5. In accordance with -------------- of SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996 all mutual funds are
required to publish their unaudited half-yearly.
a) Regulations 59 b) Regulations 45 c) Regulations 65 d) None of the above
6. Each Director of the AMC shall file the details of his transaction of dealing in securities with the
trustees on a --------- basis.
a) Quarterly b) monthly c) daily d) yearly
7. Mutual funds invest in ------------ listed / unlisted securities / units of venture capital funds
a) 10 % of NAV in equity shares
b) 5% of NAV in unlisted equity shares in case of open-ended schemes
c) 10% of NAV in case of close- ended Schemes
d) All of the above
8. Appointment of the AMC can be terminated by majority of the trustees or by -----------of the unit
holders of the scheme
a) 70% b) 75% c) 100% d) 25%
9. --------Days before the launch of the scheme all information in the offer document are to be updated.
a) 30 b) 60 c) 15 d) None of the above
10. As per Regulation 52(6), Debt Schemes expenses shall be lesser by -----
a) 1% b) 2% c) 0.25% d) 0.50%
15. The publication of the unaudited half-yearly results is to be printed in at least point font
a) 10 b) 5 c) 7 d) No such restriction e) None of the above
16. Dividend warrants are to be dispatched to the unit holders within ------ of dividend declaration.
a) 42 days b) 30 days c) 60 days d) 90 days
17. An asset is classified as non-performing if the interest /principal amount has not been received or
remained outstanding for ------ quarter from the day such income /installment has fallen due.
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
18. Which among these are assigned zero value to all illiquid securities?
a) 20% of total assets (from September 30,2001)
b) 15% of total assets (from September 30,2002)
c) Both are correct
d) Only A is correct
e) Only B is correct
21. Minimum stake a sponsor needs to hold in the Asset Management Company is
a) 20% b) No stake is needed c) 1% d) 25%
32. Which among the following is not part of the Investment team in an AMC?
a) Fund Manager b) Securities Broker c) Securities Dealer d) Research Analyst
33. ---------is appointed by the Board of Directors for safekeeping of physical securities or participating
in any clearing system on behalf of mutual funds
a) Custodian b) Banks c) Trustees d) AMC e) Depository
34. Can AMC market their schemes through their own Sales Officers
a) Possible at times b) False c) True
35. Consent of unit holders with at least ---- % voting rights is required during merger of two AMCs
a) 70 b) 75 c) 100 d) 50
37. Which of the following along with Central Government holds substantial control over the
functioning of the UTI?
a) IDBI b) RBI c) SEBI d) AMFI
38. AMFI was incorporated in ------with the objective of representing mutual fund industry
a) 1996 b) 1992 c) 1995 d) 1993 e) None of above
40. Majority of --------------of unit holders of the scheme can terminate AMC
a) Trustees or 75%
b) SEBI or 75%
c) Trustees or 70%
d) AMFI or 70%
e) SEBI or 70%
42. Treasury Bonds (T-Bonds) pay a higher interest rate than Treasury Bills (T-bills).
a) True b) False c) Never
(T-Bonds have 30 day maturity period where as T-bills have maturity period of less than a year)
45. Which among the following is considered the highest- risk category of funds?
a) Aggressive Growth Funds:
b) Growth Funds:
c) Growth and Income Funds:
d) Global Funds:
e) International Funds
f) All of above
49. The complete Offer Document contains the address of the following
a) The Trustees of the Mutual fund
b) The Directors of the AMC
c) The Registrars and Transfer Agents
d) The Unit holders of the Mutual fund
e) Both a, b, c
50. Section ---- of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines a fraud.
a) 17 b) 18 c) 19 d) 20
51. Scheme means a scheme of a mutual fund launched under Chapter ---
a) IV b) V c) VII d) VIII e) VI
52. Which among the following means any person who acting alone or in combination with another
body corporate establishes a mutual fund?
a) Unit holder b) Trustee c) Sponsor d) Relative e) None of above
53. The Sponsor should contribute at least ------to the net worth of the AMC.
a) 45 b) 50 c) 40 d) 35
54. Mutual fund shall pay before the ----- April each year a service fee as specified in the -------Schedule
for every financial year from the year following the year of registration.
a) 30th & 1st b) 15th & 3rd c) 30th & 2nd d) 15th & 1st e) 15th & 2nd
55. Can AMC or any of its officers or employees act as a trustee of any mutual fund?
a) Yes b) No c) Sometimes
56. The Trustees shall abide by the Code of Conduct as specified in the ------ Schedule
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th e) 5th
57. The Chairman of the AMC is not a trustee of any mutual fund
a) True b) False
58. Every AMC should maintain and preserve for a period of ----- its books of accounts, records, and
documents.
a) 5 years b) 10 years c) 12 years d) 8 years e) No such restriction
60. Statement of Accounts are prepared with accounting policies and standards in accordance with the
------Schedule
a) 10th b) 8th c)7th d)5th e)9th
61. Certificate of registration is conferred as per Section -------of the SEBI Act, 1992.
a) 20 b) 21 c) 25 d) 30 e) None of above
65. A mutual fund scheme shall not invest more than -- of its NAV in unrated debt instruments
issued by a single issuer and the total investments in such investments shall not exceed --% of the NAV
of the scheme
a) 5% & 20% b) 5% & 25% c) 10% & 25% d) 10% & 20%
66. The initial expenses in respect of any scheme may not exceed --- of the funds raised under that
scheme.
a)10% b) 5% c) 6% d) 2%
67. No mutual fund scheme shall invest more than ---of its NAV in the equity shares or equity
related instruments of any company
a) 5% b) 10% c) 25% d) 15% e) None of above
68. A Mutual fund scheme shall not invest more than -- of its NAV in the unlisted equity shares or
equity related instruments in case of open-ended scheme and -- of its NAV in case of close ended
scheme.
a)5% & 10% b) 10% & 10% c) 5% & 15% d) 10% & 15% e) None of above
69. The securities shall be valued at the last quoted ----price on the stock exchange
a) Opening b) Closing
70. When a security is not traded on any stock exchange for a period of ---- prior to the valuation date,
the scrip is treated asnon- traded scrip
a)120 days b) 90 days c) 60 days d) 30 days
72. Longer the maturity of a portfolio the greater the risk it has from interest rate fluctuations
a)True b) False
74. Under Section--------of the Act the mutual fund is required to deduct TDS at the rate of ----- on any
long-term capital gains if the payee Unit holder is a non-resident
a) 190 & 20% b) 195& 15% c) 195 & 10% d) 190 & 10% e) 195 & 20%
75. Under Wealth Tax Act, Ownership of units is not considered as ---------
a)Income b) Expense c) Wealth d) All of above
77. Which among these give basic information about a fund that is already launched and whose
document is available?
a) Product Launch Advertisement
b) Tombstone Advertisement
c) Performance Advertisement
d) None of above
78. Income funds with --- or more of investments in debt instruments should always be compared
with a suitable index.
a) 40% b) 45% c) 60% d) 75%
79. --------------------- provide general information about AMC / Mutual Funds to the public.
a) Ranking Entity b) Time Periods c) Brochures d) None of above
80. All advertisement and sales literature containing an AMC / Mutual Funds ranking, must be
disclosed with respect to
a) The name of the category
b) The number of AMC/ Mutual funds in the category
c) The name of the Ranking Entity
d) The publisher of the Ranking data
e) All of the above
81. Advertisements and sales literature must not use any rankings other than rankings based on
yield for a period of -------------------
a) Less than one year
b) More than one year
c) Less than two year
d) More than two year
82. ------------- advertisement uses performance figures in its advertisements or sales literature.
a) Tombstone b) Performance c) Product Launch d) All of above
83. The Liabilities of the Balance Sheet should be divided into the following groups
a) Loans, Reserves & Surplus, Unit Capital, Investments
b) Reserves & Surplus, Fixed Assets, Current Liabilities and Provisions, Investments
c) Investments, Deposits, Other Current Assets, Fixed Assets, Deferred Revenue Expenditure
d) Unit Capital, Loans, Reserves & Surplus, Current Liabilities and Provisions
84. Which among the following should sign the Balance Sheets and the Revenue Account?
a) Board Of Trustees
b) Scheme wise fund managers
c) Neither of above
d) Both a & b
85. The financial statements of the scheme should be approved at a meeting of --------------------
a) Board of Directors of AMC
b) Trustees
c) Board of Directors of Trustee Company (in case of trustee company)
d) Both a & b
e) Both a, b, c
86. Mutual fund can invest in the units of UTI or in the units of any other Mutual Fund Manager.
a) Yes b) No
87. The Board of Trustees of the Mutual Fund must meet at least ------- in the month to review the
operations of the Mutual Funds.
a) Once b) Twice c) Thrice d) Daily
88. Mutual Funds should submit-------------- reports to SEBI in the enclosed formats giving details of
their money market operations
a) Periodic b) Monthly c) Quarterly d) Fortnightly e) Yearly
89. Which among the following regulates the entry into call /notice money market, bill discounting
market and term money market etc?
a) SEBI b) AMFI c) AMC d) RBI e) FII
90. Offer document contains information relating to types of investments to be made during pre-
allotment stage and the accounting procedures to be adopted.
a) False b) True c) Sometimes
91. As per 2nd Schedule Service Fee is paid by Mutual Fund before the ----- each year
a) 30th April b) 15th April c) 31st December d) None of above
93. Which are the benefits of a Mutual fund distributor who becomes a well-trained financial planner?
a) Ability to establish long- term relationships
b) Ability to build a profitable business
c) Both of above
d) Neither a nor b
96. Generally, income earned by any Mutual Fund registered with -------- is exempt from tax
a) AMC b) RBI c) SEBI d) FII
97. Income distributed to unit-holders by a close-ended or debt fund is liable to the following
a) Dividend Distribution Tax of 10%
b) Surcharge of 2%
c) Dividend Distribution Tax of 10% plus a surcharge of 2%
d) Tax of 12%
98. According to Section 88 of the Income Tax Act, investment upto to Rs -------- is eligible for tax
rebate of 20 % for Infrastructure mutual funds units.
a) 60000 b) 98000 c) 65000 d) 80000
99. Which of the following statement is correct for Tax law definition of Capital Gains ?
a) Sale Consideration (Cost of Improvements + Cost of transfer- Cost of Acquisition)
b) Sale Consideration (Cost of Acquisition + Cost of Improvements + Cost of transfer)
c) Sale Consideration + (Cost of Acquisition + Cost of Improvements + Cost of transfer)
d) None of above
102. Which among the following can be associated with Indira Vikas Patra?
a) Good returns
b) Tax Free Benefits
c) No record of identity of investors
d) Easily available
103. Which among the following can be termed as a limitation of Rupee Cost Averaging Method
a) No information regarding when to buy or sell a fund
b) Switch from losing to winning funds
c) Only a
d) Both a & b
104. As per John .C. Bogle, which among the following combinations is a Complex Managed
Portfolio?
a) 20% in diversified Equity Fund, 20 % in aggressive Growth fund, 10% in specialty funds,
30% in long-term bond funds, 20 % in short term bond fund
b) Single Index Fund with 60/40 equity/ bond holdings
c) 85% in a Balanced 60/40 Fund, 15% in medium term Bond Fund
d) 50% in Total Stock Market/Index Fund, 50 % in Total Bond Market Portfolio
105. What would you do to Maximise Investment Return in the long run?
a) Buy and Hold investments
b) Liquidate poorly performing investments
c) Liquidate good performing investments
d) Switch from poor to good performance
106. Which of the following can be perceived as a hedge against inflation or as a means of security in
bad times?
a) Shares b) Bonds c) Financial Assets d) Gold
108. From the following, identify the Rights and Obligations of the Investors?
a) Beneficial Ownership
b) Right to Timely Service & Information
c) Right to Right to wind up a scheme
d) Right to Terminate the AMC
e) All of above
110. Instruments carrying longer than one-year maturities are generally called ---------
a) Money Market Securities
b) Government Securities
c) FI Bonds
d) Debt Securities
112. In what order you would list the following schemes. i.e: Least Risk to Highest Risk
(1) Balanced fund (2) Money Market Fund (3) Sector Fund (4) Index fund
a) 1234 b) 2134 c) 4321 d) 2143
115. ----------------measures the amount of buying and selling of securities done by a fund.
a) Income Ratio b) Expense Ratio c) Turnover Rate d) None of above
116. Which among the following acts as the distributor of mutual funds shares to brokers / dealers and
the public?
a) Trustee b) Underwriter c) None of the above
120. In open-ended schemes floated on a load basis the initial expenses may be amortized over a
period not exceeding -------
a) Weekly b) Five Years c) Ten Years d) Daily
121. In the case of open-ended scheme when units are sold, the difference between the Sale Price
and the Face Value of the unit, if positive should be -------- to reserves and if negative is --------- to
reserve
a) Credited, Debited
b) Debited, Credited
c) Credited, Credited
d) Debited, Debited
122. In the case of an open-ended scheme, when units are sold an appropriate part of the sale proceeds
should be credited to ----------------
a) Capital A/c b) Equalization A/c c) Reserve A/c d) Revenue A/c
125. If EPS is negative for Non-Traded / Thinly Traded Equity Securities, then value for that year
shall be taken as ----- for arriving at capitalized earning
a) One b) Two c) Zero d) Three
126. The Offer Document & the Memorandum shall be fully revised and updated at least once in------
a) Six Months b) One Year c) Five Years d) Two Years
127. A debt security (other than Government Securities) that has a trading volume of less than 15
crores for a period of thirty days prior to the valuation date shall be considered as a -------------------
a) Equity Related Security
b) Thinly Traded Debt Security
c) Government Security
d) None of above
132. ---- of the trustees shall be independent persons and shall not be associated with the sponsors or be
associated with them in any other manner.
a) 2/4th b) 1/3rd c) d) 2/3rd
133. In case of Corporate Fixed Deposit, the most important thing an investor must look for is--------
a) Credit Rating of Deposit b) Yield
c) Rate Of Interest d) All of above
134. AMC can directly approach the Investor with the help of--------------
a) Individual agents b) Banks c) Distribution Companies d) All of above
136. ---------------is a Fund that stands ready to Buy and Sell units at any time
a) Open stock Fund
b) Open end Fund
c) Closed end Fund
d) None of above
138. What is the Risk Profile of a fund having 20% exposure to Growth Fund?
a) Very Aggressive b) Moderate
b) c) Low d) High
139. What is the Risk Profile of a fund having 10% exposure to Gold Funds?
a) Low b) Moderate
c) High d)Very Aggressive
140. An open-end fund was purchased when its NAV was Rs 40, 18 months later, its NAV stood at Rs
45. The percentage NAV change in the fund was:
a) 7.5% b) 8.33% c) 7% d) 8%
141. Which among the following are Fund Tracking Agencies in India?
a) Credence b) Value Research c) Both a & b d) None of above
144. The Current Market Price of an 11%-coupon bond, when other bonds of similar maturities pay
9% will be
a) Above Par b) Below Par c) At Par
145. Bank Certificate of Deposits has a maturity period of ------days to one year
a) 90 b) 30 c) 61 d) 91
147. How important is for Mutual Funds to disclosure Half-Yearly Results on their websites
a) Not needed b) Optional
c) Very Much Needed d) Can be ignored
148. As per Schedule 12 of SEBI, borrowings if any, above ------ of net assets of any scheme of a mutual
fund should be disclosed.
a) 5% b) 7% c) 15%
d) 10% e) None of above
149. Which among the following an investor should refer to if he/she is a first time investor
a) Key information Memorandum
b) Offer Document
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
150. Corporate Debentures are ------ in Liquidity
a) High b) Moderate c) Very High d) Low e) Very Low
152. Inspite of charging high management fees Mutual funds are able to keep the transactions cost
down because of ------
a) High Dividends b) Economies of Scale c) Maturity Period d) Flexibility
153. Direct investment in stock markets can be a better option over investing through mutual funds
If
a) The investor wants to invest for long term
b) There exits a bullish phase in stock market
c) The investor has large capital, knowledge and resources for research
d) The investor wants better returns than those offered by mutual funds
156. Which among the following can be considered as simple way of checking funds risk level?
a) Stock Turnover Ratio
b) Debt Turnover Ratio
c) Price Earning Multiple
d) None of above
159. MR. Rakesh is a Salaried Executive who is planing to retire at 60 yrs of age; he should therefore
gradually transform from ----------- ---------- generating investments
a) Income To Growth
b) Growth To Income
c) Equity Investments To Income and Cash Funds
160. A person whos Grandchildren are young, investing in Growth Funds are considered best due
to
a) They have capacity to provide current income
b) Higher Risk bearing capacity
c) Lot of time available for the investment to grow in value
d) Tax Benefits are available
162. Type of Fund(s) wherein average maturity is an important factor for an investor
a) Debt Fund b) Balanced Fund c) Liquid Fund d) Both a & b
163. As per Second Schedule of SEBI (Mutual Fund Regulations, 1996) Filing Fees for Offer
Document is
a) Rs: 10,000 b) Rs: 15,000 c) Rs: 25,000 d) Rs: 50,000
164. As per Second Schedule of SEBI (Mutual Fund Regulations, 1996) Service Fees Payable by
Mutual Funds is
a) Rs: 2,00,000 b) Rs: 2,50,000 c) Rs: 1,50,000 d) Rs: 4,00,000
165. Custodian when appointed should carry out the custodial services within-----after his appointment
a) 30 days b) 7 days c) 15 days d) 30 days
166. NAV of the scheme(s) can go ------ depending upon the factor and forces affecting the securities
market
a) Up b) Down c) Up or Down d) Neither of any
167. Non-traded investments shall be valued in good faith in accordance with the norms specified in
--------Schedule
a) Fifth b) Sixth c) Ninth d) Seventh
168. An investment shall be regarded as non-performing if it has provided no returns in the form of
dividend or interest for more than ---- as at the end of the accounting year of the mutual fund.
a) One year b) Two Years c) Three Years d) Four Years
169. The investment and advisory fees for a fund with Rs.200 Crores as avg net asset is
a) 2.25 Crores b) 2 Crores c) 3 Crores d) 2.5 Crores
170. Private sector funds were granted permission to enter the Mutual Fund industry in:
a) 1993 b) 1994 c) 1995 d) 1996 e) 1992
171. SEBI guidelines for agents includes
a) Agents can sell products of a single mutual fund
b) Agents can sell products of mutual funds with whom he has entered into an agreement
c) Assets are undervalued
d) None of the above
173. Which among the following was the first diversified equity investment scheme in India?
a) SBI Magnum b) Master Share c) Mastergain92 d) None of above
178. Market Risk is not diversifiable and Sector specific risk is not diversifiable.
a) Market Risk is diversifiable and Company specific Risk is not diversifiable.
b) Market Risk is not diversifiable and Sector specific risk is not diversifiable.
c) Market Risk is not diversifiable and Company specific Risk is diversifiable.
d) Company specific Risk is not diversifiable and Sector specific risk is not diversifiable.
181. Bond Fund distributes 20 Crores as dividend. What is the Taxable note on Mutual Fund
a) 10% + 10% b) 20% + 20% c) 20% + 10% d) Income is not taxable
183. In case of assur`ed schemes which information is not required to be given along with the offer
document
a) Means of meeting the guarantee
b) All past schemes with their returns
c) Comparison to other funds/MF
d) Disclosure about the investment objective
186. How is Unit Trust of India different from other Mutual Funds?
a) They can borrow internally and abroad
b) They can hire lease
c) Underwriting
d) All of the above
187. What is the current yield of a bond, whose coupon rate is 8% and market price, is Rs 122?
a) 6.57% b) 5% c)6.59% d) 5.67%
188. A fund invested 20 million. Total market value is 55 million, unit holder is 1 million. NAV is
a) Rs. 20 b) Rs.55 c) Rs.50 d) None
189. In case of corporate 'Fixed Deposit', the most important thing an investor must look for is
a) Yield b) Rate of Interest c) Credit rating of deposit d) None
191. What all can be associated with an Equity linked saving scheme
a) Tax rebate b) 3 yrs Lock in period c) Minimum investment in equity is fixed d) All of above
192. The 1999 Union Government Budget helped the Mutual Fund industry by
a) Regulating the practices in Mutual Fund Industry
b) Exempting all mutual funds dividends from income tax in the hands of the investors
c) Approving the code of ethics suggested by AMFI
d) All of above
199. AMC can directly approach the investor as well as with the help of
a) Individual agents
b) Banks and NBFC
c) Distribution Companies
d) All of the above
e) The question is incorrect
200. As per SEBI regulations derivatives trading will be done for ------------
a) Hedging
b) Portfolio Balancing
c) Both a & b
201. Characteristics of SWP are
a) A prospective investor can seek recourse to
b) Sue the investment of the earlier fund
c) Sue the AMC/Trustee
d) Cannot seek recourse
e) Incorrect Question
206. What will be the current market price of a 10% coupon bond when other bonds of similar
maturities pay 13%
a) Above par
b) Below par
c) At Par
209. In case of assured schemes which information is not required to be given in offer document
a) Means of meeting the guarantee
b) All past schemes with their returns
c) Comparison to other funds / MF
d) Disclosure about the investment objective
210. KIM is available at
a) AMC office b) Authorised banks c) Both a & b d) None
211. All Mutual Fund AMC and Corporate Trustees are companies registered under the ----------
a) Department of Company Affairs
b) Company Law Board
c) Companies Act, 1956
d) All of above
214. As per the SEBI regulations, a mutual fund shareholder can change his/her AMC.
a) Yes b) No c) Never
215. If its liquidity that a mutual fund share holder looking for, then which among these he/she should
not be looking for?
a) Open-end Scheme b) Close-end Scheme
216. As per the regulations of SEBI, mutual funds should provide investor with at least ------exit
route at any given point in time.
a) Two b) None c) Three d) One
217. ---------------are open for sale or redemption during pre-determined intervals at NAV-related
prices.
a) Income Fund b) Interval funds c) Growth Funds d) Index Funds e) None of above
218. ------------------funds are what corporate and individual investors need to park their surplus funds
for short periods.
a) Money Market Funds b) Income Funds c) Interval Funds d) Growth funds e) Sector Funds
219. Which among the following replicate the returns of the specific index?
a) Income Funds b) Sector Funds c) Index Funds d) Balanced Funds e) All of above
220. When a Shareholder sells shares of a fund, he will realize either a taxable-------
a) Gain b) Loss c) Both a & b d) None of above
221. Mutual Fund is not a trust that pools the savings of investors who share a common financial goal.
a) True b) False c) Sometimes
222. Which among the following describes broadly the working of a mutual fund?
a) Securities, Returns, Fund Manager, Investors
b) Securities, Fund Manager, Investors, Returns
c) Investors, Returns, Securities, Fund Manager
d) Investors, Fund Manager, Securities, Returns
223. Because the fund stands ready to redeem units at any time, units in an open-end funds are always
worth there
a) Net Asset Value b) Asset Revenue c) Par value d) Selling price
224. Best way to determine if the client is in wealth creating or wealth preserving mode is by
a) Asking series of questions
b) Make trade offs between higher returns with possibility of loss
c) More nominal returns but with a lower probability of loss
d) By analyzing responses
e) All of above
f) Both a & b
228. Which among the following is/are comprehensive & relevant approach to Financial Planning
a) Income Cycle b) Wealth Cycle c) Life Cycle
229. ------------------------ is a specific & separate asset investment strategy evolved to meet each
individual goal
a) Sudden Wealth Stage
b) Goal Oriented Investing
c) Reaping Stage
d) Transition Stage
e) Investment Strategy
234. Which stage changes the financial situation of any young couple?
a) Childhood Stage
b) Young Married Stage
c) Young Unmarried Stage
d) Young Married with Children Stage
e) Both d & a
f) None of above
235. In which stage parents Financial Planning would be changing from Protection need to
Investment need.
a) Childhood Stage
b) Post Family Stage
c) Young Married Stage
d) Retirement Stage
e) Married with older Children Stage
236. Why does investing consideration have paramount value to people who are married and are
having old children?
a) Couple may be raising loans
b) Couple may have raised loans
c) Plans have to be made to service loans & replay capital
d) Pension provision to provide an income at later stage
e) All of above
f) Only b & c
237. Need for Financial Planning take place rarely in an individuals life
a) False b) True
239. Which among the following is associated with an individual at all stage?
a) Expense b) Expense & Income c) Income d) None of above
240. In financial planning, priority and ability change with each stage of the life cycle.
a) False b) True
242. -----------------is first step in Financial Planning process and a basic tool for translation of financial
plan into action
a) Asset Allocation Stage
b) Selecting the right investment products for investors
c) Comparison of investments products
d) Helping investors understand risks in fund investing
243. Trustees shall----------review all transactions carried out between Mutual Funds, AMC and its
Associates
a) Daily b) Quarterly c) Monthly d) Yearly
246. A scheme transfers the securities to another scheme under same AMC. Which is incorrect?
a) The AMC holds 4% in the total inter-scheme transfers.
b) The securities are sold at market value + 10% add. Charges
c) Both a & b
248. For choosing an appropriate benchmark the following are required, except
a) The portfolio composition and size.
b) Historical data of Fund performance
c) Investment objective
d) Nature of investments
e) None of above
249. Comparison of Direct Equity and Mutual Fund Investment, which is true.
a) A large capital required in MF as compared to direct investing.
b) Diversification is possible in Direct Equity as compared to MF.
c) Transaction costs with fund wipe out the profits as compared to equity.
d) The investment objective is possible through MF investing as against Direct Equity investment.
253. ----------------- is a measure of scattering of the values about the average (mean) value.
a) Standard Deviation b) Beta c) Ex-marks d) Beta Coefficient
255. Which fund would a person wanting low risk (risk averse) and high yields choose?
a) Div.yield 15%, Beta - 1.5, ex-marks-90
b) Div.yield 10%, Beta -1, ex-marks-70
c) Div.yield 11%, Beta -0.9, ex-marks-80
d) Div.yield 12%, Beta -1.2, ex-marks-80
259. Which among the following was responsible for the poor resource mobilisation by mutual funds in
1998/99.
a) MOF b) SEB c) UTI d) None of above
260. During 1999-2000, resource mobilisation by Indian corporate through Euro issues by way of
------- registered a significant increase
a) FCCB b) GDR c) ADR d) All of above
261. Buy-back of shares allows the GOI to --------- the targeted amount
a) Raise b) Reduce c) Both a & b d) Any of above
262. Offer for Buy back of shares is given to -------shareholders
a) Few b) None c) Selected d) All
264. Fund Management is a ---------- process in which agency problems could surface at many levels
a) Simple b) Complex c) An y one of above d) None of above
272. All of the following investments are examples of "debt" investments EXCEPT:
a) Corporate Bonds b) Gold c) Certificate of Deposit d) Fixed annuity
273. If Bond A had a lower rating than Bond B, the yield on Bond A would be
a) Higher b) Lower c) The same
274. Ability to convert an investment into cash without losing any of the principal is:
a) Equity b) Liquidity c)Marketability d) Current Yield
275. If Mr. Ambani, who is in the 28% tax bracket, invested in a Certificate of Deposit which, were
paying 6% interest, his after-tax Yield would be?
a) 4.32% b) 4.23% c) 26.32% d) None of the above
{After-tax Yield = Current Yield (1 Tax Rate)}
286. All of the following are true statements concerning an auto lease EXCEPT:
a) A lease never requires a down payment.
b) Mileage during the lease is limited to a specific amount.
c) Additional fees may apply if you terminate the lease early
d) The leasing company retains ownership of the vehicle
287. The type of mortgage in which interest rate changes during the life of the loan is called a:
a) Fixed Rate Loan
b) Balloon Mortgage Growing
c) Equity Mortgage
d) Adjustable Rate Mortgage
e) Reverse Mortgage
288. All of the following investments are examples of "Debt" investments EXCEPT:
a) Corporate Bonds b) Gold c) Certificates of deposit d) Fixed annuity
289. The investment risk that deals with the upward or downward movement of the value of the
investment, based on the changes in the financial market is known as
a) Risk of principal b) Market Risk c) Purchase Power Risk d) Interest Rate Risk
290. ---------refers to the ability to convert an investment into cash without losing any of the principal
a) Marketability b) Equity c) Liquidity d) Current Yield
291. Generally, if Bond A had a lower rating than Bond B, the yield on Bond A would be:
a) Higher b) Lower c) The Same
292. All of the following are advantages to the purchase of common stock EXCEPT:
a) It can provide an income stream.
b) There is good marketability.
c) There can be tax advantages for long-term purchases.
d) The issuing company guarantees the return.
293. One of the disadvantages associated with the purchase of real estate as an investment is:
a) Financial leverage may be used.
b) Certain tax deductions may be available.
c) It can create a hedge against inflation
d) There is a lack of liquidity
294. The return on a mutual fund comes from:
a) Dividend income
b) Capital gains distributions
c) Increase in share value above purchase price
d) All of the above
*295. The commission structure in a mutual fund that features a Deferred Sales Charge is
a)"A" shares b)"B" shares c)"C" shares d)All of the above
296. Stocks whose movement tends to follow the business cycle of the economy as a whole are called:
a) Large Cap stocks b) Cyclical stocks c)Growth stocks d)Speculative stocks e)Blue Chip stocks
297. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of investing via common stock?
a) There is no guarantee of return, either through dividends or capital gain.
b) The timing of purchases and sales will significantly effect investment return.
c) The entire investment is subject to risk on principal.
d) Common stocks can generally be purchased with a small initial investment.
298. Which of the following statements concerning people in retirement years is (are) correct?
(1) A large percent of monthly income is spent on living expenses.
(2) As inflation rises, purchasing power increases.
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c)Both (1) and (2) d)Neither (1) nor (2)
301. To calculate the amount to be saved annually to meet retirement objectives, all the following
assumptions must be made EXCEPT:
a) Annual before-tax returns on investments
b) Annual after-tax returns on investments
c) Annual inflation rate
d) Difference in ages between spouses
e) Desired number of years to enjoy one's retirement, or one's life expectancy following retirement
302. To determine one's assets available at retirement, all the following are included, EXCEPT:
a) Cash on hand and cash in a checking account
b) IRA accounts
c) Vested retirement plan benefits from a pension plan
d) Money market and other mutual funds
e) Stocks and bonds
303. To calculate the future value of income-producing investments in the retirement planning
calculations, the most correct interest factor to use is the:
a) Before-tax percentage return.
b) After-tax return.
c) Expected rate of inflation.
d) Modified interest rate.
304. Which of the following personal objectives is Least important in the retirement planning
process?
a) Maximizing personal tax benefits
b) Maximizing personal retirement benefits
c) Providing estate liquidity
d) Achieving a stated personal retirement income objective
305. Following statements concerning retirement planning objectives are correct EXCEPT:
a) You may have conflicting objectives.
b) You may have altruistic objectives.
c) Your objectives should be ranked in order of priority.
d) Your personal objectives should not affect the type of plan selected.
e) Some objectives can be achieved only at the expense of other objectives.
306. Why is liquidity an important consideration while selecting a pension plan investment?
a) It provides a source of funds to pay plan expenses and benefits.
b) Liquid investments provide a high rate of return.
c) Liquid investments are growth-oriented, which is desirable in pension plans.
d) The liquidity of investments keeps plan expenses at a minimum.
307. An Investment manager must consider which of the following types of investment risks?
a) Market risk b) Safety of principal c) Specific risk d) None of the above
308. The duration of a bond is a function of its
a) Current price b) Time to maturity c)Yield to maturity d) Coupon rate e) All of above
309. Which among the following best describes the investment characteristics of a high quality long-term
municipal fund?
a) High inflation risk, Low default risk
b) Low inflation risk, High market risk
c) Low inflation risk, Low default risk
d) High inflation risk, high market risk
310. A client provides a current personal balance sheet to the financial planner during the initial
data gathering phase of the financial planning process. This financial statement will enable the
financial planner to gain an understanding of all of the following except the
a) Diversification of the client's assets.
b) Size of the client's net cash flow.
c) Clients liquidity position.
d) Clients use of debt.
311. Which one of the following products is designed to provide both growth and income?
a) Fixed premium annuity
b) Non-participating mortgage real estate investment trusts
c) Aggressive growth mutual fund
d) Convertible bond
312. Company ABC is currently trading at Rs: 35 and pays a dividend of Rs: 2.30. Analysts project a
dividend growth rate of 4%. Your client Ravi requires a rate of 9% to meet his stated goal. Ravi wants
to know if he should purchase stock in Company ABC.
a) Yes, the stock is undervalued.
b) No, the stock is overvalued.
c) No, the required rate is higher than the projected growth rate.
d) Yes, the required rate is higher than the expected rate.
e) No, the required rate is lower than the expected rate.
f) Both a, c, d
313. Which of the following would result in the largest increase in the price of a diversified common
stock mutual fund?
a) Unexpected inflation
b) Expected dividend increases
c) Unexpected corporate earnings growth
d) Expected increase in the prime interest rate
314. While analyzing the position of a portfolio in terms of risk/return on the Capital market line,
superior performance exists, if the fund's position is ----------the Capital market line, inferior
performance exists if the fund's position is -----------the CML, and equilibrium position exists if it
is--------- the Capital market line.
a) Above; on; below
b) Above; below; on
c) Below; on; above
d) Below; above; on
e) On, above; below
316. Which combination of the following statements about investment risk is correct?
1) Beta is a measure of systematic, non-diversifiable risk.
2) Rational investors will form portfolios and eliminate systematic risk.
3) Rational investors will form portfolios and eliminate unsystematic risk.
4) Systematic risk is the relevant risk for a well-diversified portfolio.
5) Beta captures all the risk inherent in an individual security.
317. Arrange the following financial planning functions into the logical order in which a professional
financial planner performs these functions.
(1) Interview clients and identify preliminary goals
(2) Monitor financial plans
(3) Prepare financial plan
(4) Implement financial strategies, plans, and products
(5) Collect, analyze and evaluate client data
a) 1,3,5,4,2 b) 5,1,3,2,4 c)1,5,4,3,2 d)1,5,3,4,2 e)1,4,5 3, 2
318. The Standard Deviation of the returns of a portfolio of securities will be ____________ the weighted average
of the Standard Deviation of returns of the individual component securities.
a) Equal to b) Greater than c) Less than d) Less than or equal to e) Less than, equal to, or greater than
319. According to fundamental analysis, which phrase best defines the intrinsic value of a share of common
stock?
a) The par value of the common stock
b) The book value of the common stock
c) The liquidating value of the firm on a per share basis
d) The stock's current price in an inefficient market
e) The discounted value of all future dividends
320. The party to a trust who creates the trust is called the-----
a) Grantor b)Executor c)Trustee d)Beneficiary
321. Historically investors have used -------as benchmarks to judge the performance of debt funds.
a) Interest Rates b) Bank Deposits c) Bank Deposit Interest Rates
322. Benchmark for -----------is clear & pre-specified by the fund manager in advance
a) Debt Funds b) Index Funds c)Balanced Funds d) Income Funds
324. --------measures the percentage change in a Bonds price with a Change in yield
a) Duration b)Term to maturity c)Both of above
335.Investors who value safety the most choose ------------- over mutual funds
339.A better performing equity fund will have -------ex marks, --------beta and ---gross dividend yield
343.The benchmark for a balanced fund is -------and ------combined in the same proportion as ------ of
the fund.
344.If a fund is assuming higher risk than the market index, its beta will be--------
345. Mutual funds should disclose their returns for ---, ---and ---years
346. Illiquid securities should not exceed -----% of the net assets.
347. Valuation of debt instruments with less than 182 days to maturity is done on-------basis
348.An equity share is considered illiquid if it is not traded for over ------days
349.An asset is non-performing if interest and /or principal is due for over-----months
350. If a single unit holder holds more than -----% of net assets, the numbers of such unit holders
and their percentage holding in the net asserts, have to be disclosed.
354. A fund whose initial issue expense is borne by the AMC is called------fund and the AMC
receives -----fee on such funds.
357. Investments are to be valued at -------cost for determining profit or loss on sale of securities.
358. Net asset computation cannot be impacted by errors in computation arising due to accounting for
accrued income, by more than ----
361. Mutual funds cannot borrow up to ----% of net assets for a period not exceeding-------
363.If-yield curve is sloping up, long term rates are --------than short-term rates.
364. If credit rating of a bond moves from AAA to AA, its yield will ------and price will-----
365. If interest rates have gone down current yield will be ---------than coupon rate,
366. If equity markets move down, dividend yield will move -----
367. The offer document for an open ended fund is valid for ---------years
368. The sponsors financial history for ---------years is to be provided in the offer document.
369. If a scheme invests in unlisted shares, it has to state this as a ----------risk factor.
370.If units are held by three investors jointly, redemption proceeds are payable to -----
371. Long term capital gains without indexation are taxable at --------------------
372. Listed mutual funds have to abide the ----------------of the stock exchanges
374. The unit holders are ---------owners and the Trust is the -----------owner of the mutual funds assets.
381. What is the price of a bond, whose face value is Rs. 100, coupon 10%, maturity in 3 years, if the
YTM is 14%?
382. The NAV of a fund on June 30th, 2001 was Rs 16.45. Six months later, the NAV had grown to Rs.
17.985. Using the percentage change in NAV method, calculate the annualised return.
383. A mutual fund incurs Rs. 9 Crore as initial issue expense for mobilising Rs. 60 Crore. How will this
expense be treated in the books of the fund?
384. The weekly average net assets of a no-load fund are Rs. 650 Crores. As per SEBI regulations, what
is the maximum amount that can be charged towards investment management fees to the fund?