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WHO declared global

1. The infectivity of chickenpox eradication of Small pox on:
lasts for: (a) 26th October 1977 [NUPGET
(a) Till the last scab falls off [AIPGME 2013]
2002] (b) 5th July 1975
(b) 6 days after onset of rash (c) 17th May 1975
(c) 3 days after onset of rash (d) 8th May 1980
(d) Till the fever subsides 7. Secondary attack rate of
2. Chickenpox is characterised by chicken pox is:
all except: (a) 60 [Recent Question 2013]
(a) Scabs are infective [AIIMS May (b) 50
1995] (c) 90
(b) Pleomorphic stages (d) 40
(c) Rashes symmetrical centripetal 8. Chicken pox vaccine is: [Recent
dew-drop like Question 2012]
(d) Palms and soles not affected by (a) Live vaccine
rash (b) Killed vaccine
3. Smallpox eradication was (c) Conjugated vaccine
successful due to all of the (d) Toxoid vaccine
following reasons except: [AIIMS 9. Chicken pox is infective [Recent
Nov 2010] Question 2014]
(a) Subclinical cases did not transmit (a) 2 days before and 2 days after rash
the disease appearance
(b) A highly effective vaccine was (b) 2 days before and 5 days after rash
available appearance
(c) Infection provided lifelong (c) 4 days before and 4 days after rash
immunity appearance
(d) Cross-resistance existed with (d) 4 days before and 5 days after rash
animal pox appearance
4. All of the following are true Review Questions
about Varicella virus 10. Infectivity of Chickenpox lasts
except: [AIIMS Nov 2010] up to:
(a) 10-30% chances of occurrence (a) 3 days after rash [UP 2002]
(b) All stages of rash are seen at the (b) All the scabs fallout
same time (c) 6 days after rash
(c) Secondary attack rate is 90% (d) Eruption of rash
(d) Rash commonly seen in flexor area 11. All are true about chickenpox
5. Smallpox eradication was except:
successful due to all of the (a) Crusts contain live virus [MP
following reasons except: 2001]
[AIPGME 2011] (b) Centripetal in distribution
(a) Subclinical cases did not transmit (c) Pleomorphic rashes seen
the disease (d) Rapid progression from macule to
(b) A highly effective vaccine was vesicle
available 12. About chickenpox all are true
(c) Infection provided lifelong except: [MP 2002]
immunity (a) Lesions appear in crops
(d) Cross-resistance existed with (b) Centripetal distribution of rashes
animal pox (c) Rashes shows rapid progression
from macule to
vesicle 17. All are true regarding measles
(d) Crusts contain live virus vaccine except:
13. Which of the following is not (a) Freeze dried live attenuated
true of Measles? vaccine
(a) High secondary attack rate (b) Single intramascular dose of 0.5 ml
[AIPGME 2008] (c) Is occasionally associated with TSS
(b) Only one strain causes infection (d) Contraindicated in pregnancy
(c) Not infectious in pro-dromal stage 18. Which of the following is the
(d) Infection confers lifelong immunity reservoir for measles?
14. Which of the following is the (a) Man [DPG 2007]
Least common (b) Soil
complication of measles? [AIIMS (c) Fomites
May 2006, May 2007] (d) Monkey
(a) Diarrhea [Recent Question 19. True about measles: [PGI June
2014] 04]
(b) Pneumonia (a) Koplik spot appears in Prodromal
(c) Otitis media stage
(d) SSPE (b) Fever stops after onset of Rash
15. Which of the following (c) Vaccine given at 9 months
statements is true about the (d) It is not diagnosed when coryza
epidemiological determinants of and rhinitis is absent
measles? (e) Incubation period is 6 days
[AIIMS Nov 2005] 20. Measles vaccination campaign
(a) Measles virus survives outside the between 9-14 years age
human body for 5 for elimination is: [AIIMS PGMEE
days November 2013]
(b) Carriers are important sources of (a) Keep up
infection (b) Follow up
(c) Secondary attack rate is less than (c) Mop up
that of rubella (d) Catch up
(d) Incidence of measles is more in 21. Koplik spots are seen in: [DNB
males than females December 2011] (a) Prodromal stage
307 (b) Incubation
Communicable and Non- (c) Eruptive
communicable Diseases (d) Convalescent stage
Communicable and Non- 22. Most serious complication of
communicable Diseases Measles is:
16. True about measles is all [NUPGET 2013]
except: [AIPGME 1996] (a) Koplik spots
(a) Kopliks spots appear as rash (b) Parotitis
disappears (c) Meningoencephalitis
(b) It is prevented by both active and (d) Nephritis
passive immunization 23. Most common cause of death
(c) Otitis media and meningitis are the due to measles is
most common (a) Pneumonia [AP 2014]
complications (b) Secondary bacterial infection
(d) TB is aggravated in post measles (c) Measles encephalitis
(d) Otitis media
Review Questions 31. The incubation period of
24. To eradicate measles the Measles is: [AP 2001]
percentage of infant population (a) 3 days [Recent Question 2013]
to be vaccinated is at least ____%: (b) 10 days
[DNB 2001] (c) 21 days
(a) 70 [Recent Question 2012] (d) 30 days
(b) 80 32. All are true about measles
(c) 85 except: [MP 2000]
(d) 95 (a) Both active and passive
25. Measles vaccine is not given immunization are given
before: [DNB 2003] simultaneously
(a) 9 months (b) Flaring up of TB
(b) 12 months (c) Most infectious during rashes
(c) 15 months (d) Causes pneumonia and otitis
(d) 18 months media
26. To eradicate measles the 33. A baby was given a dose
percentage of population to be measles vaccine at 6 months
vaccinated is at least____%: [DNB of age due to epidemic of
2005] measles/malnutrition. Correct
(a) 70 regarding giving subsequent dose
(b) 80 will be: [MH 2007]
(c) 85 (a) Give one more dose as soon as
(d) 95 possible
27. For measles: [Bihar 2003] (b) Give after 14-16 months with
(a) Incubation period is 10 days booster dose
(b) Infectious 4 days before the rash (c) Give after 9 months age
(c) Kopliks spots are seen (d) No dose required
(d) All
28. In measles Koplik spot is seen 308
in: [Bihar 2006] Review of Preventive and Social
(a) Prodromal stage Medicine
(b) Postmeasles stage Communicable and Non-
(c) Eruptive stage communicable Diseases
(d) None of the above RUBELLA
29. Most common cause of post 34. Recommended vaccination
measles death: strategy for rubella is to
(a) Diarrhea [Bihar 2006] vaccinate first and foremost:
(b) RTI [AIPGME 2007]
(c) Weakness (a) Women 15-49yrs
(d) SSPE (b) Infants
30. In Measles, infective period is: (c) Adolescent girls
[UP 2008] (d) Children 1-14yrs
(a) 3 days before and 4 days after the 35. Risk of the damage of fetus by
appearance of rash maternal rubella is
(b) 4 days before and 3 days after the maximum if mother gets infected
appearance of rash in [AIIMS Nov 2005]
(c) 4 days before and 5 days after the (a) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy
appearance of rash (b) 20-24 weeks of pregnancy
(d) 5 days before and 4 days after the (c) 24-28 weeks of pregnancy
appearance of rash (d) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy
36. Risk of the damage of fetus by 41. False about congenital rubella
maternal rubella is maximum syndrome:
if mother gets infected in: (a) IgG is diagnostic [AIIMS May
(a) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy [AIIMS 2011]
June 1997] (b) Most commonly associated with
(b) 20-24 weeks of pregnancy CVS anomalies,
(c) 24-28 weeks of pregnancy cataract and hearing loss
(d) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy (c) High risk if infected after 16 weeks
37. All of the following statements (d) IgM antibodies may be seen shortly
are true about Congenital after birth
Rubella except: [AIPGME 2005] MUMPS
(a) It is diagnosed when the infant has 42. M.C. complication of mumps in
IgM antibodies at children is:
birth (a) Pneumonia [RJ 2004]
(b) It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies (b) Pancreatitis
persist for more (c) Aseptic meningitis
than 6 months (d) Encephalitis
(c) Most common congenital defects 43. Incubation period of Mumps
are deafness, cardiac is: [Recent Question 2013]
malformations and cataract (a) 7 days (b) 10 days
(d) Infection after 16 weeks of (c) 14 days (d) 18 days
gestation results in major INFLUENZA
congenital defects 44. Which of the following is not
38. MMR vaccine is recommended true about influenza
at the age of: virus? [AIIMS June 1999]
[Recent Question 2013] (a) Influenza virus A is subject to
(a) 9-12 months frequent antigenic
(b) 15-18 months variations
(c) 2-3 years (b) Antigenic drift is a gradual
(d) 10-19 years antigenic change over a
Review Questions period of time
39. Rubella features include all (c) Antigenic shift is due to genetic
except: [AP 2003] recombination of
(a) Tender lymphnodes in the neck virus
(b) Congenital infection with cataract (d) Major epidemics are due to
(c) Incubation period < 10 days antigenic drift
(d) Caused by RNA virus 45. Newer Influenza vaccine
40. Under eradication of include: [PGI June 08]
congenital rubella syndrome (a) split virus vaccine
program (b) neuraminidase
the first priority group for rubella (c) live attenuated vaccine
vaccination is: (d) killed vaccine
(a) All nonpregnant women of age 15- (e) Recombinant vaccine
44 years 46. True about epidemology of
(b) All adolescent nonpregnant girls 15 influenza:
to 24 of age (a) Asymptomatic seen rarely [PGI
(c) All female children at one year [RJ June 05]
2008] (b) Incubation period 10-12 hrs
(d) All nonpregnant women (c) Pandemic rare
(d) Extra human reservoir not seen
(e) All ages and sex equally affected vaccine [AIIMS Nov 1996]
47. Which of the following is true (d) Diphtheria is an endemic disease
about influenza: in India
(a) Affects all ages and sexes [PGI 53. Positive Schick test indicates:
June 06] [AIPGME 1996]
(b) I. P 18 72 hrs (a) Immunity to diphtheria [AIIMS
(c) Pandemics rare Dec 1994]
(d) Asymptomatics rare (b) Susceptibility to diphtheria
(e) No animal reservoir (c) Hypersensitivity to diphtheria
48. Which of the following lead to (d) Infection with diphtheria
an outbreak of Influenza 54. A herd immunity of over ..
in China in 2013? [PGI May 2013] % is considered necessary
(a) H1N1 (b) H3N2 to prevent epidemic spread of
(c) H2N2 (d) H7N9 diphtheria:
(e) H5N1 [Recent Question 2012]
49. Incubation period of swine flu: (a) 50%
[Recent Question 2013] (b) 55%
(a) 1-3 days (b) 2-3 weeks (c) 60%
(c) 10-15 days (d) 5 weeks (d) 70% 55. Management of non
309 immunized diphtheria contacts
Communicable and Non- include all except [PGI November
communicable Diseases 2014]
Communicable and Non- (a) Prophylactic penicillin
communicable Diseases (b) Single dose of toxoid
50. Pig in H1N1 influenza acts as: (c) Daily throat examination
[DNB December 2010] (d) Daily throat swab culture
(a) Carrier (e) Weekly throat swabs examination
(b) Amplifying host Review Questions
(c) Reservoir 56. A herd immunity of over____ %
(d) Vector is considered necessary
51. Major reason for H5N1 not to to prevent epidemic spread of
become a global pandemic diphtheria:
is [AIIMS November 2014] (a) 50% [DNB 2000]
(a) Route of transmission is not (b) 55%
respiratory (c) 60%
(b) Man to man transmission is rare (d) 65%
(c) Does not cause serious disease (e) 70%
among humans 57. Treatment of choice for
(d) Restricted to few countries only diphtheria carriers is:
DIPHTHERIA (a) Erythromycin [DNB 2003]
52. True about Diphtheria are all (b) Tetracycline
except: (c) Penicillin
(a) Carriers are more common sources (d) DPT
of infection than 58. Schick test does not indicate:
cases [AIPGME 1996] [AIIMS Nov [Kolkata 2003]
1996] (a) Immunity to diphtheria
(b) Incubation period is 2-6 days (b) Susceptibility to diphtheria
(c) 25 Lf of diphtheria toxoid are (c) Hypersensitivity to diphtheria
present per ml in DPT (d) Carrier of diphtheria
59. Diphtheria carrier are (e) More common in Summers
diagnosed by: [MP 2000] Review Questions
(a) Throat culture (b) Grams staining 65. Treatment for pertussis
(c) Alberts staining (d) Schick test contacts children for:
60. A Negative Schick test (a) Prophylactic antibiotic for 10 days
indicates: [MP 2007] [UP 2000]
(a) Immunity to Diphtheria (b) Prophylactic antibiotic for 14 days
(b) Susceptibility to Diphtheria (c) Prophylactic antibiotic for 12 days
(c) Immunity to Pertusis (d) Prophylactic antibiotic for 11 days
(d) Immunity to Mumps
61. The usual incubation period Review of Preventive and Social
for pertussis is: Medicine
(a) 7-14 days [AIIMS Nov 2005, Communicable and Non-
AIIMS Nov 1996] communicable Diseases
(a) 7-14 days [AIIMS June 2000] 66. A child with pertussis should
(b) 3-5 days be isolated for:
(c) 21-25 days (a) 1-2weeks [Kolkata 2003]
(d) Less then 3 days (b) 2-4weeks
62. Which of the following (c) 3-4weeks
statements is true regarding (d) 4-6weeks
pertussis? [AIPGME 2002] 67. About pertussis true is: [MP
(a) Neurological complication rate of 2000]
DPT is 1 in 50000 (a) Secondary attack rate 90%
(b) Vaccine efficacy is more than 95% (b) No cross immunity with
(c) Erythromycin prevents spread of parapertussis
disease between (c) Most infectious during paroxysmal
children stage
(d) Leukocytosis correlates with the (d) Affects only humans
63. True regarding pertussis is all 68. True about meningococcal
except: meningitis is:
[AIIMS Nov 1997, AIIMS May 1995] (a) Causative agent is a gram ve
(a) It is associated with an inspiratory diplococci
whoop (b) Cases are the most important
(b) It is a droplet infection source of infection
(c) Parapertussis causes more severe [AIIMS May 1994]
disease then (c) Treatment with penicillin eradicates
pertussis carrier state
(d) Pneumonia is most common (d) Vaccine can be given in pregnancy
complication 69. The following statements
64. True about Pertussis is/are: about meningococcal meningitis
[PGI May 2012] are true, except: [AIPGME 1991,
(a) Incubation period is 7-14 days AIIMS Nov 1997,
(b) Main source of infection is chronic AIIMS Jun 98, AIPGME 2003]
carriers (a) The source of infection is mainly
(c) Can affect any age clinical cases
(d) Secondary attack rate in (b) The disease is more common in dry
unimmunised persons is and cold months
90% of the year
(c) Chemoprophylaxis of close 75. The neurological
contacts of cases is recommended complications of DPT are due to:
(d) The vaccine is not effective in (a) Pertussis component [Bihar 2003]
children below 2 years (b) Diphtheria
of age (c) Tetanus
70. Xavier and Yogender stay in (d) All
the same hostel of the 76. Chemoprophylaxis for
same university. Xavier develops meningococcal meningitis:
infection with Group (a) Ampicillin [Kolkata 2008]
B meningococcus. After a few (b) Tetracycline
days, Yogender develops (c) Rifampicin
infection due to Group C (d) Erythromycin
meningococcus. All the ARI
following are true statements 77. A 2-year-old female child was
except: [AIPGME 2002] brought to a PHC with a
(a) Educate students about history of cough and fever for 4
meningococcal transmission days with inability to
and take preventive measures drink for last 12 hours. On
(b) Chemoprophylaxis against both examination, the child was
Group B and Group having weight of 5 kg and
C respiratory rate of 45/minute
(c) Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of with fever. The child will be
Xavier classified as suffering
(d) Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of from: [AIPGME 2004, 2005, AIIMS
Yogender June 2000]
71. Vaccine for meningococcal (a) Very severe disease (b) Severe
meningitis should be routinely Pneumonia
given to: [AIIMS PGMEE May (c) Pneumonia (d) No Pneumonia
2013] 78. A child aged 24 months was
(a) Laboratory workers brought to the Primary
(b) Young adolescents Health Centre with complaints of
(c) 4-8 years old children cough and fever for
(d) Elderly population the past 2 days. On examination,
72. Prophylaxis of meningococcal the child weighed 11
meningitis is: Kg. respiratory rate was 38 per
[DNB December 2009] minute, chest indrawing
(a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Rifampicin was present. The most
(c) Penicillin (d) Gentamycin appropriate line of management
73. WHO criteria for High for this patient is? [AIPGME 2002,
endemicity for Meningococcal IPGME 2003]
disease include: [AIIMS PGMEE (a) Classify as pneumonia and refer
May 2013] urgently to secondary
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.01% level hospital
(c) 0.001% (d) 1.0% (b) Classify as pneumonia, start
74. Meningococcal vaccine antibiotic and advise to
available is: report after 2 days
[Recent Question 2013] (c) Classify as severe pneumonia, start
(a) ACW135Y (b) ABCW135 antibiotics and
(c) CYW135B (d) ABCY refer urgently
Review Questions
(d) Classify as severe pneumonia and (b) Reduce prevalence to < 150 per
refer urgently 100,000 population
79. Most important feature to per year (by 2010)
diagnose severe pneumonia: (c) Lower deaths to < 1 per 100,000
[Recent Question 2013] population per year
(a) Cyanosis (b) Chest indrawing (by 2010)
(c) Nasal flaring (d) Fast breathing (d) Global incidence of TB disease < 1
80. A 10 month old child is case per million
brought to a PHC with history population per year
of cough and cold. On 84. If the objective of the
examination, he has respiratory investigator is to assess the
rate of 48 breaths per minute and incidence
there is absence of of tuberculosis infection in a
chest indrawing. His weight is 5 community, the
kg. He is probably most appropriate methodology
suffering from [AIIMS November would be to:
2014] [AIIMS Nov 2005, 2006, AIPGME
(a) No pneumonia 2007]
(b) Pneumonia (a) Identify all individuals with positive
(c) Severe pneumonia tuberculin test
(d) Very severe pneumonia (b) Perform sputum examination of chest symptomatics
311 (c) Identify new converters to
Communicable and Non- Tuberculin test
communicable Diseases (d) Screen all under-five children with
Communicable and Non- Tuberculin test
communicable Diseases 85. Point of control in tuberculosis
81. Not evaluated in Clinical the infection is:
evaluation pneumonia at (a) < 1% in 0-14 group of children
PHC [Recent Question 2014] (b) > 1% is all children 0-5 yrs age
(a) Respiratory rate group
(b) Inability to feed (c) < 1% in 15-49 of age group
(c) Oxygen saturation [AIPGME 1991]
(d) Chest in drawing (d) < 2% in 0-14 group
Review Questions 86. Which of the following is true
82. Respiratory rate can be about tuberculin test?
diagnosed as fast breathing in a (a) It gives the immune status of
less than 2-month-old infant, if patient [AIPGME 1997]
respiratory rate/minute (b) It may be negative in dissociated
is more than: [Kolkata 2004] tuberculosis
(a) 29 (b) 39 (c) It tells about prior exposure to
(c) 49 (d) 59 Mycobacterium
TUBERCULOSIS tuberculosis only
83. All of the following are the (d) It is highly positive in a post
targets of STOP TB STRATEGY measles case
partnership except: 87. The most appropriate test to
(a) Achieve a diagnosis rate > 70% assess the prevalence of
and cure rate tuberculosis
> 85% (by 2005) [AIIMS Nov 2008] infection in a community is:
[AIIMS May 92, AIPGME 04]
(a) Mass Miniature Radiography (d) It is assessed by tuberculin
(b) Sputum examination [Recent conversion in previously
Questions 2014] non-vaccinated children
(c) Tuberculin Test 94. McKneowns Theory states
(d) Clinical examination that reduced prevalence of
88. National Tuberculosis Institute Tuberculosis occurs due to:
is located at: [AIPGME 2011]
(a) New Delhi [AIIMS Nov 2003] (a) Enhanced knowledge and
(b) Chingelput awareness
(c) Bangalore (b) Medical advancements
(d) Chennai (c) Behavioural modification
89. Decrease in which of the (d) Social and environmental factors
following parameters indicate 95. A lactating woman has sputum
the decrease in tuberculosis positive Tuber-culosis
problem in India? and her neonate child is 3 months
(a) Incidence of infection [DPG 2004] old. What is the recommended
(b) Prevalence of infection chemoprophylaxis? [AIIMS May
(c) Incidence of disease 2011]
(d) Prevalence of disease (a) INH 3mg/kg for 3 months
90. The overall prevalence of (b) INH 5mg/kg for 3 months
tuberculosis infection in India (c) INH 3mg/kg for 6 months
as per 4th round of longitudinal (d) INH 5mg/kg for 6 months
survey was: 96. Antitubercular drug which
(a) 20% [Karnataka 2004] causes Optic neuritis is:
(b) 30% [NUPGET 2013]
(c) 40% (a) Ethambutol (b) Rifampicin
(d) 50% (c) Isoniazid (d) Pyrizinamide
91. The percentage of positive
Mantoux test in Indian if 20- 312
40 yrs age group is: [PGI Dec 03] Review of Preventive and Social
(a) < 5% (b) 5 10% Medicine
(c) 20 30% (d) > 50% Communicable and Non-
(e) > 80% communicable Diseases
92. Population of a village on 1st 97. Number of (+) for tubercle
June 2007 is 16,500. Since bacilli if count in AFB
1st January 2007, 22 new cases of sample is > 10 per oil immersion
TB were detected. Total fields?
registered cases were 220. what [Recent Question 2013]
is the incidence of TB? (a) + (b) ++
(a) 133 per 100, 000 [AIPGME 2010] (c) +++ (d) Scanty
(b) 121 per 100, 000 98. One TB infected person can
(c) 111 per 100, 000 infect how many people in
(d) 100 per 100, 000 1 year? [Recent Question 2013]
93. Which of the following is not (a) 20 (b) 30
false about annual risk of (c) 10 (d) 5
TB? [AIPGME 2010] 99. Incidence of TB in a
(a) ARI of 1% = 75 new cases community measured by:
(b) Current ARI in India is 1.7% [DNB December 2011]
(c) It represents new cases of TB. (a) Sputum smear + [Recent
Questions 2014]
(b) Tuberculin test + (a) Immunodeficient patient
(c) Sputum culture (b) Resistance to tuberculin protein
(d) Mantoux test + (c) Patient is infected with
100. The most appropriate test to mycobacterium
assess the prevalence of (d) Patient is suffering from disease
tuberculosis 107. Sputum positive TB patients
infection in a community is: [DNB on chemotherapy should
2007] be isolated at least for [Recent
(a) Mass miniature radiography Question 2014]
(b) Sputum examination (a) 2 weeks
(c) Tuberculin test (b) 3 weeks
(d) Clinical examination (c) 4 weeks
101. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (d) 6 weeks
infection in humans is 108. Contacts of Sputum positive
most common because of: [Recent tuberculosis patient who
Question 2013] should be given preventive
(a) Contact (b) Inhalation chemotherapy
(c) Infiltration (d) Inoculation (a) Pregnant women [Recent
102. One of the following is known Question 2014]
as Tuberculin Conversion (b) Old people
Index: [NUPGET 2013] (c) Children above 6 years
(a) Incidence of infection (d) Children below 6 years
(b) Prevalence of infection Review Questions
(c) Incidence of disease 109. In T.B/ a case is: [DNB
(d) Prevalence of disease 2001]
103. Xpert MTB/RIF test is used to (a) Cough (b) Sputum positive
detect: [PGI May 2013] (c) Mantoux positive (d) X-ray positive
(a) For assessing resistance to 110. National tuberculosis
isoniazid institute is situated at:
(b) For assessing multi drug resistant (a) Bombay [DNB 2003]
TB (b) Calcutta
(c) For assessing rifampicin resistance (c) Bangalore
(d) Monitoring drug response in MDR (d) Delhi
TB 111. Tuberculin unit is: [DNB
(e) Diagnosis of TB 2003]
104. TB multidrug regimen is (a) 0.0001 mg
given to: (b) 1 unit of PPD RT3
[Recent Question 2013] (c) 0.1 mg BCG
(a) Prevent resistance (d) None of the above
(b) Broad spectrum 112. The most appropriate test to
(c) Prevent side effects assess the prevalence of
(d) None tuberculosis infection in a
105. Sputum positive TB is: [DNB community is?
June 2009] (a) Mass miniature radiography [DNB
(a) 1 out of 2 sputum sample +ve 2007]
(b) 2 out of 3 sputum sample +ve (b) Sputum examination
(c) BACTEC +ve (c) Tuberculin test
(d) Mantoux test positive (d) Clinical examination
106. Tuberculin positive means: 113. By WHO best criteria for TB
[DNB June 2011] diagnosis is:
(a) Sputum + ve [Bihar 2005] 120. In India, a tubercular mother
(b) Chest pain is advised for all except:
(c) Cough 3 weeks (a) Give baby BCG [RJ 2003]
(d) X-ray finding (b) ATT to mother
114. A case of TB a/c to WHO is (c) With hold Breastfeeding
detected by: [Bihar 2005] (d) None of these
(a) Sputum exam POLIOMYELITIS
(b) Mass Miniature radiography 121. Which type of sample can be
(c) Montoux test used to isolate poliovirus
(d) Elisa earliest? [AIIMS Nov 2004]
115. True about tuberculosis-: [MP (a) Stool (b) b lood
2000] (c) throat (d) CSF
(a) >104 bacilli are required in sputum 122. True about oral polio vaccine:
for detection [PGI June 03]
(b) Mantoux test can differentiate (a) Poliomyelitis in recipients
between BCG and infection (b) Poliomyelitis in contact of recipient
(c) Can be grown on ordinary culture (c) Guillein Barre syndrome
media (d) Vomiting and fever
(d) Drug sensitivity is tested by schick 123. True about complete
test eradication of poliomyelitis from
116. In tuberculosis combination India is: [AIIMS PGMEE November
of Antimicrobials is used: 2013]
(a) To delay the development of (a) From 2012 onwards, no vaccine
resistance [MP 2002] associated polio case
(b) To reduce toxicity has been detected (b) Last polio case in India was
313 reported in 13 January
Communicable and Non- 2011
communicable Diseases (c) Mostly IPV is used currently
Communicable and Non- (d) India is the only country which is
communicable Diseases not able to
(c) To Broaden anti-bacterial spectrum eliminate it completely
(d) To prevent Liberation of toxins from 124. Regarding poliovirus
organisms responsible for poliomyelitis all
117. Number of sputum positive are true except: [DNB June 2010]
cases of tuberculosis per (a) Type 3 is most common is India
lakh in India is: [MH 2000] (b) Type 1 is most common in India
(a) 75 (b) 50 (c) Type 1 is responsible for most
(c) 40 (d) 10 epidemics
118. BCG is: [MH 2002] (d) Type 2 is eradicated worldwide
(a) Live attenuated vaccine 125. For every clinical case of
(b) Killed vaccine poliomyelitis subclinical cases
(c) Toxoid are: [Recent Question 2013]
(d) Immunosuppressant agent (a) 500 in children and 75 in adults
119. 1 mL of expectoration (b) 500 in children and 25 in adults
contains what number of TB (c) 250 in children and 25 in adults
bacilli in an active case of TB? (d) 1000 in children and 75 in adults
[MH 2002] 126. Which of the following is not
(a) 100 (b) 1,000 a type of Vaccine derived
(c) 10,000 (d) 1,00,000
polio virus? [AIIMS November 134. Killed Vaccine of polio is: [RJ
2014] 2000]
(a) cVDPV (a) Salk (b) Sabin
(b) iVDPV (c) Both (d) None
(c) aVDPV 135. Wrong about polio patient
(d) mVDPV who had paralysis:
127. Polio virus is shed maximum (a) Most predominant polio virus
in stool up to during epidemic is
(a) 6 weeks [Recent Question 2014] type I [RJ 2006]
(b) 8 weeks (b) Sub clinical infection common
(c) 10 weeks
(d) 12 weeks 314
128. Wild poliomyelitis is still Review of Preventive and Social
endemic in Medicine
(a) Sri Lanka [PGI November 2014] Communicable and Non-
(b) Pakistan communicable Diseases
(c) India (c) Can transmit It by nasal discharge
(d) Afghanistan (d) Can be given vaccine
(e) Nigeria 136. All are true about SALK
Review Questions vaccine except:
129. Zero dose of Polio vaccine is (a) It prevents paralysis [RJ 2009]
which is given: (b) Oral polio can be given as booster
(a) Before giving DPT [DNB 2006] (c) It is contraindicated in
(b) At birth immunocompromised
(c) When child is having Diarrhea patients
(d) When child is having Polio (d) Easily transported
130. Polio is due to: [Bihar 2006] HEPATITIS
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria 137. Which of the following is not
(c) Protozoa (d) Fungus transmitted through
131. For every case of sexual route? [AIPGME 2003]
poliomyelitis the subclinical cases (a) Hepatitis A
of (b) Hepatitis E
poliomyelitis to be estimated: [UP (c) Both Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E
2005] (d) Hepatitis D
(a) 500 children and 50 adults 138. Marker for infectivity of
(b) 750 children and 75 adults serum in Hepatitis B is:
(c) 1000 children and 75 adults [AIIMS Nov 1993]
(d) 1000 children and 50 adult (a) HBsAg (b) Anti HBc
132. Mg++ is used in vaccine as: (c) HBe Ag (d) Anti HBc
[Kolkata 2008] 139. Which of the Hepatitis B
(a) Stabilizer (b) Adjuvant Virus serological marker indicates
(c) Preservative (d) Vehicle the first evidence of Hepatitis B
133. True about polio is: [MP infection?
2002] [Karnataka 2009]
(a) Eliminated from India (a) Anti-HBs (b) Anti-HBc
(b) Less than 300 confirmed cases (c) HBeAg (d) HBsAg
remaining 140. Which of the following is true
(c) Only Known in UP, MP and Bihar about HCV screening?
(d) Clinical cases are more than [PGI Dec 04]
subclinical cases
(a) Medical students are screened (a) Hepatitis B vaccine +
before their joining Immunoglobulin
(b) IV drug abuser are prone to (b) Immunoglobulin only
infection (c) Hepatitis B vaccine only
(c) Blood products taken before 1997 (d) Immunoglobulin followed by
should be screened vaccine 1 month later
(d) Long term hemodialysis 148. Most important in diagnosing
(e) Interferon is treatment Acute Hepatitis B is
141. Heaptitis A true is: [PGI June (a) IgG Anti-HBc [AIIMS Nov 2014]
06] (b) IgM Anti-HBc
(a) Causes mild illness in children (c) Anti HBs
(b) 3% incidence of carrier state (d) HBsAg
(c) Sexual route common 149. A nurse was diagnosed to
(d) 10% transform into HCC have HBeAg and HBsAg in
(e) Vertical Transmission never seen serum. Most likely she is having
142. Which of the following is/are (a) Chronic hepatitis B [AIIMS
seen in Acute November 2014]
Hepatitis-B? [PGI May 2011] (b) HBV + HBE coinfection
(a) HBsAg (b) Anti-HBs (c) Active and infectious Hepatitis B
(c) Anti-HBc (d) HBeAg disease
(e) Anti-HBe (d) Recovery from Hepatitis B
143. Both HBsAg and HBeAg are Review Questions
positive in: 150. Hepatitis A virus shedding in
[AIIMS PGMEE May 2013] faeces is: [UP 2004]
(a) Acute infectious hepatitis B [AIIMS (a) One week before the symptoms
Nov 2014] appear
(b) Chronic Hepatitis B (b) Two weeks after the symptoms
(c) Recovery phase of Hepatitis B appear
(d) Individuals vaccinated with (c) Two weeks before the symptoms
Hepatitis B and two week
144. 1955 Hepatitis outbreak is thereafter
Delhi was: (d) One week before the symptoms
[Recent Question 2013] and one week
(a) A (b) B thereafter
(c) C (d) E 151. Epidemiological marker of
145. Isolation period of Hepatitis Hepatitis B is:
A: [DNB December 2011] (a) HBs Ag [UP 2008]
(a) 1 weeks (b) 2 weeks (b) Anti - HBs
(c) 3 weeks (d) 4 weeks (c) Anti HBc
146. Acute Hepatitis B marker(s) (d) HBe Ag
is/ are: [PGI May 2012] 152. Chances of Viral Hepatitis
(a) HBsAg (b) Anti HBs Type C becoming a chronic
(c) Anti HBc (d) HBeAg infection are: [MP 2009]
(e) Anti HBe (a) 10% (b) 20%
147. A mother is HBsAg positive (c) 30% (d) 50% or more
at 32 weeks of pregnancy. DIARRHEAL DISEASES (CHOLERA
What should be given to the and TYPHOID)
newborn to prevent 153. The freshly prepared ORS
neonatal infection? [Recent (Oral Rehydration Solution)
Question 2013]
should not be used after: [AIPGME (c) Furazolidone (d) Cotrimoxazole
1993] 159. The drug of choice for treating cholera in children is:
315 (a) Tetracycline [AIIMS Nov 2005]
Communicable and Non- (b) Doxycycline
communicable Diseases (c) Furazolidone
Communicable and Non- (d) Cotrimoxazole
communicable Diseases 160. True about citrate in ORS:
(a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours [AIIMS June 1997]
(c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours (a) Increases shelf life (b) Nutritious
154. A 5 year old boy passed 18 (c) Cheaper (d) Tastier
loose stools in last 24 hours 161. The sodium content of
and vomited twice in last 4 hours. ReSoMal (rehydration solution
He is irritable for malnourished children) is:
but [AIPGME 2006]
drinking fluids. The optimal (a) 90 mmol/L (b) 60 mmol/L
therapy for this child is: (c) 45 mmol/L (d) 30 mmol/L
(a) Intravenous fluids [AIPGME 2003] 162. For controlling an outbreak
(b) Oral rehydration therapy of cholera, all of the following
(c) Intravenous fluid initially for 4 measures are recommended
hours followed by except:
oral fluids [AIIMS Feb 1997 and May 1991]
(d) Plain water add libitum (a) Mass chemoprophylaxis
155. The best approach to prevent (b) Proper disposal of excreta
cholera epidemic in a (c) Chlorination of water
community is: [AIPGME 1992] (d) Early detection and management
(a) Mass chemoprophylaxis with of cases
tetracycline 163. Which one of the following
(b) Vaccination of all individuals gives strong evidence of
(c) Health education Typhoid Fever carrier status:
(d) safe water and sanitation (a) Isolation of Core antigen [AIIMS
156. Which of the following is the Nov 2008]
drug of choice for (b) Isolation of Vi antigen
chemoprophylaxis (c) Persistence of Vi antibodies
of cholera? (d) Demonstration of Typhoid bacilli in
(a) Tetracycline [AIIMS May 2005] stools
(b) Doxycycline 164. For controlling an outbreak
(c) Furazolidone of cholera, all of the following
(d) Co-trimoxazole measures are recommended
157. The usual incubation period except:
for typhoid fever is: (a) Mass chemoprophylaxis [AIPGME-
(a) 10-14 days [AIIMS May 1994] 1992 and 2003]
(b) 3-5 days [Recent Question (b) Proper disposal of excreta
2012] (c) Chlorination of water
(c) 21-25 days (d) Early detection and management
(d) less then 3 days of cases
158. The drug of choice for 165. Antibiotic treatment of
treating cholera in pregnan choice for treating cholera in an
women is: [AIIMS Nov 2005] adult is a single dose of: [AIPGME
(a) Tetracycline (b) Doxycycline 2005]
(a) Tetracycline (b) Co-trimoxazole
(c) Doxycycline (d) Furazolidone 316
166. A convalescent case of Review of Preventive and Social
cholera remains infective for: Medicine
(a) < 7 days [DPG 2005] Communicable and Non-
(b) 7-14 days communicable Diseases
(c) 14-21 days (d) Lactate 29
(d) 21-28 days (e) Ca+2 - 5
167. In WHO-ORS, concentration 174. WHO ORS has: [PGI Dec 08]
of sodium is: [DPG 2007] (a) K+ 20 mmol/lt
(a) 60 mEq/L (b) 50 mEq/L (b) Na+ 90 mmol/lt
(c) 40 mEq/L (d) 90 mEq/L (c) HCO3
168. True about ORS: [PGI Dec 2K] 10 mmol/lt
(a) Na+ = 90 meq/L (d) Osmolality 150 mmol/lt
(b) K+ = 30 meq/L 175. A 12 kg child with diarrhoea,
(c) Cl- = 20 meq/L fluid to be replaced in first
(d) Hco3 = 40 meq/L 4 hours: [Recent Question 2013]
(e) Glucose = 110 meq/L (a) 0-400 ml (b) 400-800 ml
169. The composition of ORS (c) 800-1200 ml (d) 1200-1600 ml
recommended by WHO is: 176. Incubation period of typhoid
(a) 3.5 g NaCl [PGI Dec 01] is: [Recent Question 2013]
(b) 4.5 g NaCl (a) 1-2 days (b) 10-14 days
(c) 2.9 g sodium-potassium citrate (c) 1 month (d) 4-6 hours
(d) 2.8 g sodium bicarbonate 177. Which is true of typhoid?
(e) 1.5 g potassium chloride [DNB 2008]
170. WHO ORS contains: [PGI June (a) Female carriers are less common
02] (b) Male carriers though less are more
(a) Sodium chloride 2.5 g dangerous
(b) Potassium chloride 1.5 g (c) Gall bladder usually not involved in
(c) Glucose 20 g carrier state
(d) Sucrose 10 g (d) Tetracycline is the DOC for carriers
(e) Potassium bicarbonate 2.5 g 178. Persistent diarrhoea in
171. Composition of ORS which of infants: [Recent Question 2013]
the following is correct: (a) 7 days (b) 14 days
(a) Na+ 90 meq/L [PGI Dec 04] (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
(b) HCO3- 10 meq/L 179. ORS should be discarded
(c) K+ 20 meq/L after: [DNB December 2011]
(d) Cl- 5 meq/L (a) 54 hours (b) 6 hours
172. WHO ORS, composition are (c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours
(mmol): 180. ORS contains 75 mmol/litre
(a) Glucose 111 [PGI June 04] of: [Recent Question 2013]
(b) K+- 80 (a) Sodium (b) Potassium
(c) Na+ - 20 (c) Glucose (d) Chloride
(d) Cl- - 30 181. Dehydration in a child with
(e) Total millimoles-311 diarrhoea, thirst present,
173. Ringer lactate true is: [PGI tears absent is: [Recent Question
Dec 07] 2013]
(a) Cl- - 111 (a) Mild
(b) Na+ - 45 (b) Moderate
(c) K+ - 5 (c) Severe
(d) None (e) 4:1
182. Concentration of sodium in Review Questions
mMol/L in low osmolar 189. Drug of choice for carriers of
ORS is? [DNB December 2011] typhoid is:
(a) 45 (b) 75 (a) Ampicillin [DNB 2002]
(c) 90 (d) 60 (b) Chloramphenicol
183. New WHO ORS osmolarity is: (c) Co-trimoxazole
[Recent Question 2012] (d) Clindamycin
(a) 270 (b) 245 190. Which is true of typhoid?
(c) 290 (d) 310 [DNB 2008]
184. ORS amount required in first (a) Female carriers are less common
4 hours in a 1 year old case (b) Male carriers though less are more
of dehydration is: [Recent dangerous
Question 2012] (c) Gall bladder usually not involved in
(a) 200-400 ml (b) 400-600 ml carrier state
(c) 600-800 ml (d) 800-1200 ml (d) Tetracycline is the DOC for carriers
185. Which of the following about 191. In salmonolosis disease,
the composition of new isolation is done till:
ORS is wrong: [DNB June 2009] (a) Fever subsides [UP 2002]
(a) NaCl 2.6 grams/litre (b) Blood culture negative
(b) KC1 1.5 grams/litre (c) Spleen subsides
(c) Glucose 13.5 grams/litre (d) Stool culture negative for three
(d) Total osmolarity 300mmol/l times
186. True of 8th Pandemic of 192. In ORS, the concentration of
Cholera [PGI May 2014] sodium chloride is:
(a) Started in Bangladesh (a) 3.5 gm [UP 2004]
(b) Originated in 2012 (b) 2.5 gm
(c) Due to O139 El Tor (c) 2.9 gm
(d) Low attack rate (d) 1.5 gm
(e) Low proportion of adults in 193. Drug of choice for cholera
endemic regions chemoprophylaxis is:
187. A village affected with (a) Erythromycin [UP 2004]
epidemic of cholera, what is the (b) Ampicilline [Recent Question
1st step which should to be taken 2013]
in village to decrease (c) Ciprofloxacin
the death from cholera [Recent (d) Tetracyclines
Question 2014] 194. Typhoid oral vaccine is given:
(a) Safe water supply and sanitation [UP 2008]
(b) Cholera vaccination to all (a) 1, 3, 5 days (b) 1, 2, 3 days
individuals (c) 1, 2, 4 days (d) 1, 7, 14 days
(c) Primary Chemoprophylaxis 195. Isolation in patient with
(d) Treat everyone in the village with Salmonellosis is done:
tetracycline (a) Till fever subsides [AP 2006]
188. Ratio of Sodium : Glucose in
WHO Reduced Osmolarity 317
ORS is [JIPMER 2014] Communicable and Non-
(a) 1:4 communicable Diseases
(b) 1:3 Communicable and Non-
(c) 1:2 communicable Diseases
(d) 1:1 (b) Till Widal becomes negative
(c) Till 3 stool test are negative (c) Strongyloides
(d) For 48 hrs of Chloramphenicol (d) Trichuris trichiura
treatment 203. Uses of Chandlers index for
196. Best disinfectant for cholera hookworm include all
stools is: [MP 2000] except [AIIMS PGMEE 2014]
(a) Bleaching powder (b) Cresol (a) Assessment of endemicity
(c) Coal-tar (d) Formalin (b) Monitoring individual treatment
197. In oral rehydration solution (c) Monitoring mass treatment of
least amount in of: coomunity
(a) Sodium citrate [MP 2002] (d) Comparison of worm load in
(b) Potassium chloride different populations
(c) Sodium chloride 204. WHO considerations
(d) Glucose regarding Dracunculosis
Worm infestations eradication,
198. All of the following all are true except: [Recent
statements regarding Question 2014]
dracunculiasis (a) Drinking piped water and
are true except [AIIMS Nov 2004] installation of hand
(a) India has eliminated this disease pumps
(b) Niridazole prevents transmission of (b) DDT
the disease (c) Health education and awareness of
(c) The disease is limited to tropical public
and subtropical regions (d) Control of Cyclops
(d) No animal reservoir has been Review Questions
proved 205. Guinea worm infestation is
199. Chandlers Index is used in common in workers of:
epidemiological studies of (a) Step wells [DNB 2000]
(a) Round worms [AIIMS Dec 1998 (b) Ponds
and Nov 1993] (c) Fields
(b) Hook worms [Recent Question (d) Cotton mills
2013] 206. Chandlers index is used for:
(c) Guinea worms [DNB 2008]
(d) Sand fly (a) Ankyclostoma duodenale
200. Intermediate host for (b) Ascaris lumbricoides
Hydatid disease is: (c) Stongyloides
(a) Man [AIIMS May 2009] (d) Trichuris trichura
(b) Dog 207. According to Chandlers
(c) Cat index water containing 200-250
(d) Fox eggs should be considered as:
201. Chandlers index for (a) Safe [UP 2001]
Hookworm. When it is health (b) Mild pollution
problem? [Recent Question 2013, (c) Dangerous
2014] (d) Public health problem
(a) >300 (b) >200 208. Chandlers index: [AP 2006]
(c) >100 (d) >50 (a) No of hookworm eggs per gram of
202. Chandlers index is used for: stool
[DNB 2008] (b) No of hookworm larva per gram of
(a) Ankylostoma duodenale [Recent stool
Question 2014] (c) No of failures of contraception for
(b) Ascaris lumbricoides 100 woman years
of exposure to 10 years
(d) No of E-coli in a water sample (c) Urban form is controlled by 17 D
209. Dracunculiasis was more vaccine
common in which of the following (d) Aedes aegypti index should not be
state? [TN 2000] more than 10%
(a) Orissa (b) Rajasthan to ensure freedom from yellow Fever
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) U.P. 215. Classical dengue fever is
210. Cysticercosis cellulosae transmitted by:
causes infection with: (a) Aedes mosquito [Karnataka
(a) Taenia saginata [TN 2005] 2008]
(b) Taenia solium (b) Anopheles mosquito [Recent
(c) Echinococcus granulosus Question 2013]
(d) Diphyllobothrium latum (c) Mansonoides mosquito
211. Chandlers index is: [Recent (d) Culex mosquito
Question 2014] [MP 2001] 216. Which of the following
(a) No. of eggs of hook work in 100 statement is/are true about
gram soil dengue: [PGI Dec 06]
(b) No. of eggs of hookworm in per (a) Haematocrit
gram soil (b) platelet
(c) No. of eggs of hookworm in per (c) + tourniquet test
gram stool (d) Vector Aedes aegypti usually bite
(d) Percentage of stool specimens during day time
positive for hookworms (e) Pleural effusion present
212. Highest level of health care 217. Dengue virus appears to
is: [RJ 2003] have a direct man-mosquitoman
(a) Primary health care cycle in India. The mechanism of
(b) Tertiary care dengue virus
(c) Child care survival
(d) Secondary level care in the inter-epidemic period is:
213. Dengue shock syndrome is (a) Non-human reservoir
characterized by the (b) Dormant or latent phase in man
following except: [AIIMS Nov (c) Transovarian transmission of the
1993] virus
(a) Hepatomegaly (d) Poor housekeeping by the public
(b) Pleural effusion 218. True about Dengue fever
(c) Thrombocytopenia is/are: [PGI May 2011]
(d) Decreased hemoglobin (a) Is the most common arboviral infection
318 (b) Can be both epidemic as well as
Review of Preventive and Social endemic
Medicine (c) Can survive in ambient
Communicable and Non- temperature
communicable Diseases (d) Incidence decreasing in India in
214. All are true about Yellow last 2-3 decades
Fever except: (e) Vector is Aedes aegypti
[AIIMS Nov 1999] 219. The main vector of Dengue
(a) Incubation period is 3-6 days fever is: [Karnataka 2011]
(b) Validity of Intl certificate of (a) Aedes aegypti
Vaccination lasts up (b) Aedes albopictus
(c) Aedes polynesiensis (b) It is endemic in India
(d) Aedes scutellaris (c) Aspirin is used for treatment
220. Which is not true of Dengue (d) Clinical course of dengue is more
fever? [NUPGET 2013] fulminant in
(a) Aedes aegypti is the principal children than adults
vector MALARIA
(b) Break bone fever is characteristic 226. API is: [AIIMS May 1993]
(c) Serotype 4 is more dangerous than (a) Annual parasitic index
other serotypes (b) Average parasitic index
(d) Torniquet test is positive (c) Animal parasite interval
221. All are true about Dengue (d) Annual parasitic incidence
hemorrhagic fever except: 227. The infective form of malarial
(a) Lamivudine is drug of choice parasite through a blood
(b) Malnutrition is protective transfusion is: [AIIMS June 1997]
(c) Transmitted by Aedes [AIIMS (a) Trophozoite (b) merozoite
November 2014] (c) sporozoite (d) schizont
(d) Causative agent belongs to 228. The drug preferred for
Flaviviradae group chloroquine resistant malaria in
Review Questions pregnancy is: [AIIMS June 2000]
222. Which is not true about (a) Mefloquine (b) primaquine
dengue hemorrhagic fever: (c) cloxacilin (d) quinine
(a) Thrmbocytopenia [Bihar 2006] 229. In a Chloroquine resistant
(b) Hepatomegaly zone the presumptive treatment
(c) Shock of malaria to be given is:[AIIMS
(d) Plasma leaking May 02, Nov 1999]
223. Dengue fever is transmitted (a) Chloroquine + primaquine 45 mg
by: [AP 1999] (b) Chloroquine + pyrimethamine
[JIPMER 1994] [MP 2001] [UP (c) Sulphalene 1000 mg
1997] [AP 2001] (d) Sulphadoxine + pyrimethamine
(e) Cluex fatigans 230. In high-risk areas the radical
(f) Cluex vishnuii treatment for Plasmodium
(g) Aedes aegypti vivax infection after microscopic
(h) Glossina palpalis confirmation
224. Infective period of Aedes is
mosquito for Classical administration of tablets
Dengue fever (break-bone fever) primaquine in the daily
is: [AIIMS 1988] dosage of: [AIIMS May 1993]
[Karnataka 1987] [MH 1997] (a) 0.25 mg/ kg body weight
[Manipal 1997] [SGPGI (b) 0.50 mg/ kg body weight
1996] [TN 1993, 1991] [UP 1996] (c) 0.75 mg/ kg body weight
[UPSC 1986] [TN 2000] (d) 1.00 mg/ kg body weight
(a) 10-20 days
(b) 20-30 days 319
(c) 30-40 days Communicable and Non-
(d) Lifelong communicable Diseases
225. Which of the following Communicable and Non-
statement regarding dengue is communicable Diseases
correct: [Kolkata 2004] 231. The most sensitive index of
(a) Caused by 3 serotypes of dengue recent transmission of
virus malaria in a community is:
[AIIMS Nov 1993, 2003, Feb 1997, (c) Man act as definitive host [PGI
AIPGME 1996] Dec 06]
(a) Spleen rate (d) Rare in urban areas
(b) Infant parasite rate (e) Mosquito acts as definitive host
(c) Annual parasite incidence 239. Malaria is transmitted by:
(d) Slide positivity rate [PGI Dec 07]
232. In endemic area, most (a) Anopheles stephensi
sensitive indicator of recent (b) Anopheles Dirus
transmission of malaria is: [DPG (c) Culex
2005] (d) Phlebotamus
(a) API (b) Spleen rate 240. All of the following factors
(c) ABER (d) Infant parasite site are responsible for resurgence
233. Best indicator for malaria of Malaria except: [AIPGME 2011]
prevalence in a community (a) Drug resistance
is: [DPG 2005] (b) Use of bed-nets
(a) Adult parasite rate (c) Vector resistance
(b) New Cases in a community (d) Mutation in parasite
(c) Infant parasite rate 241. Plasmodium ovale in India
(d) Spleen rate has been reported from:
234. Which of the following is (a) Maharashtra [PGI May 2011]
used for radical cure of malaria? (b) Madhya Pradesh
[DPG 2006] (c) Manipur
(a) Primaquine (b) Chloroquine (d) Gujarat
(c) Quinine (d) Pyrimethamine (e) Orrisa
235. Species of Anopheles 242. True about Malaria in India
transmitting transmitting malaria is/ are:
is urban areas is: [DPG 2007] [PGI November 2012]
(a) Stephensi (b) Culcifacies (a) 1.5 million cases annually
(c) Minimus (d) Fluviatilis (b) Quinine drug of choice in severe
236. The peaks of fever in malaria malaria in
coincide with the release pregnancy
of successive broods of ..into (c) Anopheles culicifacies is vector in
the blood stream: Urban malaria
(a) Sporozoites [Karnataka 2008] (d) Plasmodium ovale is not seen in
(b) Trophozoites India
(c) Merozoites (e) Falciparum malaria is most
(d) Hypnozoites common type
237. Urban malaria is due to: [PGI 243. Prophalaxis for malaria not
Dec 2K] used:
(a) Anopheles stephensi [Recent Question 2013]
(b) Anopheles culicifacies (a) Doxycycline (b) Artesunate
(c) Phlebotomus (c) Chloroquine (d) Mefloquine
(d) Aedes 244. Chemoprophylaxis of Malaria
(e) Culex vishnaui can be done by all
238. True about epidemiology of except: [Recent Question 2012]
malaria: [Recent Question 2013]
(a) Extrinsic incubation period 0-14 (a) Chloroquine (b) Mefloquine
days (c) Proguanil (d) Primaquine
(b) In India common during January to 245. Malaria recrudescence is
June [AIIMS May 2014]
(a) Resistant to treatment (a) Infant parasite rate
(b) Relapse of infection (b) Parasite density
(c) Relapse in vivax and ovale (c) proportional case rate
(d) Reappearance of sexual stage (d) Spleen rate
parasitemia after treatment 253. What is causative organism
246. Cycle that is seen in RBCs in for Malaria?
malaria (a) Plasmodium [MP 2006]
(a) Sexual [Recent Question 2014] (b) Anopheles
(b) Sporogony (c) Culex
(c) Exogenous (d) Yersinia
(d) Endogenous 254. Goal of reduction in
Review Questions morbidity and mortality due to
247. Malarial parasite in India are malaria by 2010 is: [MP 2009]
all except: [DNB 2003] (a) 25% reduction
(a) P. vivax (b) P. falciparum (b) 50% reduction
(c) P. ovale (d) P. malariae (c) 75% reduction
248. Incubation period of (d) 100% reduction
plasmodium vivax is: 255. Malaria is transmitted by:
(a) 5-7 days [DNB 2004] [MH 2000]
(b) 7-10 days [Recent Question (a) Female anopheles mosquito
2012] (b) Male anopheles mosquito
(c) 10-14 days [Recent Question (c) Culex mosquito
2013] (d) Aedes mosquito
(d) 15-30 days 256. Among various species of
249. Anti malaria month: [UP mosquitoes belonging to
2005] anopheles genus, one that is
(a) April (b) May highly anthrophilic and
(c) June (d) September transmits even at low density is:
250. If API>2, the vector is [MH 2003]
resistant to DDT, the malathion (a) Anopheles sundicans
spray should be done every: [UP (b) Anopheles fluvitalis
2006] (c) Anopheles stephensi
(a) One round of malathion every (d) Anopheles culicifacies
month 257. Best determinant index of
(b) 2 round or malathion every months recent transmission of malaria:
(c) 1 -2 round of malathion every 3 [JIPMER 1999] [MH 2006]
months (a) Infant parasite rate
(d) 3 round of malathion every 3 (b) ABER
months251. A malarial survey is (c) Splenic rate
conducted in 50 villages having a (d) Annual parasite index
population of 1 lakh. Out of 20000 LYMPHATIC FILARIASIS
slides examined,500 258. DEC is used extensively in
turned out to be malaria positive. the chemotherapy of
The annual parasite Filariasis. It is most effective
incidence is: [Kolkata 2008] against:
(a) 20 (b) 5 (a) Microfilariae [AIIMS May 1993]
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.4 (b) Adult worm
252. Most sensitive index of (c) Infective stage larvae
recent transmission of malaria (d) All of the above
is: [MP 2005]
259. The organism most Review Questions
commonly causing genital 265. Life cycle of filarial in the
filariasis mosquito is described as:
in most parts of Bihar and Eastern (a) Cyclopropagative [AP 2005]
U.P. is: (b) Cyclodevelopmental
(a) Wuchereria bancrofti (c) Propagative
(b) Brugia malayi (d) None
(c) Onchocerca volvulus 266. The Clinical incubation period
(d) Dirofilaria of Filariasis is:
260. The currently given regimen (a) 10 to 20 days [TN 2003]
for Bancroftian filariasis (b) 3 to 6 months
is: [AIPGME 1991] (c) 6 to 12 months
(a) DEC 6 mg/ Kg / day 21 days (d) 8 to 16 months
(b) DEC 6 mg/ Kg / day 12 days 267. Target year for elimination of
(c) DEC 100 mg/ day 21 days lymphatic filariasis:
(d) DEC 100 mg/ day 12 days (a) 2010 [Kolkata 2008]
261. The vector for transmission (b) 2015
of Bancroftian filaria is: (c) 2020
(a) Culex fatigans [Karnataka 2005] (d) 2012
(b) Aedes aegypti
(c) Mansonoides annulifers 321
(d) Anopheles stephensi Communicable and Non-
262. The DEC-medicated salt for communicable Diseases
mass treatment in lymphatic Communicable and Non-
filariasis was shown to be safe, communicable Diseases
cheap and effective RABIES
in: [Karnataka 2008] 268. Pre-exposure prophylaxis for
(a) Goa Rabies is given on:
(b) Daman and Diu (a) Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90 [AIPGME
(c) Andaman and Nicobar islands 96, AIPGME 98]
(d) Lakshadweep islands (b) Days 0, 3, 7, 28, 90 [Recent
263. All of the following are Questions 2014]
helpful for elimination of filariasis, (c) Days 0, 3
except: [AIIMS PGMEE May 2012] (d) Days 0, 7, 28
(a) Microfilariae do not multiply in 269. Class II exposure in animal
vectors bites includes the
(b) They multiply in humans following: [AIPGME 2003]
(c) Larvae are deposited on skin (a) Scratches without oozing of blood
surface where they (b) Licks on a fresh wound
cant survive (c) Scratch with oozing of blood on
(d) Mass drug administration palm
264. All of the following are true (d) Bites from wild animals
about filariasis except: 270. For the treatment of case of
[DNB December 2011] class III dog bite, all of the
(a) It is sheathed following are correct except:
(b) Tail end is free from nuclei and [Recent Question 2013]
unsheathed (a) Give Immunoglobulins for passive
(c) Has nocturnal activity immunity
(d) Day time resides inside the (b) Give ARV [AIPGME 2005]
(c) Immediately stitch wound under 277. Number of does of Rabies
antibiotic coverage HDCV vaccine required for
(d) Immediately wash wound with pre-exposure prophylaxis: [Recent
soap and water Question 2013]
271. Which of the following (a) 5 (b) 2
statements about rabies is (c) 3 (d) 1
true? [DPG 2004] 278. Which virus is used to
(a) Convulsions are generally not seen produce rabies vaccine?
in a patient with [Recent Question 2013]
rabies (a) Wild (b) Street
(b) Presence of meningitis suggests (c) Fixed (d) Live Attenuated
against the diagnosis 279. Intermediate host of Rabies
of rabies is [Recent Question 2014]
(c) Intracytoplasmic basophilic (a) Man
inclusion bodies are (b) Dog
seen in brain cells (c) Cow
(d) Incubation period is approximately (d) Rat
20 to 80 days Review Questions
272. Which of the following should 280. Rabies free country is: [DNB
be injected in and 2000]
around the wound in class III (a) China (b) Russia
rabies bite? (c) Australia (d) France
(a) Tetanus toxoid [DPG 2006] 281. Rabies free country is: [DNB
(b) Antibiotic solution 2004, 05]
(c) Anti rabies serum (a) China (b) Russia
(d) None of the above (c) Britain (d) France
273. Rabies in not found in: [DPG 282. All these Rabies vaccines are
2006] commercially available
(a) Lakshadweep Islands (b) Rajasthan Except: [UP 2000]
(c) Meghalaya (d) Orrisa (a) Killed sheep brain
274. Bite of which of the following (b) Human diploid vaccine
animals do not result in (c) Vero-continuous cell vaccine
human rabies? [DPG 2007] (d) Recombinant glycoprotein vaccine
(a) Dog (b) Mouse 283. A patients present with dogs
(c) Horse (d) Cat bite in the palm fingers
275. Characteristic features of and oozing of blood on the neck
Rabies include all except: regions, belongs to
[NUPGET 2013] which class of the exposures:
(a) Can manifest as ascending (a) Class I [UP 2008]
paralysis (b) Class II
(b) Hematogenous spread to brain (c) Class III
(c) Can be transmitted by bites other (d) None
than dogs also 284. All are true about rabies
(d) In invariably fatal except: [MP 2000]
276. Schedule of intradermal (a) It is a DNA virus
rabies vaccine is? (b) Vaccine virus has fixed incubation
[Recent Question 2013] period
(a) 2-2-0-1-0-1 (b) 8-0-4-0-1-1 (c) Incubation period depends upon
(c) 8-4-4-1-0-1 (d) 2-0-2-0-1-1 site of bite
(d) All bites on fingers with laceration 291. According to International
are class III injuries Health Regulations, there is
285. Nervous tissue Rabies no risk of spread of yellow Fever if
vaccines are usually the Aedes aegypti
manufactured index remains below: [AIPGME
from: [MP 2007] 2004]
(a) Sheep (a) 1% (b) 5% [Recent Question
(b) Human diploid cell 2013]
(c) Duck embryos (c) 8% (d) l0%
(d) Chick embryos 292. All are true for Yellow Fever
286. Rabies does not occur in except:
which of the following parts of (a) Causative agent is Flavivirus
India? [MH 2003] fibricus
(a) Daman and Diu (b) Case fatality is up to 80 %
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands [AIPGME 2003]
(c) Dadra and Nagar Havelli (c) Validation of Vaccination Certificate
(d) Pondicherry begins after 10 days and lasts till 10 years
322 (d) Incubation period is 16-46 days
Review of Preventive and Social 293. Vaccine of yellow fever is:
Medicine [DPG 2006]
Communicable and Non- (a) 4D (b) 5D
communicable Diseases (c) 2D (d) 17D
287. In the case of dog bite the 294. True about yellow fever: [PGI
biting animal should be June 04]
observed for at least: [RJ 2007] (a) I.P. is 10-14 days
(a) 5 days (b) 10 days (b) Transmitted by Aedes
(c) 15 days (d) 3 weeks (c) It is found in Asia
288. In India Rabies free zone (d) Incidence is increased by humidity
is: [RJ 2008] (e) It is a flavivirus
(a) Goa 295. Yellow fever certificate of
(b) Lakshadweep vaccination is valid for:
(c) Skkim [Recent Question 2012]
(d) Nagaland (a) 1 year
YELLOW FEVER (b) 10 years
289. The incubation period of (c) 35 years
yellow fever is: (d) Lifelong
(a) 3 to 6 days [AIIMS May 04] 296. Yellow fever vaccination
(b) 3-4 weeks starts protection after how
(c) 1 to 2 weeks many days of injection: [DNB
(d) 8-10 weeks 2007]
290. All are features of yellow (a) 5 day [Recent Questions 2014]
fever except: (b) 10 days
(a) Sub clinical cases present [AIIMS (c) 15 days
June 1997] (d) 20 days
(b) Fatality rate > 90% 297. Which is not true about
(c) One attack gives life long immunity Yellow fever?
(d) Hepatic and renal involvement in [Recent Question 2013]
severe cases (a) Exotic
(b) Incubation period 2-6 days
(c) Validity of vaccine 6 years (a) Man is incidental dead-end host
(d) Live Attenuated 17 D strain (b) Culicines and anophelines are
vaccine vectors involved
298. To prevent yellow fever (c) Case fatality rate is over 90%
Aedes aegypti index should be (d) 85% of cases occur in children <15
less than. [DNB December years age
2010] 305. True statement regarding
[DNB December 2011] Japanese Encephalitis is:
(a) 0.5% (b) 1% [AIPGME 2011]
(c) 2% (d) 5% (a) 70% of cases are reported from
299. Yellow fever certificate of infants
vaccination is valid for: (b) Ratio of clinical apparent to non-
[DNB December 2010] apparent infections
(a) 6 years, starting from 6 days after is 1:100
vaccination (c) Mosquito bite is always associated
(b) 10 years, starting from 10 days with the disease
after vaccination (d) Epidemic is declared if there are 2-
(c) 10 years, starting from 6 days after 3 cases in a village
(d) 6 years, starting from 10 days after 323
vaccination Communicable and Non-
Review Questions communicable Diseases
300. Yellow fever vaccination Communicable and Non-
starts protection after how communicable Diseases
many days of injection: [DNB 306. JE virus life cycle in nature
2001] run between?
(a) 5 days (b) 10 days [Recent Question 2013]
(c) 15 days (d) 20 days (a) Pigs-Mosquito (b) Cattle-Birds
301. Yellow fever vaccine is valid (c) Pigs-human (d) Bird-Pigs
till: [UP 2001] 307. Amplifier for Japanese
(a) 10 years (b) 20 years encephalitis:
(c) 30 years (d) 40 years [Recent Question 2013]
302. Which act was passed in 20th (a) Horse (b) Pigs
century: [MP 2004] (c) Dogs (d) Monkey
(a) Birth and death registration act 308. Japanese encephalitis is
(b) Drug act transmitted by:
(c) Epidemic disease act [DNB December 2010] [DNB June
(d) Quarantine act 2011]
303. Which if the following is the [Recent Question 2012]
YELLOW FEVER (a) Culex (b) Aedes
reference centre? [MH 2008] (c) Mansonia (d) Anopheles
(a) Haffkins institute, Mumbai Review Questions
(b) Central institute, kasauli 309. Not true about Japaneses
(c) NIN, Hyderabad encephalitis is:
(d) AIIMS, Delhi (a) Man to man transmission [Bihar
304. All are true about Japanese (b) Vector is culex. tritaeniorhynchus
Encephalitis except: (c) Rice field
[AIPGME 1996, Dec 98, [AIIMS (d) Horse shows symptom
May 97]
310. Vector of Japanese (c) IP for bubonic plague is 1-3 days
Encephalitis is: [UP 2001] (d) Infants under 6 months are not
(a) Culex (b) Anopheles given the killed vaccine
(c) Aedes (d) Waucheria 318. The most effective method to
311. Major determinant to break transmission chain
eradication of Japanese in plague is: [AIIMS May 2002]
encephalitis is: [RJ 2007] (a) Early diagnosis and treatment
(a) No effective vaccine (b) Control of fleas
(b) Breeding place of vector (c) Control of rodents
(c) Large no. of in apparent infections (d) Vaccination
(d) Numerous animal hosts 319. All of the following
KFD statements about plague is
312. Which of these is NOT useful wrong,
in the prevention of except: [AIIMS May 2004]
KFD? [AIIMS May 2001] (a) Domestic rat is the main reservoir
(a) Vaccination (b) Bubonic is the most common
(b) Deforestation variety
(c) Prevention of roaming cattle (c) The causative bacillus can survive
(d) Personal protection up to 10 years in
313. The vector for KFD is: [AIIMS the soil of rodent burrows
May 1993] (d) The incubation period for
(a) Aedes aegypti pneumonic plague is one
(b) Haemaphysalis to two weeks
(c) Culex 320. Plague epidemic in Surat in
(d) Xenopsylla 1995 has occurred after a
314. Kyasanur forest disease in silence period of: [DPG 2005]
transmitted by: (a) 18 years
(a) Mosquito [DPG 2006] (b) 20 years
(b) Housefly (c) 28 years
(c) Rat flea (d) 30 years
(d) Hard tick 321. Maximum Explosiveness of
Review Questions Plague is determined by:
315. Kyasnur Forest Disease (KFD) (a) Total flea index [DPG 2006]
is transmitted by: (b) Cheopsis index [Recent Question
(a) Mite [Kolkata 2008] 2013]
(b) Tick (c) Borrow index
(c) Lice (d) Specific percentage of fleas
(d) Bug 322. Severity of spreading of
316. KFD in India is transmitted plague detected by:
by: [MP 2000] (a) Burrows index [DNB December
(a) Louse (b) Flea 2011]
(c) Ticks (d) Culex (b) Cheopsis index
PLAGUE (c) Specific flea index
317. All are true about Plague (d) Total flea index
except Review Questions
(a) Domestic rat Rattus rattus has 323. Cheopsis index is the: [AP
been incriminated 2003]
as main reservoir [AIPGME 1997] (a) Average number of cheopis per rat
(b) Both sexes of rat flea bite to (b) Average number of fleas per rat
transmit the disease
(c) Average number of fleas per was made. Which one of the
burrow following can be the
(d) Average number of cheopis per causative agent? [AIPGME 2006]
burrow (a) Rickettsia typhi (b) Rickettsia rickettsiae
324 (c) Rickettsia prowazekii
Review of Preventive and Social (d) Rickettsia akari
Medicine 329. It is true regarding endemic
Communicable and Non- typhus that:
communicable Diseases (a) Man is the only reservoir of
324. The highly infections clinical infection
form of plague is: (b) Flea is a vector of the disease
(a) Bubonic plague [TN 2003] [AIPGME 07]
(b) Pneumonic plague (c) The rash developing into eschar is
(c) Septicaemic plague a characteristic
(d) All of the above presentation
325. Dose of equine anti-rabies (d) Culture of the aetiological agent in
immunoglobulin (ERIG) is: tissue culture is
[MP 2005] diagnostic modality
(a) 20 IU per kg of body weight 330. Mode of transmission of Q
(b) 10 IU per kg of body weight fever is:
(c) 40 IU per kg of body weight (a) Bite of infected louse [AIIMS May
(d) 30 IU per kg of body weight 04]
326. Plague is transmitted by: [RJ (b) Bite of infected tick
2001] (c) Inhalation of aerosol
(a) Hard tick [Recent Question (d) Bite of infected mite
2013] 331. A man presents with fever
(b) Soft tick and chills 2 weeks after a
(c) Rat flea louse bite. There was a maculo-
(d) Louse papular rash on the
RICKETTSIAL DISASES trunk which spread peripherally.
327. Which of the following pairs The cause of this infection
of Rickettsial Diseases can be: [AIIMS May 2003]
Insect vectors is wrongly (a) Scrub typhus
matched ? [AIPGME 96] (b) Endemic typhus
(a) Epidemic typhus Louse (c) Rickettsial pox
(b) Scrub typhus - Flea (d) Epidemic typhus
(c) Rocky Mountain spotted fever - Tick 332. All of following statements
(d) Rickettsial pox - Mite are true regarding Q fever
328. A patient complained of chills except: [AIIMS May 2003, AIPGME
and fever following a 1996]
louse bite 2 weeks before. He had (a) It is a zoonotic infection
rashes all over the (b) Human disease is characterized by
body and was delirious at the time an interstitial
of presentation to pneumonia
the hospital and subsequently (c) No rash is seen
went into coma. A provisional (d) Weil Felix reaction is very useful for
diagnosis of vasculitis due to diagnosis
Rickettsial infection 333. R. Rickettsii causes: [AIPGME
(a) Indian tick typhus tahir99 - UnitedVRG
(b) Rocky mountain spotted fever 325
(c) Rickettsial pox Communicable and Non-
(d) Trench fever communicable Diseases
334. All are true about Scrub Communicable and Non-
typhus except: communicable Diseases
(a) Mite is a vector [AIPGME 2010] 342. Mode of transmission of Q
(b) Adult mite feeds on vertebral host fever? [DNB 2008]
(c) Caused by R. tsutsugamushi (a) Ticks (b) Mites
(d) Tetracycline is treatment (c) Aerosols (d) Mosquito
335. Rickettsiae are transmitted 343. R. prowazekii is transmitted
by: [PGI May 2011] by: [UP 2001]
(a) Flea (b) Louse (a) Flea (b) Louse
(c) Mosquito (d) Mite (c) Mite (d) Tick
(e) Fly 344. Rickettsial agent of Epidemic
336. Epidemic typhus causes & typhus is:
vector: (a) R. prowazekii [UP 2005]
[Recent Question 2013] (b) R. typhi
(a) Rickettessia prowazki & louse (c) R. tsutsugamushi
(b) R. typhi & mite (d) R. canorii
(c) R. conori & tick 345. Endemic typhus is
(d) R. akari & mite transmitted by: [UP 2006]
337. Vagabond disease (a) Louse [Recent Question 2012]
transmitted by: (b) Flea
[Recent Question 2013] (c) Mite
(a) Louse (b) Mite (d) Tick
(c) Tick (d) Black Fly 346. Organism that does not need
338. Epidemic typhus is vector for transmission:
transmitted by: (a) Rickettsia prowazekii- [Kolkata
[DNB December 2010] 2005]
(a) Louse (b) Soft tick (b) Rickettsia rickettsii-
(c) Hard tick (d) Rat flea (c) Coxiella burnetii-
339. Rickettsial pox is caused by: (d) Borrelia recurrentis-
[DNB December 2009] 347. Trombiculid mite can
(a) Rickettsia ricketsiae (b) Rickettsia transmit: [MP 2004]
akari (a) Indian tick typhus
(c) R. typhi (d) Rickettsia conri (b) Scrub typhus
340. Endemic typhus is (c) Relapsing fever
transmitted by: (d) Q. fever
[DNB December 2009] 348. Arthropods are vector for all
(a) Flea (b) Tick Except: [MH 2007]
(c) Mite (d) Mosquito (a) Scrub typhus
Review Questions (b) Epidemic typhus
341. Scrub typhus is transmitted (c) Q-fever
by: [DNB 2006] (d) Rocky mountain sportted fever
(a) Flea [Recent Question 2013] 349. Scrub typhus is transmitted
(b) Mite by: [RJ 2000]
(c) Tick (a) Mite
(d) Mosquito (b) Tick (c) Louse
(d) Flea (d) The disease is endemic in Bihar
350. Rash starting peripherally is 357. Not true about Kala-Azar is:
a feature of: [RJ 2007] [RJ 2007]
(a) Epidemic types (a) Sandfly is the vector
(b) Endemic Typhus (b) Man is the only reservoir host in
(c) Scrub typhus India
(d) Indian tick typhus (c) Aldehyde test is positive
351. Rash is absent in: [RJ 2008] (d) Man has flagellar stage of
(a) Epidemic types organism
(b) Endemic typhus TRACHOMA
(c) Scrub typhus 358. SAFE strategy include all the
(d) Q-fever following EXCEPT:
LEISHMANIASIS (a) Screening [AIIMS Nov 2006]
352. False about Leishmaniasis is: (b) Antibiotics
[AIPGME 2003] (c) Face washing
(a) Co-infection with AIDS is now (d) Environmental improvement
emerging 359. True about Trachoma is:
(b) Indian Leishmaniasis is a non- [AIPGME 1996]
zoonotic infection (a) Is a disease of high infectivity
with man as the sole reservoir (b) Prevalence of severe and moderate
(c) Aldehyde Test of Napier is a good trachoma in > 1
test for diagnosis % in children less than 10 yrs is
(d) There are no drugs for personal indication for mass
prophylaxis treatment
353. Reservoir of Indian Kala-azar (c) Irritants like kajal or surma also
is: [AIIMS May 03] predispose
(a) Man (b) Rodent (d) Is a non-avoidable cause of
(c) Canine (d) Equine blindness in India
354. All are used in treatment of 360. For the field diagnosis of
Visceral Leishmaniasis trachoma, the WHO recommends
except: [AIIMS Nov 2009] that follicular and intense
(a) Sitamaquine trachoma inflammation
(b) Paramomycin should be assessed in: [AIIMS May
(c) Hydroxychloroquine 2003]
(d) Miltefosine (a) Women aged 15-45 years
Review Questions (b) Population of 10 to 28 year range
355. Kala-azar is transmitted by: (c) Children aged 0-10 years
[TN 2005] (d) Population above 25 years of age
(a) Phlebotomus sergenti irrespective of sex
(b) Phlebotomus papatasii
(c) Phlebotomus argentipes 326
(d) All of the above Review of Preventive and Social
356. All the following statements Medicine
are true for Indian Kalaazar Communicable and Non-
Except: [MP 2009] communicable Diseases
(a) It is transmitted by the bite of an 361. In the grading of Trachoma,
infected sandfly Trachomatous Inflammation-
(b) Dog is the reservoir of infection follicular is defined as the
(c) The causative parasite is cultivated presence of:
in the NNN medium [AIPGME 2004]
(a) Five or more follicles in the lower 3 hours ago. He should now be
tarsal conjunctiva given
(b) Three or more follicles in the lower (a) Full course of tetanus toxoid
tarsal conjunctiva [AIPGME 01]
(c) Five or more follicles in the upper (b) Single dose of tetanus toxoid
tarsal conjunctiva [Recent Question 2013]
(d) Three or more follicles in the upper (c) Human tetanus globulin
tarsal conjunctiva (d) Human tetanus globulin and single
362. Mass treatment of trachoma dose of toxoid
is undertaken, when the 368. Neonatal Tetanus is said to
prevalence is more than: [DPG be eliminated when the rate
2005] is: [AIIMS Feb 1997]
(a) 3% (b) 5% (a) > 10 per 1000 [Recent Question
(c) 6% (d) 10% 2013]
363. Lowest incidence of (b) > 1 per 1000
trachoma is in: [DPG 2011] (c) < 1 per 1000
(a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan (d) < 0.1 per 1000
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Orissa 369. All the following are done to
364. Azithromycin mass treatment prevent tetanus neonatorum
is given in community except: [AIPGME 2007]
when prevalence of Trachoma is (a) Two TT doses to all pregnant
more than: women
(a) 4% [AIIMS November 2011] (b) TT to all females in reproductive
(b) 6% age group
(c) 8% (c) TT to all newborns
(d) 10% (d) Injection penicillin to all neonates
365. Trachoma screening is done 370. Three doses of tetanus
on which of the following vaccine provides immunity for:
age-groups? [AIIMS PGMEE (a) 1 year [DPG 2006]
November 2012] (b) 5 years
(a) <5 years (c) 10 years
(b) 5-10 years (d) 15 years
(c) 5-15 years 371. All of the following
(d) 1-9 years statements are true about
366. Single drug treatment Clostridium
recommended for Trachoma tetani infection except: [AIIMS
control in India is [Recent Nov 2010]
Question 2014] (a) Main reservoir is soil, animal
(a Azithromycin intestine and human
(b) Tetracycline intestine
(c) Erythromycin (b) Main mode of transmission is
(d) Penicillin through trauma and
TETANUS contaminated wound
367. A person has received (c) Herd immunity does not have
complete immunization against much value
tetanus 10 years ago, now he (d) Seen commonly in winter and dry
presents with a clean climate
wound without any lacerations 372. All are true regarding
from an injury sustained Clostridium tetani infection
except: [AIPGME 2011]
(a) Incubation period 6-10 days 327
(b) 3 primary doses of vaccine Communicable and Non-
required for full protection communicable Diseases
(c) Man-to-man transmission Communicable and Non-
(d) Produces heat-resistant spores communicable Diseases
373. An adult, previously 378. A person had clean non-
unimmunized against Tetanus penetrating wound four hours
presents with a clean non- back. He had a complete course of
penetrating wound sustained toxoid eleven years
2 hours previously. What tetanus ago. What treatment is
prophylaxis is advised? recommended? [MP 2009]
[Karnataka 2011] (a) No toxoid is required
(a) Only through cleaning of wound (b) Toxoid one dose
(b) Tetanus toxoid 1 dose (c) Toxoid complete course
(c) Tetanus toxoid complete course (d) Toxoid complete course+Human
(d) Tetanus toxoid complete course + tetanus Ig
human tetanus 379. Indicators of the Elimination
immunoglobulin of NEONATAL TETNUS
374. True about Tetanus is all includes the following Except?
except: (a) Incidence rate <0.1/1000 live
[AIIMS PGMEE November 2012] births [MH 2008]
(a) Tetanus protection 5 years if (b) > 90% coverage of 3 antenatal
previously immunized visits
(b) Herd immunity present (c) TT2 injection coverage in pregnant
(c) Cant be eradicated mothers > 90%
(d) Elimination is less than 1 case per (d) None
1000 births 380. In Tetanus communicable
375. To achieve neonatal tetanus period is: [RJ 2001]
elimination, incidence of (a) 7 days (b) 10 days
neonatal tetanus per 1000 live (c) 14 days (d) None
births should be reduced LEPROSY
to less than: [DNB 2008] 381. False about Leprosy is:
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.5 [AIPGME 1991]
(c) 10 (d) 1 (a) It has been eliminated from India
Review Questions (b) It can be transmitted through
376. To achieve neonatal tetanus breast milk
elimination, incidence of (c) Lepromin Test is not a diagnostic
neonatal tetanuse per 1000 live test
births should be reduced (d) MDT is contraindicated during
to less than: [DNB 2008] pregnancy
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.5 382. Leprosy can be transmitted
(c) 10 (d) 1 through all except:
377. The period of [AIPGME 2004]
communicability of Tetanus is: (a) Mother to child (b) Breast milk
(a) 7 days [UP 2007] (c) Insect vectors (d) Tattooing needles
(b) 14 days 383. Leprosy is considered a
(c) 21 days public health problem if the
(d) None prevalence of leprosy is more than:
tahir99 - UnitedVRG [AIPGME 03, AIIMS Dec 1998]
(a) 1 per 10,000 (b) 2 per 10,000 (d) Droplet infection
(c) 5 per 10,000 (d) 10 per 10,000 388. In the management of
384. In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is not
leprosy, Lepromin test is most useful
useful for: [AIPGME 2003] for: [AIIMS Nov 2008, AIPGME
(a) Herd Immunity 1991]
(b) Prognosis (a) Diagnosis (b) Prognosis
(c) Treatment (c) Confirmation of classification
(d) Epidemiological investigations (d) Evaluation of cell mediated
385. Which of the following immunity
statements about lepromin test 389. All of the following
is not true? [AIIMS Sep 1996, May statements about leprosy are true
2006] except: [AIPGME 2004]
(a) It is negative in most children in (a) Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed
first 6 months of when there are
life more than 5 skin patches
(b) It is a diagnostic test (b) New case detection rate is an
(c) It is an important aid to classify indicator for incidence
type of leprosy of leprosy
disease (c) A defaulter is defined as a patient
(d) BCG vaccination may convert who has not taken
lepromin reaction treatment for 6 months or more
from negative to positive (d) The target for elimination of
386. A patient with leprosy had leprosy is to reduce the
slightly erythematous, prevalence to less than 1 per 10,000
anesthetic plaques on the trunk population
and upper limbs. He 390. All of the following are tests
was treated with paucibacillary used to detect Cell mediated
multidrug therapy immunity in Leprosy except:
(PB-MDT) for 6 moths. At the end (a) Lepromin Test [AIIMS Feb 1997]
of 6 months, he had (b) Lymphocyte Transformation Test
persistent erythema and (c) Leucocyte Migration Inhibition Test
induration in the plaque. The (d) FLA-ABS Test
next step of action recommended 391. Erythema Nodosum
by the World Health Leprosum (ENL) occurs:
Organization (WHO) in such a [Karnataka 2007]
patient is: (a) Due to Lepromin test reaction
[AIIMS May 2001] (b) In those with tuberculoid leprosy
(a) Stop antileprosy treatment (c) As a reaction to multi drug therapy
(b) Continue PB-MDT till erythema (d) In those with lepromatous leprosy
subsides 392. True about leprosy in India
(c) Biopsy the lesion to document is/are: [PGI June 04]
activity (a) Prevalance decreased in Orissa
(d) Continue Dapsone alone for (b) Prevalance is 3.7/thousand
another 6 months (c) Vaccine is tried in Bihar
387. All of the following are the (d) None
mode of transmission of 393. True about leprosy in India:
leprosy except: [AIIMS May 1991] [PGI June 05]
(a) Breast milk (b) Insect bite (a) Prevalence decreasing in past
(c) Transplacental spread decade
(b) Incidence highest in 1-5 yrs age is more than: [DNB 2008]
group (a) 0.1% (b) 0.01%
(c) Highly pathogenic (c) 0.5% (d) 1%
(d) Highly communicable 399. Prevalence of leprosy in India
394. True about epidemiology of per 10,000 is?
leprosy: [PGI Dec 08] [DNB June 2011]
(a) If high prevalence of cases seen in (a) >1 (b) 0.88
childhood, it (c) 0.71 (d) 0.69
means disease is under control 400. Generation time for leprosy
(b) Lepra bacilli cannot survive outside bacillus is:
human body [DNB December 2011]
(c) Bacterial load is high in tuberculoid (a) 810 days (b) 1012 days
variety (c) 1215 days (d) 1520 days
(d) Insect can transmit the disease 401. Erythema nodosum is seen in
(e) Relapse rate is indictor of efficacy treatment of which type
of the drug of leprosy? [DNB December 2011] (a) Borderline leprosy (b) Lepromatous
328 leprosy
Review of Preventive and Social (c) Tuberculoid leprosy (d) None of the
Medicine above
Communicable and Non- 402. Multibacillary is a
communicable Diseases spectrum of disease, seen in:
395. Which of the following about [Recent Question 2013]
lepromin test is not true? (a) Leprosy (b) TB
(a) It is negative in most children in (c) Tetanus (d) Trachoma
first six months 403. Ridley Jopling Leprosy
(b) It is a diagnostic test [AIIMS May classification is a type of:
2010] [AIIMS PGMEE May 2013]
(c) It is an important aid to classify (a) Clinical, bacteriological,
type of leprosy disease Immunological, epidemiological
(d) BCG vaccination may convert lepra classification
reaction from (b) Clinical, bacteriological,
negative to positive Immunological, therapeutic
396. Elimination of leprosy is classification
defined as prevalence: (c) Clinical, bacteriological,
[Recent Question 2012] [Recent Immunological, histological
Question 2013] classification
(a) < 1 per 1000 (b) < 1 per 10000 (d) Operational classification
(c) < 1 per 100,000 (d) < 1 per 100 404. Lepromin test is used for all
397. Leprosy is not yet eradicated of the following except:
because: [NUPGET 2013]
[AIIMS PGMEE May 2012] (a) Classify the lesions of leprosy
(a) No effective vaccine patients
(b) Highly infectious but low (b) Determine the prognosis of disease
pathogenicity (c) Assess the resistance of individuals
(c) Only humans are reservoir to leprsoy
(d) Long incubation period (d) Diagnosis of leprosy
398. As per WHO, leprosy is a 405. True regarding Leprosy [PGI
public health problem if November 2014]
(a) Clofazimine included in treatment 413. In paucibacillary leprosy the
regimen single drug dapsone is
(b) Any positive smear 1+ is MBL continue for: [UP 2008]
(c) Grenz zone in Lepromatous (a) 9 days (b) 90 days
spectrum (c) 180 days (d) 10 days
(d) All deformity cases are MBL 414. Lepromin test is valuable for:
(e) MBL recommended treatment for [MP 2001]
12 months (a) Diagnosis of disease
duration (b) Prognosis of disease
Review Questions (c) Repsonse to treatment
406. Mistuda reaction is read at: (d) To test humoral immunity
[DNB 2004] 415. In Leprosy 1+ bacterial index
(a) 3rd day (b) 10th day indicates:
(c) 21th day (d) 45th day (a) <100 baciHi per high power field
407. Leprosy commonly spreads [MP 2003]
by: [DNB 2006] (b) No bacilli in 100 high power fields
(a) Milk (b) Droplet (c) 1 or less than one bacillus in each
(c) Water (d) Mosquitoes hpf
408. In multibicillary leprosy, the (d) Bacilli in all fields
follow up examination after
adequate Rx should be done tahir99 - UnitedVRG
yearly for: [DNB 2008] 329
(a) 3 years (b) 5 yrs Communicable and Non-
(c) 10 years (d) 2 years communicable Diseases
409. As per WHO, leprosy is a Communicable and Non-
public health problem if communicable Diseases
prevalence 416. Live attenuated yellow fever
is: [DNB 2008] vaccine is:
(a) 0. 1% (b) 0. 01% (a) RA27/3 [MP 2004]
(c) 0. 5% (d) 1% (b) 17-D
410. Most common nerve involved (c) OKA Strain
in leprosy: [Bihar 2004] (d) HbsAg derived
(a) Ulnar N 417. Only objective way of
(b) Common peroneal N monitoring the benefits of
(c) Median N treatment of leprosy is: [MP 2005]
(d) Radial N (a) Lepromin test
411. Treatment of leprosy a/c to (b) Morphology index
WHO is done by all drugs, (c) Histamine test
except: [Bihar 2005] (d) Bacteriological index
(a) Dapsone (b) Clofazimine 418. Lepromin test is used for all
(c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampicin the following Except:
412. Which of the following is true (a) It determines the type of leprosy
statement about [MP 2009]
leprosy: [PGI 1998] [UP 2004] (b) It confirms diagnosis of leprosy
(a) Two plus (2+) indicates 2 different (c) It monitors leprosy patients is
site treatment with
(b) 7 sites are needed chemotherapy
(c) Paucibacillary leprosy bacterial (d) It evaluates host resistance to
index is less than 2 leprosy
(d) Various sites needed
419. Which of the following types (d) Bihar
of leprosy by Indian 425. World AIDS day is on: [DPG
classification of Leprosy is not 2006]
included in Madrid (a) 1st May (b) 31st October
classification? [MH 2003] (c) 1st December (d) 29th May
(a) Indeterminate leprosy 426. The first country in the South
(b) Borderline type East Asian Region (SEAR)
(c) Tuberculoid leprosy to report AIDS was: [Karnataka
(d) Pure neuritic type 2007]
420. In multi bacillary leprosy, (a) Sri Lanka (b) India
bacterial index is more than: (c) Thailand (d) Bangladesh
(a) 1 [RJ 2005] 427. The most common mode of
(b) 2 HIV transmission in India
(c) 5 is: [Karnataka 2005]
(d) 10 (a) Blood transfusion
421. Which of the following (b) Mother to child transmission
measurements indicates (c) Sexual transmission
whether leprosy cases are being (d) Use of unsterile syringes and
detected early or not? needles
(a) New case detection rate [RJ 2007] 428. The highest number of AIDS
(b) Proportion of children among new cases in India have occurred
cases in the age group of: [Karnataka
(c) Proportion of new cases with 2005]
disability (a) 0-14 years (b) 15-29 years
(d) Prevalence rate of disease (c) 30-44 years (d) Above 45 years
422. Duration of MDT (Multidrug 429. WHO Stage IV HIV includes
Therapy) to resolve paucibacillary all except
leprosy is: [RJ 2007] (a) Toxoplasmosis [AIIMS May 2009]
(a) 6 month (b) 8 month (b) Pneumocystis carinii
(c) 9 month (d) 12 month (c) HIV wasting syndrome
HIV (d) Oral thrush
423. The commonest mode of 430. Major signs for AIDS case
transmission of AIDS in India definition according to WHO
(in descending order) is: [AIPGME are: [PGI June 03]
2002] (a) Generalised lymphadenopathy
(a) Transplacental, homosexual, (b) Prolong fever more than 1 month
heterosexual (c) Prolong cough for > 1 month
(b) Homosexual, heterosexual, (d) Chronic diarhoea > 1 month
transplacental (e) Weight loss > 10%
(c) Heterosexual, transplacental, 431. Regarding Epidemiology of
homosexual HIV True is:
(d) Heterosexual, homosexual, (a) Mother to Child Transmission is
transplacental 25%
424. In which of the Indian states (b) Seminal Secretion are highly
the maximum number of Infectious than vaginal
AIDS cases has been reported till Secretion
now? (c) Infectious in window Period
(a) Delhi [AIIMS Nov 2004] (d) Southern Africa have 72% of total
(b) Kerala global burden
(c) Tamil Nadu (e) Children rarely affected
432. Which of the following is 438. HIV sentinel surveillance is
used to prevent transmission used to identify/ calculate:
of HIV from an infected pregnant [AIIMS PGMEE November 2012]
mother to newborn (a) High risk population
child? [AIIMS November 2011] (b) Prevalence of HIV
(a) Lamivudine (b) Nevirapine (c) Trend finding among populations
(c) Stavudine (d) Didanosine (d) All of the above
433. Risk of mother to child HIV 439. Antiretroviral prophylaxis
transmission in pregnant decrease the chance of
woman at the time of delivery, transmission of HIV to fetus
and after delivery in non during pregnancy of HIV
breast feeding woman is: to fetus during pregnancy by
(a) 5-10% [AIIMS PGMEE November [Bihar 2014]
2013] (a) 35%
(b) 10-15% (b) 45%
(c) 15-30% (c) 50%
(d) More than 50% (d) 65%
434. HIV post exposure 440. HIV virus was discovered in
prophylaxis should be started the year [AIIMS May 2014]
within: (a) 1981
[Recent Question 2012] (b) 1983
(a) 24 hours (c) 1986
(b) 48 hours (d) 1996
(c) 72 hours (d) 6 hours Review Questions 441. In a HIV infected child which
330 vaccine should not be
Review of Preventive and Social given: [Kolkata 2004]
Medicine (a) DPT (b) OPV
Communicable and Non- (c) Hepatitis B (d) Typhoid vaccine
communicable Diseases 442. About epidemiology of AIDS
435. Criteria included in AIDS all are true except:
Surveillance definition include: (a) In India it is mainly caused by HIV-1
[PGI November 2012] [MP 2002]
(a) Extrapulmonary TB (b) (b) Maternofetal transmission is the
Cryptococcosis most common
(c) Candidiasis (d) Leptospirosis mode of transmission
(e) Kaposi sarcoma (c) I.V. drug abuse increases the risk
436. HIV transmission Mother to (d) Medical personnel are at higher
child can be stopped by all risk of getting
except: [AIIMS PGMEE May 2013] infection with HIV
(a) Caesarean section 443. First case of AIDS was
(b) Vitamin A supplementation reported in: [MP 2003]
(c) Stopping Breast feeding (a) 1984 (b) 1986
(d) Zidovudine to mother antenatal (c) 1981 (d) 1988
and newborn after 444. All the following statements
delivery art true for the viral
437. MC subtype of HIV in India is: genome in HIV, Except: [MP 2009]
[Recent Question 2013] (a) They are diploid
(a) HIV-A (b) HIV-B (b) They consist of DNA dependent
(c) HIV-C (d) None of the above DNA polymerase
activity 450. All the following are
(c) They consist of three major genes- causative agents of sexually
gag, pol and envcharacteristic transmitted
of all retroviruses infections except:
(d) They are most complex of human (a) Candida [AIPGME 1991]
retroviruses (b) Group B streptococcus
445. From epidemiological point (c) Hepatitis B
of view of AIDS, which of (d) Echinococcus
the following states in India is put 451. Which of the following is not
in Group I (i.e. general a STD agent?
epidemiological cases of HIV > 5% (a) Ureaplasma urealyticum [AIPGME
high risk and 1991]
HIV > 1% ANC)? [MH 2003] (b) Gp. B Streptococcus
(a) Assam (c) Candida albicans
(b) Mizoram (d) Chlamydia psittaci
(c) Nagaland 452. Match the treponemal
(d) Tripura disease and their causative
446. Detailed plan titled 3 by 5 agents: [AIPGME 1993]
implemented by WHO in A-Pinta I-T. pertenue
2003 for AIDS means: [MH 2007) B- Endemic Syphilis II-T. carateum
(a) Treating at least 3 to 5 AIDS C-Yaws III-T. pallidum
(b) Controlling 3 chances of (a) A-I, B-II, C-III`
infectionout of known 5 (b) A-II, B-I, C-III
(c) Providing treatment to 3 million (c) A-II, B-III, C-I
sufferers by year (d) A-I, B-III, C-II
2005 453. The syndromic management
(d) All of the above of urethral discharge
447. Window period for HIV includes treatment of [AIIMS Dec
infection is: [RJ 2005] 1992]
(a) 3-12 weeks (a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes
(b) 8-20 weeks genitalis
(c) 6-24 weeks (b) Chalamydia trachomatis and
(d) None herpes genitalis
448. Most common mode of HIV (c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and
transmission from mother Chlamydia trachomatis
to child: [RJ 2005] (d) Syphilis and chancroid
(a) 1st trimester 454. In India, syndromic approach
(b) 2nd transmission is used for management
(c) Perinatal of: [AIIMS November 2011]
(d) Breastfeeding (a) Chancroid and Chancre
STIS (OTHER THAN HIV) (b) Chancroid and Herpes genitalis
449. Lymphogranuloma venereum (c) Chancroid, Chancre and Herpes
is caused by: genitalis
(a) Haemophilus ducreyi [AIIMS Dec (d) Chancre and Herpes genitalis
1997] 455. True about incubation
(b) Calymmotabacterium granulomatis periods of STDs:
(c) Treponema pertenue (a) Syphilis 10-90 days [PGI May
(d) Chlamydia trachomatis 2011]
(b) LGV 3-10 days
(c) Donovanosis 3-20 days (a) 9-90 days (b) 9-18 days
(d) Chancroid 21-28 days (c) 80-90 days (d) 10 days
(e) Gonorrhea 2-14 days 464. Method of case detection in
456. A sexually active, long control of sexually transmitted
distance truck drivers wife diseases in which person names
comes with vaginal discharge. the persons
Under Syndromic approach, moving in same socio-sexual
which drug should be given? environment?
[AIIMS PGMEE May 2012] (a) Contact tracing [MH 2007]
(a) Metronidazole, Azithromycin, (b) High risk screening
Fluconazole (c) Selective screening
(b) Metronidazole (d) Cluster testing
(c) Azithromycin 465. Contact tracing used in the
(d) Metronidazole and fluconazole detection of:
457. Case detection in STDs is (a) STD [RJ 2007]
done by all except: (b) Diabetes
[NUPGET 2013] (c) Measles
(a) Screening (b) Contact tracing (d) Cancer
(c) Cluster testing (d) Notification MISCELLANEOUS (COMM.
458. Drug of choice for Scabies in DISEASES)
Pregnancy is 466. All of the following are
(a) Ivermectin [Recent Question zoonoses except:
2014] (a) Plague [AIPGME 1995 and 08]
(b) Crotaminton (b) Japanese emcephalitis
(c) Benzyl benzoate (c) HIV
(d) Permethrin (d) Tuberculosis
Review Questions 467. Which of the following
459. Cluster testing is useful in statements about Yaws is not
detecting cases of: true? [AIPGME 2008]
(a) STD [DNB 2005] (a) Spread by sexual transmission
(b) Cancer (b) Caused by Treponema pertenue
(c) Diabetes (c) Has cross immunity with Syphilis
(d) Measles (d) Cannot be differentiated
460. Cluster testing technique is serologically from Treponema
useful in: [DNB 2006] pallidum
(a) STD (b) Poliomyelitis 468. Dhamendras Index and
(c) Measles (d) Smallpox Joplings classification deals
461. Scabies is caused by: [Bihar with: [AIPGME 2008]
2005] (a) TB
(a) Trichophyton (b) Dermatophyten (b) Leprosy
(c) Mycobacterium (d) Sarcoptes (c) Syphilis
scabei (d) Polio
462. Incubation period of 469. The following are
chancroid is: characteristic features of
(a) Less than 7 days [Kolkata 2005] staphylococcal
(b) 10-15 days food poisoning, except: [AIIMS
(c) 2-3 weeks May 2004]
(d) 3-4 weeks (a) Optimum temperature for toxin
463. Incubation period of syphilis: formation is 37C
[MH 2002]
(b) Intra-dietetic toxins are responsible (d) Inhalation of infected dust or
for intestinal aerosol
symptoms 475. Which one of the following
(c) Toxins can be destroyed by boiling arbo-viral diseases has not
for 30 minutes been reported in India?
(d) Incubation period is 1-6 hours (a) Japanese encephalitis
470. Cluster testing is useful in (b) Yellow fever [AIIMS Nov 2004,
detecting cases of: AIPGME 1997]
(a) Measles [AIPGME 2002] (c) Chikungunya fever [Recent
(b) Sexually transmitted infections Question 2012]
(c) Unimmunized children (d) Kyasanur forest disease
(d) Completely immunized children in 476. In which of these conditions
the age group is post exposure prophylaxis
12-23 months NOT useful? [AIIMS May 2001, Nov 2004]
332 (a) Measles
Review of Preventive and Social (b) Rabies
Medicine (c) Pertussis
Communicable and Non- (d) Hepatitis B
communicable Diseases 477. Chandler index measure:
471. Iceberg phenomenon is not [AIPGME 1991]
seen in: (a) Hookworm
(a) AIDS [AIIMS Nov 1993] (b) Transmission of disease
(b) TB (c) IMR
(c) Poliomyelitis (d) GNP of nation
(d) Measles 478. Hundred day cough is the
472. All of the following diseases name of: [AIIMS Feb 1997]
can be transmitted during (a) Cough due to Bordetella pertussis
the incubation period except: (b) Cough due to haemophylus
[AIIMS June 1997] influenza
(a) Measles (c) Cough due to adenovirus
(b) Tuberculosis (d) Cough due to respiratory syncytial
(c) Hepatitis A virus
(d) Pertussis 479. Which one of the following
473. In all of the following diseases CANNOT be eradicated:
diseases chronic carriers are [AIPGME 1992 , 2003]
found except: [AIIMS Sep 96, May- (a) Leprosy
2006] (b) Tuberculosis
(a) Measles [AIIMS June 1998] (c) Measles
(b) Typhoid (d) Pertussis
(c) Hepatitis B 480. 3 by 5 Initiative was
(d) Gonorrhea launched in developing countries
474. Brucellosis can be to combat: [AIIMS May 2005]
transmitted by all of the following (a) Tuberculosis
modes, except: [AIIMS May 2006- (b) Malaria
2007, Nov 2006] (c) SARS
(a) Contact with infected placenta (d) HIV/ AIDS
(b) Ingestion of raw vegetables from 481. Intermediate host for Taenia
infected farms saginata is:
(c) Person to person transmission (a) Man [AIIMS May 1994]
(b) Cattle 489. Disease caused by
(c) Pig arboviruses include:
(d) Fish (a) Yellow fever [PGI June 02]
482. A synthetic cocktail (b) Japanese encephalitis
vaccine SPf66 has shown (c) Trench fever
potential (d) Epidemic typhus
for the protection against: (e) Dengue
(a) Dengue/ DHF [AIIMS June 1997]
(b) Japanese encephalitis tahir99 - UnitedVRG
(c) Falciparum Malaria 333
(d) Lymphatic filariasis Communicable and Non-
483. All of the following are blood- communicable Diseases
borne infections except: Communicable and Non-
(a) Hepatitis B [AIIMS Nov 2003] communicable Diseases
(b) Hepatitis C 490. Cluster testing is the term
(c) Hepatitis E used during:
(d) Hepatitis G (a) UIP Survey for polio [Karnataka
484. WHO vaccination strategy of 2007]
catch-up, keep-up and (b) Screening for STDs
follow-up has been designed for: (c) Exposing the body for
(a) Measles [AIIMS May 2003] hypopigmented patches
(b) Chickenpox (d) Testing contacts of typhoid cases
(c) Polio 491. Incubation period less than
(d) Diphtheria few hours:
485. Carriers are important in all (a) Hepatitis A [PGI Dec 2K]
the following except: (b) Food poisoning
(a) Polio [AIPGME 2002, AIPGME (c) Influenza
2007] (d) Rabies
(b) Typhoid [AIIMS Dec 98] 492. Arboviral disease are: [PGI
(c) Measles Dec 2K]
(d) Diphtheria (a) Yellow fever
486. Chandlers index is based on: (b) Epidemic typhus
[DPG 2004] (c) Japanese encephalitis
(a) Hookworm eggs in soil (d) Kalaazar
(b) Hookworm eggs per gram faeces (e) HIV
(c) Giardia cysts in soil 493. Zoonosis is/are: [PGI June 08]
(d) Ascaris larva in water (a) Anthrax
487. Man in the only host for: (b) Brucellosis
[DPG 2006] (c) Leptospirosis
(a) Trichuris trichura (d) Cagas disease
(b) Dracunculus medinensis (e) Tularaemia
(c) Onchocerca volvolus 494. Post exposure prophylaxis in
(d) Wuchereria bancrofti health care professional is
488. Which of the following is not indicated in infections with: [PGI
administered by intradermal Dec 08]
route? [DPG 2007, 2008] (a) HBV (b) Rabies
(a) BCG (c) Diphtheria (d) Measles
(b) Insulin (e) Tetanus
(c) Mantoux 495. Epidemic caused by type A
(d) Drug sensitivity injection arbovirus in India is:
(a) Chikungunya [DPG 2008] (c) Measles
(b) KFD (d) Parvovirus
(c) Yellow Fever 503. Which of the following is not
(d) Dengue transmitted by lice?
496. Subacute sclerosing pan- (a) Trench fever [AIIMS May 2009]
encephalitis is associated (b) Relapsing fever
with: [PGI June 02] (c) Q fever
(a) Mumps (b) Measles (d) Epidemic typhus
(c) Rubella (d) Typhoid 504. False about Japanese
(e) Diphtheria Encephalitis is: [AIIMS Nov 2009]
497. Karatomalacia is seen in (a) Pigs are amplifiers for flavirirus
which of the following diseases: (b) Overhead tanks severe as breeding
[PGI June 02] sites
(a) Measles (c) Transmitted by culex mosquitoes
(b) Diarrhea (d) Primary doses of vaccine consists
(c) Mumps of two doses
(d) Rubella 505. Mass prophylaxis is given for
(e) Chickenpox all except:
498. Keratomalacia is seen which (a) Lymphatic filariasis [AIIMS Nov
of the following 2010]
infection: [PGI Dec 01] (b) Vitamin A deficiency
(a) Chickenpox (c) Scabies
(b) HIV (d) Worm infestation
(c) Diarrhea 506. Modes of transmission of
(d) Measles amoebiasis are all except:
(e) Tuberculosis (a) Faecal-oral [AIIMS Nov 2010]
499. Pandemics are caused by: (b) Oro-rectal
[PGI June 05] (c) Vertical transmission
(a) Hepatitis-B (d) Through cockroaches
(b) Influenza-A 507. Arthropod borne disease not
(c) Influenza-B seen in India is:
(d) Influenza-C (a) West Nile Fever [AIPGME 2011]
500. Animal to man transmission (b) Dengue infection
seen in: (c) Kyasanur Forest Disease
(a) Rabies [PGI Dec 08] (d) Yellow Fever
(b) Japanese encephalitis 508. Carrier state is not important
(c) HIV in transmission of:
(d) Mumps (a) Typhoid [AIPGME 2011]
(e) Tetanus (b) Poliomyelitis
501. Vector borne diseases are: (c) Measles
[PGI Dec 08] (d) Diphtheria
(a) Epidemic typhus 509. All are true about Yaws
(b) Japanese encephalitis except: [AIPGME 2011]
(c) Tetanus (a) Caused by Treponema pertenue
(d) Hanta virus disease (b) Transmitted non-venerally
(e) KFD (c) Secondary Yaws can involve bones
502. Viruses documented to cause (d) Later stages involve heart and
fetal damage: nerves
(a) Hepatitis B [PGI June 05]
(b) Varicella 334
Review of Preventive and Social (d) Worm infestation
Medicine 517. Rat is associated with: [DNB
Communicable and Non- June 2010]
communicable Diseases (a) Leptospirosis [Recent Questions
510. Tetracycline is used in the 2014]
prophylaxis of: (b) Measles
(a) Cholera [AIPGME 2011] (c) Tetanus
(b) Brucellosis (d) Influenza
(c) Leptospirosis 518. Incubation period of which
(d) Meningitis disease is less than 7 days:
511. Maternal antibodies do not (a) Cholera [Recent Question 2012]
occur for: [DPG 2011] (b) Measles
(a) Polio (c) Leishmaniasis
(b) Diphtheria (d) Mumps
(c) Whooping cough 519. Dome shaped centrally
(d) Tetanus umbilicated papules seen in:
512. Brucellosis is transmitted by: (a) Chicken pox [DNB December
[PGI May 2011] 2011]
(a) Cattle (b) Small pox
(b) Camel (c) Measles
(c) Sheep (d) Molluscum contagiosum
(d) Goat 520. Which of the following is a
(e) Dogs zoonotic disease?
513. Arboviral infection(s) [Recent Question 2012] [Recent
include: [PGI May 2012] Question 2013]
(a) Chikungunya fever (a) Hydatid cyst
(b) West Nile fever (b) Malaria
(c) JE (c) Filariasis
(d) Sandfly fever (d) Dengue fever
(e) Malaria 521. Subclinical infection is seen
514. Which is not transmitted by in all except:
Aedes aegypti? (a) Mumps [Recent Question 2012]
(a) Yellow fever [DNB June 2011] (b) Poliomyelitis
(b) Dengue (c) Measles
(c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Rubella
(d) Filariasis 522. Zoonotic disease(s)
515. Maternal antibodies are transmitted by arthropods is/ are:
present in the newborn against (a) Plague [PGI May 2012]
all of the following disease (b) Melidioses
except: [DNB 2008] (c) Rabies
(a) Diphtheria (d) Leishmaniasis
(b) Tetanus (e) Anthrax
(c) Pertussis 523. Second attack rate is
(d) Measles minimum in:
516. Mass prophylaxis not done (a) TB [Recent Question 2013]
in: (b) Diphtheria
(a) Scabies [AIIMS PGMEE (c) Measles
November 2012] (d) Whooping cough
(b) Lymphatic filariasis 524. Post-exposure prophylaxis
(c) Vitamin A deficiency exist for all except:
(a) Measles [NUPGET 2013] (c) Transmission occurs through direct
(b) Hepatitis C skin contact
(c) Varicella Zoster (d) Drug of choice is Penicillin
(d) HIV (e) Is a Spirochaetal disease
525. Scabies treatment(s) include: 531. Following are examples of
[PGI May 2012] human dead end disease
(a) Gammexene except: [Recent Question 2013]
(b) Crotamiton (a) Bubonic plague
(c) 5% Permethrin (b) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Isoniazid (c) Hydatid disease
(e) Sulphur ointment (d) Leishmaniasis
526. Zoonotic disease of viral 532. Chemoprophylaxis is not
etiology include: required in is:
(a) Q fever [NUPGET 2013] (a) Typhoid [Recent Question 2013]
(b) Rickettsiae disease (b) Meningococcal meningitis
(c) Rabies (c) Bacterial conjunctivitis
(d) Rubella (d) Malaria
527. Prophylaxis for anthrax: 533. Which disease does not occur
[Recent Question 2013] as seasonal variation?
(a) Erythromycin (a) Measles [Recent Question 2012]
(b) Doxycycline (b) Rubella
(c) Penicillin (c) Gastroenteritis
(d) Vancomycin (d) Cerebra meningitis
528. Isolation period, false is: 534. The following fall under the
[AIIMS May 2013] category of enzootic except:
(a) Chicken pox 6 days after onset of [DNB 2007]
rash (a) Influenza
(b) Herpes zoster 6 days after onset (b) Anthrax
of rash (c) Brucellosis
(c) Measles up to 3 days after onset (d) Endemic typhus
of rash 535. Tick borne relapsing fever is
(d) German measles 7 days after caused by?
onset of rash (a) Borrelia recurrentis [DNB
529. Lyme disease is transmitted December 2010]
by: [Recent Question 2012] (b) Borrelia burgdorferi
(a) Rat flea (c) Rickettsia prowazeki
(b) Tick (d) Borellia hermsii
(c) Mite 536. Viral hemorrhagic fever(s)
(d) Mosquito seen in India is/ are: (a) KFD [PGI November 2013]
tahir99 - UnitedVRG (b) Dengue fever
335 (c) Crimean Congo fever
Communicable and Non- (d) Yellow fever
communicable Diseases (e) Hanta fever
Communicable and Non- 537. Saddleback fever is known as
communicable Diseases [NIMHANS 2014]
530. True about Leptospirosis is/ (a) Brucellosis
are: [PGI November 2012] (b) Dengue fever
(a) It is a Zoonosis (c) Malaria fever
(b) Incubation period is 2-3 months (d) Typhoid fever
538. Chemoprophylaxis is not (d) Yersinia
required in [AIIMS May 2014] (e) Swine flu
(a) Conjunctivitis 545. Metazoonoses include
(b) Meningitis [JIPMER 2014]
(c) Measles (a) Plague
(d) Plague (b) Rabies
539. Following is NOT caused by (c) Schistosomiasis
virus (d) Brucellosis
(a) Rocky mountain spotted fever (e) Yellow fever
(b) KFD [Recent Question 2014] Review Questions
(c) Dengue 546. Cluster testing is useful in
(d) Yellow fever detecting cases of:
540. Transplacental transmission (a) STD [DNB 2000]
is not seen in (b) Cancer
(a) Hepatitis A [Recent Question (c) Diabetes
2014] (d) Measles
(b) Hepatitis B 547. Staphycoccous food
(c) HIV poisoning causes all except:
(d) Varicella (a) Due to enterotoxin [DNB 2001]
541. Regarding Non-industrial (b) IP below 6 hours
anthrax, true is/ are (c) Sudden onset
(a) Common in veterinarians (d) Fever common
(b) Seasonal pattern [PGI November 548. Inclusion body in neuron is
2014] seen in:
(c) Common in butchers (a) Rabies [DNB 2001]
(d) Cutaneous form most common (b) Diphtheria
(e) More commonly inhalational than (c) Yellow fever
industrial form (d) Japanese encephalitis
542. Not true about Ebola virus is
[PGI November 2014] 336
(a) Caused by ss Negative strand RNA Review of Preventive and Social
virus Medicine
(b) Bats most likely reservoir Communicable and Non-
(c) Incubation period is less than 48 communicable Diseases
hours 549. Man is dead end for: [DNB
(d) Sexual transmission possible 2003]
(e) Oseltamivir is quite effective in (a) Tetanus, measles
treatment (b) Measles, yellow fever
543. Zoonoses include [PGI (c) Tetanus, yellow fever
November 2014] (d) Rabies, tetanus
(a) Plague 550. Carrier state is seen in
(b) Rabies following except:
(c) Anthrax (a) Diphtheria [DNB 2003]
(d) Tetanus (b) Measles
(e) Brucellosis (c) Typhoid
544. Incubation period less than 5 (d) Polio
days is 551. Agent can be used in
(a) Influenza [PGI November 2014] bioterrorism: [Bihar 2005]
(b) Salmonella typhi (a) Plague
(c) Vibrio parahemolyticus (b) Typhoid
(c) Streptococcus (d) AIDS
(d) Staph. aureus 560. Disease transmitted by water
552. Incubation period is less than is: [AP 2003]
one week in: (a) Hepatitis B
(a) Cholera [UP 2003] (b) Polio
(b) Enteric fever (c) Japanese encephalitis
(c) Hepatitis B (d) Dengue fever
(d) Chickenpox 561. Which of the following flavi
553. Sub acute-Sclerosing pan virus is closely related to
encephalitis (SSP(E) is Russian spring summer
caused by: [UP 2005] encephalitis causing virus:
(a) Measles (a) Dengue [AP 2004]
(b) Mumps (b) Chikungunya
(c) Rubella (c) KFD
(d) Smallpox (d) Yellow fever
554. Clinical features of Botulism 562. Which statement is not true
are all Except: in arboviral disease?
(a) Diarrhea [UP 2006] (a) Japanese encephalitis is
(b) Dysarthria transmitted by culex
(c) Ocular nerve paralysis (b) KFD is transmitted by Ticks [AP
(d) Blurring of vision 2005]
555. Pleomorphism is seen in: [UP (c) Filariasis is transmitted by Aedes
2006] mosquito
(a) Chickenpox (d) Dengue is transmitted by Aedes
(b) Rubella mosquito
(c) Smallpox 563. All of the following are
(d) Toxocara Anthropozoonotic Diseases
556. Amphixenosis is: [UP 2007] except:
(a) Ascaris lumbricoidis [AP 2008]
(b) Entrobius - vermicularis (a) Plague
(c) Anthrax (b) Rabies
(d) T. cruzi (c) Hydatid cyst
557. Following are examples of (d) Dracunculosis
human dead end disease 564. Leptospira
Except: [UP 2007] icterohaemorrhagiae infection is
(a) Bubonic plague transmitted
(b) Japanese encephalitis by the following animals: [AP
(c) Hydatid disease 1987]
(d) Leishmaniasis (a) Rats [NIMHANS 2001] [TN
558. All are zoonotic disease 1995] [TN 2000]
Except: [UP 2008] (b) Dogs
(a) Brucellosis (c) Birds
(b) Leptospirosis (d) Bats
(c) Scabies 565. Patients are to be isolated in
(d) Rabies all of the following diseases
559. Shortest Incubation period is except: [TN 2003]
associated with: (a) AIDS (b) Smallpox
(a) Influenza [AP 2002] (c) Anthrax (d) Plague
(b) Cholera 566. Cyclops is an intermediate
(c) Syphilis host for: [TN 2005]
(a) Guinea worm (a) Polio
(b) Malaria (b) Dracunculiasis
(c) Rabies (c) Plague
(d) Salmonella (d) Kala-azar
567. Tick-borne disease is: 574. Man is a dead end host in all
[Kolkata 2004] of the following infections
(a) Tularemia except: [MP 2002]
(b) Q fever (a) Teniasis
(c) Relapsing fever (b) Rabies
(d) Rocky mountain spotted fever (c) Japanese encephalitis
568. Aedes transmit which of the (d) Tetanus
following disease in 575. Iceberg phenomena is seen
India: [Kolkata 2004] in all except:
(a) Dengue (a) Leprosy [MP 2003]
(b) Chikungunya fever (b) Rabies
(c) Malaria/Filaria (c) Hypertension
(d) Japanese encephalitis (d) Tuberculosis 576. Antigenic shift and drift
337 occurs in: [MP 2005]
Communicable and Non- (a) Measles
communicable Diseases (b) Mumps
Communicable and Non- (c) Influenza
communicable Diseases (d) Rubella
569. Cyclopropogative cycle is 577. Yaws is a disease caused by:
seen is [Kolkata 2009] [MP 2007]
(a) Malaria [Recent Question 2012] (a) Treponema Pertenue
(b) Filaria (b) Treponema Pallidum
(c) Yellow fever (c) Treponema Carateum
(d) Plague (d) Trypanosoma Cruzi
570. Food poisoning is caused by 578. Due to epidemiological
all except: [MP 2000] reasons chemoprophylaxis is
(a) Staphylococcus aureus most impractical in the control of:
(b) Clostridium difficile [MH 2003]
(c) Vibrio parahaemolyticus (a) Measles
(d) Bacillus cereus (b) Cholera
571. Incubation period in staphy (c) Diphtheria
lococcal food poisoning: (d) Tuberculosis
(a) 1-6 hours [MP 2001] 579. Plague is what type of
(b) 6-12 hours zoonosis? [MH 2005]
(c) 16-18 hours (a) Cyclozoonosis [JIPMER 2014]
(d) 24 hours (b) Direct zoonosis
572. Isolation is not useful in: [MP (c) Sapro-zoonosis
2002] (d) Meta Zoonosis
(a) Polio 580. Which is not a zoonotic
(b) Cholera disease? [RJ 2002]
(c) Measles (a) Brucellosis
(d) Diphtheria (b) Malaria
573. Which of the following is (c) Rabies
most prevalent presently in (d) Trichinoses
India: [MP 2002]
581. Which is not a zoonotic 586. Which of the following is
disease? [RJ 2003] maximally associated with
(a) Tetanus Coronary heart disease? [AIIMS
(b) Rabies Nov 2010]
(c) Brucellosis (a) HDL (b) VLDL
(d) Hydatid disease (c) LDL (d) Chylomicrons
582. Shortest incubation period is
of: [RJ 2004] 338
(a) Diphtheria Review of Preventive and Social
(b) Rubella Medicine
(c) Smallpox Communicable and Non-
(d) Chickenpox communicable Diseases
583. Which one of the following is 587. Which of the following is not
an Index of communicability a dietary modification
of an Infection? [RJ 2009] recommended in high risk
(a) Carrier rate cardiovascular group?
(b) Prevalence rate (a) LDL cholesterol less than 100
(c) Secondary attack rate mg/dL
(d) Primary attack rate (b) Avoid alcohol [AIPGME 2011]
CORONARY HEART DISEASE (c) Saturated fat intake 7% of total
584. Following dietary changes calories
are advised to reduce (d) Salt intake less than 5 grams
prevalence of coronary heart 588. Inability to perform any work
disease except: without discomfort is
[AIPGME 1997, 04] (a) NYHA 1 [AIIMS November 2014]
(a) Increased complex carbohydrate (b) NYHA 2
intake (c) NYHA 3
(b) Saturated fat intake less than 10% (d) NYHA 4
of total energy intake Review Questions
(c) Salt intake less than 20g/day 589. All are true for coronary
(d) Reduce fat intake to 20-30% of heart disease in India compared
total energy intake to west except: [DNB 2001]
585. Which one of the following (a) Increasing
statements about influence (b) Decreasing
of smoking on risk of coronary (c) Common in younger age
heart disease (CHD) is (d) None
not true? [AIPGME 2005] [AIPGME 590. False about coronary heart
1999] disease: [AP 2007]
(a) Risk of death from CHD decreases (a) Indian CHD occurs 1 decade later
from cessation of than Western
smoking [AIPGME 1999] CHD
(b) Filters provide a protective effect (b) Heavy cigarette smoking is a risk
for CHD factor
(c) Influence of smoking is synergistic (c) Males are affected more than
to other risk factors females
for CHD (d) None
(d) Influence of smoking is directly 591. All of the following are true
related to number of about coronary heart diseases
cigarettes smoked per day in India except: [MP 2000]
(a) Smoking predisposition seen
(b) Mean age of patient is 10-20 years (a) Its prevalence varies between 2 to
more than that of 11 per 1000 children
western aged 5-16 years
(c) Seen more in males (b) Mitral regurgitation is the
(d) DM predisposition to MI is seen commonest cardiac lesion
592. Best-know large sample seen
study programme for coronary (c) It occurs equally in females and
heart disease is: [MH 2003] males
(a) Framingham study [Recent (d) Rheumatic fever occurs in about
Question 2013] 2% of streptococcal
(b) North kerelia study sore throats
(c) Standford study 598. All are true about Rheumatic
(d) Oxford study Fever in India except:
593. Modifiable risk factors in [AIIMS Dec 1994]
coronary artery disease are all (a) RF is reported in 1-3 % of
Except: [MH 2005] streptococcal infections
(a) Personality (b) Smoking (b) More commonly seen in 5-15 years
(c) Obesity (d) Hypertension age group
HYPERTENSION (c) Except carditis, other
594. True about hypertension, the manifestations do not cause
primary prevention permanent damage
includes: [PGI June 06] (d) In Revised Jones Criteria, evidence
(a) Weight reduction of preceding
(b) Exercise promotion streptococcal infection is taken for last
(c) Reduction of salt intake 21 days
(d) Early diagnosis of hypertension 599. All of the following are Major
(e) Self care criteria of Jones in Rheumatic
595. Modifiable risk factors for fever except: [AIIMS Nov 2010]
hypertension is? (a) Pancarditis
[Recent Question 2013] (b) Arthritis
(a) Ethinicity (c) Chorea
(b) Age (d) Elevated ESR
(c) Sex 600. Not included among major
(d) Obesity criteria in acute rheumatic
596. Tracking of BP implies fever is: [AIIMS PGMEE May 2013]
[Recent Question 2014] (a) Erythema marginatum
(a) BP increase with age (b) Polyarthralgia
(b) BP decreases with age (c) Chorea
(c) BP of hyoptensive become (d) Pancarditis
hypertensive CANCERS
(d) BP of hyoptensive remain 601. The most common cancer
hypotensive affecting Indian urban
RHEUMATIC FEVER women in Delhi, Mumbai and
597. All of the following Chennai is:
statements about rheumatic (a) Cervical cancer [AIPGME 2005]
fever/ (b) Ovarian cancer
heart disease epidemiology in (c) Breast cancer
India are true except (d) Uterine cancer
[AIIMS Nov 2002]
Communicable and Non- (c) Ca Prostate
communicable Diseases (d) Ca Lung
Communicable and Non- (e) Ca colon
communicable Diseases 608. Highest increase in survival
602. The most common cancer, rate is seen after screening
affecting both males and of: [AIIMS May 2011]
females of the world, is: [AIIMS (a) Carcinoma cervix
May 2005, Dec 1994] (b) Carcinoma lungs
(a) Cancer of the pancreas [Recent (c) Carcinoma colon
Question 2013] (d) Carcinoma breast
(b) Buccal mucosa cancer 609. Current cancer patients in
(c) Lung cancer India reported annually:
(d) Colo-rectal cancer (a) 0.5 million [AIIMS PGMEE
603. The most common malignant November 2012]
tumor of adult males in (b) 1 million
India is: [AIPGME 2004] (c) 5 millions
(a) Oropharyngeal carcinoma (d) 10 millions
(b) Gastric carcinoma 610. Globally most common
(c) Colo-rectal carcinoma cancer is: [NUPGET 2013]
(d) Lung cancer (a) Colorectal cancer
604. The most common type of (b) Bladder cancer
cancer among females in India (c) Lung cancer
is: [Karnataka 2005] (d) Oropharyngeal cancer
(a) Cervical cancer 611. The most common cancer,
(b) Breast cancer affecting Indian urban
(c) Ovarian cancer women in Delhi, Mumbai and
(d) Colonic cancer Chennai is: [DNB 2007]
605. Habits and customs are (a) Cervical cancer
conducive to cancer as evident (b) Ovarian cancer
below except: [Karnataka 2006] (c) Breast cancer
(a) Kangri cancer in Kashmir due to (d) Uterine cancer
hot pot in winter 612. Tobacco responsible for oral
(b) Oral cancer due to pan chewing in cancer is
India (a) 100% [Recent Question 2014]
(c) Penile cancer and cervical cancer (b) 40%
following circumcision (c) 90%
(d) Lung cancer due to smoking (d) 60%
606. HPV Vaccination True A/E: Review Questions
[PGI June 02] 613. The most common cancer,
(a) Protects from Ca Cx in >70% cases affecting Indian urban
(b) 2 primary doses req for women in Delhi, Mumbai and
immunization Chennai is: [DNB 2007]
(c) Protects against HSV 16 and 18 (a) Cervical Cancer
(d) Mixed vaccine, needs refrigeration (b) Ovarian Cancer
(e) Recommended for age group 20- (c) Breast Cancer
40yrs (d) Uterine Cancer
607. Which of the following can be 614. Best method of screening for
prevented by screening: early detection of carcinoma
(a) Ca cervix [PGI June 08] breast in young woman is: [Bihar
(b) Ca Breast 2004]
(a) Regular X-rays 621. All of the following sites are
(b) Self examination used for measuring skin
(c) Mammography fold thickness to assess obesity
(d) Regular biopsies except:
615. Field carcinogenesis is (a) Mid-triceps [AIPGME 2004]
seen in: [UP 2000] (b) Biceps
(a) Head and neck carcinoma (c) Subscapular
(b) Colon carcinoma (d) Anterior abdominal wall
(c) Brain tumour 622. Which of the following
(d) Breast carcinoma indices of obesity is height-
616. Most common cancer independent?
worldwide is: [MP 2005] [AIPGME 1991]
(a) Lung (a) Quetelets Index
(b) Oral (b) Ponderal Index
(c) Stomach (c) Brocas Index
(d) Breast (d) Corpulence Index
617. Risk factors for Cancer cervix 623. A patient is called obese if
are increased by the following: BMI is: [AIPGME 2007]
[MP 2007] (a) 20-30 [Recent Question 2013]
(a) Less than 20 years of age (b) > 25
(b) Late marriage (c) > 30
(c) Upper socio-economic class (d) > 40
(d) Early marriage 624. Internationally accepted
618. Which is not a predisposing method of measuring obesity
factor for carcinoma is: [DPG 2006]
cervix? [RJ 2001] (a) BMI
(a) Early marriage (b) Ponderal index
(b) Early coitus (c) Lorentz index
(c) Early child bearing (d) Corpulence index
(d) Single child birth 625. Body mass index is calculated as: [DPG 2006]
340 (a) Weight/Height 2
Review of Preventive and Social (b) Weight/Height
Medicine (c) Weight Height
Communicable and Non- (d) Height/Weight
communicable Diseases 626. Which of the following should
OBESITY be done to reduce
619. For Asian populations, the obesity? [DPG 2006]
normal BMI (Body Mass (a) Regular exercise with same
Index) range is: [AIIMS Nov 2008] amount of food
(a) 18.5 24.99 (b) Decrease fat intake but have
(b) 18.5 22.99 stomach full
(c) 20.5 24.99 (c) Reduce the amount of fat in diet
(d) 20.5 22.99 only
620. What will be the BMI of a (d) Reduce intake of fats,
male whose weight is 89 kg carbohydrates and protein
and height is 172 cms? [AIPGME 627. An adult is considered to be
2005] overweight if he/she has
(a) 27 (b) 30 the BMI: [Karnataka 2009]
(c) 33 (d) 36 (a) >18.5
(b) > 20 (c) Ponderals index
(c) > 25 (d) Corpulence index
(d) None of the above 635. BMI for normal weight:
628. Obesity indices are: [PGI [Recent Question 2013]
June 02] (a) 18.5 27.99
(a) Brocas index (b) 18.5 24.99
(b) Ponderal index (c) 23.0 24.99
(c) Quetelet index (d) > 30
(d) Corpulence index 636. Which index of obesity does
629. Overweight BMI: [Recent not include height?
Question 2013] (a) BMI [Recent Question 2013]
(a) 25-29.99 (b) Ponderals index
(b) 15-18.5 (c) Brocas index
(c) 18.5-24.99 (d) Corpulence index
(d) 30-34.99 637. Corpulence index means:
630. Calculate BMI if weight in [DNB 2008]
kilograms is 98 and height (a) Measurement of obesity
in centimeters is 175: (b) Measurement of copper level in
[DNB December 2009] [DNB serum
December 2011] (c) Measurement of iron losses in
(a) 28 faeces
(b) 32 (d) Pressure difference b/w chambers
(c) 36 of heart
(d) 40
631. What will be the BMI of a 341
male whose weight is 89 kg Communicable and Non-
and height is 172 cm: [DNB 2007] communicable Diseases
(a) 27 Communicable and Non-
(b) 30 communicable Diseases
(c) 33 Review Questions
(d) 36 638. What will be the BMI of a
632. Which index of obesity does male whose weight is 89 kg
not include height? and height is 172 cm: [DNB 2007]
(a) BMI [DNB June 2010] (a) 27 [Recent Question 2013]
(b) Ponderals index (b) 30
(c) Brocas index (c) 33
(d) Corpulence index (d) 36
633. Normal range of BMI Asian 639. Corpulence index means:
individual is: [DNB 2008]
(a) 18.5 to 24.99 [DNB December (a) Measurement of obesity
2010] (b) Measurement of copper level in
(b) 22.5 to 24.99 serum
(c) 18.5 to 22.5 (c) Measurement of iron losses in
(d) 18.5 to 22.99 faeces
634. Height in centimetres by (d) Pressure difference b/w chambers
cube root of body weight is of heart
also known as: [DNB December 640. Assessment of obesity by
2011] following measurement
(a) Quetelet index Except: [UP 2006]
(b) Broca index (a) Quetelets index
(b) Broca index (b) < 6/60 in better eye
(c) Corpulence index (c) < 3/60 in better eye
(d) Sullivans index (d) < 6/60 in worse eye
641. Body mass index is also 647. Disease not included in
known as: [UP 2007] Vision 2020, India is:
(a) Brocas index (a) Cataract [AIPGME 2005]
(b) Corpulence index (b) Glaucoma [Recent Question
(c) Quetelets index 2012]
(d) Lorentzs formula (c) Diabetic retinopathy
642. Abdominal fat accumulation (d) Onchocerciasis
is assessed by: 648. The most common cause of
(a) Corpulence index [MP 2005] blindness in India is:
(b) Brocas index (a) Cataract [AIIMS Nov 05]
(c) Ponderal index (b) Trachoma
(d) Waist to hip ratio (c) Refractive errors
643. BMI (body mass index) is (d) Vitamin A deficiency
defined as: [JIPMER 2000] 649. The commonest cause of low
[All India 2005] [MH 2005] vision in India is:
(a) 2 (a) Uncorrected refractive errors
Weight (kg) AIPGME 2004]
(Height) (meters) (b) Cataract
(b) 16 (c) Glaucoma
Weight (Kg) (d) Squint
(Height) (cm) 650. According to the National
(c) Midarm circumference (cm) Programme for Control
Head circumstance (cm) of Blindness (NPC(B) survey
(d) Midarm circumference (cm) (1986-89), the highest
between ages of 1-5 prevalence of blindness in India is
years in:
BLINDNESS (a) Jammu and Kashmir [AIIMS Dec
644. Taking the definition of 1991]
blindness as visual acuity less (b) Orissa
than 3/60 in the better eye, the (c) Bihar
number of blind persons (d) Uttar Pradesh
per 100,000 population in India is 651. The commonest cause of low
estimated to be: vision in India is:
(a) 500 [AIIMS Nov 2003] (a) Uncorrected refractive errors
(b) 700 (b) Cataract [AIPGME 2003]
(c) 1000 (c) Glaucoma
(d) 1500 (d) Squint
645. The most common cause of 652. Blindness can be seen in:
blindness in India is: [PGI Dec 2K]
(a) Cataract [AIIMS May 1995] (a) Measles
(b) Trachoma [AIIMS Nov 2005] (b) Mumps
(c) Refractive errors (c) Rubella
(d) Vitamin A deficiency (d) Coxsackie
646. Under NPCB in India, cutoff 653. If Blindness is surveyed
for blindness is defined as using Schools as compared to
having a vision of: [AIPGME 2000] Population Surveys, then
(a) < 3/60 in worse eye estimation of prevalence of
blindness will have? [AIIMS (a) 0.1%
PGMEE May 2013] (b) 0.2%
(a) Overestimation (c) 0.5%
(b) Underestimation (d) 0.7%
(c) Remains same 660. Most common cause of ocular
(d) None of them is used for morbidity in India is:
evaluation (a) Cataract [UP 2000]
654. Disability certificate is given (b) Xerophthalmia
for poor vision if visual (c) Trachoma
acuity is 4/60, in tune of visual (d) Refraction error
impairment as a 661. Blindness is defined at: [UP
percentage: [AIIMS PGMEE 2006]
November 2012] (a) 3/18
(a) 1 (b) 1/60
(b) 0.4 (c) 6/60
(c) 0.3 (d) 3/60
(d) 0.75 662. The Most common cause of blindness in India is:
342 [AIIMS 1988] [Delhi 1991] [MH
Review of Preventive and Social 2000] [TN 1992]
Medicine (a) Glaucoma [TN 1992] [TN 1998]
Communicable and Non- [AP 2001]
communicable Diseases (b) Xerophthalmia
655. Blindness rate in India due to (c) Trachoma
refractive errors (d) Cataract
(a) 62.6% [Recent Question 2014] 663. Most common cause of
(b) 19.7% blindness due to easily
(c) .8% preventable cause in children: [RJ
(d) 6.2% 2001]
Review Questions (a) Diabetes
656. Commonest cause of (b) Trachoma
blindness in India is: (c) Vit. A deficiency
(a) Cataract [DNB 2001] (d) Cataract
(b) Trachoma MISCELLANEOUS (Non
(c) Injury communicable diseases)
(d) Glaucoma 664. Stanford-three-community
657. MCC of blindness in India is: study, The North Kerelia
(a) Cataract [DNB 2004] project and Lipid Research Clinics
(b) Trachoma study are types of:
(c) Injury (a) Cohort studies [AIPGME 2004]
(d) Glaucoma [AIPGME 2004]
658. WHO defines blindness if the (b) Nested case control studies
visual acuity is less (c) Case series report studies
than: [Bihar 2004] (d) Risk factor intervention trials
(a) 3/60 [Recent Question 2013] 665. Most common cause of
(b) 18/38 stroke in India is:
(c) 9/60 (a) Cerebral thrombosis [AIIMS Dec
(d) 6/6 1994]
659. Prevalence of blindness in (b) Cerebral embolism
India is: [Bihar 2004] (c) Cerebral hemorrhage
(d) Subarachnoid haemorrhage 672. True about Road traffic
666. Which one of the following is accidents: [PGI May 2011]
NOT a characteristic of (a) Most common cause of accidental
non-communicable disease: deaths in India
(a) Well-defined etiological agent (b) More in USA in motor-car users
(b) Multifactorial causation [AIPGME than pedestrians
1993] (c) More in number than self-inflicted
(c) Long latent period injuries in India
(d) Variable onset (d) More in number than railway
667. Rule of Halves is seen in: accidents in India
[AIIMS Nov 1993] (e) Contribute 50% of all injury related
(a) CHD deaths in India
(b) Hypertension
(c) Blindness 343
(d) Accidents and Injuries Communicable and Non-
668. The preferred public health communicable Diseases
approach to control Communicable and Non-
noncommunicable communicable Diseases
diseases is: [AIIMS Nov 02] 673. In India causing maximum
(a) Shift the population curve of risk death among the following
factors by a is: [Recent Question 2013]
population based approach (a) Drowning
(b) Focus on high risk individuals for (b) Road traffic accident
reducation of risk (c) Burns
(c) Early diagnosis and treatment of (d) Poisoning
indentified cases 674. Most reliable test for
(d) Individual disease based vertical screening of diabetes mellitus
Programmes (a) Random blood sugar [Recent
669. WHO STEPS is used for: Question 2012]
[AIIMS May 2009] (b) Fasting blood sugar
(a) Communicable diseases [Recent (c) Glucose tolerance test
Question 2013] (d) Urine sugar
(b) Non- communicable diseases 675. Accidents happening during
(c) Immuno- deficient diseases weekends is
(d) Auto-immune diseases. (a) Cyclic trends [Recent Question
670. Rural and urban population 2014]
differ in incidence in all (b) Seasonal trends
diseases except: [AIPGME 2010] (c) Secular trends
(a) Bronchitis (b) TB (d) Point source epidemic
(c) Lung Cancer (d) Mental illness Review Questions
671. Diabetes mellitus is best 676. Which is the least common
diagnosed by: cause of heart disease in
(a) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) > 100 India? [Bihar 2004]
mg/dl and Postprandial (a) Rheumatic
blood sugar (PPBS) > 140 (b) Hypertensive
(b) FBS >125 mg/dl and PPBS >199 (c) Ischemic
mg/dl (d) Congenital
(c) HbA1c = 5.5% [AIIMS November 677. Primordial prevention in
2011] myocardial infarction are all
(d) FBS > 70 md/dl except: [Bihar 2004]
(a) Maintenance of normal body diabetes mellitus: [MP 2001]
weight (a) Sedentary life style
(b) Change in life style (b) Protein energy malnutrition in
(c) Change in nutritional habits infancy
(d) Screening for hypertension (c) Excessive intake of alcohol
678. Corpulence index measure: (d) High intake of vitamin-A
[AIPGME 2004] 682. The North Kerelia project
(a) Hypertension evaluate risk factors of:
(b) Obesity (a) Diabetes [MP 2005]
(c) Diabetes (b) Coronary heart disease
(d) Malnutrition (c) Cancers
679. Ischemic heart disease is (d) Obesity
associated with: [AP 2003] 683. Glycosylated haemoglobin
(a) LDL reflects the mean blood
(b) VLDL glucose level of previous: [AP
(c) HDL 2003]
(d) Chylomicrons (a) 15 days
680. Smoking is not associated (b) 1 month
with the following (c) 3 months
respiratory lesion: [AP 2003] (d) 6 months
(a) Chronic bronchitis 684. Ideal cholesterol level should
(b) Sarcoidosis be below: [RJ 2005
(c) Emphysema (a) 200
(d) Lung carcinoma (b) 220
681. Following is not a risk factor (c) 300
for development of (d) 350