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MATERIALS ENGINEER EXAMINATION

NO.5
Instruction: Choose the best answer. The Examination is good for two hours.
1. What is the physical property of concrete that withstand deterioration due
to exposure to weathering action?
a. Durability b. strength
c. Adsorption d. absorption
2. Over sanded and under sanded mixtures requires more water in order to
be workable, but making it so well, only result in a sacrifice in:
a. Durability b. strength
c. Adsorption d. absorption
3. The method used to test on the workability of concrete and the tests are
readily made in the field.
a. Slump test b. core test
c. dynamic tests d. ball penetration test.
4. For rich mixes, the strength of _______ is the controlling factor.
a. Cement
b. aggregates c. sand
d. all of the above
5. Sampling of Portland cement should be done in accordance with
AASHTO___.
a. T129
b. T 130
c. T127
d. none of the above
6. The practice of artificially densifying and incorporating definite density into
the soil mass rolling, tampering.
a. Soil classification b. soil sampling c. quatering
d. compaction
7. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement will occurs
leading o failure:
a. Pascal
b. force c. bearing capacity d. none of the above
8. Specified or selected materials of designed thickness placed as foundation
for pavement.
a. sub base b. base
c. sub-grade
d. Treated layer
9. The materials in excavation (cuts) embankment (fills) and embankment
foundation immediate below the layer of subbase, base or pavement and
to such depth as may effect the structural design
a. subbase b. base
c. sub-grade
d. Treated layer
10. Specified or selected materials of designed thickness placed as a
foundation for base:

a. sub-base

b. base

c. sub-grade

d. Treated layer

11. A sand used to measure the volume of test hole in FDT:


a. calibrated sand b. fine sand
c. very fine sand
the above

d. all of

12. Provided along the slopes of high embankments as an erosion control


measure and to improve the stability of the side slopes with a required
compaction of 90% AASHTO T99 method C.
a. Side path b. berm
c. stone masonry. riprap
13. The most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of
bituminous concrete mixes:
a. Penetration test b. compaction test c. core test
d. Marshall
stability test
14. A layer of an asphalt aggregate mixture of variable thickness used to
eliminate irregularities in the content of an existing surface prior to
placement of an overlay:
a. Asphalt Leveling Course b. Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt
tack coat d. all of the above
15. An application of low-viscosity cutback to an absorbent surface or a mixedin application of emulsified asphalt. It is used only on untreated base prior
to placement of an asphalt pavement.
a. Asphalt Leveling Course b. Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt
Prime coat d. none of the above
16. The upward movement of asphalt in an asphalt pavement resulting in the
formation of a film of asphalt on the surface.
a. bleeding
b. bowl-shape c. cracks
d. corrugation
17. A very light application of asphalt applied to an existing asphalt or Portland
cement surface, used to ensure a bond between the surface of being
paved and the overlaying course
a. Asphalt Leveling Course b. Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt tack
coat d. none of the above
18. A mixture of slow setting emulsified asphalt, water, aggregates and mineral
filler produce to a slurry consistency and placed on pavement surface.
a. asphalt emulsion slurry seal b. emulsified asphalt c. seal coat
d. tack coat
19. A crack sometimes crescent shaped, that point in the direction of the trust
of the wheels on the pavement surface caused by lack of bond between
two pavement layer.

a. Raveling b. reflective crack c. bowl-shape crack


cracks

d. slippage

20. Any condition that might contribute to making a pavement slippery


a. frictionless b. sliding hazard c. skid hazard d. none of the above
21. The uniform rate of flow of concrete cu. m per hour when poured.
a. 10-15
b.15-20
c.20-25
d.30-33
22. Used to evaluate the potential strength of soil aggregate.
a. CBR
b. Abrasion c. immersion-compression d. all of the
above
23. Test used to determine the hardness property of course aggregates.
a. CBR b. Abrasion c .immersion-compression d. all of the above
24. The stones used for stone masonry shall have a thickness of not less than:
a. 200mm
b.25mm
c.150mm
d. none of the above
25. The temperature for moist curing of specimen that gives the best result.
a. 15.5 C to 37.5 C
b. 17.5 C to 39.5 C
c. 13.5 C to 35.5 C
d.13.5 C to 33.5
26. The maximum size to course aggregates required for Item 311 (PCCP)
a. 2 inches b. 3 inches c. 1 inches d. 4 inches
27. The gradation requirement used for Hot Mix Bituminous Pavement.
a. grading A
b. grading B
c. grading C
d. grading D
28. The placing temp. for bituminous mixture measured in the truck prior to
dumping.
a. 107 C ,min b. 107 C ,max c.159 C, min d. 159 C, max
29. Unsuitable materials are soils with a liquid limit exceeding.
a. 80
b. 85
c. 100
d. 90
30. Unsuitable materials are soils with natural water content exceeding.
a. 80
b. 85
c. 100
d. 90
31. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic material such as
grass, roots, sewerage highly organic soils such as peat and muck.
a. Suitable materials b. soil aggregate
c. unsuitable material
d. none of the above

32. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a
liquid limit of AASTO T-89
a.35,max
b.35,min
c.25,max
d.25,min
33. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 104 shall have a
liquid limit of: AASTO T-89
a.30,ma
b.30,min
c.25,max
d.25,min
34. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 201 shall have a
liquid limit of: AASTO T-89
a.30,max
b.30,min
c.25,max
d.25,min
35. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 202 shall have a
liquid limit of: AASTO T-89
a.30,max
b.30,min
c.25,max
d.25,min
36. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a
plasticity index of:
a.12,max
b.12,min
c.6,max
d.6,,min
37. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a
plasticity index of:
a.12,max
b.12,min
c.6,max
d.6,,min
38. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a
plasticity index of:
a.12,max
b.12,min
c.6,max
d.6,,min
39. The coarse portion, retained on a 2.00mm (No.10) sieves for Item 201
shall have a mass percent of wear by the Los Angeles Abrasion Tests as
determined by AASHTO T96.
a. 50,min
b. 45,min
c.50,max
d.45,max
40. The coarse portion, retained on a 2.00mm (No.10) sieves for Item 202
shall have a mass percent of wear by the Los Angeles Abrasion Tests as
determined by AASHTO T96.
a.50,min
b. 45,min
c.50,max
d.45,max
41. The materials passing the 19mm sieves for Item 202 shall have a soaked
CBR value tested according to AASHTO T-193.
a. 25%,max b. 25%,min
c.80%,min
d.45%,min
42. The materials passing the 19mm sieves for Item 201 shall have a soaked
CBR value tested according to AASHTO T-193.

a. 25%,max

b. 25%,min

c.80%,min

d.45%,min

43. The materials passing the 19mm sieves for Item 200 shall have a soaked
CBR value tested according to AASHTO T-193.
b. 80%,max
b. 25%,min
c.80%,min
d.45%,min
44. The coarse portion, retained on a 2.00mm (No.10) sieves for Item 202
shall have a mass percent of wear by the Los Angeles Abrasion Tests of:
a.80%,max
b. 45%,min
c.80%,min
d.45%,max
45. A thin asphalt surface treatment used to waterproof and improve the
texture of an asphalt wearing surface.
a. Asphalt Leveling Course b. Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt
Seal coat d. none of the above
46. An application of asphalt materials to any type of road or pavement
surface with or without a cover of mineral aggregates that produce an
increase in thickness of less than 25mm or 1 inch.
a. Asphalt Leveling Course b. Asphalt Surface Treatment c. Asphalt tack
coat d. all of the above
47. The solvent used to test on residue from distillation at 288C of asphalt
materials
a. Trichloroethylene
b. colormatic test c. spot test
d. bitumen
48. Cutback asphalt can be classified according to each ________.
a. Permeability b. fluidity
c. penetration grade
d. viscosity
49. Asphalt cement can be determined or classified by their ________.
a. Permeability b. penetration grade c. ductility
d. viscosity
50. Blown asphalt, Hard asphalt or______ are used as joint filler.
a. Oxidized
b. asphalt cement c. hot asphalt d. none of the above
51. What test that will determine if the asphalt is a good binder?
a. CBR
b. Abrasion test c. immersion-compression
c. Ductility test
52. Which of the ff. is not an important property aggregates?
a. Weigth
b. granules
c. smoothness d. none of the above
53. What property of mix that has the ability to resist deformation from an
imposed load?
a. sustainability
b. suitability
c. stability
d. resistivity

54. What property of mix that has the ability to withstand repeated flexing
caused by the passage of wheel load?
a. flow b.fatigue resistance
c. stability d. resistivity
55. In Marshall Stability Test, which of the criteria not included in determining
the average bitumen content
a.weight
b. flow
c. stability
d. smoothness
56. Given: Maximum Stability= 6.05
Bulk Specific Gravity= 2.495
Maximum Unit Weight = 5.55
Stability = 1.150
Flow= 5.65
Flow, 025mm= 7.20
Design Air Voids= 5.20
VFA= 75.00
Determine the Optimum Asphalt Content?
a. 6.50

b. 4.50

c.6.50

d. 3.56

57. What property of mix that has the ability to offer resistance to slipping or
skidding when mix?
a. flow b. fatigue resistance c. skid resistance d. resistivity
58. Given: Weight of Sample in Air
= 1,188
Weight of Sample in Water
= 700
Weight of Sample in Saturated Dry= 1,230
Specific Gravity of Asphalt
= 2.48
Specific Gravity of Aggregates
= 2.55
Determine the Bulk Specific Gravity of Mix?
a. 2.45
b. 2.4
c. 2.24

d. 5.0

59. Given: Specific Gravity of Asphalt


= 1.01
Specific Gravity of Aggregates
= 2.72
% Asphalt Content
= 7%
% Air Voids
= 4%
Determine the Maximum Theoretical Specific Gravity considering Air Void?
a. 3.43
b. 2.43
c. 1.33
d. 2.44
60. What property of mix that has the ability to bend slightly without cracking
and to conform to gradual settlement and movements of the base and subgrade?
a. flexibility
b. fatigue resistance
c. stability
d. resistivity
61. Mineral filler shall have a plasticity index of not greater than ________.
a. 3
b. 2
c. 6
d. 4

62. Emulsified Asphalt is c colloidal dispersion of asphalt in water. It is


________ colored before use and turns ________ when the emulsion is
broken.
a. Brown-chocolate
b. chocolate-brown
c. chocolate-black
d. all black

72. In Job-Mix formula, how many blows needed for designing heavy traffic for
7 kg/sq,cm.
a. 56 blows b. 25 blows
c. 50 blows
d. none of the above

63. Bituminous materials should fall with what range of tolerance?


a. 0.2%
b. 0.4%
c.0.5%
d.0.1%

73. What is the longitudinal surface depression of the wheel paths?


a. Raveling
b. blow-up
c.rutting
d. pumping

64. Temperature of mixture shall have a range of tolerance of ________.


a. 10c
b. 5c
c. 7c
d. 4c

74. Given: Weight of original sample


Weight after Extraction
Original Weight of filler ring
Increase of Weight in filler ring
Determine the asphalt content?

65. Given: Dry Stability


Wet Stability
Saturated Stability

= 1,600
= 1,400
= 1,200

Determine the Index of retained Strength.


a. 97.6%
b. 87.50%
c. 88.0%

a. 56 blows

a. 6.55
d. 100%

66. What is the initial load employed in stability machine?


a.120 psi
b. 180 psi
c. 130 psi
d. 150 psi
67. What is a small air space that occurs between the coated aggregates
particles in a compacted mix?
a. air voids
b. bubbles
c. null
d. grains
68. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to, or greater than,
________ mass percent of the density of laboratory specimen prepared in
accordance with the Marshall Stability Test.
a. 85%
b. 97%
c. 95%
d. 90%
69. What is the measure of the resistance or measure of distortion of the
specimen?
a.plasticity index
b. flow index
c. group index
d. all of
the above
70. Given: % of CA, FA, MF respectively
= 45, 35, 20
Sp. Gr. Of CA, FA, MF respectively
= 2.75, 2.56, 2.40
What is the specific gravity of aggregates?
a. 2.61
b. 3.41
c. 4.23
d. 2.34
71. In Job-Mix formula, how many blows needed for designing heavy traffic for
14 kg/sq,cm.

b. 25 blows

b.5.55

c. 75 blows

d. none of the above

= 1,140 grams
= 980 grams
=
30 grams
=
30 grams

c.4.55

d.3.55

75. For the same stretch of road, no core test was conducted at the end of
each days operation. Thus, cores were taken for every 100 linear meters
of the completed pavement.
100 m

5.3
2.262

100 m

5.1
2.311

100 m

5.1
2.225

100 m

5.2
2.237

100 m

5.0
2.226

What is the quantity?


a. 170.2
b.169.72
c.155.68
d. 179.95
76. The specimen is tested for stability and flow at ________ C as specified
in the standard procedure
a. 30 C
b. 25 C
c. 40 C
d. 20 C
77. In the design of Air Voids, will draw down a line at ________.
a. 4
b.5
c.6
d.7
78. During asphalt construction, what are the controlled tests?

a. Extraction test
the above

b. stability test c. grading test

d. all of

85. What greatly influenced the service of an asphalt pavement?


a. grade and quantity of asphalt b. temperature and quantity of asphalt
c. grade and quality of asphalt
d. grade and temperature of asphalt

79. What do you call the localized upward displacement of a pavement due to
swelling of the sub-grade or some portion of the pavement structure?
a. Pumping
b. cracks
c. raveling
d. upheaval

86. What influenced primarily the grade of asphalt selected?


a. Temperature b. climatic condition c. strength
d. ductility

80. What do you call the slab movement under passing loads resulting in the
ejection of mixtures of water, sand, clay or silt along transverse or
longitudinal joints?
a. Pumping
b. cracks
c. raveling
d. upheaval

87. In the quality control test for an asphalt, this determines the Index
Retained Strength of the Mix.
a. Immersion Compression test b. CBR
c. Abrasion Test
Marshall Stability Test

81. Given:

88. What is the correct temperature that the mixture shall be placed as
measured in the truck just prior to dumping into the spreader?
a. 109 C
b. 107 C
c. 106 C
d. 105 C

Wt. of dry aggregate


Wt. of asphalt

= 950g
= 50g

What is the % of asphalt by weight of total mix?


a. 5%
b. 3 %
c. 7%
d.4%
82. Does the percent asphalt in problem #81 meet the required specification
for percent asphalt in bituminous mixes? Why?
a. Yes, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous
mixes is 5% to 8%
b. Yes, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous
mixes is 7% to 10%
c. No, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous
mixes is 1% to 3%
d. No, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous
mixes is 7% to 10%
83. If the actual percent asphalt in problem #81 is 5% and the percent asphalt
in a job-mix formula is 5.6% did it pass the required tolerance? Why?
a. No, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula
is 1-0.4%.
b. yes, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula
is 1-0.5%.
c. No, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula
is 1-0.6%.
d. yes, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula
is 1-0.7%.
84. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than _____.
a. 30 C
b. 29 C
c. 39 C
d. 15 C

d.

89. When Tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be
placed?
a. 66- 109 C b. 66- 107 C c. 66-106 C
d. 66-105 C
90. When the compaction is be done in order to attain the required density?
a. When the equipment is ready
b. Depend on the contractor
c. when the mixture is still hot and workable
d. as soon as the materials are ready
91. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would
attain the required density?
a. density strip
b. trial section c. rammer
d. all of the above
92. What should be the control during the mixing and compaction is of great
significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?
a. Aggregates b. mineral filler c. water-cement ratio d. temperature
93. What is the stabilizing agent for soil (silky and clayey?
a. Hydrate
b. lime
c. cement
d. geotextiles
94. What is the stabilizing agent for sandy soil?
a. Hydrate
b. lime
c. cement

d. geotextiles

95. Lumber is considered as well seasoned if the moisture content is


________?
a. 13-20%
b. 12-18%
c.30-35%
d.7-12%

96. Liquid limit brass cup with sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on
the base through a height of what?
a. 10mm
b.8mm
c. 12mm
d. 15mm

5. What is the minimum mass of field sample for a maximum size of fine
aggregates at 4.75mm (no.4)?
a. 25 lb
b. 10 kgs
c. a & b
d. none of the above

97. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit device are
rotated?
a. 3 rev/s
b.4rev/s
c.5rev/s
d.2rev/s

6. What is the minimum mass of field sample for a maximum size of fine
aggregates at 4.75mm (no.4)?
a.25 lb
b. 10 kgs
c. a & b
d. none of the above

98. In doing plastic limit tests to what diameter will the soil thread will begin to
break?
a. 3.2mm
b. 2.3mm
c.8.2mm
d. 4.4mm

7. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a


maximum nominal size of aggregates of 50mm (2 inches)?
a.75kgs
b. 100 kgs
c. 150 kgs
d.175 kgs

99. it is used in a gravimetric-volumetric relationship in soils, (or defined as the


ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temp.)
a. Unit weight b. specific gravity
c. absorption d. none of the
above
100.
What is the approximate area for density control strips?
a. 335 sq.m b. 355 sq.m
c.500sq.m
d. none of the above

8. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a


maximum nominal size of aggregates of 9.5mm (3/8)?
a. 15kgs
b. 10kgs
c. 50 kgs
d.25 kgs

MATERIALS ENGINEER EXAMINATION


NO.6
Instruction: Choose the best answer. The Examination is good for two hours.
1. sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, sand weighing
scale, oven with temperature control, chisel, or digging tools, plastic bags
and labeling materials (tag name), is use for?
a. FDT
b. Moisture Content
c. Abrasion Test d. CBR Test
2. What is the standard diameter of an orifice in FDT sand cone?
a.1.7mm
b. 2.7mm
c.12.7m
d.25mm
3. The two major components of concrete are _______and Mineral
Aggregates.
a. water
b. fine sand
c. paste
d. none of the above
4. What is the minimum sample for moisture content determination if the
maximum size of particles is 50mm (2 inches)?
a. 20-1500kgs b. 25-1000kgs c. 50-1000kgs d. none of the above

9. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a


maximum nominal size of aggregates of 12.5mm (1/2)?
a. 15kgs
b. 10kgs
c. 50 kgs
d.25 kgs
10. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a
maximum nominal size of aggregates of 19.0mm (3/4)?
a. 15kgs
b. 10kgs
c. 50 kgs
d.25 kgs
11. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a
maximum nominal size of aggregates of 25.0mm (1)?
a. 110lbs
b. 10kgs
c. 25kg
d. a & c
12. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a
maximum nominal size of aggregates of 37.5.0mm (1 1/2)?
a. 110lbs
b. 75kgs
c. 85kgs
d. a & c
13. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a
maximum nominal size of aggregates of 63mm (2 1/2)?
a. 110lbs
b. 125kgs
c. 185kgs
d. a & c
14. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a
maximum nominal size of aggregates of 75mm (3)?
a. 110 lbs
b. 175kgs
c. 185kgs
d.150kgs
15. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a
maximum nominal size of aggregates of 90mm (3 1/2)?
a. 110 lbs
b. 175kgs
c. 185kgs
d.150kgs

16. What is the minimum mass of coarse aggregates retained on the 2.0mm
sieve shall be set a side for sieve analysis for 50mm (2 inches) particle
size?
a. 2 kgs
b. 3 kgs .
c. 4 kgs
d.5 kgs
17. What is the minimum mass of coarse aggregates retained on the 2.0mm
sieve shall be set a side for sieve analysis for 25mm (1 inch) particle size?
a. 2kgs
b. 3kgs
c. 4kgs
d.5kgs
18. What is the minimum mass of coarse aggregates retained on the 2.0mm
sieve shall be set a side for sieve analysis for 75mm (3 inches) particle
size?
a. 2kgs
b. 3kgs
c. 4kgs
d.5kgs
19. Determines the purity of asphalt on how much bitumen is in the aspahalt?
a. asphaltene b. Petrolane
c. solubility
d. none of the above
20. The properties of asphalt depend upon this ________ substance which is
soluble in petroleum solvents.
a. asphaltene b. petrolene
c. solubility
d. none of the above
21. Imparts ductility and high breakpoint
a. asphaltene b. petrolene
c. solubility

d. none of the above

27. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates subbase


materials on crossfall or camber.
a.0.2%
b. 0.3%
c. 0.5%
d.0.4%
28. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates sub-grade
materials on crossfall or camber.
a.0.2%
b. 0.3%
c. 0.5%
d.0.4%
29. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates on
203,206,300 materials on crossfall/camber
a.0.2%
b. 0.3%
c. 0.5%
d.0.4%
30. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on base course
materials.
a.20mm
b. 10mm
c. 15mm
d. 25mm
31. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on subbase
course materials.
a.20mm
b. 10mm
c. 15mm
d. 25mm
32. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on sub-grade
materials.
a.20mm
b. 10mm
c. 15mm
d. none of the above

22. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates subbase


materials on surface irregularity measured by a 3m straight edge.
a.+20mm
b. +10mm
c.-10mm
d. a&c

33. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on Item 203,206


materials.
a.20mm
b. 10mm
c. 15mm
d. none of the above

23. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates sub-grade


materials on surface irregularity measured by a 3m straight edge.
a. +20mm
b. +10mm
c.-30mm
d.-20mm

34. The permitted thickness layer requirements of aggregates on Item 300


materials.
a.+15mm
b. -5mm
c. 15mm
d. a & b

24. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates base


course materials on surface irregularity measured by a 3m straight edge.
a. +5mm
b. +10mm
c.-5mm
d.-20mm

35. The permitted variations in design requirements of item 203, 206, 300
materials on design longitudinal grade over 25meter length on item 105,
200, 201, 203, 206, 300?
a.0.2%
b. 0.3%
c. 0.1%
d.0.4%
36. Type of bitumen use in bituminous concrete surface course which is a
product of the distillation of crude oil
a.petroleum asphalt
b. coal
c.tar
d. none of the above

25. The permitted variations in design requirements of item 203, 206, 300
materials on surface irregularity measured by a 3m straight edge.
a.+20mm
b. +5mm
c.-5mm
d.-20mm
26. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates base
course materials on crossfall or camber.
a.0.2%
b. 0.3%
c. 0.5%
d.0.4%

37. A type of Cut-Back asphalt which dissolves in diesel.


a.slow curing b. medium curing c. rapid curing d. none of the above
38. A type of cut back asphalt which dissolves in gasoline.
a.slow curing b. medium curing c. rapid curing d. none of the above

39. What is the range of tolerance in a job-mix formula of an aggregates


passing No.4 and larger
a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 4%
d. a. 10%
40. What is the range of tolerance in a job-mix formula of an aggregates
passing No.8 and No.100.
a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 4%
d. a. 10%
41. What is the range of tolerance in a job-mix formula of an aggregates
passing No.200.
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. a. 4%
42. In the construction of bridge projects, what is the method used to
determine the casting length of the regular piles?
a. test pitting b. test piling
c. steel testing d. none of the above
43. Type of emulsified asphalt that works better with wet aggregates and cold
weather.
a. cationic emulsion b. anionic emulsion
c. cut-back asphalt
d. none of the above
44. Type of emulsified asphalt which adhere better to aggregates which has
positive charges.
a. cationic emulsion
b. anionic emulsion
c. cut-back
asphalt
d. none of the above
45. The maximum permissible water-cement ratio for strength of 3,000 psi.
a.0.50
b. 0.45
c.0.55
d. 0.58
46. How many hours does a fine aggregates tested for specific gravity and
absorption be soaked in water?
a. 4-10 hrs
b.15-19hrs
c.20-25hrs
d. none of the above
47. What is the required speed of Los Angeles Abrasion Machine per minute
a. 20-25mm/min
b.20-23mm/min
c.30-33mm/min
d. 35-38mm/mim
48. What is the size or diameter and weight of cast-iron spheres use in
abrasion?
a. approximately 46.8 mm diameter and each weighing between 390455 grams
b. approximately 47.8 mm diameter and each weighing between 390455 grams
c. approximately 48.8 mm diameter and each weighing between 390455 grams

d. approximately 49.8 mm diameter and each weighing between 390455 grams


49. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse
aggregate, grading A with 12 numbers of spheres?
a. 4584 25 gram b. 3330 25 grams c. 2500 25 grams d. 5,000
25 grams.
50. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse
aggregate, grading B with 11 numbers of spheres?
a. 4584 25 gram b. 3330 25 grams c. 2500 25 grams d. 5,000
25 grams.
51. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse
aggregate, grading C with 8 numbers of spheres?
a. 4584 25 gram b. 3330 25 grams c. 2500 25 grams d. 5,000
25 grams.
52. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse
aggregate, grading D with 6 numbers of spheres?
a. 4584 25 gram b. 3330 25 grams c. 2500 25 grams d. 5,000
25 grams.
53. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse
aggregate, grading E,F,G with 12 numbers of spheres?
a. 4584 25 gram b. 3330 25 grams c. 2500 25 grams d. 5,000
25 grams.
54. What is the rotation of the Los Angeles Machine, grading A ,B,C,D per
revolutions?
a. 750 rev b. 500 rev c. 1000 rev d. 550 rev
55. What is the rotation of the Los Angeles Machine, grading E,F,G per
revolutions?
a. 750 rev b. 500 rev c. 1000 rev d. 550 rev
56. It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregates gives an
indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear it
determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic of
rolling.
a. CBR test
b. Abrasion test
c. ductility test d. all of the above
57. What is the sieve use in sieving materials form Abrasion Machine?
a. sieve # 12 (1.70mm) b. sieve # 10 (2.00mm)
c. sieve # 4 (4.75 mm)
d. sieve # 40 (0.425mm)

58. Percent tolerance of error in calibrating the machines


a. 1%
b. 2%
c.-2%
d. +2%
59. How to compute for the compressive strength of concrete cylinder
sample?
a.P/A
b.F/A
c.3/2 PL/AE
d. none of the above
60. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
a. 12 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
61. At what age should a structural concrete be tested for compressive test?
a. 12 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
62. How to compute for the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested
@ third point Loading?
a. P/6
b. F/12
c.3 P/12
d. none of the above
63. How to compute for the flexural strength of concrete cylinder for center
point?
a. 3P/2
b. F/A
c.3/2 PL/AE
d. none of the above
64. Which part of the batch for fresh concrete should the sample be taken
from a stationary mixers, revolving drum truck mixers or agitators?
a. four or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the
batch
b. three or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of
the batch
c. one or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the
batch
d. two or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the
batch
65. A 16mm (5/8 inches) diameter and 610mm (24 inches) long with the
tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same diameter as the
rod. this refers to what?
a. spheres
b. cup brass
c. tamping rod d. hammer rod
66. What is the individual strength requirement for loading bearing concrete
masonry units item 704)?
a. 750 psi
b. 500 psi
c.800 psi
d. 600 psi
67. What is the individual strength requirement for non-loading bearing
concrete masonry units (item 704)?
a. 750 psi
b. 500 psi
c.800 psi
d. 600 psi

68. Its significance is to determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as
well as its elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade.
a. Testing Of RSB
b. Testing of Aggregates c. testing of Soil
d. none of the above
69. What Property of RSB will be evaluate if it test for bending?
a. yield point
b. resistivity
c. ductility
d. all of the above
70. What kind of paint that has a reflectance in the form of beads?
a. reflectorized traffic paint b. Epoxy Paint
c. Talu Paint
d. none of the above
71. Pigments and____ are the two common component of house paints.
a. glass beads
b. saw dust
c. sand d. none of the above
72. cut-back asphalt and emulsified asphalt are samples of __________.
a. Liquid asphalt
b. viscous asphalt
c. rapid asphalt d. none
of the above
73. What asphalt is commonly called hot asphalt in Item 310?
a. Hard asphalt b. oxidized asphalt c. blown asphalt d. none of the
above
74. The blown, hard or oxidized asphalt are used for water-proofing
or_______.
a. emulsifier
b. oxidizing agent
c. joint filler
d. penetrator
75. What do you call an asphalt which contains water?
a. Cold asphalt
b. rapid curing
c. emulsified
back

d. cut-

76. What is the Penetraton Grade of Blown,Oxidized or Hard asphalt?


a. 0-30 mm
b. 30-40mm
c. 40-75mm
d. none of the above
77. Tack coat is use in the existing bituminous concrete pavement.
a. false
b. true
c. maybe
d. none of the above
78. Bituminous Prime coat is use to treat the surface of base course.
a. false
b. true
c. maybe
d. none of the above
79. No tack coat or Prime coat shall be applied when the weather is foggy or
rainy.
a. false
b. true
c. maybe
d. none of the above
80. What type of cut-back asphalt a kind of asphalt use as tack coat?

a. slow curing

b. medium curing

c. rapid curing d. all of the above

81. It is used on an existing bituminous surface course with or without an


application of aggregates.
a. tack coat
b. seal coat
c. prime coat d. all of the above
82. If concrete cylinder sample for RCCP is not available for compressive test,
one (1) whole piece RCCP for every 50 pieces RCCP will be submitted for
quality test.
a. false
b. true
c. maybe
d. none of the above
83. One set (3 pcs.) concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how
many pieces of RCCP?
a. 25 pcs
b. 50 pcs
c. 30 pcs
d. none of the above
84. As work progresses in a concrete pavement construction sampling of
concrete(6x6x21)for flexural strength test determination should be
taken using:
a. beam mold @ 61 strokes per layer
b. beam mold @ 63
strokes per layer
c. beam mold @ 60 strokes per layer
d. beam mold @ 62
strokes per layer
85. The strength level of concrete for Item 3.11 will be considered satisfactory
if the average of all sets of three (3) consecutive strength test results
equals or exceed the specified strength and no individual result is
deficiency by _______ of the specified strength.
a. 20 %
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 15%
86. A class B structural concrete requires a minimum compressive strength
of_______tested @ 28 days.
a. 2500 psi
b. 2400 psi
c. 3000psi
d. 5000 psi
87. It is the most important characteristics the concrete mix which could be
easily placed without segregation.
a. durability
b. plasticity
c. permeability d. workability
88. What is the latest state of the art equipment containing a radioactive
material which is commonly used in the compaction control of earth and
asphalt road construction and in the measurement of moisture content?
a. pundit ultrasonic concrete tester
b. nuclear density gauge (NDG)
c. 3-meter straight-edge
d. Benkelman Beam and Deflection
Logger

89. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid
materials such as rocks and concrete? (This instrument or equipment is a
non-destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 x 180 x
160mm and the main uses include the determination of concrete strength
(either in-situ or pre-cast0, also to determine the presence of voids, cracks
and other imperfections.)
a. pundit ultrasonic concrete tester
b. nuclear density gauge (NDG)
c. 3-meter straight-edge d. Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
90. What is the instrument or equipment used for surface test of concrete and
asphalt pavements as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially
compacted?
a. pundit ultrasonic concrete tester
b. nuclear density gauge (NDG)
c. 3-meter straight-edge d. Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
91. An instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from
vehicle wheel loadings. The results of the elastic deformation tests are
used to evaluate the structural conditions of roads, and to help in the
design of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvements.
a. pundit ultrasonic concrete tester
b. nuclear density gauge (NDG)
c. 3-meter straight-edge
d. Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
92. A manually-operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness
from the surface profile, which may be expressed in terms of International
Roughness Index (IRI)
a. falling weight deflectometer
b. rebar locator
c Dynamic Cone Penetration (DCP)
d. MERLIN Road Roughness
Measuring Device
93. What is the instrument that is used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes,
nails and other metals embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling?
a. falling weight deflectometer
b. rebar locator
c Dynamic Cone Penetration (DCP)
d. MERLIN Road Roughness
Measuring Device
94. An equipment which is used to measure differential deflections between
joints of a concrete pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing
slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to estimate the remaining life
of an existing pavement
a. falling weight deflectometer
b. rebar locator
c Dynamic Cone Penetration (DCP)
d. MERLIN Road Roughness
Measuring Device

95. An equipment that is used for the rapid in-situ measurement of the
structural properties of existing with unbound granular materials.
a. falling weight deflectometer
b. rebar locator
c Dynamic Cone Penetration (DCP)
d. MERLIN Road Roughness
Measuring Device
96. This item consist of placing markings on the finished pavement. The work
shall include the furnishing of finished of premixed reflectorized traffic pain
or reflectorized pavement marking paint conforming to the requirements
ASTM 248.
a. Item 606
b. Pavement marking c. none of the above
d. a & b
97. The dried paint film shall not show blistering, peeling, wrinkling and
discoloration when immersed in water for______ hrs.
a. 24 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 36 hrs
d. 72 hrs
98. What is the specific gravity of Pavement marking (Item 606)?
a. 1.5 min
b. 2.4 min
c. 1.7min
d. 2.0min
99. The amount of glass beads or glass spheres requirement when mixed
with the paint shall be:
a. 750 g/L
b. 550 g/L
c. 500 g/L
d. 600 g/L
100.
The appearance of glass beads shall be transparent, colorless,
and the sum of the particles that are fused, plane , angular , and colored
and contains ________ shall not exceed 20 percent.
a. pigments
b. beads
c. particles
d. bubbles

MATERIALS ENGINEER EXAMINATION


NO.7
Instruction: Choose the best answer. The Examination is good for two hours.
1. The pavement marking (Item 606) shall be readily extrude at a
temperature of_______________
a.1105c
b. a.2309F c. a.2117c
d 231.7c

2. Traffic Paint shall be applied to the pavement At the Rate of___________


a. 30-33 L/sq.m b 0-3 L/sq.m. c. 0-0.33 L/sq.m
d.30-0.45 L/sq.m
3. Traffic Paint shall be dry sufficiently to be free from cracking
from_________to_______ .
a. 15-25 mins b. 15-30 mins c. 15-25 hrs
d. 15-30 hrs
4. This Item shall consist of the construction of the rubble concrete in
accordance with this specification and in conformity with the lines, grades,
slopes, and dimensions as shown in the plans or established by the
Engineer.
a. Item 707
b. Item 507
c. Item 606
d. item 704
5. What type of concrete shall be used for Rubble Concrete (item 507) in
accordance with Structural Concrete?
a. Class B
b. Class A
c. Class C
d. Class P
6. In Placing Concrete Class B for Rubble concrete (Item 507), the
clearance between stones shall not be less
less than _______.
a. 2
b. 63 mm
c. 50mm
d. a & b
7. What is the maximum size of concrete aggregates for Class B concrete?
a. 2
b. 63 mm
c. 50mm
d. a & b
8. What is the item for concrete Masonry unit?
a. Item 506
b. Item 505
c. Item 704
d. item 504
9. Concrete masonry unit if subject to test, 6 units of CHB Shall be tested for
every 10,000 units.(3 units for ______________ and 3 units
for____________).
a. absorption & compression
b. stability & durability c. density &
thickness
d. all of the above
10. What is the item for Joint Mortar?
a. Item 504
b. item 604
c. item 704

d. none of the above

11. Mortar for Masonry Beds and Joints shall be:


a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 1:1

d. Class B only

12. What should be the PH values for mixing water that is used in the
construction?
a. 2-5.5
b. 5.5-7.5
c. 4.5-8.5
d. it doesnt matter
13. What is the item no. for Water?
. a. Item 710
b. Item 714
c. Item 704

d. item 711

14. This item shall consist of furnishing and applying termite control chemicals,
including the use of equipment and tools in performing such operations.
a. Termite Control Work b. Termite demolition c.termite termination
d. all of the above
15. What is the item No. of number 14 problem?
a. Item 606
b. Item 1000
c. item 714
d. Item 3110
16. What type of termite control which is specified for crenching soil beneath
foundation of proposed buildings?
a. Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution
b. Type III Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated
d. none of the above
17. What type of termite control that is used as wood preservatives.
a. Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution
b. Type III Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated
d. none of the above
18. What type of termite control which is applied to visible or suspected
subterranean termite mounds and tunnels where termites are
exterminated trophallaxes method (exchange or nourishment between
termites while greeting each other upon meeting).
a. Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution
b. Type III Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated
d. none of the above
19. What is the Item no. for Soil Poisoning?
a. Item 1003.1 b. item 1000.1 c. item 1004.1 d. item 10005.1
20. In Soil Poisoning an applicationof Type I working solution at the rate of
what?
a. 10 L/ln.m
b. 9 L/ln.m
c. 8 L/ln.m
d. none of the above

21. In Soil Poisoning, this method is usually adopted when there is no visible
evidence of termite intestaton, where trenches in concentric circles,
squares or rectangles are dug 150mm to 220mm wide and at least 1 meter
apart.
a. Cordoning method b. Drenching method
c. wrenching method
d. concentric method
22. This Soil Poisoning method shall be applied when there is infestation of
termite.
a. Cordoning method b. Drenching method
c. wrenching method
d. concentric method
23. In drenching method, a Type 1 working solution is use @ a rate
of__________________.
a. 20 L/ln.m
b. 21 L/ln.m
c. 22 L/ln.m
d. none of the above.
24. What should be the state of Soil if it is treated with Soil Poisoning so that it
will allow to have a uniform distribution of the toxicants agents.
a. low plasticity
b. low moisture content c. high liquid limit
d. high moisture content
25. What should be the period of the application of toxicants prior to
placement of concrete which shall be contact with the treated materials?
a. @least 24 mins
b. @least 12 mins
c. @least 24 hrs
d. @least 12 hrs
26. This item shall consist of furnishing all required materials, fabricated
woodwork, tools, equipment and labor and performing all operations
necessary to the satisfactory completion of all carpentry and joinery works
in strict.
a. item 1001
b. item 1002
c. item 1003
d. item 1004
27. What is the moisture content requirement for air-dried or sun dried rough
lumber use for framing and siding.
a.18-20%
b. @least 22 % c. 15-25%
d. @ least 14 %

28. Dressed lumber for exterior and interior finishing for doors and
windows,cabinet and flooring boards shall be:
a. sun-dried
d. air-dried
c. kiln-dried
d. oven-dried

a. 134.85
tons
b. 134.28 tons
d. 134.82 tons

29. What is the moisture content requirement for a dressed lumber at the time
of installation?
a. @ least 20% b. in excess of 14%
c. 15-25%
d. @ least 22 %
30. An item no. for Corrugated Metal Roofing.
a. Item 1010
b. item 1012
c. item 1011

d. item 1013

31. what should be the gauge shall be use for Corrugated metal roofing?
a. gauge 24
b. gauge 28
c. gauge 26
d. none of the above
32. What is the required thickness for the gauge in problem no.31 for item
Corrugated metal roofing?
a. 0.48cm
b. 0.48mm
c. 0.48 inches d. none of the above
33. What is the required weight for the gauge in problem no.31 for item
Corrugated metal roofing?
a. 4.74 kg/sq.m
b. 3.74 kg/sq.m
c.2.74 kg/sq.m
d. 5.75 kg/sq.m
34. Averaging of the thickness and density of the 2 or 3 cores should not be
done.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
35. In the construction of a 380-linear meter asphalt road, with a designed
thickness of 5cm, a width requirement of 3,05m, and a programmed
quantity for bituminous mix of 135 tons, an asphalt core was taken for
each full days operation. Results of thickness and density tests are as
follows:
Paving Date
Day1
Day2
Day3

Paving length, meter


1.20
1.40
1.20

Thickness, cm
5.3
5.1
5.0

Compute for the quantity of Bituminous mixtures should be paid.

c. 134.58 tons

36. What should be the required ratio for length to diameter (L/D) of a
specimen for determining the compressive strength that contain
embedded reinforcement should be avoided if possible or trimmed to
eliminate the reinforcement.
a. @least 2
b. @ least 1
c. @least 1.5 d. none of the above
37. For compressive strength determination, what should be the diameter of
the core specimen .
a. @ least three (3) times nominal maximum size if the coarse
aggregate. used in the concrete.
b. @ least four (4) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate.
c. @ least twice (2) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate
in the core sample
d. a & c
38. For compressive strength determination, what should be the length of the
core specimens, when capped.
a. Same to its diameter b. twice its diameter c. four times its diameter
d. none of the above
39. For individual measurement of core sample, which is less than the
specified thickness by more than 25mm shall not be included in the
average.
.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
40. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where
50% payment is recommended on the project?
a. 21-25mm b more than 25mm
c. 5mm,max
d. 11-15mm
41. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where
70% payment is recommended on the project?
a. 21-25mm b more than 25mm
c. 16-20mm
d. 11-15mm
42. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where
85% payment is recommended on the project?
a. 6-10mm
b more than 25mm
c. 16-20mm
d. 11-15mm
43. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where
95% payment is recommended on the project?
a. 6-10mm
b 5mm,max
c. 16-20mm
d. 11-15mm

44. All joints shall be sawed before uncontrolled shrinkage cracking occur.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
45. The sawing of any joints shall be omitted if crack occurs or near the joint
prior to the time of sawing.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
46. No cold joint shall be constructed within 1.50m of an expansion joint,
contraction joint or plane of weakness.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
47. If the Concrete lanes are concreted separately, what is the joint in the form
of key and keyways that is use?
a. transverse contraction joint
b. Longitudinal joint
c. transverse construction joint
d. weakened plane joint
48. What is the variation permitted on the surface of the asphalt using the
straight edge method .
a. 5mm,min
b. 6mm,min
c. 5mm,max
d. 6mm,max
49. The subbase is a structural layer which accepts greater compressive
stress than the sub-grade and thus reduces that deformation of the
pavement under traffic loading.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
50. The base reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by the traffic in
the subbase and the sub-grade.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
51. In asphalt pavement,the base and the subbase serve to provide structural
capacity to bituminous concrete slab, while in PCCP, the base and the
subbase spread the load over the foundation.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
52. What is the chief load bearing element of gravel roads.?
a. base course b. subbase course
c. sub-grade course
a&b

d. either

53. Proper design of the base or subbase course can lead to structural failure
of the slabs.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
54. what does it mean if soil has high values for liquid and Plasticity index?

a. good
of the above

b. low plastic limit

c. poor/weak

d. none

55. what is the approximate area for cracking and seating of PCCP .
a. 1 sq.m
b. 0.5 sq.m
c. 2 sq.m
d. either a or b
56. Reflection cracking on the overlay is caused by the differential movement
at cracks and joint in the old pavements.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
57. As part of the selection process, ______________are taken to evaluate
the condition of existing pavement or any asphalt pavement prior to
cracks and seat treatment.
a. cores are taken at three different locations.
b. two cores are taken at four different locations
c. 5 cores are taken at three different locations
d. @ least 1 but not more than three core samples
58. The Lower the coefficient of permeability of the supporting subbase
material, the better the chances in seating the cracked pieces and
avoiding pumping and rocking.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
59. What is the reasonable range of structural layer coefficient for properly
cracked and seated PCCP?
a. 0.25-0.30
b. 0.28-0.32
c. 0.10-0.16
d. none of the above
60. The most popular and extensively used for cracking or breaking and
removal of pavements.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer
c. arrow hammer
d. either
b or c
61. The impact hammer attached to the end of the leaf-spring arm which can
be controlled in a horizontal as well as vertical direction. It is mounted on
the rear of a truck.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer
c. Resonant Pavement breaker
d. whip hammer
62. The hammer is mounted on the trailer which is tractor or truck drawn.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer
c. arrow hammer
d. whip
hammer

63. This equipment is vibrated 44 cycles per second and it is generally


induces longitudinal cracks.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer
c. Resonant Pavement breaker
d. whip hammer
64. Using arrow hammer/guillotine, no cracking should be closer than 2 ft
from an existing transverse joint.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
65. once the cracked, the PCCP pieces are seated firmly against the base or
sub-grade and should be done by applying two passes of rolling using
what equipment?
a. 50-ton pneumatic tired roller b. 35-ton pneumatic roller c. tandem
smooth type roller d. either a or b
66. Cracking and seating does not mean reducing the PCCP to rubble.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
67. PPCP overlay is used overlay material on the cracked and seated
pavement where a minimum thickness of _____ with a maximum size of
____ aggregates and a modulus of rapture of concrete of______ @ 28
days.
a. 180mm, 40mm,650psi b.18cm, 40mm, 650psi c.1.8mm,40mm,650psi
d. either a or b
68. It is commonly used overlay material on the cracked and seated pavement
where its thickness will depnd on the expected traffic and the modulus of
the cracked and seated pavement section. The recommended thickness is
3-5.
a. Hot Mix Asphalt b. PCCP overlay c. rock layers d. either b or c
69. Rectifying inherent drainage problem is essential for the cracking and
seating to be effective.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
70. Concrete shall be conveyed through sheet metal or approved pipes when
placing operation involves dropping the concrete more than 1.5 meter.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above

71. Falsework of continuous structures shall not be removed in any span until
the first and second adjoining span on each side have reached the
specified strength.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
72. For concrete which is deposited in water shall have a minimum cement
content of______ of concrete.
a. 500 kg/cu.m b. 600 kg/cu.m c. 450 kg/cu.m
d. 400 kg/cu.m
73. For concrete deposited in water should have a slump of____ to ______.
a. 10-20 mm
b. 25-30 cm
c. 10-20 cm
d. 25-30 cm
74. Concrete deposited in water shall be placed in compact mass, in final
position, by means of ______ or button dun bucket to prevent segregaton.
a. tremie
b. vibrator
c. casing
d. none of the above
75. What is the commonly used curing media for curing the fresh concrete.
a. Liquid membrane-forming compound
b. Water emulsifier
c. superplasticizer
d. none of the above
76. The concrete should be cured immediately at the final placement,
especially during the first seven days, in order that the plastic shrinkage
will be minimized.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
d. none of the above
77. The reasonable range of slump for Class A concrete.
a. 2-4 inches b. 50-100mm c. 50-100cm
d. either a or b
78. The reasonable range of slump for Class B concrete.
a. 2-4 inches b. 50-100mm c. 50-100cm
d. either a or b
79. The reasonable range of slump for Class C concrete.
a. 2-4 inches b. 50-100mm c. 50-100cm
d. either a or b
80. The reasonable range of slump for Class P concrete.
a. 4 inches, min b. 4inches,max c. 100mm,max d. either b or c
81. The reasonable range of slump for Class Seal concrete.
a. 4-8 inches b. 100-200 mm c. 100-200 cm d. either a or b

82. In compaction of Concrete, a well consolidated concrete is _____ to


_______ % higher in strength than that of concrete which is thoroughly
consolidated.
a. 20-25%
b. 25-30%
30-33%
d. 15-20%
83. Unsuitable materials are soils with liquid limit exceeding 80 or plasticity
index exceeding 55.
a. false b. true c. maybe
d. none of the above
84. unsuitable materials are soil with a natural water content exceeding 100%.
a. true
b. false c. maybe
d. none of the above
85. Unsuitable materials are soils with higher natural density of 800 kg/cu.m or
higher.
a. false b. true c. maybe
d. none of the above
86. An embankment(item 104), requires ______ of compaction.
a. 90 %
b. 95%
c. 100%
d. none of the above
87. The surface layer of sub-grade material requires ______ compaction in
every layer of 150mm.
a. 90 %
b. 95%
c. 100%
d. none of the above
88. What is the degree of compaction of materials immediately under
pavement structures?
a. 90 %
b. 95%
c. 100%
d. none of the above
89. In this method the materials for the embankment shall be deposited and
spread in layers not more than 225 mm in depth, loose measure, and
extending to the full width of the embankment.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock
c. Hydraulic consolidation
d. controlled density method.
90. In this method the materials for the embankment shall be deposited and
spread in layers not more than 300 mm in depth, loose measure, parallel
to finished grade and extending to the full width of the embankment.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock
c. Hydraulic consolidation
d. controlled density method

91. The shattered rock obtained in rock cuts shall be deposited on the fill and
push over the end of the fill by means of bulldozers. This method shall not
be used in fills less than 1.2m in depth, and in no case, shall the rock
embankment be placed within 600mm of the earth grade.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock embankment c. Hydraulic consolidation
d. controlled density method
92. This involves the introduction of water into embankment to accelerate
consolidation.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock
c. Hydraulic consolidation
d. controlled density method
93. The material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited
as to form the grading and cross-section, and shall be thoroughly
compacted.
a. Hydraulic fill
b. hydraulic consolidation
c. Rock
d. controlled density method
94. Embankments construction across peat marshes consists of total or partial
excavation of the peat using power shovels which is usually carried on in
conjuction with backfilling of the peat areas.
a. Hydraulic fill
c. hydraulic consolidation c.Rock d. Methods of
treatment of peat marshes
95. Where unsuitable material is present under the embankment, corrective
work consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the full width of the
road bed.
a. Hydraulic fill. b. Placing & removing surcharge c.Rock d. Methods of
treatment of peat marshes
96. A cracks in the concrete that are predominantly perpendicular to the
pavement centerline
a. transverse crack
b. longitudinal crack
c. diagonal cracks
d. restraint crack
97. A crack that are predominantly parallel to the pavement centerline.
a. transverse crack
b. longitudinal crack
c. diagonal cracks
d. restraint crack
98. Cracks at any angle to the centerline of the pavement.
a. transverse crack
b. longitudinal crack
c. diagonal cracks
d. restraint crack

99. Cracks that develop near the outside edges of a PCCP and progress in an
irregular path toward the longitudinal joint.
a. transverse crack
b. longitudinal crack
c. diagonal cracks
d. restraint crack

100.
These diagonal cracks forming a triangle with a longitudinal edge
or joint and a transverse joint.
a. corner cracks
b. spatting cracks
c. scaling cracks
d. faulting cracks