifugal compressor, how can the pressure ratio be increased?

a) By increasing the tip speed and decreasing the inlet temperature
b) Only by increasing the inlet temperature
c) Only by decreasing the inlet temperature
581
46. The main aim of compounding of steam turbine is to

a) avoid steam condensation
b) reduce steam consumption
c) reduce rotor speed
d) improve efficiency
47. A draft tube is not required for a

a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton wheel turbine
d) Propeller turbine
48. A multistage compressor is to be designed for a given flow rate and pressure ratio. If the
compressor consists of axial
flow stages followed by centrifugal instead of only axial flow stages, then the
a) axial length of the compressor would be increased
b) overall diameter would be decreased
c) overall diameter remains the same
d) overall diameter would be increased
49. In a 50% reaction stage, absolute velocity angle at inlet is 450, mean
peripheral speed is 75 m/s and the absolute velocity at the exit is axial. The stage specific
work is
a) 2500 J/kg
b) 3270 J/kg
c) 4375 J/kg
582
d) 5625 J/kg
50. The Rateau turbine belongs to the category of

a) pressure compounded turbine
b) reaction turbine
c) velocity compounded turbine
d) radial flow turbine
TURBOMACHINES
1. In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first completely converted into kinetic
energy by means of nozzle kept close to the runner?
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Both in Impulse and Reaction turbines
d) Nither Impulse nore in Reaction
2. Which one of the following helps in avoiding cavitation in centrifugal pumps?

a) Low suction pressure
b) High delivery pressure
c) Low delivery pressure
d) High suction pressure
3. In the case of pelton turbine installed in a hydraulic power plant, the grossnhead available
is the vertical distance between
a) forebay and tail race
b) reservoir level and turbine inlet
583
c) forebay and turbine inlet

d) reservoir level and tail race.

1. Almost all flow losses take place in the diverging part of a nozzle.
2. Normal shocks are likely to occur in the converging part of a nozzle.
3. Efficiency of reaction turbines is higher than that of impulse turbines.
Of these statements
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
5. Which of the following is an example of impulse turbine?

a) Propeller turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton wheel
6. Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement pumps?

a) Reciprocating pump
b) Rotary displacement pump
c) Centrifugal pump
d) Vane pump
7. What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in hydro-electric power plant called?
a) head race
584
b) tail race
c) gross head
d) net head
8. Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases the head on the turbine
by an amount equal to the height of runner outlet above the tail race?
a) Scroll casing
b) Guide vanes
c) Moving vanes
d) Draft tube
9. Which pump is more suitable for an application where very high pressure is required to be
developed at moderate discharge?
a) Reciprocating pump
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Turbine
d) Gear pump
10. The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the centrifugal compressor
is called as
a) velocity factor
b) slip factor
c) work factor
d) flow coefficient
11. In a steady, reversible adiabatic, compressible flow process; in the abscence of work
transfer
a) The total pressure decreases but total temperature remains constant
585
b) Total pressure and total temperature decrease

c) Total pressure and total temperature remain constant
d) Total pressure and total temperature remain constant
12. A diffuser is used to

a) increase velocity and decrease pressure
b) increase velocity as well as pressure
c) decrease velocity and increase pressure
d) decrease velocity as well as pressure

1. The fluid enters the pump axially and is discharged radially
2. Maximum efficiency may be of the order of 90%
3. Development of a low head
4. A limited suction capacity
Which of the above characteristics are possessed by axial flow pumps?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
14. Do reciprocating pumps require priming ever?

a) Yes, once when it is installed
b) No, it can work without priming
c) Yes, always
d) Cannot say
586
15. While flowing through the rotor blades in an axial flow air compressor, the relative
velocity of air:
a) Continuously increases
b) Continuously decreases
c) First increases and then decreases
d) First decreases and then increases
16. Braking jet in an impulse turbine is used

a) to bring the runner to rest in a short time
b) to change the direction of runner
c) to break the jet of water
d) to stop flow from penstock
17. Surging basically implies

a) forward motion of air at a speed above sonic velocity.
b) the surging action due to the blast of air produced in a compressor.
c) unsteady, periodic and reversed flow.
18. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on

a) stage efficiency only
b) initial pressure and temperature
c) exit pressure only
d) exit temperature, pressure and stage efficiency
19. The rotor speeds in steam turbines can be reduced by

a) compounding of steam turbines
587
b) scaling of steam turbines

c) governing of steam turbines
d) using reduction gear
20. Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by

a) reheating
b) intercooling
c) intercooling, reheating and regenerator
d) regenerator
21. A gas turbine works on which one of the following cycles?

a) Rankine
b) Otto
c) Brayton
d) Stirling
22. Consider the following statements with regard to the specific speeds of differentvtypes of
turbine:
1. High specific speed implies that it is a Pelton wheel
2. Medium specific speed implies that it is a Francis turbine
3. Low specific speed implies that it is an axial flow turbine.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
588
23. The maximum blade efficiency of single stage impulse turbine in terms of nozzle
angle &#945 under ideal conditions is proportional to
a) cos &#945
b) sin &#945
c) sin2&#945
d) cos2&#945
24. If in an impulse turbine designed for free vortex flow, tangential velocity of stem
at the root radius of 250 mm is 430 m/s and the blade height is 100 mm, then the
tangential velocity of steam at the tip will be
a) 602 m/s
b) 504 m/s
c) 409 m/s
d) 307 m/s
25. If in a steam turbine stage, heat drop in moving blade ring is 40 kJ/kg and that in the fixed
blade ring is 60 kJlkg, then the degree of reaction is
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 70%
26. Which one of the following is not correct regarding both Kaplan and propeller turbines?
a) The runner is axial
b) The blades are wing type
c) There are four to eight blades
d) The blades can be adjusted
589
27. Based on the direction of flow, which one of the following turbines is different from the
other three?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Parson's turbine
c) De Laval turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
28. Consider the following statements regarding an impulse turbine:

1. Relative velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.
2. Absolute velocity at the inlet and exit of the rotor blades are the same.
3. Static pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.
4. Total pressure within the rotor blade channel is constant.
29. In hydraulic power-generation systems, sugre tanks are provided to prevent immediate
damage to
a) draft tube
b) turbine
c) tail race
d) penstrocks
30. A nozzle is said to have choked flow when

a) discharge is minimum.
590
b) throat velocity is sonic.

c) nozzle exit pressure is more than
the critical pressure.
d) discharge is zero.
31. If the enthalpy drops of moving blade and fixed blade of a stage in a reaction turbine are 9
and 11 kJ/kg respectively,
then degree of reaction of the stage is
a) 0.1
b) 0.45
c) 0.55
d) 1.0
32. A centrifugal pump delivers water at the rate of 50 litres/s against a total head of 40
metres. Then the power required to drive the pump is
a) 2 kW
b) 15.2 kW
c) 19.6 kW
d) 25.8 kW
33. The function of the draft tube in a reaction turbine is

a) to enable the shaft of the turbine to
be vertical
b) to transform a large part of pressure
energy at turbine outlet into kinetic
energy
c) to avoid whirl losses at the exit of
the turbine
591
d) to transform a large part of kinetic

energy at the turbine outlet into
pressure energy
592

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COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION

1. With incremental tool positioning, ____.

2. The point-to-point NC movement system ____.

3. When the contour or continuous path system is used, ____.

4. A point-to-point NC movement system ____.

5. Servo motors are ____.

6. In a typical manufacturing environment, CAD modeling finds its role in:

12. The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by:

13. The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors:

16. In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and control

(45, 5), (5, 5)

18. Consider the following characteristics:

1. When absolute tool positioning is used, ____.

2. A straight-cut system ____.

3. A point-to-point NC movement system ____.

4. With contour or continuous path NC movement system, ____.

5. In a typical manufacturing environment, CAD modeling finds its role in:

7. Which of the following is not an object-space hidden surface removal algorithm

14. IGES stands for

15. Group technology and CAPP are the activities of

16. Computer Integrated Manufacturing deals with

17. B-Rep is a methods of ____________

c) Wire frame modeling

20. In which of the following machining manual part programming is done?

c) N010G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

22. What are the main components of an NC machine?

28. In a point-to-point type of NC system

d) neither position nor velocity need be controlled

29. A 'block' of information in N.C. machine program means

30. In a CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and control

32. Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided by

(45, 5), (5, 5)

d) (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25),

(5, 25), (5, 5)

36. Flexible manufacturing allows for:

37. Consider the following characteristics:

38. In which machining system, the highest level of automation is found?

42. What do Flexible Manufacturing systems (FMS) do?

1. Each screen point is referred to as .........................

3. The region code of a point within the window is ............

6. Higher persistence phosphorus needs _________ refresh rate.

7. The purpose of refreshing a CRT is ..........................

9. Which of the following is not an object-space hidden surface removal algorithm?

11. In CRT, the electron intensity is adjusted using .................

13. Identify the odd one out from the following

14. Identify different type of computer graphics

15. A bitmap is .............. bit(s) per pixels

16. The basic transformations include

20. Forming products of transformation matrices is often referred as

23. The point about which an object is rotated is called ...................

24. A surface of revolution is generated by a .................. of a 2D curve.

25. Identify line clipping algorithms from the following

28. ........ used to regulate the flow of elections in CRT ?

d) All the answer

29. The refresh rate below which a picture flicker is ................

Computer Aided Machine Drawing

2. Which of the following is not a pictorial drawing?

4. A circle will appear on an isometric drawing as a(n) __________ .

8. In an isometric sketch of a cube:

a) the box construction method

12. Non-isometric lines are located and sketched how?

13. In an oblique sketch of a cube:

18. What type of sketch incorporates convergence?

19. What type of sketch shows the front in true shape?