Question #1: Which of the following would be attracted toward a positively charged

sheet of metal?(A). alpha particle

(B). beta particle
(C). gamma ray
(D). none of the above
#1 Answer
Question #2: Which of the following would be attracted toward a negatively charged
sheet of metal?(A). alpha particle
(B). beta particle
(C). gamma ray
(D). none of the above
#2 Answer
Question #3: The rate of radioactive decay is increased by(A). increased heat.
(B). increased pressure.
(C). the use of a nuclear catalyst.
(D). none of the above.
#3 Answer
Question #4: The emission of a beta particle from a nucleus results in(A). a decrease
in the atomic number.
(B). an increase in the atomic number.
(C). no change in the atomic number.
(D). none of the above.
#4 Answer
Question #5: The emission of a gamma ray from a nucleus results in(A). a decrease
in the atomic number.
(B). an increase in the atomic number.
(C). no change in the atomic number.
(D). none of the above.
#5 Answer
Question #6: After emission and moving 2 to 12 cm through the air an alpha particle
most likely becomes(A). an ordinary helium atom.

(B). an electron.
(C). increased energy in the impacted material.
(D). none of the above
#6 Answer
Question #7: An element in a radioactive decay series will continue to disintegrate
into various radioactive elements until it becomes a stable isotope of(A). uranium.
(B). lead.
(C). bismuth.
(D). lawrencium.
#7 Answer
Question #8: The decay rate for a given number of nuclei of each radioactive isotope
is observed to be(A). an identifying characteristic of that isotope.
(B). specific for each radioactive element.
(C). dependent on external conditions of temperature, pressure, and chemical state.
(D). totally random and not dependent on any external condition.
#8 Answer
Question #9: The mass of a given nucleus is always __ ? __ the sum of the masses
of the individual particles of which it is made.(A). less than
(B). more than
(C). the same as
(D). sometimes less, sometimes more, but never the same as
#9 Answer
Question #10: When applied to E = mc2 the mass defect of a given nucleus is found
to be the(A). energy released when the nucleus formed.
(B). energy required to break the nucleus into individual particles.
(C). same as the binding energy.
(D). any of the above.
#10 Answer
Question #11: The nucleus of the greatest stability is found in the isotope of the
element(A). aluminum.
(B). iron.

(C). hydrogen.
(D). lead.
#11 Answer
Question #12: Radiation can be a hazard to living organisms because it(A). produces
ionization along its path of travel.
(B). disrupts chemical bonds.
(C). generates free polyatomic ions.
(D). all of the above.
#12 Answer
Question #13: In general, the public receives how much radiation exposure each
year?(A). none
(B). more than 500 millirem.
(C). between 100 and 500 millirem.
(D). about 130 rem.
#13 Answer
Question #14: A Geiger counter is able to provide an indirect measure of radioactivity
because radiation has a property of(A). ionization.
(B). making matter glow in the dark.
(C). fogging photographic film.
(D). attracting electrons.
#14 Answer
Question #15: The use of which unit would indicate radioactivity is being measured
at its source?(A). rad
(B). rem
(C). curie
(D). roentgen
#15 Answer
Question #16: One of the first observable effects of over exposure to very low level
radioactivity is(A). loss of hair.
(B). changes in the blood count.
(C). glowing in the dark.

(D). leukemia.
#16 Answer
Question #17: The U-238 isotope is most likely to emit(A). an alpha particle.
(B). a beta particle.
(C). a gamma ray.
(D). It is not possible to predict.
#17 Answer
Question #18: This type of radiation is released when Rn-224 decays to Po-220:(A).
alpha.
(B). beta.
(C). gamma.
(D). all of these.
#18 Answer
Question #19: Which of the following correctly balances the following nuclear fission
reaction?

#19 Answer
Question #20: Which of the following correctly balances this decay reaction?

Answers
Question #1: Which of the following would be attracted toward a positively charged
sheet of metal?
(B). beta particle
An alpha particle is the nucleus of a helium atoms with two protons and two
neutrons, so it has a positive charge. A beta particle is an electron, so it has a
negative charge. A gamma ray is a photon of very short wavelength and it has no
charge. The beta particle would be attracted to a positively charged sheet of metal
since opposite charges attract.

Question #2: Which of the following would be attracted toward a negatively charged
sheet of metal?
(A). alpha particle
An alpha particle is the nucleus of a helium atoms with two protons and two
neutrons, so it has a positive charge. A beta particle is an electron, so it has a
negative charge. A gamma ray is a photon of very short wavelength and it has no
charge. The alpha particle would be attracted to a negatively charged sheet of metal
since opposite charges attract.

Question #3: The rate of radioactive decay is increased by

(D). none of the above.
Radioactive decay is a purely natural process and cannot be controlled or influenced
by any outside variables.

Question #4: The emission of a beta particle from a nucleus results in

(B). an increase in the atomic number.
Beta emission is the expulsion of a high speed electron from a disintegrating
nucleus. The emission of a beta particle increases the number of protons in a
nucleus. It is as if a neutron changed to a proton by emitting the electron. So,
emission of a beta particle increases the number of protons by one, but the mass
number remains the same. The mass of the expelled electron is so small that it is
ignored.

Question #5: The emission of a gamma ray from a nucleus results in

(D). none of the above.
A gamma ray is a high-energy burst of electromagnetic radiation (a photon) from an
excited nucleus. The nucleus changes from an excited state to a lower energy state
and there is no change in the number of nucleons or the mass number.

Question #6: After emission and moving 2 to 12 cm through the air an alpha particle
most likely becomes
(A). an ordinary helium atom.
Alpha emission is the expulsion of a helium nucleus, with 2 protons and 2 neutrons,
from an unstable, disintegrating nucleus. The helium nucleus eventually acquires two
electrons to become an ordinary helium atom.

Question #7: An element in a radioactive decay series will continue to disintegrate

into various radioactive elements until it becomes a stable isotope of
(B). lead.
There are three naturally occurring radioactive decay series. One begins with
thorium-232 and ends with lead-208, another begins with uranium-235 and ends with
lead-207, and the third series begins with uranium-238 and ends with lead-206. Thus
all radioactive decay series go through a series of decay reactions until they reach a
stable lead nucleus.

Question #8: The decay rate for a given number of nuclei of each radioactive isotope
is observed to be
(A). an identifying characteristic of that isotope.
The radioactive decay constant is a specific constant for a particular isotope, and
each isotope has its own decay constant. This is often described in terms of its halflife.

Question #9: The mass of a given nucleus is always __ ? __ the sum of the masses
of the individual particles of which it is made.
(A). less than
The mass of a nucleus is always less than the sum of the masses of the individual
particles of which it is made. The difference is called the mass defect of the nucleus,
and the explanation for the defect is found in E = mc 2. When nucleons join to bake a
nucleus, energy is released as the more stable nucleus is formed. The energy
equivalent released when a nucleus is formed is the same as the binding energy, the
energy required to break the nucleus into individual protons and neutrons.

Question #10: When applied to E = mc2 the mass defect of a given nucleus is found
to be the
(D). any of the above.
The mass of a nucleus is always less than the sum of the masses of the individual
particles of which it is made. The difference is called the mass defect of the nucleus,
and the explanation for the defect is found in E = mc 2. When nucleons join to bake a
nucleus, energy is released as the more stable nucleus is formed. The energy
equivalent released when a nucleus is formed is the same as the binding energy, the
energy required to break the nucleus into individual protons and neutrons. The
binding energy of the nucleus of any isotope can be calculated from the mass defect
of the nucleus, which also tells you the amount of energy released when the nucleus
formed.

Question #11: The nucleus of the greatest stability is found in the isotope of the
element
(B). iron.
The energy equivalent released when a nucleus is formed is the same as the binding
energy, the energy required to break the nucleus into individual protons and
neutrons. The ratio of binding energy to the number of protons and neutrons is a
measure of the stability of a nucleus. The greatest ratio of binding energy per
number of protons and neutrons occurs near an isotope of iron with a mass number
of 56, then decreases for both more massive and less massive nuclei.

Question #12: Radiation can be a hazard to living organisms because it

(D). all of the above.
Radioactivity can be a hazard to living organisms because it produces ionization
along its path of travel. This ionization can (1) disrupt chemical bonds in essential
macromolecules such as DNA and (2) produce molecular fragments, which are free
polyatomic ions that can interfere with enzyme action and other essential cell
functions.

Question #13: In general, the public receives how much radiation exposure each
year?
(C). between 100 and 500 millirem.
Natural radioactivity is part of the environment and people receive between 100 and
500 millirems each year from natural sources. The actual amount received varies
with certain activities and situations that increase the yearly exposure to radiation. In
general, the exposure for the average person is about 130 millirems per year.

Question #14: A Geiger counter is able to provide an indirect measure of radioactivity

because radiation has a property of
(A). ionization.
When radiation passes through the probe of a Geiger counter it ionizes some of the
gas atoms in the tube, releasing free electrons. The electrons are accelerated by an
electric field in the tube and an avalanche of free electrons creates a pulse of current
that is amplified and measured. More radiation means more avalanches, so the

pulses are an indirect means of measuring radiation. Each avalanche makes a pop
or click when the circuit includes a speaker or earphone.

Question #15: The use of which unit would indicate radioactivity is being measured
at its source?

(C). curie
The activity of a radioactive source is a measure of the number of nuclear
disintegrations per unit of time. The unit of activity at the source is called a curie,
which is defined as 3.70 X 1010 nuclear disintegrations per second.

Question #16: One of the first observable effects of over exposure to very low level
radioactivity is
(B). changes in the blood count.
See Table 15.4.

Question #17: The U-238 isotope is most likely to emit

(A). an alpha particle.
All nuclei with an atomic number greater than 83 are outside the upper right limit of
the band of stability. Emission of an alpha particle reduces the number of protons by
two and the number of neutrons by two, moving thee nucleus more toward the band
of stability. Any nucleus that lies beyond the upper right part of the band of stability is
an alpha emitter, as is U-238.

Question #18: This type of radiation is released when Rn-224 decays to Po-220:
(A). alpha.
All nuclei with an atomic number greater than 83 are outside the upper right limit of
the band of stability. Emission of an alpha particle reduces the number of protons by
two and the number of neutrons by two, moving the nucleus more toward the band of
stability. Any nucleus that lies beyond the upper right part of the band of stability is
an alpha emitter, as is Rn-224. Furthermore, since Rn-224 lost 4 atomic mass units
to become Po-220, you know that an alpha particle must have been emitted.

Question #19: Which of the following correctly balances the following nuclear fission
reaction?

From the subscripts you can see that the atomic number of the new isotope formed is
92 - 53, or 39 and the mass number is (1 + 235) = (131 + ? + 3), or 102.

Question #20: Which of the following correctly balances this decay reaction?

The emission of a beta particle increases the number of protons in a nucleus. It is as

if a neutron changed to a proton by emitting the electron. So, emission of a beta
particle increases the number of protons by one, but the mass number remains the
same. The mass of the expelled electron is so small that it is ignored. Therefore, the
atomic number is increased by 1 to 91 and the element is now Pa and the mass
number remains 230.

(2) If the rate of a reaction does not change with time then the reaction should be:
(a) moderately slow (b) very fast (c) catalyzed
(d) zeroth order (e) None of these.
(3) If a chemical reaction reaches equilibrium state:
(a) its forward and backward rates are equal
(b) its overall free energy change becomes zero
(c) its equilibrium constant is the ratio of the two rate constants
(d) all of these (e) none of these
(4) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) +Cl2(g). The units of equilibrium constant, Kc for the reaction
is:
(a) L mol1 (b) mol L 1 (c) mol 1 L 1
(d) mol 2 L2 (e) None of these
(5) Energy of a typical H bond ranges between:
(a) 2 to 4 kJmol 1 (b) 5 to 10 kJmol 1
(c) 15 to 30 kJmol 1 (d) 40 to 80 kJmol 1
(e) None of these
(6) Which of the pairs makes an ideal mixture:
(a) benzene-methanol (b) benzene-toluene
(c) ethanol-methanol (d) ethanol-water
(e) None of these
(7) Which of the following concentration units depends on temperature?
(a) molarity (b) molality

(c) mole fraction (d) weight to weight (W/W) %

(e) None of these
(8) A 0.4% (W/V) aqueous solution of NaOH is nearly:
(a) 1 M (b) 0.5 M (c) 0.1 M
(d) 0.01 M (e) None of these
(9) Which of the followings is correct for the ground state of O2 molecule?
(a) bond order two and no unpaired electron
(b) bond order two and one unpaired electron
(c) bond order two and two unpaired electron in the bonding orbital
(d) bond order two and two unpaired electrons in the anti-bonding orbital
(e) None of these
(10) Which one should give the simplest proton NMR spectrum?
(a) CH3CH2OH (b) CH3OH (c) CH3OCH3
(d) CH3CHO (e) all are equally complicated
(11) Which group has the highest stretching frequency of IR-region in the gas phase?
(a) C -H (b) = C -H (c) O H
(d) N H (e) all are equal
(12) Which of the following should not be formed according to the bonding theories?
(a) H +
2 (b) H 2 (c) He 2
(d) He2
+ (e) None of these
(13) There remains no liquid-vapour boundary at:
(a) boiling point (b) critical temperature
(c) triple point (d) azeotrope composition
(e) None of these
(14) For a catalyzed reaction as compared to the uncatalyzed one:
(a) heat of reaction is higher (b) heat of reaction is lower
(c) heat of reaction is same (d) activation energy is same
(e) All above are correct
(15) When two ideal gases at the same temperature are mixed together:
(a) there is a negative heat of mixing
(b) there is a positive heat of mixing
(c) both heat and entropy of mixing are positive
(d) entropy of mixing alone is positive
(e) All above are correct
(16) Which of the series is present in the ultraviolet region for the H atom?
(a) Layman (b) Balmer (c) Paschen
(d) Pfund (e) None of these
(17) pH of 0.01 M HCl solution should be:
(a) 3 (b)2 (c)1.5
(d) 1 (e) None of these
(18) Which of the ions should exhibit highest electrical mobility in aqueous solution?

(a) Na+ (b) I (c) Cs+

(d) Cd++ (e) Li+
(19) H2 + Br2 2HBr is a very famous gas phase reaction. The overall order of this
reaction is:
(a) two (b) one (c) half
(d) one half in the beginning (e) All above are correct
(20) Presence of a chiral center in molecules makes them:
(a) absorb uvradiation (b) absorb plane polarized light
(c) rotate plane polarized light (d) emit IRradiation
(e) None of these
Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet (20)
When an electron is brought from infinite distance close to the nucleus of the atom, the energy (i)
?of Electron-nucleus system
increases to a smaller negative value (a)
decreases to a greater negative value (b)
decreases to a smaller positive value (c)
increases to a greater positive value (d)
:The probability of finding the electron in the nucleus is (ii)
100% due to forces of attraction (a)
finite for all orbitals (b)
Zero for all orbitals (c)
Zero for some orbitals and finite for others (d)
When Zn metal is kept in CuSO4 solution, copper is precipitated and ZnSO4 is formed (iii)
:because
Atomic number of Zinc is smaller than copper (a)
Atomic number of Zinc is larger than copper (b)
Standard reduction potential of Zinc is more than that of copper (c)
Standard reduction potential of Zinc is less than that of copper (d)
Electrolytes when dissolved in water, dissociate into their constituent ions, the degree of (iv)
:dissociation of an electrolyte increases with the
Presence of a substance yielding common ion (a)
Decreasing temperature (b)
Decreasing concentration of electrolyte (c)
Increasing concentration of electrolyte (d)
There is a large positive entropy change for an exothermic reaction. It means that the reaction (v)
:will be
possible at high temperatures only (a)
impossible at all temperatures (b)
possible at low temperatures only (c)
possible at all temperatures (d)
?Which of the following statement is false (vi)
the temperature of the system will fall if an exothermic reaction is isolated from its (a)
surroundings
Energy is absorbed when one compound is converted into another with higher heat content (b)

the temperature of the system is likely to fall if heat is absorbed during the course of a (c)
reaction
None of these (d)
:The H_____ bond is strongest in (vii)
S__H O (a)
O_H .S (b)
F_H ..O (c)
F_H ..S (d)
:Heavy water contains (viii)
Large amount of salts (a)
Deuterium (b)
O18 (c)
O16 (d)
:pH + pOH of a solution is (ix)
7 (a)
Zero (b)
14 (c)
14- (d)
:The compound that is not Lewis acid (x)
BF3 (a)
BaCl2 (b)
SnCl4 (c)
AlCl3 (d)
:Strongest acid having Ka (xi)
104 (a)
10-4 (b)
1 (c)
10-2 (d)
:Ore of Aluminium (xii)
Calamine (a)
Dolomite (b)
Bauxite (c)
Limestone (d)
:Oxidation number of S in sulphuric acid (xiii)
Four (a)
Six (b)
Two (c)
Eight (d)
:d-block elements form coordination compounds because of (xiv)
Small Cationic size (a)
Large ionic Charge (b)
Unfilled d-orbitals (c)
Filled d-orbitals (d)

:Brass is an alloy of (xv)

Cu and Zn (a)
Cu, Ni, Zn (b)
Cu and Ni (c)
Cu, Al, Zn (d)
:Urea is a high quality nitrogenous fertilizer with (xvi)
76% nitrogen (a)
46% nitrogen (b)
66% nitrogen (c)
26% nitrogen (d)
:Diamond is (xvii)
Good conductor of electricity (a)
Bad conductor of electricity (b)
Bad conductor on heating (c)
Good conductor on heating (d)
:Carbon monoxide is poisonous gas because it (xviii)
replaces oxygen from lungs (a)
forms carboxy haemoglobin (b)
Forms carbon dioxide with oxygen (c)
has a sweet smell (d)
:Rust is (xix)
FeO + Fe(OH)2 (a)
Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)2 (b)
Fe2O3 (c)
Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)3 (d)
:Calcium Carbide reacts with water to give (xx)
Methane (a)
Ethylene (b)
Acetylene (c)
Ethane (d)
18. Which of the following substituent deactivates benzene ring and is o, p-directing?
(a) __ NH2 (b) __ Cl (c) __ OCH3 (d) __ OH
19) Which of the following is most readily nitrated?
(a) Toluene (b) Benzaldehyde (c) Nitrobenzene (d) Benzoic Acid
20) Ketones can be prepared by reaction of Grignard reagent with:
(a) Acid Amides (b) Acid Chloride (c ) Carboxylic Acid (d) Epoxides
21) Which of the following statements about the order of reaction is true?
(a) The order of a reaction can only be determined by experiment.
(b) A second order reaction is also bimolecular
(c) The order of reaction must be a positive integer
(d) The order of reaction increases with increasing temperature.
22 Polysaccharides yield many monosaccharides on:
(a) Hydration (b) Oxidation (c) Reduction (d) Hydrolysis
23) Which of the following is not aromatic?
(a) Benzene (b) cyclooctatetraene (c) Pyridine (d) Phenol
24) Which of the following is most basic?
(a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) CH3NH2 (d) CH3OH
25) Which of the following has lowest pH?
(a) CH3COOH (b) CF3COOH (c) ClCH2COOH (d) Cl3C COOH
26) The equilibrium of two readily interconvertible isomers is called:
(a) Stereoisomerism (b) Metamerism (c) Tautomerism (d) Polymorphism

27) Which of the following compounds exhibit geometrical isomerism?

(a) 1-Pentene (b) 2-Pentene (c) 2-methyl 2-Pentene (d) 2-methyl 2-Butene
28) Which of the following gives a tertiary alcohol when treated with Grignard reagent:
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) C3H5CHO (d) CH3COCH3
29) Which of the following tests is not used to identify aldehydes?
(a) Tollens test (b) Benedict solution test (c) Fehling solution test (d) Ammonia test
30) Which is incorrect about alkaloids?
(a) Naturally Occuring (b) Possess a hetrocyclic ring
(c) Exhibit biological action (d) acidic in nature
31) Which of the followings will not give iodoform test:
(a) Acetone (b) Ethylacohol (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Acetaldehyde
32) The reaction of aniline with bromine water gives:
(a) o-bromoaniline (b) p-bromoaniline (c) 2,4-dibromoaniline (d) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
33) The reaction of tripalmitin, with sodium hydroxide is called:
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Saponification (c) Esterification (d) Combustion
34) Which one is not Petrochemical?
(a) Napthalene (b) Mineral Oil (c) Wax (d) Table Salt
35) Chemical adsorption:
(a) is exothermic (b) is irreversible (c) takes place at high temp. (d) All of these
36) The most commonly used absorbent for chromatographic separation of organic compound is:
(a) Activated charcoal (b) Fullers Earth (c) Alumina (d) Silica gel
37) Grignard reagent is:
(a) Organo Zinc halide (b) Organo cadmium bromide
(c) n-Butyl Lithium (d) Organo Magnesium halide
38) Which one of the following is not a petrochemical.
(a) Cumene (b) Paraffin (c) Aluminum Chloride (d) Epoxy resin
39) The term syndiotactic is related to which one of the following?
(a) Synthetic detergents (b) Table Salt (c) Paraffin (d) Polyprophylene
40 Which one of the following is used as an Antibiotic?
(a) Patulin (b) Insulin (c) Soserine (d) Trypsin
41) Heroin is diacetate of:
(a) Papaverine (b) Morphine(c) Codeine (d) Thebaine
42) A reaction that practically is given by all organic compounds.
(a) Elimination (b) Friedel-Craft ecylation (c) Combustion (d) Rearrangement
43) Which functional group is present in polyester shirt?
(a) Lactam (b) Acid Chloride (c) Ether (d) Ester
(xviii) Which statement is true for Halogen (Halo-group)?
(a) Activating and O, pdirecting (b) Activating and mdirecting
(c) Deactivating and O, pdirecting (d) None of these.
(44) Which one of the following can be synthesized from Aryl Diazonium Salt?
(a) Furfural (b) Carbylamine (c) Biphenyl (d) THF
(45 The Methyl group in Methyl Magnesium Iodide can act as:
(a) CH3Radical (b) CH3Carbonium ion (c) CH3Carbanion (d) Can react with a base
46) Nylon is a copolymer of:
(a) Urea and Formaldehyde (b) Phenol and Formaldehyde
(c) Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid (d) Vinyl Chloride and Vinylalcohol
(47) Which of the following would react with one mole of Grignardsreagent to yield a ketone?
(a) R R RCON (b) R RCONH (c) RCONH2(d) RCOOH
48) Glyceraldehyde has one ofthe following properties:
(a) One asymmetric carbon atom(b) Two asymmetric carbon atoms
(c) A meso compound (d) Four asymmetric carbon atoms
49 The ant
ifreeze compound ethylene glycol has the formula:
(a) C2H5OH (b) CH3OH (c) C2H4(OH)2(d) C3H5(OH)3
50 Distillation is the best method for separating the two substances in which of the following:
(a) Water and salt dissolved
(b) water and a substance which does not dissolve in it
(c) Two liquids that have different boiling points
(d) Two solids that have different melting points.

?Which of the following gasses is used in fire extinguishers

A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen

C. Water vapour
D. Carbon dioxide
Answer is = D
stains of rust from iron on cloth can be removed by .2
A. hydrogen peroxide
B. alcohol
C. oxalic acid
D. petrol
Answer is = C
?Cooking gas is a mixture of which of the following two gases .3
A. methane and carbon dioxide
B. oxygen and nitrogen
C. butane and propane
D. oxygen and methane
Answer is = D
Nameplates made of brass get discoloured in air because of which of the following gases in .4
?the air
A. oxygen
B. nitrogen
C. carbon dioxide
D. hydrogen sulfide
Answer is = D
on addition of salt to water , its .5
A. Boiling point increases
B. Boiling point decreases
C. Boiling point is not affected
D. Freezing point increases
Answer is = A
?Which of the following gases does not pollute air .6
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen dioxide
D. Sulphur dioxide
Answer is = C
the inorganic natural resources of the earth is .7
A. Mineral fuels
B. Wood
C. Coal
D. Microbes
Answer is = A
?Which one of the following has the highest fuel value .8
A. Hydrogen
B. Charcoal
C. Natural gas
D. Gasoline
Answer is = A
the characteristic odour of garlic is due to .9
A. A chloro compound
B. A Sulphur compound
C. A fluorine compound
D. Acetic acid
Answer is = B
?Which of the following group of compounds constitute carbohydrates .10

A. fats and sugar

B. fats, sugar and proteins
C. starch, sugar and proteins
D. starch and sugar
Answer is = D
?What is the chemical name of banking soda .11
A. sodium bicarbonate
B. sodium nitrate
C. Sodium carbonate
D. Potassium
Answer is = A
?Milk lacks in one important nutrient; which .12
A. calcium
B. iron
C. potassium
D. protein
Answer is = B
Ripening of fruits is hastened by which of the following gases .13
A. Hydrogen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Ethylene
Answer is = D
Iron articles rust because of the formation of .14
A. ferrous chloride
B. a mixture of ferrous and ferric hydroxide
C. sodium carbonate
D. ferric chloride
Answer is = B
Gunpowder consists of .15
A. 75 % potassium nitrite + 15 % charcoal + 10%Sulphur
B. 75 % potassium nitrite + 10 % charcoal +15 % Sulphur
C. 75 % potassium nitrite + 10 % charcoal + 15 % Sulphur
D.75 % potassium nitrite + 15 % charcoal +10 % Sulphur
Answer is = C
?X-rays are produced when are stream of electrons in an X-ray tube .16
A. Hits the glass wall of the tube
B. Strikes metal target
C. pass through a strong magnetic field
D. none
Answer is = B
?in the periodic table, elements have been arranged .17
A. In the order of increasing volume
B. In order of increasing atomic number
C. In order of increasing atomic weights
D. In order of increasing density
Answer is = B
Which group pf elements in the periodical le show highest first ionization potential? Elements .18
in the
A. left hand top corner left hand bottom corner
B. left hand bottom corner
C. right hand top corner
D. Right hand bottom corner

Answer is = A
?when we move from left to right in second period, the atomic valium of element .19
A. increases
B. increases with constant state
C. decreases
D. decreases than increases
Answer is = B
Generally in a given period in the periodic .20
table, as we move from left to right, the electropositive
character of elements
A. increases
B. decreases
C. Neither increases nor decreases
D. decreases than increases
Answer is = B
?Atom bomb is based on the principle of .21
A. Nuclear fusion
B. Nuclear fission
C. Radioactive
D. nuclear fission and fusion both
Answer is = B
:Oxidation involves .22
A. Gain in electrons
B. gain of hydrogen
C. less of electrons
D. combustion
Answer is = C
?The substances are radioactive, which have .23
A. Electrons in their nuclei
B. nuclei with less number of neutrons
C. unstable nuclei
D. electrons removed from the outermost shell
Answer is = B
when nuclear energy is intended to be harnessed for generation of electricity, optionally .24
?destructive neutrons released in a nuclear reactor are absorbed by
A. Heavy water
B. long rods of Cd
C. cubical blocks made of graphite
D. a pile of blocks made of graphite
Answer is = C
Nuclear power reactors are operated at low temperature and consequently with lower .25
?efficiency because
A. nuclear heat is carried by ordinary steam
B uranium is difficult to heat
C. the walls of nuclear reactors can not withstand high temperature
D. high pressure in side the reactor reduces the temperature
Answer is = C
The energy emitted from the sun is supposed to be due to .26
A. Nuclear fission
B. Nuclear fusion
C. combustion of hydrogen
D. radioactive disintegration
Answer is = B

?in a hydrogen bomb, hydrogen is converted into .27

A. Barium
B. uranium
C. uranium 238
D. helium
Answer is = D
When to ice cubes are pressed over each other they unit to from one cube. Which of the .28
?following force is responsible for holding them together
A. Vander walls forces
B. covalent attraction
C. hydrogen bond formation
D. dipole dipole attraction
Answer is = C
?The high boiling point of water is due to .29
A. weak dissociation of water molecule
B. hydrogen bonding among water molecules
C. its high specific heat
D. its high dielectric constant
Answer is = B
Ice has an open structure compared .30
to water due to which it floats on water
.and occupies a greater volume of space
?The open structure of ice is due to
A. Solid state of ice
B. its low density
C. crystalline nature
D. hydrogen bonding
Answer is = D
?A gas can be liquefied by pressure alone when its temperature is .31
A. Higher than the critical temperature
B. Lower than its critical temperature
C. equal to its critical temperature
D. Equal to its critical temperature
Answer is = B
?Gases can be compressed to a greater extent because .32
A. Molecules are elastic
B. there is no gap between molecules
C. these are lighter than liquids
D. there is a large space between the molecules
Answer is = D
The cooling caused by the expansion .33
of a compressed gas below its in inversion
?temperature without doing external work is called
A. Joule Thomson effect
B. Adiabatic diamagnetism
C. Faraday Tyndall effect
D. Compton effect
Answer is = A
?Which of the following solution will have the highest boiling point .34
A. 1 % glucose in water
B. 1 % sucrose in water
C. 1 % NaCi in water
D. 1 % Ca Ci 2 in water

Answer is = D
Sea water is converted into fresh water by sunig the phenomenon of .35
A. Plasmolysis
B. Sedimentation
C. Reverse osmosis
D. Diffusion
Answer is = C