SET 2013

PAPER II
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Signature of the Invigilator

Question Booklet No. ....................................

1.

OMR Sheet No.. ....................................

Subject Code 10

ROLL No.

Time Allowed : 75 Minutes

Max. Marks : 100

No. of pages in this Booklet : 11

No. of Questions : 50

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

1. Write your Roll No. and the OMR Sheet No. in the spaces provided on top of this page.
2. Fill in the necessary information in the spaces provided on the OMR response sheet.
3. This booklet consists of fifty (50) compulsory questions each carrying 2 marks.
4. Examine the question booklet carefully and tally the number of pages/questions in the booklet with the information
printed above. Do not accept a damaged or open booklet. Damaged or faulty booklet may be got replaced
within the first 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time given.
5. Each Question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D) in the OMR sheet. You have to
completely darken the circle indicating the most appropriate response against each item as in the illustration.
A

6. All entries in the common OMR response sheet for Papers I and II are to be recorded in the original copy
only.
7. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
8. Rough Work is to be done on the blank pages provided at the end of this booklet.
9. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except
in the spaces allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or
employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
10. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry the test
booklet and the duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
11. Use of any calculator, mobile phone or log table etc. is strictly prohibited.
12. There is no negative marking.

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COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS

PAPERII
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Attempt all the questions.
1.

4.
4
The probability that A speaks truth is , while this
5
3
. The probability that they
4
contradict each other when asked to speak on a fact
is :

probability for B is

(A)

For an undirected graph with n vertices and e edges,

n
di = P , where di is the degree of vertex i (number
i=1
of edges incident on vertex i). Then P is equal to :
(A) 2n
(B) 2e

3
20

(C) ne
(D) 2n 1

(B)

1
5

5.

If NDFA denotes non-deterministic finite automata

and DFA denotes deterministic finite automata which

7
(C)
20

of the following IS FALSE ?

(A) For any language L, if L can be recognized by a

(D)
2.

DFA , then

4
5

(B) For any language L, if L can be recognized by a

(C)

can be recognized by a NDFA

(C) For any language L, if L is context-free, then

is context free
(D) For any language L, if L can be recognized in

n +1
2

polynomial time, then

can be recognized in

polynomial time

C ( n + 1)
2

(D) n
3.

NDFA, then

A palindrome is a string whose reversal is identical to

the original string. How many bit strings of length n
are palindromes ? (Let n be an odd integer.)
(A) 2n
(B) 2

can be recognized by a DFA

6.

Hamiltonian path in a simple connected graph is a path

that passes through each of the vertices in a graph
exactly once. The length of a Hamiltonian path (if
exists) in a simple connected graph of N vertices is :
(A) N + 1
(B) N 1
(C) N
(D) 2N 2

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All errors of t or fewer bits in a codeword can be

corrected if and only if the minimum Hamming distance
of the code is :
(A) 2t
(B) 2t + 1
(C) 2t 1
(D) t + 1
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7.

If A = {1,2,3,4,5} then the number of proper subsets 13. Data + Operations is a characterization of :
(A) Functional decomposition
of A is :
(B) Operator overloading
(A) 120
(C) (Overloaded) constructors
(B) 30
(D) (Abstract) data type
(C) 31
(D) 32
14. B is a base class of A implies :
(A) A is a superclass of B
8. Simplify the Boolean function :
(B) A is a derived class of B
(C) B is a derived class of A
(A) A
(D) A and B are inherited from a common class
(B) A + B
(C) AB + BC
15. The process of going from a set of source files to a
running program has several steps. Place the following
(D) A + B + C
in the correct order from the first step executed to the
last :
9. Which of the following is a tautology ?
I. Linking
(A) P v Q
II. Compiling
(B) P Q
III. Execution
(C) P v ~ P
IV. Processing #include directives
(D) P ~ P
Codes :
(A) II IV I
III
10. Based on current technology, ______ is the fastest
(B) II III I
IV
logic family.
(C) IV II I
III
TTL
B( A + C) + A(A)
B+ B
C+C
(D) IV I
II III
(B) MOS
16. What value is displayed by this C++ program
(C) ECL
fragment ?
(D) CMOS
int paramtest (int a, int & b) {
b = a +b;
11. The decimal equivalent of binary number 0.0111 is :
a = b;
(A) 4.375
return a;
(B) 0.4375
}
(C) 0.5375
int main ( ) {
(D) 0.4375
int x = 1;
int y = 2;
12. Which of the following is a base-10 interpretation of
int z = paramtest(x, y);
the 8-bit binary value 11010011 in twos complement
cout << x + y + z;
....
form ?
(A) 4
(A) 83
(B) 5
(B) 211
(C) 6
(C) 84
(D) 7
(D) 45
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20. In SQL, a sub-query is empty can be tested using :

(A) DISTINCT
(B) UNIQUE
(C) NULL
(D) EXISTS

17. A locked file can be :

(A) Accessed by a user having correct password
(B) Modified only by the user that locked it
(C) Used to hide data
(D) Used to encrypt data

21. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to

form a primary key is a :
18. When analyzing a real-world problem for eventual
(A) Strong entity set
implementation as an object-oriented system, it is
(B) Weak entity set
typical to :
(C) Simple entity set
I. First write a main function, focusing on the control
(D) Primary entity set
flow, and then keep refining the algorithm in a
top-down fashion
22. If two relations R and S are joined, then the non
II.

First look for objects in the real world whose

behavior and relationships the system should
model

III. First look for templated classes in the standard

library which can solve the problem

matching tuples of both R and S are ignored in :

(A) Left outer join
(B) Right outer join
(C) Full outer join
(D) Inner join

Which of the above statements IS/ARE TRUE ?

23. A binary search tree (BST) is built by inserting (into

an intially empty tree) the following values, in the order
(B) II only
given : 0, 1, 1, 2, 20, 3, 5. The Post-Order Traversal
of the resulting BST is :
(C) III only
(A) 5, 3, 20, 1, 1, 0
(D) All of I, II and III
(B) 1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 20
(C) 1, 5, 3, 20, 2, 1, 0
19. In DBMS, the projection operation () of a relation
(D) Ambiguous given a set of values, there is always
creates a new relation that has :
more than one possible tree
(A) I only

(A) More tuples than the original relation

24. A linear list of elements in which deletion can be done
(B) More attributes than the original relation
from one end (front) and insertion can take place only
(C) A vertical subset of the original relation i.e. all of
at the other end (rear) is known as a :
the tuples of the original relation over some set
(A) Queue
of attributes
(B) Stack
(D) A horizontal subset of the original relation i.e.
(C) Tree
some of the tuples of the original relation over a
(D) Linked list
complete set of attributes
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25. Consider the following paragraph with blanks.

28. Which of the following statements IS FALSE ?

A _____ (i) _____ is a linear list where _____

(A) Dividing large messages into packets makes it

(ii) _____ and _____ (iii) _____ take place at the

easier to recover from transmission errors

same end. This end is called the _____(iv) _____.

(B) DNS translates between numeric IP addresses

What would be the correct filling in the above blank

and human-readable hostnames

positions ?

(C) IP (the Internet Protocol) numbers data packets

(A) (i) queue (ii) insertions (iii) removals (iv) top

so they can be reassembled into the correct

(B) (i) stack (ii) insertions (iii) removals (iv) bottom

order after they are received

(C) (i) stack (ii) insertions (iii) removals (iv) top

(D) Peer-to-peer networks are more resistant to

(D) (i) tree (ii) insertions (iii) removals (iv) top

failure than client-server networks

29. All IP addresses in the range 186.220.64.0 to

26. A hash function f defined as f(key) = key mod 7,

186.220.71.254 are kept in a Virtual Local Area

with linear probing used to resolve collisions. Insert

Network (VLAN). The correct netmask so that

the keys 37, 38, 72, 48, 98 and 11 into the table

messages are broadcasted only within this VLAN

indexed from 0 to 6. What will be the location of

is :

11 ?

(A) 255.255.0.0

(A) 3

(B) 255.255.248.0

(B) 4

(C) 186.220.71.255

(C) 5

(D) 186.220.8.0

(D) 6
30. The term duplex refers to the ability of the data
27. Suppose an integer occupies two bytes of memory

receiving stations to echo back a confirming message

space. A two dimensional integer array TABLE [6]

to the sender. In full duplex data transmission, both

[8] is stored in row major order with base address

sender and the receiver :

351. What is the address of TABLE [3] [4] ?

(A) Can receive and send data simultaneously

(A) 407

(B) Cannot talk at once

(B) 207

(C) Can send or receive data at a time

(C) 365

(D) Can do one way data transmission only.

(D) 702

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31. The slowest transmission speeds are those of :

35. If, for certain strings in the language of the grammar,

(A) Twisted-pair wire

there is more than one parsing tree, then the grammar

(B) Coaxial cable

is said to be :

(C) Fiber-optic cable

(A) Context free

(D) Microwaves

(B) LR(1)
(C) LL(1)

32. Which TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring

(D) Ambiguous

electronic mail messages from one machine to

another ?

36. Which of the following activities are included in the

(A) FTP

first pass of two-pass assemblers ?

(B) SNMP

(A) Build the symbol table

(C) SMTP

(B) Construct the intermediate code

(D) RPC

(C) Separate mnemonic opcode and operand fields

(D) All of the above

33. How many networks and nodes per network, are

allowed by the class B network ?
(A) 127 networks and 17,777,216 nodes per

37. Which of the following IS TRUE regarding linkingloader and linkage editor ?

network

I.

(B) 16,384 networks and 65,534 nodes per

A linking-loader performs both linking, loading

and execution in one step

network
II.

(C) 2,097,152 networks and 254 nodes per

A linkage editor generates an executable file that

needs to be processed by a loader for execution

network

at any moment

(D) 255 networks and 255 nodes per network

III. A linking-loader would be useful in situations

where it is not necessary to execute the

34. The initial phase of a compiler is :

application program immediately

(A) Lexical analysis or the scanner

(B) Syntactic analysis or Parsing

Codes :

(C) Semantic analysis and intermediate code

(A) I and II only

(B) I, II and III

generation

(C) II and III only

(D) Machine independent code improvement

(D) I and III only

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38. In clean room software engineering :

(A) Only eco-friendly hardware is used
(B) Only hired facilities are used for development
(C) Correctness of the code is verified before testing
(D) Implementation is done only after ensuring
correctness

42. The UNIX/Linux command to count the number of

files in the current directory by using pipes, is given
by :
(A) ls | wc
(B) ls | wc -l
(C) ls | wc -w

39. How many processes does the following piece of

C-code create ?
int main ()
{
fork();
fork();
return 0;
}
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8

(D) ls | wc -c

43. Which of the following process models best

emphasizes risk management ?
(A) Waterfall model
(B) Incremental development
(C) Boehms spiral model
(D) Reuse-based software engineering

44. Software deteriorates rather than wears out

40. ______ refers to the technology in which some space

in hard disk is used as an extension of main memory.
(A) Cache memory
(B) Paging
(C) Virtual memory
(D) Associative memory

because :
(A) Software suffers from exposure to hostile
environments
(B) Defects are more likely to arise after software
has been used often over a period of time
(C) Multiple change requests introduce errors in

41. One reason for UNIX being so flexible is that each

program is automatically assigned three standard files.
They are :
(A) The standard input file, the standard output file,
and the standard error file
(B) The backup file, the standard output file, and
the standard error file
(C) The standard input file, the standard output file,
and the standard hidden file
(D) The standard input file, the standard search file,
and the standard error file
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component interactions
(D) Software spare parts become harder to order

45. What do data warehouses support ?

(A) OLAP
(B) OLTP
(C) OLAP and OLTP
(D) Operational databases

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46. Software agent is a piece of software that performs a 49. Suppose that a program runs in 100 seconds on a
computer, with multiple operations responsible for 80
given task using information gleaned from its
environment to act in a suitable manner so as to

seconds of this time. How much do you have to

complete the task successfully. Which of the following

improve the speed of multiplication if you are asked

characteristics IS NOT part of the definition of a

to run this program four times faster ?

software agent ?

(A) 14 times faster

(A) Proactive

(B) 15 times faster

(B) Modular

(C) 16 times faster

(C) Adaptive

(D) 17 times faster

(D) Personalised
50. The first four bytes of a binary file are CA, FE, BA,
BE (in Hexadecimal, of course !). What type of a file

47. Which of the following is the worlds fastest

supercomputer (17.59 Peta-flops) as on October 29,

is it ?

2012 ?

(A) MS-Windows .exe file

(A) IBM Sequoia

(B) MS-Windows .com file

(B) Cray Titan

(C) Java Class file

(C) Cray Jaguar

(D) BMP Image file

(D) IBM Roadrunner

48. The objective of _____ is to derive the design or

specification of a system from its source code, while
the objective of _____ is to produce a new, more
maintainable system.
(A) Reverse Engineering, Software Re-Engineering
(B) Software Verification, Software Validation
(C) Software Engineering, Requirement Engineering
(D) Software Measurement, Software Verification

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