SimCAT101 SandeepSandeep

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113
Student ScoreCard
Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation
Score:63
Percentile:88
Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning
Score:50
Percentile:84
Overall: Overall
Score:113
Percentile:88
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Question: 1
Answer the questions independently of each other.
A student got as many marks in Physics as he got in Maths. The ratio of his marks in Biology and Chemistry was 5 : 7. The ratio of his
marks in Biology and Maths is 3 : 2. If he gets an aggregate of 64% in all the four papers and each subject had equal maximum marks, in
how many subjects has he scored more than 50% marks?
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Explanation:
6376
2)
6426
3)
6510
4)
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Question: 2
I have five digits 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 with which I form 2 two-digit numbers 'x' and 'y' and 1 one-digit number 'z', such that all the five digits are
utilized. What is the maximum value of 'xyz' (i.e., product of x, y and z) ?
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6560
Explanation:
Since all the options are greater than 6300 we want to find x, y and z such that xyz
For z = 1
Case (1) x = 43, y = 52 then xyz
6000
6000
6300
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For z = 2
6000
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6000
For z = 3
Case (1) x = 51, y = 42 then xyz = 6426
Case (2) x = 52, y = 41 then xyz = 6396
For z = 4
Case (1) x = 51, y = 32 then xyz = 6528
Case (2) x = 52, y = 31 then xyz = 6448
For z = 5
Case (1) x = 41, y = 32 then xyz = 6560
Case (2) x = 42, y = 31 then xyz = 6510.
Hence, [4].
2)
25 cm2
3)
49 cm2
4)
64 cm2
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16 cm2
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Question: 3
The square of the longest diagonal of a rectangular box with a square base is 153 cm2. If the sum of the edges is 84 cm, the area of the
base can be:
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Explanation:
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Question: 4
The roots of a quadratic equation are two consecutive even numbers. The sum of the roots is the next consecutive even number. Which of
the following statements is/are true?
I. The product of the roots is the consecutive even number after the sum.
II. One of the roots must be 4.
1)
I only
2)
II only
3)
Both I and II
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4)
Neither I nor II
Explanation:
2)
60
3)
50
4)
140
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640
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Question: 5
Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
An organization wants to select its Chairperson and General secretary. There are four contestants A, B, C and D. Out of which A and B
are contestant for chairperson and C and D are contesting for General secretary. There are total 1000 eligible voters, each of them voted
for both the posts. (A, B, C and D are not allowed to vote). Some additional information are also given:
i. 70% of voters prefer A over B.
ii. 80% of voters prefer C over D.
iii. 80% of those who vote for C prefered A over B.
Determine number of voters who preferred both A and D.
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Explanation:
60
3)
640
4)
140
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Explanation:
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160
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Question: 6
Determine the number of voters who preferred both B and C.
Question: 7
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150 m
2)
300 m
3)
250 m
4)
Cannot be determined
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Explanation:
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Question: 8
A box contains 6 white balls and 3 black balls, and another box contains 4 white balls and 5 black balls. What is the probability that a ball
selected from one of the box at random is a white ball?
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3)
Explanation:
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Question: 9
I and II
2)
I and III
3)
II and III
4)
III and IV
4 - x is contained entirely in quadrants:
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2x and y
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The set of points satisfying pairs of inequalities y
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Explanation:
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Question: 10
Rahul, Irfan and Balaji have some coins of 25 paise, 50 paise and 1 rupee denomination such that total coins with each of them are in the
ratio 11 : 6 : 13 respectively. The three of them have 25 paise coins with them in the ratio 2 : 1 : 5 respectively, 50 paise coins in the ratio
6 : 5 : 9 respectively and 1 Re. coins in the ratio 7 : 3 : 6 respectively. Find the amount with Irfan if the three do not have money in any
other denomination and the total number of 25 paise coins with them is 32.
Rs.26
2)
Rs.48
3)
1)
4)
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Rs.35
Explanation:
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Rs.10 lakh, Rs.5 lakh
2)
3)
4)
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Question: 11
Mr.Sharma received Rs.20 lakh towards his retirement benefits. He wants to invest this amount prudentially in Monthly Income Plan (MIP),
Bank deposits (FD) and Tax-free Bonds(Bond) so that he gets maximum returns. The minimum amount required to be invested in MIP
and Bonds are Rs.2 lakh each. The yield/return rate of MIP, FD and Bonds are 9%,10% and 8% respectively. If he wants to invest at least
double the amount in MIP as compared to FD, then how much should Mr.Sharma invest in MIP and Bonds respectively to maximize
return?
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Explanation:
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4)
2)
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Question: 12
Mark [1], if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Mark [2], if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark [3], if the question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either statement alone.
Mark [4], if the question cannot be answered, even by using both statements together.
Is X divisible by 3?
I. X - 1 is a prime number.
II. X + 1 is a prime number.
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Explanation:
From statement I: 4 - 1 = 3 is prime but 4 is not divisible by 3. 6 - 1 = 5 is prime and 6 is divisible by 3.
From statement II: 2 + 1 = 3 is prime but 2 is not divisible by 3. 6 + 1 = 7 is prime and 6 is divisible by 3. Thus, none of the statements is
individually sufficient to answer the question.
Combining statements I and II,
we consider two possible values for X, 4 and 6.
(as 4 - 1 = 3, 4 + 1 = 5, 6 - 1 = 5 and 6 + 1 = 7 are prime) 6 is divisible by 3 but 4 is not.
Thus, we cannot answer the question. Hence, [4].
Question: 13
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What is the value of A, if A and B are real numbers?
I. A2 + B2 = 49 II. AB = 21
1)
2)
3)
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Explanation:
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Question: 14
A sequence of series of numbers is built up as follows:
2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14 ... ... (i)
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56 ... ... (ii)
2, 8, 20, 40, 70, 112, 168 ... ... (iii)
.
.
............................ ... (r)
.
.
From the above sequence of series, it is observed that the nth term of any of the series is equal to the sum of the first n terms of the
preceding series.
The general expression for the nth term, of the rth series is:
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3)
Explanation:
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2)
3rdday
3)
4thday
4)
5thday
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Explanation:
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2ndday
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Question: 15
There is a lawn which is 100% green whose green area decreases as the square of the number of cows grazing in the lawn. Two cows
together ate 8 m2 area of the lawn on the first day and everyday two new cows join them. The growth of grass of the lawn on a particular
day is directly proportional to the cube of the number of days. If at the end of the first day, 4 m2 area of grass grew, on which of the
following days would the lawn be 100% green again the first time after the 1st day?
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Question: 16
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight companies producing a number of health-care products.
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Revenue is given in Rs. crore and Quantity is considered in units.

If company G's total sales in year 2007 is Rs.24357 crore and that of company E in 2007 are 4615 crore units, then what was the selling
price (in Rs.) per unit for company E in 2006?
1)
Rs.1.9
2)
Rs.2.03
3)
Rs.1.6
4)
Rs.1.4
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Explanation:
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Question: 17
What are the total sales of all the given companies in the year 2006? (Use the data from previous question).
Rs.93861 crore
2)
Rs.153520 crore
3)
Rs.113202 crore
4)
Rs.167350 crore
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Explanation:
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1)
Rs.4750 crore
2)
Rs.5250 crore
3)
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Question: 18
If the selling price per unit of H had been Rs.1.5 in 2006 and quantity sold by H in 2007, had been 4750 crore units then, what is the
market share of H in Rs.crore in 2007?
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Rs.3650 crore
4)
Rs.5450 crore
Explanation:
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96 gm
3)
108 gm
4)
106 gm
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2)
112 gm
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Question: 19
Two flat circular disks cut out of the same sheet of metal have their radii in the ratio 3 : 5. Their combined weight is 144 gm. Find the
approximate weight of the heavier disk.
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Explanation:
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Question: 20
Find sum of all the numbers which have 9 divisors and lie in the range 200 to 1000 (including both numbers).
1)
922
2)
1826
3)
2082
4)
1406
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Explanation:
The numbers we are concerd about are either in the form a8 or a2b2 where a, b are different prime numbers.
The squares that lies in the range 200 to 1000 are the squares of numbers from 15 to 31. Of these numbers 15,21,22 and 26, have 2
different factors. Also 28 ie 256 lies in the given range.
Thus answer = 225 + 484 + 676 + 256 + 441 = 2082. Hence, [3].
60
2)
61
3)
62
4)
63
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Question: 21
How many digits will the number 2200 have if log 2 = 0.301?
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Explanation:
log 2200 = 200 log 2 = 200 x 0.301 = 60.2
Thus, 2200 will have 61 digits. Hence, [2].
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Question: 22
1)
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2)
3)
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4)
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Explanation:
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Question: 23
1)
56.47, 50.3
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2)
56.4, 52.3
3)
51.3, 54.7
4)
60.2, 58.5
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Explanation:
20C10
3)
21C9
4)
109
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1010
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Question: 24
In a One-day International match between India and Australia, 340 runs were scored by the Australians. The highest run scorer was Steve
Waugh, who scored runs between 60-70 runs (inclusive). The remaining ten batsmen scored at least 27 runs each. What are the possible
number of ways in which these runs can be scored by the Australian batsmen?
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Explanation:
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Question: 25
If n1, n2, ..., np are p positive integers whose sum is an even number, then the number of odd integers among them is:
1)
2)
3)
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4)
Explanation:
If the number of odd integers is odd, the sum of these odd integers will be odd whereas the sum of the even integers will be even so that
the sum of all the integers will be odd. That is false since the sum is given to be even. If the number of odd integers is even, then the sum
will be even. Hence, [3].
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Question: 26
A milk vendor sells 10 litres of milk from a can of 40 litres to a customer. He then fills the can with 10 litres of water and again sells 10
litres of the mixture to the second customer. He again fills 10 litres of water in the can and sells 10 litres of mixture to the third customer
and so on. What is the amount of pure milk that the fifth customer will receive?
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Explanation:
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Question: 27
Two engines are running in opposite directions on the circular track C1 of radius 3 km. The faster engine travels in a clockwise direction
while the slower engine travels in an anticlockwise direction. When the faster engine reaches point B, the slower engine reaches point A at
the same time and to avoid a collision the faster engine moves to the semicircular track C2 of radius 1.5 km as shown in the figure. If the
faster engine and the slower engine reach points A and B respectively simultaneously, then find the ratio of the speed of the faster to the
slower engine. In the figure, segment AB is the diameter of the smaller circle.
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3:2
2)
12 : 7
3)
17 : 13
4)
5:4
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Explanation:
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Question: 28
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Which player has benefited the most in terms of rating from the tournament?
1)
Prathamesh
2)
Krishna
3)
Abhijit
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4)
Mahesh
Explanation:
The rating of unrated players is dependent on dp which directly varies according to percentage/number of matches won. So, the unrated
player with highest number /percentage of wins will benefit the most. By observation, we can say that unrated player Krishna who has won
7 games out of possible 9 has benefited the most. Hence, [2].
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Question: 29
1)
Anand
2)
Hari
3)
Sandeep
4)
Tejas
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IdIf
2)
236
3)
353
4)
283
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Question: 30
What is the difference in the ratings of Abhijit and Mahesh?
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Explanation:
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Explanation:
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3:4
3)
21 : 1
4)
43 : 2
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Question: 31
Answer each of the following questions independently.
Find the ratio of the sum of the first 43 terms of an A.P. to the common difference if the sum of the first 15 terms and that of the first 27
terms of this A.P. is equal.
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Explanation:
Question: 32
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18
2)
27
3)
81
4)
34
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Explanation:
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Question: 33
Answer each of the questions independently.
Consider a sequence of 7 consecutive even integers. The average of the first five consecutive even integer is x. Find the average of all
seven integer.
1)
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4)
Explanation:
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2)
3)
4)
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Question: 34
Each question below is followed by two statements (a) and (b).
Choose 1 if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
Choose 2 if the question can be answered using either of the statements alone.
Choose 3 if the question can be answered using both the statements together but not using either of the statements alone.
Choose 4 if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
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Explanation:
Both 13 and 17
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Question: 35
773 + 133 903 is divisible by
2)
Both 11 and 17
3)
Both 11 and 13
4)
Both 3 and 19
Explanation:
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Question: 36
f(x) = min (3x + 2, 5x + 1). What is the maximum possible value of f(x)?
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Explanation:
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Question: 37
Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
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20% increase
2)
25% increase
3)
20% decrease
4)
25% decrease
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What is the percentage increase or decrease in total number of cars sold by Tobo in 2003-04 as compared to 2002-03?
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Explanation:
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Question: 38
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2nd
3)
Either 1st of 2nd
4)
Either 2nd or 3rd
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If we have to rank the mentioned brands in decreasing order of their total sales for 2 years, then Yen will be ranked at which position?
1)
1st
7000
Kantro
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17300
11500
9300
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4800
Tumo
Hence -[4]
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12500
Malice
Pindica = 14700
19800
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Yen
15000
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Explanation:
Total sales of cars in 2 years
N-800 = 21000
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Question: 39
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5th
3)
Either 3rd or 4th
4)
lower than 4th
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In the previous question, what will be Tumos rank?

1)
4th
12500
Malice
Pindica = 14700
7000
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17300
Kantro
11500
9300
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4800
Tumo
Hence -[4]
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19800
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Yen
15000
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Explanation:
Total sales of cars in 2 years
N-800 = 21000
1)
46%
2)
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Question: 40
A jogging park has two tracks. A circular track is enclosed by a triangular track such that the three vertices of triangle are equidistant from
the centre of the circular track. A and B start jogging simultaneously from the same point where the circular and triangular tracks touch
each other. A jogs along the circular track while B jogs along the triangular track. Approximately how much faster than A should B run, so
that they take the same time to return to their starting points?
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166%
3)
87%
4)
66%
Explanation:
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Question: 41
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3)
2)
4)
Explanation:
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20 minutes
3)
25 minutes
4)
30 minutes
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2)
ar
15 minutes
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Question: 42
Navjivan Express from Ahmedabad to Chennai leaves Ahmedabad at 6:30 and travels at 50 km per hour towards Baroda situated 100 km
away. At 7:00 Howrah-Ahmedabad Express leaves Baroda towards Ahmedabad and travels at 40 km per hour. At 7:30 Mr. Shah, the
traffic controller at Baroda realises that both the trains are running on the same track. How much time does he have to avert a head-on
collision between the two trains?
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Explanation:
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Question: 43
1)
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2)
3)
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4)
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Explanation:
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Question: 44
The number of people in an auditorium is a perfect square not greater than 400. Which of the following cannot be the ratio of males to
females in the auditorium?
1)
71 : 73
2)
149 : 251
3)
101 : 61
4)
137 : 61
Explanation:
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Question: 45
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3)
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4)
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Explanation:
Question: 46
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2)
858
3)
66
4)
528
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1)
In the survey, what is minimum number of middle aged people who read both India Today and Filmfare?
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Explanation:
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Question: 47
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2)
371
3)
378
4)
439
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346
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1)
In the survey, how many persons aged 25 years or less than 25 years read Business India?
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Explanation:
Question: 48
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I and II
3)
II and III
4)
III only
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Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the survey?

I. Filmfare is the most widely-read magazine among the Youth.
II. The number of elders reading India Today is more than the number of middle-aged people reading Business India.
III. The number of children reading Sportstar is less than the number of elders not reading any of the given magazines.
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Explanation:
From the table, percentage of youth reading Filmfare = 55 which is the highest. Thus, I is true.
Number of elders reading India Today = 529, whereas number of middle-aged persons reading Business India = 567. Thus, II is not true.
Number of children reading Sportstar = 238, which is more than the number of elders(210) reading any of the given magazines. Hence, III
is not true.
Hence, [1].
Question: 49
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1)
2)
3.375
3)
4)
0.125
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Explanation:
2)
2
3
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3)
1)
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Question: 50
Each question is followed by two statements.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using any of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered only by using both statements together.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered.
Heeralal bought and sold milk. While buying and selling he cheats by 10% i.e., he buys 100% and pays for 90% and he sells 100% and
charges for 110%
.
What was the percentage profit earned by him if he sold the entire quantity that was bought by him.?
A. He buys and sells the milk at the same price.
B. He buys and sells 100 litres of milk.
4)
Explanation:
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Question: 51
America launched twelve satellites to orbit the earth in six consecutive years from 2001 to 2006. Each year, two satellites were launched.
The satellites were classified into six different series: A, B, C, D, E and F. Exactly two satellites belonged to each series. The satellites of a
series were named as follows - for example for series A - IA and IIA - where I was launched before II, but not necessarily in the same
year.
The satellites were placed in six circular concentric orbits numbered from 1 to 6 consecutively, with 1 as the innermost orbit. In each orbit,
exactly two satellites were placed and satellites of the same series were not in the same orbit. In each orbit there was one satellite of type
I and one of type II.
There was a gap of three orbits between ID and IID (i.e., excluding the orbits in which they are present) and both of them were launched in
two consecutive years followed by the year in which series B's satellites were launched. Satellites of series A were launched sometime
before series B. One of series C and E satellites were in the same orbit. Satellites in orbit 3 were launched in 2003 and satellites of series
A were not launched in the same year. IA was in orbit 1.
Satellites of series B were launched in which year?
2004
2)
2005
3)
2006
4)
2004 or 2005
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Explanation:
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II only
3)
III only
4)
I and II only
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Question: 52
Which of the following statements is/are definitely false?
I. The satellites of series E are in the orbits 1 and 2.
II. Satellite IIB was launched in the year 2003.
III. Satellite ID is in orbit 6.
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Explanation:
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2)
2005
3)
2006
4)
2002
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2004
1)
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Question: 53
If IF and IIE are in orbit 2, then one of the satellites of orbit 5 must have been launched in which year?
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Explanation:
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Question: 54
2)
427
3)
329
4)
146
316
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In a game, 12 friends got different points, and their relative points are given below.
Rahul scored 105 less than Ruchira, who got 51 less than Garima, who got 41 less than Najeeb, who got 106 points less than Amar, who
got 13 points more than Deepak, who got 126 points less than Mahima, who got 18 points less than Amit, who got 60 less than Shilpi, who
got 68 more than Abhishek, who got 230 less than Aparna, who got 341 more than Shefali. Shefali also got twice as many points as
Rahul.
Ruchira's and Amit's score had a difference of how many points?
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Explanation:
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Shilpi
3)
Mahima
4)
Shefali
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Question: 55
Whose score was the nearest to the average score of the 12 friends?
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Explanation:
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Question: 56
Which of the following statements is not true?
Deepaks score was 290 more than Rahuls score.
2)
Ruchiras score is 2/3rd of Shefalis score.
3)
Amars score is 12 less than Shefalis score.
4)
Mahimas score was 100 less than the average score.
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Explanation:
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Question: 57
Answer the question independently.
A worker is given a task of painting the boundries of pedestrian path of two roads with two different colours black and yellow. He is given
Rs.1.5 per foot for painting the S.V.Road and Rs.1.75 per foot for painting M.G.Road. Dimensions of the border are such that it takes 50
ml of black and 75 ml of yellow colour to paint one feet on S.V.Road and 65 ml of black and 60 ml of yellow colour to paint one feet of
M.G.Road.
If on a particular day he is left with 200 ml of black and 230 ml of yellow colour, what should he do to maximize his earning for that day?
Paint 4 feet of boundary on S. V. Road.
2)
Paint 4 feet of boundary on M. G. Road
3)
Paint 2 feet on S. V. Road and 1 foot on M. G. Road.
4)
None of these.
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Explanation:
Option [1] is not possible because he does not have enough yellow paint.
Option [2] is also not possible because both colours are insufficient.
Option [3] is possible and he will earn Rs.4.75. But if he paints 3 feet on M. G. Road which is possible with the amount of colours he has,
his earning would be Rs.5.25. Hence, [4].
Question: 58
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The buttons of my calculator have gone awry. If I press 1, I get a 0 on the screen, if I press 2 I get a 1 and so on, till I press 0 in which
case I get a 9. (Assume the calculator reads and analyzes the number as it appears on the screen)
If I punch in 203 + 301, what will I get as the result?
1)
282
2)
504
3)
482
4)
None of these
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Explanation:
(203 + 301) calculator interprets as, 192 + 290 and gives 482 as result.
Hence, [3].
80
2)
99
3)
101
4)
00
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Question: 59
If I got the difference of 115 when I punched first number as 325, then what is the second number that I punched?
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Explanation:
The number will be 99 but the punched number will be 00. Hence, [4].
3)
4)
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2)
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Question: 60
The question below is followed by two statements.
Who is/are the heaviest among A, B, C, D and E?
I. D is the heaviest among C, D and E.
II. B, who is not lighter than D, is not the lighter of A and B.
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Explanation:
From statement I: D is the heaviest among C, D and E. But, we do not know anything about A and B. Hence, statement I is not sufficient.
From statement II: B is not lighter than D, means B is either heavier than or equal to D. But, this is not sufficient, as nothing is known
about C and E. Combining statements I and II also, we still cannot find out who is/are the heaviest. Hence, we cannot find the heaviest
among the group. Hence, [4].
Question: 61
Sentences given in thish question, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. The first and the last sentences are 1
and 6 and the four in between are labelled with a letter each. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the five
given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
1. The thorny issue with the Internet is often whether it is a common carrier, like a long distance or local telephone company, and thus not
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ABDC
2)
ACDB
3)
BADC
4)
BCAD
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responsible for what might be said over its lines, or a medium like a television network or a magazine, which can be sued for anything
spoken or written, even a letter to the editor.
A. But even so, the Yahoo! case and others like it raise another question: Whose laws should apply to the Net?
B. The answer is that the Internet is both, though even the European e-commerce directive limits the liabilities of companies that act as
conduits.
C. It seems to me that the French have a perfect right to regulate French sites but not American sites.
D. Those of the most retrograde and restrictive countries, or the most open?
6. But is there really a distinction?
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Explanation:
B explains the issue talked about in 1 and hence must be the opening statement. This is followed by A which poses another question. D
continues the same line of thought as in A. C links to 6, which asks if the distinction stated in C is really valid. Thus, we get BADC. Hence,
[3].
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Question: 62
The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
Eliot's idea of tradition is directly linked up with his impersonal theory of art, as he insists on the poet's duty to transcend the private self by
loyalty to the tradition of European literature as a whole. He has expressed his views on the impersonality of poetry and the poetic process
in his essay "Tradition and the Individual Talent" (1919). He says that poetry is not the expression of the personality of the poet. Revolting
against the romantic theory of poetry as the expression of self, Eliot propounds a theory of poetry which views poetic process not as an
externalization of personal feelings, but as a complete surrender of personality. He insists on viewing the whole of European literature as a
continuity, where each work of the present modifies the past works and is in turn modified by them. Eliot's views on the nature of the
poetic process are also noteworthy. Poetry, according to him, is not inspiration, it is an organization. A great number of varied feelings,
emotions and experiences are stored up in the mind of the poet who amalgamates them and forms a new whole out of them. The poetic
process, therefore, is that of organization, of fusing different experiences and feelings into a new whole. Perfect poetry can be produced
only when there is "unification of sensibility". The greatness of a poem does not depend on the type of pleasure it gives, or the quality of
moral improvement it effects, but on the order and unity it imposes on the chaotic and disparate experiences of the poet. A good poem
must give the impression of a perfect organization of experiences.
Eliot elucidates his impersonal theory by examining, first, the relation of the poet to the past, and secondly, the relation of the poem to its
author. The past, Eliot says, is never dead; it lives in the present. "No poet, no artist of any sort, has his complete meaning alone. His
significance, his appreciation, is the appreciation of his relation to the dead poets and artists. You cannot value him alone; you must set
him, for contrast and comparison, among the dead." Eliot insists on the importance of the relation of the poem to other poems by other
authors, and suggests the conception of poetry as a living whole of all the poetry that has ever been written.
The artistic process, according to Eliot, is a process of depersonalization, the artist's continual surrender of himself as he is at the moment
to something which is more valuable. He must surrender himself totally to the creative work. "The progress of an artist is a continual selfsacrifice, a continual extinction of personality." Eliot also points out the relation of the poem to its author; the poem, according to him, has
no relation to the poet. The difference between the mind of a mature poet and that of an immature one is that the mind of a mature poet is
"a more finely perfected medium in which special, or very varied, feelings are at liberty to enter into new combinations".
Emotions and feelings are the elements which, entering the presence of the poet's mind, which acts as a catalyst, go into the making of a
work of art. The final effect produced by a work of art may be formed out of several emotions into one; it may be formed out of a single
emotion or out of the feeling evoked in the poet by various words and images. It is also possible that it may be composed of feelings
alone, without using any emotion. Thus, "the poet's mind is a receptacle for seizing and storing up numberless feelings, phrases, images,
which remain there until all the particles which can unite to form a new compound are present together."
What does Eliot mean by the term "unification of sensibility"?
1)
A joining together of ideas with the emotions and experiences of the poet
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2)
An amalgamation of influences on European literature
3)
An organized presentation of chaotic and disparate experiences of the poet
4)
A unified record of the poet's perceptions dipped in tradition
Question: 63
What does the romantic theory of poetry advocate?
Poetry should follow the poet's own imagination and his individualism.
2)
Poetry is a process of the artist's continual surrender of himself to the art form.
3)
Poetry is expression of the poet's own experiences in terms of the established rules of literature.
4)
Poetry, as an art form, has no relation to the poet.
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Explanation:
Refer to paragraph 1. According to Eliot, a good poem is the perfect organization of the many diverse experiences and emotions that enter
into the poet's mind. It is not just a joining together of ideas on life or the poet's perceptions, but the organization of the chaos. Thus,
options [1] and [4] are incorrect. Option [2] does not answer the question at all. Hence, [3].
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Explanation:
Paragraph 1 states that the romantic theory of poetry propounds that poetry is an expression of the poet's own self. Therefore, the poet's
own perceptions and his individualism are of utmost importance. Option [2] advocates Eliot's point of view regarding the poet and the
poem. Option [3] is not mentioned in the passage. Option [4] contradicts romantic theory as it is stated in the passage. Hence, [1].
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Question: 64
What is Eliot's view on the past works of European literature?
The past works of European literature have hardly any influence in the present day.
2)
European literature is a dynamic entity where every present work has its influence on the past works and is simultaneously
modified by them.
3)
The past works of European literature have only modified the thought process of the poets of the present day.
4)
All the past works of European literature advocate the individualism of poets.
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Explanation:
Eliot says that the past makes its presence felt through the works that come after it. Thus, option [1] can be ruled out. [3] highlights only
one aspect that of the past influencing the present and not the other way round. [4] is not mentioned anywhere. Hence, [2].
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Question: 65
What could be the source of this passage?
An article on the literary works of Eliot
2)
A biography of Eliot
3)
1)
4)
An essay on an analysis of Eliot's theory of poetry vis-a-vis the romantic theory of poetry
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An essay on Eliot's theory of the impersonality of poetry
Explanation:
This passage does not dwell at all on the literary works of Eliot nor on the factual details about his life. So, [1] and [2] can be safely ruled
out. Only paragraph [1] makes a passing reference to the romantic theory of poetry. So [4] is out. In fact, the whole passage is about
Eliot's theory of the impersonality of poetry. Hence, [3].
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Question: 66
The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one
that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
All this stuff enough to form 50 billion galaxies, maybe fantastically more is thought to have emerged roughly 14 billion years ago in
less than a second, from a point with no physical dimensions. Set aside the many competing explanations of the big bang; something
made an entire cosmos out of nothing. Initially, scientists found the big bang's miraculous implications off-putting. When, in 1927, Catholic
abb and astronomer Georges Lematre first hypothesized that existence began with the detonation of a 'primordial atom' of infinite density,
the idea was ridiculed as a transparent ploy to place Genesis on technical grounding. But Lematre enclosed a testable prediction that if
there had been a bang, the galaxies would be rushing away from one another.
This idea, too, was ridiculed, until Edwin Hubble stunned the scientific world by presenting evidence of cosmic expansion.
2)
But even this failed.
3)
The big bang was accepted by all scientists.
4)
On the other hand, it is difficult to say what path the galaxies would have taken if there had been no bang.
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Explanation:
[2] is too vague to follow from a very specific point made in the last line of the paragraph. The passage talks about Lematre's big bang
theory, and its indications, but not of what the indications would be if the theory were false. The acceptance of the big bang theory by
other scientists, as given in [3], does not flow logically from the last few lines, which imply that Lematre was not believed. This point is
included in option [1], which takes it further by showing how Lematre's theory was vindicated. Hence, [1].
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Question: 67
A part of the following sentence has been underlined. Four different ways of phrasing the underlined part have been indicated.
Choose the best alternative from among the four.
There is substantial evidence that certain forms of environmentally friendly energy resources will either now or within a few years will be
economically competitive with conventional sources of energy.
will either now or within a few years will be economically competitive with conventional sources of heat and power.
2)
will either be economically competitive with conventional sources of heat and power now or will be so within a few years.
3)
will be economically competitive with conventional sources of heat and power either now or within a few years.
4)
now either will be economically competitive with conventional sources of heat and power or will be so within a few years.
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Explanation:
Option [1] is wrong because the word 'will' is unnecessarily repeated. In options [2] and [4], the expression 'either now or within a few
years' has been unnecessarily and wrongfully split, resulting in awkward and verbose constructions. Therefore only [3] is fully
grammatically correct. Hence, [3].
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Question: 68
A part of the following sentence has been underlined. Four different ways of phrasing the underlined part have been indicated.
Choose the best alternative from among the four.
Tired of being pushed around like cornered mice, the middle class consumer is finally organizing themselves into small resistance groups
against arbitrary hikes in charges, blackouts, the monopolistic arrogance of cable operators and their determined refusal to produce
receipts.
the middle class consumer is finally organizing themselves into small resistance groups against arbitrary hikes in charges,
blackouts, the monopolistic arrogance of cable operators and their determined refusal to produce receipts.
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1)
2)
3)
the middle class consumers are finally organizing themselves into small resistance groups against arbitrary hikes in
charges, blackouts, the monopolistic arrogance of cable operators and their determined refusal to produce receipts.
the middle class consumers are finally organizing themselves into small resistance groups against arbitrary hikes in
charges, against blackouts, the monopolistic arrogance of cable operators and against their determined refusal to produce
receipts.
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4)
the middle class consumer is finally organizing himself into small resistance groups so that he may protest against arbitrary
hikes in charges, blackouts, the monopolistic arrogance of cable operators and their determined refusal to produce receipts.
Explanation:
The error is that of plural markers. The sentence begins with plural word 'mice'; therefore it collectively refers to 'consumers'. So [1] and [4]
are wrong. [3] has a parallel construction error the word 'against' should be placed before all the parallel phrases in the sentence, i.e.,
including 'the monopolistic arrogance of cable operators', or just before the first one. Therefore only [2] is grammatically correct. Hence,
[2].
1)
when the man is convinced that death is blissful.
2)
that by taking his own life he is not making others bereaved.
3)
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Question: 69
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow.
How often must we judge? As the best government is still that which governs least, so the best morality is that which forbids least;
freedom of life is so great a boon that those who wish to make morals for their neighbours are rightly considered enemies of the human
race. We have seen how precarious every moral judgement is; how the "immoral" may be only a grouping transition between one code of
morals and another. Above all, this abstemiousness in moral judgement is "indicated" in the treatment of men and women who are
afflicted with genius; such persons are set aside by nature, so to speak, to experiment with new ways of action, feeling and thought; and to
subject them to our normal and necessary "herd-morality" is to frustrate the very purpose of their coming. We need not be much more
severe with them than Pope Paul III, who, when advised to imprison Cellini for various acts of homicidal enthusiasm, replied: "You should
know that men like Cellini, unique in their profession, stand above the law." Let us extend to our geniuses something of the leniency which
we offer to our millionaries.
We have arrived deviously at a most respectable and ancient conclusion, that the test of morality is community good. But our biological
approach must not deceive us into supposing that our instincts here conform with reason. Nature knows no community and no morality
except those of the hive, the family and the hunting pack. Bacon, Darwin and Kropotkin were optimistic in believing that the social instincts
are stronger than the instincts of self; it may be so within the family, where self-sacrifice is natural and needs no other external stimulus
than love or praise; but outside that little realm, the individualistic impulses are in the saddle as he who runs may see, and heroism is
heroic precisely because it is so rare. Hence, the vast mechanism which society evolves for the reinforcement of the social impulses by
religion, education, editorials and statues in the streets. We are not even the most social of species; we stand mid-way between the
individualism of the jungle and the co-operation of the ants; and the best we can say is that the social instincts which seem to be more
recent in origin than those of competition and acquisition, and have been temporarily weakened by the decay of religion and the family
are being slowly strengthened by the growing survival value of co-operation. Perhaps, in some distant day, those who hunger and thirst
for individual possessions and power will be weeded out by those who have learnt to work in harmony and justice with their fellow men.
We shall be elsewhere then.
If the conservative is too well pleased with this formulation of the moral principle, let him consider some of its implications. Nothing is
immoral unless it injures one's fellows: therefore, under certain circumstances, suicide is sinless. If a man is convinced that death is a
boon, if he has fulfilled his obligations to the race, and leaves no living soul dependent or bereaved, his life is his own to do with what he
wills. Again, if instinct or pleasure calls us, we shall not be wrong in following it, provided that no fellow-being is thereby harmed, and we
ourselves suffer no hurt, of body or mind, to the detriment of the race. "Sin" ceases to have meaning except where the good of the whole
is involved.
The author would consider suicide "sinless"? under all the following conditions EXCEPT:
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when he has dependents.
4)
when he has fulfilled all his obligations to society.
Explanation:
Refer to the last paragraph. When the person concerned has dependants, he has responsibilities towards them. Therefore, [3] is not true.
Hence, [3].
Question: 70
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According to the passage, all of the following are false EXCEPT:
1)
Ordinary laws should not be made applicable to a genius.
2)
Morality should not forbid anything.
3)
"Our millionaries" should be readily forgiven.
4)
One should do everything to satisfy one's instinct.
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Explanation:
Refer to the first paragraph. [1] is supported by the author. [2] and [3] can be negated on the basis of the author's viewpoint in paragraphs
1 and 2 and the last paragraph helps us negate [4]. Hence, [1].
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Question: 71
With which of the statements would the author most likely agree?
Co-operation among men will grow because of its survival value.
2)
Pope Paul III was severe with Cellini.
3)
The only thing that is common to editorials and statues is an effort to moralize.
4)
The concept of sin is relevant only to our private lives.
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Explanation:
Options [2] and [3] are incorrect as per paragraphs 1 and 2 respectively. [4] contradicts the last line. But refer to paragraph 2: '... the best
we can say ... value of co-operation'. Hence, [1].
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Question: 72
Which of the following statements would be most supported by the author?
Self-sacrifice is naturally ingrained in human beings for their social co-existence.
2)
Human beings are the most social among all the animal species on earth.
3)
A morality code for all its members is important for maintaining the peaceful society.
4)
An amiable person should be more respected in society than a person who runs after money and power.
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Explanation:
The 2ndparagraph mentions facts contrary to options [1] and [2]. In the entire passage the author puts forth arguments against [3]. The last
two lines of paragraph 2 supports [4]. Hence, [4].
at least as much time, if not more; sturdily constructed and well stocked
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Question: 73
The sentence below has two blank spaces.Choose the sets of words which, when inserted in the sentence, best fit in with the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Successful mountain climbers know that they must spend ____ in tending to their base camps as they actually do in climbing mountains,
for their survival is dependent upon their seeing to it that their base camp is ____.
2)
as much time; well-crafted and immaculate
3)
at least some time; tight and secure
4)
a lot of time; accessible
Explanation:
Options [3] and [4] do not fit the first blank grammatically, because they do not include 'as'. Between [1] and [2], [1] is a better answer, as it
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is not clear how an 'immaculate' camp is necessary for survival. Hence, [1].
1)
impossible job; really dull task
2)
everlasting problem; genuinely uphill task
3)
ingenious attempt; eternal problem
4)
extraordinary task; chronic and never-ending burden
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Question: 74
The sentence below has two blank spaces.Choose the sets of words which, when inserted in the sentence, best fit in with the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
All this might seem like an ____ , impossible to ever perfectly complete, a ____.
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Explanation:
Option [3] can be negated immediately, as the word 'eternal' for the second blank would take the article 'an', not 'a'. [1] is not suitable as
the word 'impossible' is unnecessarily repeated. In [4], the phrase 'extraordinary task' is inadequate to describe something that is a
'chronic and never-ending burden'. Only [2] is fully correct on all counts. Hence, [2].
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3)
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Question: 75
A word is followed by four sentences showing the different usages of the word. Mark the sentence that uses the word
incorrectly.
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Explanation:
The correct phrase in [1] should be 'in the prime of her life', which means the time in one's life when one is strongest or most successful. In
option [2], 'prime' means most important. In options [3] and [4], it means of the best quality. Hence, [1].
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Question: 76
When Adidas-Salomon reported its second-quarter results last week, the German maker of sports shoes and apparel exceeded most
analysts' predictions. Sales increased by 10% in the quarter to $1.25 billion, while profits were up by 22%. So why was Herbert Hainer,
who took over as CEO of the Bavarian company in March, not entirely a happy camper? The answer lies in the U.S. market, the world's
largest for sporting goods, where sales fell about 13% in dollar terms. "Even in the tough environment in the U.S., there are winners and
losers," says Hainer, "and we want to be a winner."
In the U.S. race, the clear No.1 is Nike, with a 37% market share. To break out of the pack (Adidas, Reebok and New Balance each have
a 11% share), Hainer has installed Ross McMullin, a former executive at razor maker Gillette, as head of U.S. operations. Adidas has a
raft of innovative new shoes coming out this autumn. It is also focusing sales on more upmarket stores than in previous years, when it
depended on mass-market, high-volume sellers. "The North American market is slowly beginning to turn for us," Hainer says. He predicts
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the company's U.S. market share will jump to 20% in three years.
It was just three years ago that Adidas limped along with only a 5% share. "Adidas was not seen as cool," concedes Hainer, "design was
not up to speed and not up to the competition." One painful result: the company's stock price, which reached $143 in 1997, plummeted to
$47 last year. The stock has since bounced back to $66, near its 52-week high, but success is never guaranteed when it depends on
fickle urban American teenagers to set the trends.
Adidas remains strongest in Europe, where it gets more than half its annual sales. It is a sponsor of the soccer World Cup, is endorsed by
Swiss Tennis star Martina Hingis and has a long-term relationship with its customers in other sports like track and field. While sales in
Europe were up by 8% in the first half of this year, the strong dollar was a problem the company buys its products in Asia for dollars, but
gets back weaker euros in sales.
The company is counting on new products to sustain a 3-5% annual growth rate. In November, Adidas will introduce a new basketball
shoe named after Los Angeles Lakers' star Kobe Bryant. It is also reissuing some successful designs from the past in its "Originals"
collection. In New York City, there is so much buzz about the Adidas Italia that Barney's, the trendy Manhattan emporium, already has a
waiting list. Next year, two entirely new models are set to debut: the Climacool and the a3 (pronounced A-cubed), embodying the first
technical innovations from the company in four years. Adidas claims Climacool can reduce foot sweat by 20%, while the a3 is designed to
offer runners not only a smooth ride but also an extra push.
Hainer is predicting Climacool sales at 500,000 the first year, with 1 million in 2003. With that kind of growth for top-of-the-market, $125
shoes, Hainer may finally become a happy man. With happy feet.
According to Hainer the turnaround in sales will be largely due to the fact that:
the U.S. is bound to come out of recession this year.
2)
sales will refocus more on an up-market clientele this year.
3)
the company is about to launch a whole range of innovative products.
4)
Adidas has shifted its production houses to low-cost countries in Asia.
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Explanation:
Paragraph 2 states that Hainer feels that the turnaround in sales will be for two reasons Adidas's focus on an up-market clientele and
the company's decision to launch new, innovative products. We cannot tell whether it used to focus on an up-market clientele earlier, so
[2] is wrong. The change in the production houses is a reason for Adidas's changing fortunes, but this is not mentioned by Hainer. Hence,
[3].
All of the above
2)
II and III
3)
Only II
4)
Only I
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Question: 77
Which of the following is true on the basis of this passage?
I. Sales in European markets are not as profitable as sales in Ameircan markets would have been.
II. The spurt in the fortunes of Adidas is exclusively related to the whims and fancies of the American teenage market.
III. Annual growth rates can be sustained only if Adidas introduces a new range of shoes.
IM
Explanation:
II and III are too categorical and exclusive to be true, whereas I can be inferred from the last sentence of paragraph 4. Hence, [4].
Question: 78
A good title for this passage would be:
1)
Taking on the American Market: Adidas Inches Past Nike
2)
Hot on Nike's Heels: Adidas
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3)
Adidas Loses Ground to Nike
4)
Adidas says: "We Will Just Do It!"
Question: 79
The author of this passage could be:
an employee of Adidas writing the company's annual report.
2)
a stock market analyst.
3)
a journalist writing for a financial magazine.
4)
a fashion writer discussing Adidas's new range of shoes.
Li
m
1)
ite
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Explanation:
The author's main point is that, spurred on by a strong comeback, Adidas is determined to close in on the industry leader Nike. It has not
overtaken Nike yet, so [1] is wrong. [3] is too negative, while [4] is too vague. Hence, [2].
iv
at
e
Explanation:
The passage focusses on the finances of Adidas, not on its shoe designs, so [4] is unlikely. The passage is clearly written by an objective
outsider, not an Adidas employee. Between [2] and [3], [3] is a better choice as the writing is in the form of a news report. Hence, [3].
BAEDC
3)
BCDEA
4)
BEDCA
2)
ng
BDCEA
ni
1)
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Question: 80
Sentences given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter.
Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. Fields as dissimilar as biology and astronomy demanded whole catalogues of new photographs to record and classify a rapidly
expanding body of knowledge.
B. In addition to recording the construction of railroads, ships, buildings and bridges, photography proved useful to medicine and the
fledgling social sciences, such as psychology and criminology.
C. Photographers recorded the features of criminals, not only as a means of identification, but also in an effort to identify physical
characteristics that criminologists then believed might correspond with criminal behaviour.
D. Psychologists studied photographs of mental patients in an attempt to visually discern their disorders.
E. Doctors wanted before-and-after pictures of wounded Civil War soldiers to study the effects of amputation and invasive surgery.
Le
ar
Explanation:
Only B is possible as an opening sentence. Logically, it should be followed by E as 'medicine' is mentioned first, followed by D
(Psychology) and C ('Criminology'). Thus, we have BEDCA. Hence, [4].
IM
Question: 81
Sentences given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter.
Choose the most logical order of sentences, from among the four given choices, to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. Anyone of these may happen to lead us to true beliefs, but is more likely to lead us in the opposite direction.
B. A man imbued with the philosophic spirit will wish his beliefs to be as true as he can make them, and will in equal measure, love to
know and hate to be in error.
C. Our beliefs spring from a great variety of causes: what we were told in youth by parents and school teachers; what powerful
organisations tell us in order to make us act as theywish.
D. Intellectual sobriety, therefore, will lead us to scrutinise our beliefs closely, with the view to discovering which of them there is any
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reason to believe true.

E. This principle has a wider scope than may be apparent at first sight.
1)
BECAD
2)
CDEBA
3)
BCEAD
4)
CADBE
Li
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ite
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Explanation:
Both statements B and C could be potential opening statements for the given sequence. One will notice the BE link. B introduces the
principle, while E tells us how the principle has a wider scope. Thus we can negate options [2] and [3]. The BE link is further elaborated
by C. Anyone of these in A refers to the causes mentioned earlier in C. D concludes the sequence by telling us how to arrive at our true
beliefs. Option [4] incorrectly places the CAD link before the BE link. Hence, [1].
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Question: 82
The only society that can be thought of as purely secular is that of the Roman Empire, unless so far as Hellenistic Greeks had already
come to the same principle. In other societies there either was not a subjective or self-consciousness which was to itself the unity of its
technical, practical, and theoretical relations to nature or this human independence was itself taken into a religious attitude. The rational
individuality or personality, which was the principle of this society, is a radical separation of humans from the passivity and dependence of
an immediate unity with nature. It carries to its extreme consequence the freedom of Hebraic and Hellenic society, which regard nature as
derivative, dependent and ordered by divine subjectivity. This freedom and unity of ends is seen as belonging also to human activity. The
harsh discipline of the Republic, the subordination in the words of a Roman of all other vices to the lust for state power, provoked in
reaction an individuality which related to itself the whole extent of private interests the equivalent in those conditions of a liberal reaction
to puritanical suppression.
The old Roman religion which saw as divine what could give effect to particular human ends and especially the advancement of the
Republic, can remain only so far as this society is not fully conscious of its principle. For this principle may be looked at positively in the
manner of the Stoics as giving a universal end to which all particular ends can be related. In this case the old gods can be represented as
powers within a universal teleology. But equally it has the negative or Epicurean form in which individuals have set themselves apart from
all natural or limited involvements. For that view, if there be gods, they cannot be less than such self-related individuals and are therefore
not the gods of popular religion who promote human desires, ambitions or collective love of power.
The complete form of the principle is however the scepticism for which there stands on the one side a plurality of endlessly open and
incomplete relations to the world, on the other a detached rational subjectivity without content. Between the two no logical bond can be
found. The world of the ancient sceptic is in general the same as that of modern empiricism, so far as this has purged itself of extraneous
elements with equal vigour. But the modern liberal or socialist is moved altogether differently than the ancient sceptic. His open, pluralistic
world is a field for always more specialised research, for ever closer technical and practical control. To the ancients this response is
unthinkable: progressive research and more obviously technocratic control suppose a unity of ends not, as with personality, altogether
abstract but able to penetrate the multiple and divided interests.
The Romans did indeed discover a science by which a certain regulation of all interests and activities was possible. Roman law or abstract
right determines the rights of persons in relation to property and to one another. It appears therefore to be beyond the sceptical division of
persons from the uncertain world of particular interests. But it is rather the authentic scepticism which can deal with the puzzle whether the
sceptic can know that he cannot know. For by imposing a uniformity and objectivity on property and personal relations, it brings to light
that rights only attach in an unstable and contradictory way to persons as atomic individuals, that personality is rather that in which
individuals are one and universal.
It is only if one supposes that this reduction of atomic individuality to universal self-consciousness has somehow been completed that
liberal or socialist societies are in any way comprehensible. For they are not founded on race or any other natural bond but on the equality
of their members, that is on rationality in which alone they are equal. But neither do they stay with the abstract independence of individuals
and their indifference to common social interests. One has instead societies whose members are thought to carry out a common work
through their various and divided occupations, in general or to a tolerable degree to satisfy their special interests and at the same time to
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act morally or in view of their common rationality.

Pick out the true statement from your reading of the passage.
The Roman Empire was not without gods, in that there were old gods who can be represented as powers within a universal
teleology.
2)
Individuality arose in the Roman Empire in the form of a liberal reaction to puritanical suppression.
3)
The freedom and unity of ends with respect to nature extended to human activity so that the Romans did not possess a
system of gods.
4)
The Roman system involved the passivity and dependence of an immediate unity with nature.
ite
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1)
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Li
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Explanation:
[1] is false because the statement is a modern reasoning of the old Roman religion, not a representation of how matters stood in the
Roman empire. [2] is false since this is the authors analogy and represents a likeness, not a fact. [4] contradicts what is stated in the
passage as this sentence shows, The rational individuality ... unity with nature. The Romans did not have Gods but powers and that
which could give effect to particular human ends, especially the advancement of the republic was considered as divine by them. Hence,
[3].
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Question: 83
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How would the Roman gods of the Empire differ from the Gods of popular religion?
They would represent the subordination of all other vices to the lust for state power.
2)
They would be modified to proclaim a universal end to which all particular ends can berelated.
3)
They would be modelled on the individuals who have set themselves apart from all natural or limited involvements and are
self-related.
4)
They would indirectly promote human desires, ambitions or collective love of power.
ite
d
1)
iv
at
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Li
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Explanation:
The people of the Roman Empire did not believe in their dependence on nature. They believed in their independence and a divine power
which helped them reach their human ends, especially the advancement of the Republic. Option [1] is incorrect because it does not
answer the question. The plurality ... world in paragraph 3 negates what is stated in option [2]. It is not stated in the passage whether the
Roman Gods would promote human desires ... power or not. This is only said about popular Gods. Hence, [3].
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Question: 84
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How do the modern and ancient sceptic differ?
They have purged themselves of extraneous elements with equal vigour.
2)
The modern sceptic follows the authentic scepticism and can hence deal with more complexpuzzles unlike the ancient
sceptics.
3)
The ancient sceptics discovered a science by which a certain regulation of all interests and activities was possible but the
moderns regulated their society on the basis of equality.
4)
The modern sceptic takes for granted a unity of ends, which is alien to the thinking of the ancient sceptic.
Li
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ite
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1)
Pr
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Explanation:
To the ancient sceptic, the relations to the world were pluralistic and open-ended. The moderns however, believed in a unity of ends. The
question is asking the reader to differentiate between the two. Option [1] provides a similarity. Hence, option [1] can be negated. Option [2]
is not mentioned in the passage. Hence, [2] can be negated. The moderns regulated their society on the basis of equality of members.
This isnt given in the passage. Hence, [3] can be negated. Option [4] explains the difference between the two types of sceptics very
succintly. Hence, [4].
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Question: 85
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ite
d
Why does the achievement of universal self-consciousness and reduction of atomic individuality become necessary to understand liberal
or socialist societies?
Universal self-consciousness implies that the processes of such societies are not founded on race or any other natural
bond but on the equality of their members.
2)
With the decline of atomic individuality and the rise of universal self-consciousness, came the necessary, concurrent
rationality which is the base of such societies.
3)
Individuals in this society show such influences since they carry out a common work while satisfying their own special
interests, with an eye to being both moral and rational.
4)
Individuals in liberal or socialist societies do not stay with the abstract independence of individuals and their indifference to
common social interests.
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1)
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Explanation:
The liberal or socialist societies focus on the society as well as the individual. Thus, the individual works for himself/herself and the society
too. Option [1] does not explain how the reduction of atomic individually is important to understand liberal or socialist societies. Hence, it
can be negated. Option [2] is not stated in the passage. Hence, it can be negated. Option [4] is an incomplete argument. It is moving
towards the idea mentioned in option [3]. Since, it is not mentioned, option [4] can be negated. Option [3] fulfills both the conditions.
Hence, [3].
ABCD
2)
DBAC
3)
CDAB
4)
CADB
Le
1)
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Question: 86
Sentences given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. The first and the last sentences are 1
and 6 and the four in between are labelled with a letter each. Choose the most logical order of sentences, from among the four
given choices, to construct a coherent paragraph.
1. Make your friends instantly jealous or bored with your vacation snaps while you give them a call on your mobile phone.
A. The J-SH04 allows users to transmit colour photos to other mobiles as e-mail attachments.
B. The phones screen is able to display stored images and even show the picture of a friend when they call you.
C. This month, Japanese communications firm J-phone will release the first mobile phone with a built-in digital camera.
D. Images can also be instantly printed using a Sharp colour mobile printer.
6. Your boss could soon ask you to prove it the next time you say that you are sick.
IM
Explanation:
The set starts off with C with an introduction to the company J-phone. Moving on, the phone is named in A as J-SH04. Thus, the CA link
takes us directly to option [4]. Hence, [4].
Question: 87
In each paragraph, one sentence is missing. Beneath it, four sentences are given. Choose the sentence that fits in the best.
To many of them, recovery means the phenomenal growth rates of the early 1990s. Yet such growth will be much harder to come by than
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it was in the past, when the region could expand easily by throwing more people, money and trees at its problems. For all their
advantages and they still have many Asias economies are more developed now than they were a decade ago. They will retain the
advantages of youth for many years yet.____________________ .
Which is why the news from Asia is so discouraging, even as its economies perk up.
2)
But growth will depend less on deploying more people and capital, and more on something rather harder raising
productivity.
3)
If Asias governments fail to deliver on their promised reforms, they will fail to lay the groundwork for the more efficient use
of capital and faster growth in productivity.
4)
But it does mean that the regions leaders should distinguish the impact of the business cycle from Asias imposing
collection of structural challenges.
ite
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1)
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Li
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Explanation:
Options [1] and [3] are ruled out as the penultimate sentence talks about Asian economies retaining their advantages for some time to
come. Option [4] is incorrect since it does not carry forward the concept of growth as emphasised in the paragraph, whereas option [2]
does this clearly. Option [2] clearly talks of the increasing importance of raising productivity to increase growth in the future scenario.
Hence, [2].
Pr
Question: 88
___________. Can I doubt, he says, that I am sitting here by the fire, in a dressing gown? Yes, for sometimes I have dreamt that I was
here when in fact I was naked in bed.
Descartes begins with the scepticism in regard to the senses.
2)
Descartes discards the authoritarian system of the scholastic and begins with universal doubt.
3)
Descartes says there is one thing that cannot be doubted and that is doubt itself.
4)
Descartes begins by saying I think, therefore I am.
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Explanation:
The passage begins with the narrator expressing doubt about his sense of knowing that he was sitting by the fire, in a dressing gown?
Options [2] and [3] make a general statement on Descartes philosophy. Option [2] talks about universal doubt but the passage is talking
about a more specific doubt, i.e. with regard to the senses. Options [3] and [4] do not talk about doubt with regard to the senses. Only
option [1] fits the bill. Hence, [1].
However, Aristotle had already published a work that refuted his logic.
2)
But he kept on finding evidence that Aristotles doctrine of the syllogism was wrong on some points.
3)
He failed to do so as the memory of Aristotles teaching forbade it.
4)
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1)
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Question: 89
Leibniz did work on mathematical logic which would have been enormously important if he had published it. ______________. Respect for
Aristotle made it impossible for him to believe this, so he mistakenly supposed that the errors must be his own.
IM
He abstained from publishing because he felt that his works depended substantially on Aristotles erroneous philosophy.
Explanation:
Leibniz apparently refused to admit that Aristotle might be wrong. Option [1] changes the argument into a case of refutation of logic
instead of an error, as mentioned in the third sentence. Option [3] does not fit in with the logic of the passage. Option [4] contradicts the
idea of the passage. The passage clearly states that respect for Aristotle was the reason he refrained from publishing and not because
his works depended substantially on Aristotles erroneous philosophy. Respect for Aristotle made it impossible for him to believe this
implies something must have happened to warrant this. Only option [2] speaks of an incident, But he kept finding evidence that Aristotles
doctrine of syllogism Hence, [2].
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Only A
2)
Only B
3)
A and C
4)
A and B
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Question: 90
In each question, there are sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar
and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.
A. The average smartphone today has as much processing power than a supercomputer in the 1970s had.
B. Its enough to act as the hub of a streaming home-audio network, serve as a mobile medical lab, or even run a robot.
C. So now, instead of building robots from scratch, companies can construct models around smartphones.
D. In the past, developing the central processing software to get a robot to do even a simple task cost tens of thousands of dollars.
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Explanation:
In A, than is incorrect. As much processing power as a supercomputer... will be correct. There is a pronoun error in sentence B. Its,
which is the contraction of it is should be used. Hence, [4].
A and B
3)
Only D
4)
All of these
rc
2)
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A and D
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Question: 91
A. We arrived at Baroda on the evening of February 21.
B. Within five days I would be flying home, broken and in bits.
C. From the moment I woke the following morning, I began to go downhill rapidly.
D. I managed to get through practice but I was becoming increasingly detatched from what was happening around me.
ng
Explanation:
In sentence A, the preposition at is wrong; the correct preposition should be in. In sentence D, the word detached has been spelt
incorrectly. Hence, [1].
Only A
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Question: 92
A. Fruits and vegetables grown in garden plots provide the main source of food in a horticultural society.
B. These societies have a level of technology and complexity similar to pastoral societies.
C. Some horticultural groups use the slash-and-burn method to raise crops.
D. When the land becomes barren, horticulturists clear a new plot and leave the old plot to revert back to its natural state.
2)
Only D
3)
Only C
4)
None of the options are correct
Explanation:
In B, there is an incorrect comparison. The level of technology and complexity of a horticultural society must be compared to the level of
technology and complexity of a pastoral society. Thus, the sentence must read ...similar to that of pastoral societies. D contains a
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pleonasm: revert should not be followed by back as revert means to go back or return. As no option identifies B and D as being
incorrect, [4] will be the answer. Hence, [4].
turned down passive
2)
refused baritone
3)
declined defining
4)
rejected sombre
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Question: 93
In each sentence, parts are left blank and four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the words for
each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Although he refused to be a poet laureate just as he _______ most other official honours, Joseph Rudyard Kipling remains a ________
voice of British imperialism.
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Explanation:
The although in the beginning of the sentence keeps us from marking [1] or [4] as the answer the tone of the sentence suggests that
despite his refusing many awards he was a personality to reckon with. Thus [1] and [4] can be eliminated. Baritone voice is associated
with a male singer, and since the sentence does not throw up any pointers to the fact that Kipling was a singer, [2] can be safely
eliminated. Decline is to gently refuse and goes with the tone of the sentence, while defining voice implies a significant voice. Hence, [3].
2)
open ghost
3)
resurrect silhouette
4)
re-open shadow
ou
open spectre
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1)
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Question: 94
In each sentence, parts are left blank and four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the words for
each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Imagine your favourite music store is about to _________ after months of legal trouble and you go in to find it a _______ of its former self.
ng
Explanation:
Read the sentence with the blanks carefully. Its former self should give you the clue that it had been functioning earlier, thus open which
implies opening for the first time, does not fit in. Resurrect is too strong a term to be used with the opening of a music store. However
re-open implies that it is opening for a second time. Again shadow fits the second blank because the idiom, shadow of its former self,
implies that it has become a weak or insubstantial remnant. Hence, [4].
1)
Le
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Question: 95
The question below consists of four sentences. Some sentence/s is/are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Select the
option that indicates the grammatically correct and appropriate sentence/s.
A. He was confident that his order would be satisfied.
B. He led a life of virtue.
C. I felt it would presume on our relationship to keep asking her for money.
D. Our relay team managed to scrape into the semi finals.
2)
B and D
3)
C only
4)
A, B, C & D
IM
B only
Explanation:
A persons order, command, request, or directions can be obeyed, followed, or completed, but not satisfied. Thus, A is incorrect. Virtue
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in B means attitude that shows high moral standards. Thus B is correct. Pressume on/upon something means to make use of
somebodys friendship by asking them for more than you should. The tense should be in present continuous be presuming on. Thus C
is incorrect. Scrape into means to manage, but with difficulty. Thus D is correct. Hence, [2].
1)
2)
3)
4)
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Question: 96
Five friends Amit, Badal, Carl, David, and Eshan are contesting for the top 3 positions in state level swimming competitions. They
contested for 3 competitions S1, S2 and S3 of different distances. The following are some facts about the competition:
Amit finished just after David on track S1.
Carl finished just before David on track S2 and finished in the top 2 positions at least once.
Eshan and Badal finished only twice in the top two positions.
Badal finished at extreme positions in S1 and S2.
All contestants have the same ranking on track S3 as on track S2.
Eshan could not finish on the first position on track S1.
No one finished at the same place in all 3 races i.e S1, S2 and S3
How many contestants finished in the top three positions in more than one competition?
IM
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Explanation:
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Question: 97
In each sentence, parts are left blank and four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the words for each blank
that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
No one finished at the same place in all 3 races i.e S1, S2 and S3.
Points awarded for positions 1 to 5 in S1, S2 and S3 are 12, 10, 7, 4 and 1 respectively. If contestants are ranked according to the total
points in all competitions, then who among the following will be ranked first? (Total points = sum of points scored in S1, S2 and S3)
1)
David
2)
Carl
3)
Badal
4)
Eshan
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Explanation:
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Question: 98
No one finished at the same place in all 3 races i.e S1, S2 and S3.
Consider a fourth competition S4 in which points are awarded to positions as in previous question and final ranking is based on the total
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points for S1, S2, S3 and S4. If only three contestants have scored total points more than 30, then in how many different ways scoring is
possible in S4 ?
1)
2)
12
3)
4)
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Explanation:
Question: 99
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Which of the following statement about student A is true?

Student A gets a final admit call.
2)
Student A does not get a final admit call.
3)
Student A may or may not get a final admit call.
4)
Student A would get selected if he could travel by the Bangalore-Lucknow flight.
es
ou
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1)
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Explanation:
Since, the students who got a final admit call did not travel by the Bangalore-Lucknow flight, we can infer that B did not get a final admit
call.
Also, as A and B have to travel by the same flight (Lucknow-Indore). We can conclude that A gets a final admit call.
Again, A and E travel by the same flight (Ahmedabad-Kolkata), hence E does not get a final admit call.
B and C travel by the same flight (Ahmedabad-Bangalore), hence C has got a final admit call. Finally, C and D have travelled by the same
flight (Bangalore-Kolkata), hence D does not get a final admit call.
Thus, we can conclude that A and C get a final admit call while B, D and E do not get a final admit call.
Hence -[1]
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Question: 100
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2)
B and D do not get a final admit call.
3)
B and E do not get a final admit call.
4)
C and E do not get a final admit call.
ou
A and C get a final admit call.
es
1)
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Which of the following is not true?
IM
Le
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Explanation:
Since, the students who got a final admit call did not travel by the Bangalore-Lucknow flight, we can infer that B did not get a final admit
call.
Also, as A and B have to travel by the same flight (Lucknow-Indore). We can conclude that A gets a final admit call.
Again, A and E travel by the same flight (Ahmedabad-Kolkata), hence E does not get a final admit call.
B and C travel by the same flight (Ahmedabad-Bangalore), hence C has got a final admit call. Finally, C and D have travelled by the same
flight (Bangalore-Kolkata), hence D does not get a final admit call.
Thus, we can conclude that A and C get a final admit call while B, D and E do not get a final admit call.
Hence -[4]
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Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning

Case (2) x = 42, y = 53 then xyz

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Case (2) x = 53, y = 41 then xyz

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Answer the questions independently of each other.

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4 - x is contained entirely in quadrants:

The set of points satisfying pairs of inequalities y

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Rs.10 lakh, Rs.5 lakh

Rs.12 lakh, Rs.2 lakh

Rs.12 lakh, Rs.6 lakh

Rs.8 lakh, Rs.8 lakh

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Revenue is given in Rs. crore and Quantity is considered in units.

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Answer each of the following questions independently.

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Either 1st of 2nd

Either 2nd or 3rd

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Either 3rd or 4th

lower than 4th

In the previous question, what will be Tumos rank?

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the survey?

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Login ID:1311475/Student Name:SandeepSandeep/Overall Score:113

Ruchiras score is 2/3rd of Shefalis score.

Amars score is 12 less than Shefalis score.

Mahimas score was 100 less than the average score.