8th

Marks
100

NSTSE
MOCK

Time
90 Min

Instructions Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
A. General 1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 100 questions, negative marking will not be applicable.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers & electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided
on the page of this booklet.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Mark Reader (OMR), is provided separately.
5. Do not tamper with/mutilate the OMR or the booklet.
6. Do not write anything on OMR sheet at places other than allotted.
B. Filling the OMR 7. On the upper part of the OMR, write in ink, your name in box 01, Roll No. in box 02, Set in box
03, Test no. in box 04. Darken the appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your registration No.
with a ball pen in OMR. Do not write these anywhere else.
8. Please fill all the entries in OMR very carefully as wrong Entries will make your OMR sheet
rejected by the machine.

From

NTSE to
IIT-JEE
with

CatalyseR

Chahal Neema
A
CatalyseRian
from 8th Std.

I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate

Name
Roll No.

Invigilator Signature

Mr. Vijay Kushwaha

Test Coordinator, CatalyseR

IIT-JEE Medical
NTSE Olympiads
Class 6th to 12th
Must visit us at :
www.catalyser.in

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Indore Bhopal Vadodara Surat Nagpur

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

1.

The square of which numbers below will contain the first nine natural numbers?
(a) 1111111

2.

If x

(a)

3.

4.

5
4

(b)

7
11

4
5

(c)

3
4

(d)

4
3

(c)

6
7

(d)

9
11

216
.
343
(b)

8
9

(b) 27

(c) 33

(d) 21

What is the percentage decrease, if a number reduces from 70 to 42?

(a) 10%

6.

(d) 1111111111

A polyhedron has 11 faces and 18 vertices. Find the number of edges.

(a) 15

5.

(c) 111111111

1
1
, then find the value of x
.
1
2
1
1
1
x

Find the cube root of

(a)

(b) 11111111

(b) 25%

(c) 35%

(d) 40%

(c) p q

(d) p q

What is the relation between p and q?

(a) q 2p

(b) p 2q

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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

7.

Consider the following statements:

(i) The diagonals of a parallelogram are equal.
(ii) The diagonals of a square are perpendicular to each other.
(iii)
If the diagonals of a quadrilateral intersect at right angles, it is not necessarily a
rhombus.
(iv) Every quadrilateral is either a trapezium or a parallelogram or a kite.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only (ii)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

8.

Which expression is a factor of m4 16 ?

(b) m 4

(a) m 5
9.

(d) m 2

(c) m2 2

In the diagram, KLMN is a constructed parallelogram.

Find the value of KLM

(a) 15
10.

(b) 30

(c) 45

(d) 60

The following pie-charts show the distribution of students of IITs and IIMs in several
different companies TCS, WIPRO, SATYAM, INFOSYS, TAT, RELIANCE and BIRLA.
Total students from IIT = 27300
SATYAM INFOSYS
12%

WIPRO

Total students from IIM = 24700

SATYAM INFOSYS

12%

13%

12%

TATA

17%

WIPRO

17%

TCS

15%

13%

8%

TATA

14%
15%

RELIANCE

14%

TCS

BIRLA

17%

21%

RELIANCE

BIRLA

How many of TATA and BIRLA are students from IIT?

(a) 4641

(b) 382

(c) 8420

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(d) 8463

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

11.

Which of the statements is true about consecutive natural numbers?

(a) There are 2n 1 numbers between the difference of squares of consecutive numbers.
(b) There are 2n non perfect square numbers between the squares of consecutive numbers.
(c) The sum of the squares of two consecutive numbers is not a perfect square.
(d) n 2 1 is the standard from of the difference between two consecutive numbers.

12.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) A regular polygon is equiangular and equilateral.
(b) a rectangle is equilateral but not equiangular.
(c) Convex polygons have no portions of their diagonals in their exteriors.
(d) Equilateral triangles are always equiangular.

13.

The pie chart shows a percentage breakdown of 1000 votes in student elections. How many
votes did Sushanth receive?

(a) 550
14.

(b) 350

(c) 330

(d) 450

In the diagram, DA CB . What is the measure of DAC ?

(a) 70

(b) 100

(c) 95

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(d) 125

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

15.

In the diagram, DEFG is a square and ABCD is a rectangle. A straight line is drawn from
A, passes through C and meets FG at H. The area of the shaded region is:

(a) 8
16.

(b) 8.5

If 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x
(a) 0.50

17.

If
(a)

19.

1
3
, then what is the value of
?
512
x

(b) 0.75

(c) 0.75

(d) 4.25

(b) 3

(c)

1
3

(d)

1
2

(c)

c 1
c

(d)

c 1
c 1

xc
c 1 , then x _________
x 1

1
c

(b) 2

If x y 17 and x 2 y 2 167 , then what is the value of xy ?

(a) 17 4 114

20.

(d) 9

Solve : 2x1 8x
(a) 1

18.

(c) 10

(b) 61

(c) 48 167

(d) 122

The figure shows a cuboid with a volume of 180 cm3 .

What is the value of p?

(a) 2

(b) 18

(c) 36

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(d) 72

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

21.

If SP of an article is
(a)

22.

1
(b) 20 %
2

1
%
3

If 2 x

1
(d) 25 %
2

(b) 117

(c) 119

(d) 121

The diagonal of a rectangle is thrice its smaller side. The ratio of its sides is:
(a)

24.

1
(c) 33 %
3

1
1
3 , then the value of 16 x 4
is:
2x
16 x 4

(a) 11
23.

4
of its CP, then the profit in the transaction is:
3

2 :1

(b) 2 2 :1

(c) 3: 2

(d)

3 :1

A prime number is called a Superprime, if: doubling it, and then substracting 1, results in
another prime number. The number of Superprimes less than 15 are:
(a) 2

25.

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

In the equation: 4 x y 10 , if the value of x is increased by 3, then what would be the effect
on the corresponding value of y ?
(a) The value of y will decrease by 12.
(b) The value of y will decrease by 2.
(c) The value of y will increase by 3.
(d) The value of y will be 3 times as large.

26.

Assertion: Aeroplanes are given streamlining to increase the speed of vehicles.

Reason: Air friction decreases due to streamlining.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true. Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true. Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

27.

Observe the figure given below.

If the iron key need to be electroplated, then identify solution X from the following.
(a) Copper (II) sulphate
(b) Aluminium nitrate
(c) Iron (II) sulphate
28.

Which of the following are units used to measure pressure?

2
(i) kg m

(ii) Pascal

(a) (i) and (ii) only

29.

30.

(d) Silver chloride

(iii) Newton metre

(b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (iii) and (i) only

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

If an ebonite rod rubbed with fur and glass rod rubbed with silk cloth are brought nearer to
each other, then what happens?
(a) They will attract each other.

(b) They will repel each other.

(c) Nothing will happen to them.

(d) They will get heated up.

Which of the following graphs, represents higher pitch of sound?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

31.

Why are LEDs extensively used to replaced bulbs?

(i)

They consumes less electricity.

(ii)

They have longer life

(iii)

They are compact in size

(a) (i) and (ii) only

32.

(b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (iii) and (i) only

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Anoop places a cuboid of dimensions 12 cm 8 cm 6 cm with different faces touching the

table. Which face touching the table will have the greatest pressure exerted?

33.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) Cannot be said

A person can be identified by the quality of sound produced by him. How is the characteristic
of sound determine?
(i)

Amplitude

(ii)

Frequency

(iii)

Loudness

(a) (i) and (ii) only

(b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (iii) and (i) only

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(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

34.

Which of the following is smallest planet of our solar system?

(a) Venus

35.

(b) Mar

(c) Earth

(d) Mercury

What are the weak zones around the boundaries of plates underneath Earth, which are prone
to slide and cause earthquake commonly known as?
(a) Fault zone

36.

37.

(b) Eruption zone

(c) Explosive zone

The crust of earth is thicker:

(a) under the continents

(b) under the ocean

(c) under the poles

(d) near faults

Match the items under column A with column B.

Column X

38.

Column Y

A. Epicenter

I.

Magma

B. Tidal waves

II. Lithosphere

C. Molten rock

III. Earthquake

D. Mantle

IV. Tsunami

(a) A I, B II, C III, D - IV

(b) A II, B III, C IV, D - I

(c) A III, B IV, C I, D - II

(d) A IV, B I, C II, D - III

In which of the following cases friction is useful?

I.
II.

Sharpening a pencil
Gears rubbing against each other

III.

Striking a matchstick to light it

IV.

Walking on ice

(a) I only
39.

(d) Sliding zone

(b) I, II and III only

(c) I, II and IV only

(d) I, III and IV only

Decibel (dB) is an expression/unit used for:

(a) loudness of sound
(b) pitch of sound
(c) amplitude of sound
(d) frequency of sound

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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

40.

The image formed by plane mirror is always:

(a) real and erect

41.

43.

(c) virtual and inverted (d) real and inverted

Which of the following liquid is a bad conductor of electricity?

(a) Lemon juice

42.

(b) virtual and erect

(b) Vinegar

(c) Sea water

(d) Distilled water

Match the following.

I.

Charge

P. Seismic zone

II.

Lightening

Q. Electroscope

III.

Earthquake

R. Fault zones

IV.

Seismic zones

S. Thunder storm

(a) I Q, II - S, III - P, IV - R

(b) I S, II - Q, III - R, IV - P

(c) I R, II - P, III - S, IV - Q

(d) I S, II - R, III - P, IV - Q

Which of the following is NOT an effect of frictional force?

(a) Flattening of grooves of tyre due to use
(b) A rolling ball coming to a halt
(c) Leaves falling from tree on to ground
(d) Holding a pencil in your hand

44.

The pin-hole camera works on the principle of:

(a) Rectilinear propagation of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) interference of light

45.

(d) highest speed of light

Harish rolled a small steel ball at one edge of the glass bowl as shown. Consider that there is
no friction between the surfaces of the ball and the bow, what will happen?

(a) The ball will roll out of the glass bowl near edge B
(b) It will stop at centre point C after a number of to-and-fro motions
(c) It will keep moving between point A and B and will never stop
(d) It will not move at all since friction is required for movement

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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

46.

A can as shown here, used for storing soft drinks or food items is usually electroplated with
tin because:

(a) tin is less reactive than the base metal with which the can is made
(b) tin is cheap
(c) tin is stronger an shiny in appearance
(d) tin is lighter than other metals
47.

In a stethoscope, sound of heartbeat travel through its tube:

(a) by bending along the tube

(b) in a straight line
(c) by undergoing multiple reflections
(d) as ultrasonic frequency
48.

The diagram shows the path of a light ray, X, directed at a plane mirror.
P
O
X
N

The correct reflected ray is:

(a) M

(b) N

(c) O

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(d) P

10

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

49.

Rear of buses and trucks are provided with double wheels (tyres) or even more. This is
provided to:
(a) increase pressure on ground
(b) decrease pressure on ground
(c) reduce friction
(d) increase friction for efficient braking

50.

Which of the following statements on Moon is NOT correct?

(a) Moon reflects light of the sun
(b) The gravitational pull of Moon causes high tide in oceans
(c) The craters on Moon, caused long time ago are still existing because Moon has no
atmosphere
(d) The sun lights up the complete Moon at any one time

51.

Which of the following statements regarding thermoplastics and thermosetts is/are true?
Thermoplastic
I.

Soft

Hard

II.

Able to withstand heat

Cannot withstand heat

III.

No cross linkages

Cross linkages present

(a) I only
52.

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

(b) marble cancer

(c) green house effect (d) ozone hole

Which of the following electronic configuration of an atom could be that of a non-metal?

(a) 2, 8, 1

54.

(b) I and II only

The trapping of heat radiation by earths atmosphere is known as:

(a) global warming

53.

Thermosetts

(b) 2, 8, 2

(c) 2, 8, 3

(d) 2, 8, 5

Arrange the following fuels in order of their calorific value starting from lower to higher.
Hydrogen, LPG, Kerosene, Petrol
(a) L.P.G, kerosene, petrol, hydrogen
(b) Petrol, kerosene, L.P.G, hydrogen
(c) Petrol, L.P.G, hydrogen, kerosene
(d) Kerosene, petrol, L.P.G., hydrogen

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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

55.

In order of quality of coal the four main varieties of coal can be graded from superior to
inferior as:
(a) peat, bituminous, lignite, anthracite
(b) bituminous, peat, lignite, anthracite
(c) anthracite, bituminous, lignite, peat

56.

(d) lignite, anthracite, bituminous, peat

Which of the following chemical reactions is correct?

heat
(a) 2Al Fe2O3
Al2O3 2Fe Heat

(b) 2Na Cl2

2NaCl2
(c) P2O5 3H2O
2H3PO5
heat
(d) 2PbS 3O2
Pbo + 3SO2

57.

Foamite fire extinguishers cannot be used to put out electrical fires, due to the presence of:
(a) HCl which burns with electricity
(b) baking soda which acts as an electrolyte
(c) dissolved Na 2SO4 which acts as an electrolyte
(d) none of these

58.

59.

Which of he following is an example of a liquid fuel?

(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Coal gas
(c) L.P.G

Which of the following statements is NOT true for sodium and potassium?
(a) Both are metals
(b) Both are hard
(c) Both are solids at room temperature

60.

(d) Both react with oxygen to form oxides

Methane burns in air to form:

(a) CO2 H2O

61.

(d) Alcohol

(b) CO2 H2

(c) CO2 O2

(d) CO2 O2 heat

Study the characteristics of substance X given below.

High melting point

Good conductor of electricity

Malleable
Based on the above characteristics, what could X be?
(a) Silicon
(b) Sodium Chloride (c) Iron

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(d) Carbon

12

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

62.

Which is the most common substance that can be used to put out fires?
(a) Wood
(b) Petrol
(c) Sand
(d) Kerosene

63.

Why is rayon used as a fabric for dress materials?

(i) Soft
(ii)

Silky

(iii)

Moisture absorbent

(a) (i) and (ii) only

64.

(b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (iii) and (i) only

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

The order of reactivity of four metals and hydrogen is given below.

Most reactive

Least reactive

Rubidium
Potassium
Tin
Hydrogen
Gold

Which of the following does not given hydrogen as a product?

(a) The adding of Rubidium to water.
(b) The adding of tin to dilute Hydrochloric acid.
(c) The electrolysis of aqueous gold chloride.
(d) The electrolysis of aqueous rubidium chloride.
65.

Assertion: Fuel oil is better than coal for use in industries.

Reason: It has a high calorific value than coal and does not leave smoke or ash on burning.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true. Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true. Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

66.

Which of the following happen when a wax candle is burnt?

(i)

Fuel undergoes oxidation.

(ii)

Liberation of heat and light energy.

(iii)

Release of water vapour and carbon dioxide.

(a) (i) and (ii) only

(b) (ii) and (iii) only (c) (iii) and (i) only

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(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

13

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

67.

To which of the following does the 4R principle apply the most?

(a) Synthetic fibre

68.

(c) Metals

(d) Plastic

When an oil well is drilled through rocks, what comes out first?
(a) Coal gas

69.

(b) Natural fibre

(b) Marsh gas

(c) Natural gas

(d) Gas carbon

Observe the figure showing a kerosene lamp.

Which of the following is not formed during the combustion of kerosene?

70.

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Heat energy

(c) Carbon

(d) Water vapour

Match the entries in the column-I with that in column-II.

Column-I

Column-II

Carbonisation

( )

Coke

ii

Destructive distillation

( )

Coal

iii

Cracking

( )

Petroleum

iv

Refining

( )

Hydrocarbons

(a) i-p, ii-q, iii-r, iv-s (b) i-q, ii-p, iii-s, iv-r (c) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p (d) i-s, ii-r, iii-q, iv-p
71.

Which of the following is the use of the agricultural tool given below?
(a) It is used to put manure or fertiliser near the roots of trees
(b) It is used to sow the seeds at equal distances
(c) It is useful to remove weeds in a field
(d) Both (a) and (b)

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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

72.

The table given below shows a list of organisms and their methods of reproduction. What do
P, Q and R represent?
Organism

Method of reproduction

Sponge

Planaria

Hydra

(a) P Fission, Q Budding, R - Regeneration

(b) P Sporulation, Q Regeneration, R - Budding
(c) P Binary fission, Q Sporulation, R - Regeneration
(d) P Gemmules, Q Regeneration, R - Budding
73.

In the following question, a statement of assertion is given followed by a corresponding

statement of reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer.
Assertion: Wildlife is a renewable resource
Reason: Human activities have made several plants and animals extinct
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false

74.

Which of the following comparisons between a bacterium and a virus is NOT correct?

(a)

Area of comparison

Bacterium

Virus

Size

Between

6 nm - 400 nm

0.2 m - 10 m

75.

(b)

A need for nutrients

Yes

NO

(c)

Ability to form spores

Yes

No

(d)

Organisms that are infected by it

Animals only

Plants only

Which of the following deals with the practice of growing food crops?
(a) Apiculture

(b) Moriculture

(c) Sericulture

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(d) Agriculture

15

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

76.

Figure below shows the position of layer P in the Earths atmosphere that protects the Earth
from over- exposure to harmful ultraviolet radiation.

Which of the following chemicals cause the thinning of layer P?

(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Sulphur dioxide
77.

(c) Chlorofluorocarbons

(d) Both (a) & (c)

Unicellular
Causes fermentation of sugary solutions
Respires anaerobically
Reproduces sexually by conjugation
Among the following organisms which have the above characteristics?

78.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Which of these activities help to maintain biodiversity?

I.

Protect endangered species

II.

Set up forest reserves

III.

Clear land for agriculture

(a) I and II only

(b) I and III only

(c) II and III only

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(d) I, II and III

16

VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

79.

Which of the cell organelles carry the functions given below?

Mechanical support

Enzyme circulation

Protein synthesis

Detoxification of drugs

(a) Ribosomes
80.

(b) Chloroplast

(c) Mitochondria

(d) Endoplasmic reticulum

The diagram shows the female reproductive system.

Where do fertilization and implantation occur?
(a) Fertilisation P, implantation - R
(b) Fertilisation R, implantation - S
(c) Fertilisation P, implantation - Q
(d) Fertilisation Q, implantation - S

81.

Which of the following processes include the mass emigration of bees to settle down
elsewhere in order to form a new hive?
(a) Migration

82.

83.

(b) Swarming

(c) Spawning

(d) Carding

Which of the following microorganisms exists as a crystal?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Which of the following processes involves transferring and combination of desirable

characteristic features into plants and multiply them?
(a) Parthenocarpy

(b) Genetic Engineering

(c) Eutrophication

(d) Broadcasting

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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

84.

Which of the following methods of cultivation makes soil fertile?

(a) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers
(b) Extensive cultivation
(c) Crop rotation
(d) Monocropping

85.

The information given in the box is about the organelles present in a cell.
I.

Cytoplasm

II.

Cell wall

III.

Nucleus

IV.

Chloroplast

The above cell cannot be an animal cell because of the presence of which of the following
cell organelles?
(a) I and II only
86.

(b) II and III only

(c) II and IV only

(d) I and IV only

In which of the following agricultural practices is a part of a forest cleared for cultivation and
then moving on to a new part for cultivation?
(a) Monoculture

87.

(b) Mixed farming

(c) Field fallow

(d) Shifting cultivation

Which of the following statements describes bacteriophage correctly?

(a) It is a bacterium which causes diseases in plants.
(b) It is a virus which attacks bacteria.
(c) It is a bacterium which kills viruses.
(d) It can multiply inside of both living and non-living organisms.

88.

Match the following pathogens in Column-I with the diseases caused by them in Column-II.
Column-I

Column-II

A. Entamoeba histolytica

i.

Sleeping sickness

B. Salmonella typhi

ii.

Malaria

C. Trypanosoma

iii.

Amoebiadysentery

D. Plasmodium

iv.

Typhoid

(a) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (b) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (c) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (d) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

89.

Energy conversion within a plant cell would be severely limited by the removal of which of
the following cell organelles?
(a) Ribosomes

90.

92.

(d) Diatoms

(c) Sea water

(d) Clear sky

Which word gives the order of colours of the rainbow?

(b) VIBGYOR

(c) VOYGBIR

(d) ROGYIBV

Kng Gyanendra was the last king of which Asian country?

(b) Nepal

(c) China

(d) Bhutan

(c) Taj Mahal

(d) Gateway of India

Which of these is called Place of Winds?

(b) Hawa Mahal

Which of the following is not a proof of citizenship in India?

(a) Ration card

96.

(c) Agaricus

(b) Blood of blue whale

(a) Gol Gumbaz

95.

(b) Mucor

(a) Aristocratic descent

(a) Tibet
94.

(d) Lysosomes

What does blue blood mean?

(a) BGYOVIR
93.

(c) Chloroplast

In which of the following organisms is the cell wall made up of silica?

(a) Rhizopus

91.

(b) Nucleus

(b) Driving License

(c) Voter ID card

(d) Debit card

What comes next in the sequence given below?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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VIII / NSTSE MOCK TEST # 02

97.

Which number should come next in the series given below?

2, 6, 14, 30, 62, ?

(a) 124
98.

(d) 142

(b) RJJBKD

(c) TJDLMF

(d) TJDMLF

(c) the Moon

(d) coins

Nummary is related to:

(a) nuns

100.

(c) 132

If in a certain language, FIELD is coded as GJFME, how is SICKLE coded in that code?
(a) THLDMF

99.

(b) 126

(b) priests

One World, One Dream is the slogan of the:

(a) London Olympics (b) Beijing Olympics (c) Asian Games

(d) None of these

END OF THE PAPER

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