MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Basic Medical Science

Time: 2 hrs

Pharmacology

Email:sidharta123@yahoo.com
Total Marks: 200 | Pass Mark: 120

Clinical Pharmacology
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is an Sample Test Paper on Medical / Clinical Pharmacology.
Please Note: There is no Negative Marking for incorrect responses.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. All of the following drugs increases dopamine (DA) activity (dopamine agonist)
except:
A pimozide

C bromocriptine

B ropinirole

D pramipexol

2. Match the following agents with their corresponding groups that they belong to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Propoxur
Echothioptate
Tacrine
Neostigmine
Tabun

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Reversible carbamates
Insecticide
Acridine
Nerve gas
Organophosphate

3. Synergistic antibacterial effect is observed when amphotericin B is combined with

A Erythromycin

C Flucytosine

B Penicillin

D Streptomycin

4. Which of the following vitamins when given in high doses reduces plasma lipids?
A Nicotinic acid

C Pyridoxine

B Pantothenic acid

D Biotin

5. Induction apnoea is common with which of the following anesthetic agents?

A Isoflurane

C Diethyl ether

B Propofol

D Halothane

6. Ventricular arrhythmias are associated with

A hypocalcemia

C magnesium depletion

B hypokalemia

D hyperkalemia

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

7. A drug that is known to inhibit CYP3A4

A Rifampin

C Phenytoin

B Primidone

D Erythromycin

8. A drug used effectively against both amoebiasis and dermal leishmaniasis:

A Iodochlorohydroxyquin

C Diloxanide furoate

B Paramomycin

D Dehydroemetine

9. A topical aminoglycoside antibiotic:

A Tobramycin

C Sisomycin

B Framycetin

D Neomycin

10. Which of the following drug regimens may be used to treat Gonococcal infections?
A Doxycycline + Probenecid

C Penicillin G + Probenecid

B Erythromycin + Probenecid

D Gentamycin + Probenecid

11. Which of the following antibiotics is a lipopeptide?

A Dalfopristine

C Telithromycin

B Colistin

D Daptomycin

12. Which of the following local anesthetic (LAs) agents has a high pKa with rapid
onset of action?
A Dibucaine

C Chloroprocaine

B Lidocaine

D Procaine

13. A drug that reaches therapeutic concentration in saliva, semen and CSF
A Ketoconazole

C Metronidazole

B Itraconazole

D Capsofungin

14. Match the following antibiotics according to the classes they belong to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Linzolid
Hamycin
Ethionamide
Bacitracin
Furazolidone

Basic Medical Sciences

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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Polypeptide antibiotics
Polyene antibiotics
Nicotinic acid derivatives
Nitrofuran derivatives
Oxazolidinone

2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

15. Antibiotic which is obtained from Actinomycetes

A Chloramphenicol

C Polymyxin B

B Aztreonam

D Griseofulvin

16. Which of the following is a carminative?

A Camphor

C thymol

B menthol

D turpentine oil

17. Treatment of choice for San Joaquin fever

A Trichomycin

C Nystatin

B Miconazole

D Sodium caprylate

18. A drug which contains macrocyclic lactone ring

A Erythromycin

C Amphotericin B

B Mafenide

D Griseofulvin

19. Regarding the action of digoxin on heart, spot the incorrect statement(s):
A cardiac output is increased

C bradycardia

B end diastolic volume is increased

D A-V conduction is slowed

20. Match the following antibiotics with the corresponding mechanism of actions:
A.
B.
C.

Lincomycin
Vancomycin
Ciprofloxacin

A. protein synthesis
B. cell wall synthesis
C. Phospholipid membranes

D.
E.

Polymixins
Metronidazole

D. DNA synthesis
E. DNA gyrase

21. Carbamate anti-ChEs include all of the following except:

A Physostigmine

C carbachol

B Rivastigmine

D Propoxur

22. Which of the following are responsible for causing liver necrosis?
A Amatoxin

C Black widow spider toxin

B MPTP

D Silymarin

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

23. All of the following antibiotics are obtained from Streptomyces except:
A Mupirocin

C Nystatin

B Framycetin

D Amphotericin B

24. In the treatment of malaria, Clindamycin shows activity only against

A gametes

C hypnozoite stage

B pre-erythrocytic phase

D erythrocytic phase

25. An example of a Cutaneous vasodilator

A Niacin

C Endothelin

B Somatostatin

D Laropripant

26. Factors that enhance/facilitate iron absorption

A Alkali

C Phytate

B Phosphate

D Acid

27. Which of the following drugs reduces calcium excretion?

A bumetanide

C intravenous saline

B chlorothiazide

D furosemide

28. A nonsteroidal compound obtained from cotton seed

A Gossypol

C Bisabolol

B Ethiodol

D Farnesol

29. Not correct about liposomal-Amphotericin B (L-AMB):

A low nephrotoxicity

C causes minimal anemia

B effective in Kala azar

D no acute reaction on i.v.

administration

30. Morphine depresses all except:

A respiration

C CTZ

B peristalsis

D release of ADH

31. Not true regarding Daptomycin

A is a lipopeptide antibiotic

C bactericidal

B bacteriostatic

D is a polypeptide antibiotic

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

32. A rocket propellant that depletes monoamine neurotransmitters in the CNS:

A Propylene Glycol

C Pentachlorophenol

B Pentaborane

D Paradiaminobenzene

33. Clinical features of copper deficiency includes all of the following except:
A hair thinning

C leukopenia

B osteoporosis

D Menke's syndrome in children

34. d-Tubocurarine does not cause

A fall in blood pressure

C bradycardia due to vagal

stimulation

B histamine release

D ganglionic blockade

35. Which of the following drugs is a nitrogen glucoronide?

A phenylbutazone

C acetaminophen

B desipramine

D methimazole

36. A drug/toxin that is eliminated by alkaline dialysis:

A Thallium

C Diquat

B Fluoride

D Theophylline

37. Which of the following induces negative nitrogen balance?

A Growth hormone

C Glucocorticoids

B Insulin

D Tetracyclines

38. Which of the following is a 'soporific' drug?

A Pseudoephedrine

C Mephedrone

B amphetamine

D Perphenazine

39. Which of the following insulin preparations contain zinc suspensions?

A Lispro insulin

C Insulin detemir

B Isophane insulin

D Lente insulin

40. All of the following are drugs of choice for treatment of pinworm infection due to
Enterobius (Oxyuris) vermicularis except:
A Pyrantel

C Mebendazole

B Metronidazole

D Albendazole

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

41. Which of the following is useful against Herpes virus?

A Oseltamivir

C Ganciclovir

B Zanamavir

D Tenofovir

42. Spot the wrong statement(s) about aminoglycoside antibiotics:

A do not cross placenta

C high plasma protein binding

B not metabolized in the body

D renal clearance parallels

creatinine clearance

43. Which of the following is a reserved drug for Leprosy?

A Clofazimine

C Dapsone

B Ethionamide

D Minocycline

44. Heroin is also known as

A Diacetylmorphine

C 6-acetyl 1 morphine

B Hydromorphone

D Ethylmorphine

45. Drug that is largely excreted in the bile:

A Azithromycin

C Lincomycin

B Vancomycin

D Teicoplanin

46. Which one among the following penicillins is most acid-labile?

A Nafcillin

C Penicillin G

B Methicillin

D Penicillin V

47. An antibiotic which is obtained from Micromonospora inyoensis

A Tobramycin

C Sisomycin

B Gentamicin

D Cycloserine

48. Commonest side effect of Letrozole

A hot flushes

C endometrial hyperplasia

B accelerated bone loss

D thinning of hair

49. Which of the following is an 1-adrenoceptor antagonist?

A Clonidine

C Hydralazine

B Doxazosin

D -Methyldopa

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Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

50. A sialic acid analogue

A Adefovir dipivoxil

C Amantadine

B Oseltamivir

D Ribavirin

51. Oxytetracycline is obtained from

A S. aureofaciens

C S. rimosus

B S. mediterranei

D S. peucetius

52. Nalidixic acid is effective against all of the following except:

A Pseudomonas

C Proteus

B Klebsiella

D Shigella

53. All of the following drugs can induce photoallergy except:

A Chlorpromazine

C Griseofulvin

B Carbamazepine

D Demeclocycline

54. A drug that is penicillinase resistant but acid labile

A Nafcillin

C Oxacillin

B Methicillin

D Cloxacillin

55. Most toxic anti-tubercular drug

A Ethionamide

C Rifampicin

B Ethambutol

D Pyrazinamide

56. Tetracycline is more effective than chloramphenicol against

A Chlamydia

C Klebsiella

B Pseudomonas

D Proteus

57. What is not true about ketamine induced 'dissociative anesthesia'?

A unable to process sensory stimuli
B site of action is reticular
activating system

C site of action is cortex and

subcortical areas
D sympathetic stimulation occur

58. Partial cross resistance is seen between tetracyclines and

A Erythromycin

C Neomycin

B Lincomycin

D Chloramphenicol

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

59. A drug that acts on the ion transport process of renal tubular cells:
A acetazolamide

C spironolactone

B furosemide

D ramipril

60. Narrow spectrum 'steroidal' antibiotic:

A Tibolone

C Spectinomycin

B Mupirocin

D Fusidic acid

61. Neomycin is obtained from

A S.aureofaciens

C Micromonospora purpurea

B S. tenebrarius

D S. fradiae

62. Amber discoloration of urine is due to

A Hydroquinone

C Trinitrotoluene

B Blutene

D Aminopyrine

63. Which of the following agents gets deposited in subcutaneous fat as

needle-shaped crystals?
A Clofazimine

C Ethylene glycol

B Folic acid

D Calcium carbonate

64. Which of the following is not an erythrocytic schizonticide?

A Mefloquine

C Quinine

B Chloroquine

D Primaquine

65. Which of the following agents is a tricyclic amine?

A amantadine

C tenofovir

B zanamivir

D oseltamivir

66. Adverse effects of bacitracin do not include:

A nephrotoxicity

C hepatotoxicity

B hypersensitivity

D rhabdomyolysis

67. Mechanism of action of Rifampin

A interrupts RNA synthesis

C inhibits protein synthesis

B inhibits bacterial cell wall

synthesis

D inhibits DNA synthesis

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

68. Anticholinergic agents

A inhibit sympathetic nerve
impulses

C inhibit parasympathetic nerve

impulses

B increases heart rate

D decreases heart rate

69. Match the following herbal products with their corresponding intended conditions
to be used for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Gingko
Ginseng
Cranberry
Milk thistle
Bilberry

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

fatigue
hepatitis and cirrhosis
cystitis and UTI
dementia
diabetic retinopathy

70. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis:

A Erythromycin

C Chloramphenicol

B D-cycloserine

D Bacitracin

71. Antibiotics that are primarily bactericidal

A Clindamycin

C doxycycline

B Erythromycin

D Cotrimoxazole

72. An antiprotozoal agent to treat leishmaniasis

A Nifurtimox

C Pyrantel Pamoate

B Niclosamide

D Bithionol

73. Orphan drugs include

A amphotericin B

C fomepizole

B tyrothricin

D acyclovir

74. Match the following diseases with their corresponding causative organisms:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Tapeworm infections
Guineaworm infestations
Hydatid diseases
Threadworm infections
Hookworm infections

Basic Medical Sciences

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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Strongyloides stercoralis
Hymenolepis nana
Necator americanus
Echinococcus granulosus
Dracunculus medinensis

2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

75. Artemesinin is active against malarial parasites in which stage/phase?

A erythrocytic phase

C pre-erythrocytic phase

B hypnozoite stage

D gametes

76. Inhibition of Butyrylcholinesterase is more sensitive to

A physostigmine

C Pralidoxime

B neostigmine

D Echothiophate

77. All of the following are characteristics of irritants except:

A are rubefacients

C causes local vasoconstriction

B cause hyperesthesia

D cause local hyperemia

78. Which of the following agents is effective against gram-negative bacteria only?
A Hexachlorophene

C Penicillin G

B Polymyxin B

D Bacitracin

79. Drug of choice against Wuchereria bancrofti causing Filariasis:

A Pyrantel

C Praziquantel

B Diethyl carbamazine

D Niclosamide

80. Not a high ceiling loop diuretic:

A Xipamide

C Torsemide

B Furosemide

D Bumetanide

81. Drug of choice for leptospirosis

A Penicillin

C Streptomycin

B Tetracyclines

D Erythromycin

82. An agonist at M3 muscarinic receptor:

A Pirenzepine

C Oxotremorine

B Solifenacin

D Bethanechol

83. What is not true about Griseofulvin?

A fungicidal

C fungistatic

B causes metaphase arrest

D it is ineffective in pityriasis
versicolor

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

84. Drugs with saturable protein binding include all of the following except:
A hydrocortisone

C amiodarone

B thioridazine

D sodium valproate

85. Drugs whose concentration in milk is too little to be considered unsafe in normal
dosage during breast feeding
A Ciprofloxacin

C Diltiazem

B Acetazolamide

D Enalapril

86. Primaquine has no activity against

A erythrocytic phase

C gametes

B pre-erythrocytic phase

D hypnozoite stage

87. Most rapid acting drug to terminate an acute anginal attack:

A Isosorbide dinitrate

C Isosorbide mononitrate

B Nitroglycerine

D Erythrityl tetranitrate

88. Which of the following statements about Diethyl ether (ether) is/are incorrect?
A produces marked muscle
relaxation

C high potency anesthetic

D causes diffusion hypoxia

B good analgesic

89. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of griseofulvin?

A headache

C photoallergy

B nephrotoxicity

D peripheral neuritis

90. An antibiotic derived from Streptomyces mediterranei

A Streptomycin

C Streptozocin

B Rifampicin

D Chloramphenicol

91. Match the following drugs with their toxicity profiles:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Amphotericin B
Vancomycin
Polymyxin B
Propoxyphene
Diphenoxylate

Basic Medical Sciences

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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renal toxicity
respiratory depression
hearing loss
constipation
bone marrow toxicity

2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

92. A drug which causes Xerostomia:

A Amifostine

C Clonidine

B Meperidine

D Cevimeline

93. Drugs capable of inducing acute phototoxic reactions

A Carbamazepine

C Griseofulvin

B Chloroquine

D Demeclocycline

94. 'Suicide inhibitors' includes all of the following except:

A selegiline

C spironolactone

B phenobarbital

D clopidogrel

95. What is the role of a vasoconstrictor (e.g. epinephrine) when it is given with a local
anesthetic?
A to diminish peak serum levels

C to decrease localized neuronal

uptake

B to enhance the rate of systemic

absorption

D to reduce the rate of systemic

absorption

96. Match the following drugs with their corresponding mechanism of action:
A.
B.

Maprotiline
Venlafaxine

C.
D.

Fluoxetine
Tranylcypromine

E.

Bupropion

A. blocks reuptake of norepinephrine

B. inhibits reuptake of dopamine and
norepinephrine
C. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
D. blocks metabolism of biogenic
amines
E. blocks reuptake of serotonin and
norepinephrine

97. Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias due to digoxin toxicity:

A Quinidine i.v.

C Lidocaine i.v.

B Propranolol i.v.

D Procainamide i.v.

98. Regarding amide-linked local anesthetics, spot the incorrect statements:

A bind to albumin

C hydrolyzed by plasma esterases

B low risk of hypersensitivity

D bind to 1 acid glycoprotein

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Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

99. Match the following antiseptic/disinfectant agents according to the classes they
belong to:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Chloroxylenol
Benzoyl peroxide
Chlorhexidine
Benzalkonium chloride
Bleaching powder

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

phenol derivative
oxidizing agent
halogen
Quaternary ammonium
biguanide

100. Which of the following is least toxic?

A Amikacin

C Gentamicin

B Tobramycin

D Kanamycin

101. An example of macrolide antibiotic

A Neomycin

C Gentamycin

B Vancomycin

D Azithromycin

102. Antibiotics that act by interfere with intermediary metabolism:

A Rifampin

C Hamycin

B Pyrimethamine

D Gentamicin

103. Which of the following among the given drugs is an antiarrhythmic agent?
A Benzocaine

C Bupivacaine

B Ropivacaine

D Lidocaine

104. Drug concentrated in the iris:

A atropine

C tetracyclines

B emetine

D chloroquine

105. A drug which is an antitussive

A Ephedrine

C Oxymorphone

B Noscapine

D Oxycodone

106. Amino bisphosphonates inhibit an enzyme critical for osteoclast survival

A Phosphorylase kinase

C Farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase

B Protein phosphatase 1

D Geranyl transferase

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Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

107. Plasma T life of demeclocycline:

A 13 - 21 hrs

C 18 - 24 hrs

B 16 - 18 hrs

D 6 - 10 hrs

108. Novobiocin sodium is obtained from

A Streptomyces spheroides

C Streptomyces griseus

B Streptomyces venezuelae

D Streptomyces mediterranei

109. Which of the following is particularly effective against P. acnes that causes acne
vulgaris?
A Oil of wintergreen

C Mandels paint

B Borocide

D Benzoyl peroxide

110. Regarding Physostigmine, not true is:

A is a quaternary ammonium
compound

C is an alkaloid
D it is lipid soluble

B is an anti-anticholinergic

111. The protein phospholamban is found in the

A heart

C kidney

B adipose tissue

D brain

112. Antibiotics which have a high therapeutic index:

A Demeclocycline

C Amphotericin B

B Erythromycin

D Vancomycin

113. Transducer mechanism of action of methacholine

A PG synthesis

C IP3/DAG

B Ca2+ channel opening

D K+ channel opening

114. Cholinergic agonists include all except:

A oxotremorine

C arecoline

B d-tubocurarine

D bethanechol

115. Amphotericin B is obtained from

A Streptomyces nodosus

C Streptomyces mediterranei

B Streptomyces achromogenes

D Streptomyces venezuelae

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116. Not a tricyclic antidepressant:

A Doxepin

C Amitriptyline

B Trimipramine

D Mirtazapine

117. Which of the following calcium supplements does not require gastric acid
digestion for absorption?
A Calcium citrate

C Calcium chloride

B Calcium carbonate

D Calcium dibasic phosphate

118. A drug used to prevent and treat hypotension during spinal anaesthesia:
A Phenylephrine

C Mephentermine

B Dobutamine

D Dopamine

119. Topical instillation of atropine results in all except:

A miosis

C mydriasis

B photophobia

D cycloplegia

120. Pralidoxime is ineffective and contraindicated in:

A Echothioptate overdose

C Belladonna poisoning

B Propoxur overdose

D Dyflos poisoning

121. All of the following drugs reduces calcium absorption except:

A Phenytoin

C Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

B Tetracyclines

D Glucocorticoids

122. The most important dose-dependent toxicity of isoniazid (INH) administration is

A arthralgia

C peripheral neuritis

B nephrotoxicity

D hepatotoxicity

123. Synthetic opioid include:

A pentazocine

C apomorphine

B meperidine

D codeine

124. A patient diagnosed with cholinergic crisis should not be given all of the following
except:
A atropine

C neostigmine

B donepezil

D pyridostigmine

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Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

125. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of Griseofulvin?

A Gynaecomastia

C Albuminuria

B Photoallergy

D Renal failure

126. A drug that competitively inhibits the formation of 'aldosterone-induced proteins

(AIPs)':
A amiloride

C spironolactone

B mannitol

D furosemide

127. Antibiotic which is obtained from Bacteria

A Erythromycin

C Colistin

B Gentamicin

D Doxycycline

128. Antibiotics that act by inhibiting protein synthesis

A Linzolid

C Metronidazole

B Colistin

D Nystatin

129. Which of the following is an intermediate acting non-depolarizing skeletal muscle

relaxant?
A Pancuronium

C Succinylcholine

B Rocuronium

D Decamethonium

130. Drug of choice against guineaworm infection caused by Dracunculus medinensis

A mebendazole

C ivermectin

B metronidazole

D albendazole

131. An alcoholic patient with depressed consciousness is given intravenous dextrose.

Which vitamin replacement should precede i.v. dextrose saline?
A Thiamine

C Pantothenic acid

B Pyridoxine

D Nicotinic acid

132. A vitamin which is consumed during carbohydrate metabolism:

A Thiamine

C Niacin

B Riboflavin

D Biotin

133. Drug orally effective in scabies infection:

A Crotamiton

C Ivermectin

B Benzyl benzoate

D Permethrin

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Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

134. Which of the following are side effects of calcium supplements?

A constipation

C nausea

B diarrhea

D insomnia

135. Match the following drugs with their correct plasma protein binding:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Flurazepam
Thiopentone
Pentobarbitone
Methadone
Digoxin

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

90%
10%
35%
75%
25%

136. Regarding 'kernicterus' spot the incorrect statement(s):

A due to free bilirubin crossing the
BBB

C induced by sulfa drugs in

neonates

B results in choreoathetosis

D due to staining and damage to

cerebral cortex

137. Tolnaftate is ineffective against

A tinea cruris

C tinea corporis

B tinea pedis

D tinea capitis

138. A drug which is both the substrate and inducer of P450 enzyme CYP 2C19
A Carbamazepine

C Phenobarbital

B Phenytoin

D Omeprazole

139. Match the following drugs with their corresponding half-lives

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Tolmetin
Diclofenac
Ketoprofen
Ibuprofen
Flurbiprofen

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

3.8 hrs
1 hr
1.8 hrs
1.1 hrs
2 hrs

140. Which of the following is a reversible AChE inhibitor?

A neostigmine

C galantamine

B malathion

D donepezil

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Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

141. A structural analogue of p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)

A Pyrimethamine

C Trimethoprim

B sulfamethoxazole

D Linezolid

142. Which of the following antifungal agents have renal excretion?

A Fluconazole

C Itraconazole

B Ketoconazole

D Voriconazole

143. Treatment of choice for painless genital ulcers caused by C. trachomatis

A Azithromycin

C Ciprofloxacin

B Ceftriaxone

D Doxycycline

144. A drug used as a first line treatment against tapeworm infection caused due to
Taenia saginata
A Mebendazole

C Praziquantel

B Diethyl carbamazine

D Albendazole

145. Which of the following drugs is an urotropin?

A hexachlorophene

C ammonium chloride

B phenazopyridine

D hexamethylenetetramine

146. Use of which of the following drugs during pregnancy can cause hearing loss in
the offspring?
A Tetracycline

C Gentamicin

B Polymyxin B

D Chloramphenicol

147. Pick the correct statements regarding highly plasma protein bound drugs
A they easily cross membranes

C makes it short-acting

B it forms temporary storage of

drugs

D it reduces volume of distribution

148. Which of the following drugs inhibits CYP3A4 and raises the blood levels of
digoxin?
A carbamazepine

C Ketoconazole

B Cyclosporin

D Haloperidol

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Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

149. Barbituric acid is derived from

A Phenol

C Acetaldehyde

B Urea

D Indole

150. Phosphate (PO4) is mainly reabsorbed from the

A Convulated tubule

C Proximal tubule

B Thick ascending Loop of Henle

D Distal tubule

151. ECG changes not seen due to Digoxin and its effect on the heart:
A increased Q-T interval

C A-V block at toxic doses

B Depression of ST segment

D shortened P-R interval

152. Which among the following has a more broad spectrum of antibacterial activity?
A Penicillin

C Streptomycin

B Tetracycline

D Erythromycin

153. Which of the following is not a dolorous effect of fluoxetine?

A asthenia

C nausea

B insomnia

D rash

154. Drug of choice for Tularemia:

A Tetracyclines

C Streptomycin

B Erythromycin

D Penicillin

155. Throboxane A2 (TXA2) is produced by

A mast cells

C monocytes

B erythrocytes

D platelets

156. Which of the following organisms is/are gram-negative bacilli?

A Borrelia

C Clostridia

B Campylobacter

D Brucella

157. Antibiotics that act by inhibition of folate synthase

A Vancomycin

C Nalidixic acid

B Cycloserine

D Para-amino salicylic acid (PAS)

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

158. Antibiotic which has a dual mechanism of action: 1) causing leakage from cell
membranes, as well as 2) inhibiting cell wall synthesis
A Bacitracin

C Cycloserine

B Penicillin

D Vancomycin

159. Which of the given following statements is/are incorrect about dutasteride?
A inhibits only type1 5 -reductase

C metabolized by CYP2E1

B effective in male pattern baldness

D t 9 days

160. An 'urease inhibitor'

A Phenazopyridine hydrochloride

C sodium biphosphate

B acetohydroxamic acid

D Methenamine mandelate

161. Antibiotic that works by inhibiting protein synthesis:

A Nystatin

C Streptomycin

B Linezolid

D Pyrimethamine

162. Treatment of choice for roundworm infections caused by Ascaris lumbricoides

A Diethyl carbamazine

C Levamisole

B Praziquantel

D Mebendazole

163. Ganglionic stimulants are all of the following except:

A Pilocarpine

C Lobeline

B Carbachol

D Trimethaphan

164. Which of the following is an angiotensin receptor blocker?

A Enalapril

C Telmisartan

B Verapamil

D Prazosin

165. Penicillin allergy is due to the formation of _______ in vivo

A penicillanic acid

C penilloic acid

B penamaldic acid

D Penicilloic acid

166. Ma huang is obtained from

A Herba Ephedrae

C Silybum marianum

B Valeriana officinalis

D Panax quinquefolius

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

167. Drug most likely to cause constipation

A codeine

C Ticlopidine

B amiloride

D warfarin sod.

168. Drugs that needs to be avoided in liver disease:

A Metronidazole

C Isoniazid

B Chloramphenicol

D Pefloxacin

169. Which of the following is not a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant?

A Atracurium

C Suxamethonium

B d-Tubocurarine

D Vecuronium

170. Organism which is resistant to Ciprofloxacin:

A Bacillus anthracis

C Branhamella catarrhalis

B Bacteroides fragilis

D Pseudomonas aeruginosa

171. Blue discoloration of stool/faeces is due to ingestion of

A Mercurous chloride

C Boric acid

B Indocyanine green

D Carmine

172. Which of the following is a nitrobenzene derivative?

A Teicoplanin

C Erythromycin

B Chloramphenicol

D Nitrofurantoin

173. The drug with the highest plasma protein binding:

A sulfamethoxypyridazine

C sulfisoxazole

B sulfamethoxazole

D sulfadiazine

174. Drugs which are enzyme inducers

A rifampin

C carbamazepine

B Itraconazole

D Glutethimide

175. Organophosphate pesticides mimic

A Anticholinergics

C Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

B Reversible Anticholinesterases

D Cholinesterase reactivators

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

176. Drug which is metabolized by sulfation in Phase II reaction

A dopamine

C methyldopa

B isoniazid

D diazepam

177. Antibiotics that act by causing leakage from cell membranes:

A Clindamycin

C Nystatin

B Trimethoprim

D Linzolid

178. Which of the following increases bone resorption?

A calcitonin

C growth hormone

B gallium nitrate

D parathormone

179. Which of the following is a Calcium channel blocker?

A Valsartan

C Verapamil

B Carvedilol

D Ramipril

180. Metal fume fever is due to the toxicity of all except:

A Cobalt

C Brass

B Zinc oxide

D Aconite

181. Chloramphenicol is metabolized by

A CYP2C9

C CYP1A2

B CYP3A4

D CYP2B1

182. Antibiotic which is obtained from S. lavendulae

A Sisomycin

C Framycetin

B Neomycin

D Tobramycin

183. Which of the following is a special feature of carbenicillin?

A acid resistant

C penicillinase resistant

B active against pseudomonas

aeruginosa

D all of the above

184. Treatment of choice for painful genital ulcers caused by Haemophilus ducreyi
A Doxycycline

C Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

B Azithromycin

D Acyclovir

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

185. Antibiotics that act by interfering with DNA synthesis:

A Acyclovir

C Ciprofloxacin

B Rifampin

D Para-amino salicylic acid (PAS)

186. Longest acting Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)

A Fluoxetine

C Fluvoxamine

B Fluphenazine

D Citalopram

187. A drug which is not a stimulant:

A Methylphenidate

C Phendimetrazine

B Benzphetamine

D Eszopiclone

188. Which of the following is not an antitussive?

A Pholcodine

C Noscapine

B Diphenhydramine

D Benzonatate

189. Which among the following is most toxic and longest acting local anesthetic?
A dibucaine

C bupivacaine

B lidocaine

D ropivacaine

190. Antibiotics that are Primarily bactericidal:

A Linezolid

C Metronidazole

B Sulfonamides

D Doxycycline

191. Non-steroidal reversible aromatase inhibitor (AI):

A letrozole

C raloxifene

B fulvestrant

D exemestane

192. Which of the following herbs acts is an urinary tract disinfectant?

A Panax quinquefolius

C Echinacea angustifolia

B Capsicum annum

D Vaccinium erythrocarpum

193. Regarding Griseofulvin spot the incorrect statements

A metabolized by glucuronidation

C does not cause metaphase arrest

B fungicidal

D effective in athletes foot

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

194. Which of the following drugs is a non-competitive inhibitor of

Phosphodiesterase-5?
A indomethacin

C Lovastatin

B sildenafil

D theophylline

195. A long acting biosynthetic insulin preparation:

A Insulin aspart

C Insulin glargine

B Isophane insulin

D Insulin lispro

196. Shortest acting/rapid acting insulin:

A Isophane insulin

C Insulin zinc suspension

B Insulin glargine

D Insulin glulisine

197. Of the following, which is present in highest concentration in opium (Papaver

somniferum)?
A Thebaine

C Papaverine

B Codeine

D Morphine

198. Match the following drugs with their corresponding clinical/adverse effects:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Atropine methonitrate
Succinylcholine
Neostigmine
Febuxostat
Gossypol

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

liver damage
ganglionic stimulation
ganglionic blockade
hypokalemia
reverses ganglionic blockade

199. Of the following, what is incorrect about morphine?

A phenanthrene alkaloid

C readily crosses the blood-brain

barrier

B half-life is 2 hour

D causes mydriasis

200. Antibiotic which is a derivative of naphthacene carboxamide

A Carbenicillin

C Tetracycline

B Rifamycin B

D Miltefosine

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -I

Pharmacology

Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every
question/answers. Any remaining error is regretted. Author will not be held responsible
for any errors. Please consult standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unanswered. This is a
practice series available free to download designed for the benefit of prospective PG
candidates and UG medical students alike.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi
2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor
3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,
Mant & Ferro

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2017