1. ALL is predisposed to by a.

Antinuclear antibody
a. Blooms syndrome b. RA factor is positive
b. Fanconis syndrome c. Bad obstetric history
c. Ataxic telengectasia d. Increased PTT
d. Turners syndrome e. HLA B 27
e. Diamond blackfan syndrome 8. All of the following are blood buffers
2. Klinefelters syndrome is associated except
with a. Phosphates
a. XXY b. Plasma proteins
b. Male phenotype c. Bicarbonates
c. Infertility d. Oxygen
d. Azoospermia e. Heamoglobin
e. Bar body absent 9. Supine hypotension is seen in
3. True about testicular feminization a. Obesity
is/are b. Ascites
a. Testes present c. Abdominal tumors
b. Female phenotype d. Pregnancy
c. XY e. Bradycardia
d. Secondary amennorhea
e. Uterus present
10. Lipid lowering drugs act on
4. The activity of the following enzymes a. HMG coA synthetase
is decreased in starvation b. HMG coA reductase
a. Acy carnitine tranferase c. Mevalonate kinase
b. Lipoprotien lipase d. Lipase
c. Citrate cleavage enzyme e. Acyl coA transferase
d. Fatty acid synthase 11. Sterilizing agents include
e. Phosphoglucomutase a. Cyclohexidene
5. Regarding laryngomalacia true is/are b. Ethelyne oxide
a. Most common cause of stridor c. Diethyl ether
in newborn d. Gallamine
b. Sigma shaped epiglottis 12. A patient presenting with a fasting
c. Inspiratory stridor blood sugar of 180 and post prandial
d. Most require surgery sugar of 260. The management in his
e. Stridor worsens on lying in case include
prone position a. Glibenclamide
6. When acute appendicitis is suspected it b. Diet therapy + exercise
can be confirmed by c. Diet therapy + exercise +
a. Clinical examination metphormin
b. Ultrasound d. Insulin
c. CT scan e. Chlorpropamide
d. TLC and DLC 13. IgE is secreted by
e. Upper GI endoscopy a. Mast cells
7. A female presenting with history of b. Eosinophils
rash and polyarthritis. It is associated c. Plasma cells
with d. Basophils
 e. Neutrophils 21. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen
14. Classical complement pathway is in association with
activated by a. Succinate dehydrgenase
a. IgG b. Alpha ketogluterate
b. IgA dehydrogenase
c. IgM c. Succinate thiokinase
d. IgE d. Malanate dehydrogenase
e. IgD e. Cis-aconitase
rd
15. 3 nerve palsy is caused by 22. Alkylating agents include
a. Posterior communicating artery a. Doxorubicin
aneurysm b. Chlorambucil
b. Mid brain infarct c. Vincristine
c. Lateral medullary lesions d. Nitrogen mustard
d. Pons infarct e. Busulphan
e. Cerebellar tumors
16. Bilateral enlarged kidneys are seen in 23. Submucous glands are present in
a. Chronic glomerulonephritis a. Oesophagus
b. Pyelonephritis b. Doudenum
c. Benign nephrosclerosis c. Stomach
d. Polycystic kidneys d. Ascending colon
e. Amylodosis e. Ileum
17. Trophic ulcers are caused by 24. True regarding Pendreds syndrome is
a. Leprosy a. Consistently associated with
b. Deep vien thrombosis deafness
c. Burgers disease b. Hypothyroidism
d. Secondary syphilis c. Mutation in the connexion
18. Burgers disease is associated with coding region
a. Smoking d. Mutation in chromosome 21
b. Poor nutrition causing reecptor defect
c. Alcoholic 25. True about carotid body tumor is
d. Prolonged standing a. Non chromaffin paraganglioma
e. Superficial thrombophlebitis b. Good prognosis
19. Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla c. Rarely metastasize
are d. Is similar to mixed parotid
a. Glucagon tumor
b. Epinephrine 26. Burkits lymphoma is associated with
c. Cortisol a. B cell lymphoma
d. Insulin 6.14 translocation
e. Thyroxine b. Can present with abdominal
20. Hemithorax opacity with contralateral mass
shift of mediastinum is c. Raditherapy is used in
a. Massive pleural effusion treatment
b. Consolidation 27. Hepatic infarcts are seen in
c. Collapse of lung a. Preeclampsia
d. Large mass b. Chronic venous congestion
e. Pneumothorax c. Budd chiarri syndrome
 d. Sepsis c. Ischiocavernosis
e. Extrahepatic biliary atresia d. Iliococcygeous
28. Anti psychotics used in treatment of e. Pubococcygeous
shizophrenia are 35. The visual pathway consists of all of
a. Halopredol the following except
b. Chlorpromozine a. Optic tract
c. Immipramine b. Geniculocalcerine fissure
d. Olanzapine c. Lateral geniculate body
e. Resperidone d. Inferior colliculous
e. Pretectal region
29. Interventricular septum is developed 36. Plantar flexion is brought about by
from which of the following muscles
a. Conus septum a. Plantaris
b. Endocardial cushion defect b. Flexor hallucis longus
c. Left horn of sinus venosus c. Tibialis anterior
d. Ostium septum d. Peroneus brevis
e. Truncus septum e. Soleus
30. Physiological changes in pregnancy are 37. Adductors of the vocal cords include
a. Insulin level is increased a. Posterior cricoaretenoids
b. There is increased BMR b. Cricothyroid
c. Hypothyroidism c. Anterior cricoaretenoids
d. Growth hormone levels are d. Aretenoepiglottis
decreased e. Transverse cricoaretenoids
31. High hepatic extraction ration is seen 38. Branches of anterior internal iliac
a. Propranolol arteries include
b. Lidocaine a. Posterior gluteal
c. Diazepam b. Uterine
d. Phenytoin c. Obturator
e. Theophylline d. Pudendal
32. The amino acid which is associated e. Iliolumbar
with atherosclerosis 39. In a CT scan cut section at the level of
a. Arginine the celiac trunk, which of the following
b. Homocysteine structures can be identified
c. Cysteine a. Pancreas
d. Tryptophan b. Gall bladder
e. Alanine c. Inferior vena cava
33. Varicose viens are seen in d. Duodenum
a. Deep vein thrombosis e. Portal vien
b. Superficial venous thrombosis 40. In oculomotor nerve palsy, which of
c. AV fistula the following causes can be implicated
d. Prolonged standing a. Posterior communicating artery
e. Hypertension aneurysm
b. Tolosa Hunt syndrome
34. Superficial perineal muscles include c. Midbrain infarct
a. Superficial transverse peroneii d. Pons Infarct
b. Bulbospongiosis e. Lateral medullary lesions
41. Branches of the basilar artery include c. Depletion of lipids in adrenal
a. Posterior inferior cerebral medulla
artery d. Periportal hepatic necrosis
b. Posterior cerebral artery e. Depletion of lymphocytes
c. Middle cerebral artery 46. In a patient which of the following
d. Posterior communicating artery would cause rhabdomyolisis and
e. Anterior cerebral artery myoglobulinuria
42. Regarding acid secretion in the a. Hyperpyrexia
stomach b. Viper snake venom
a. Increased gastrin secretion c. Multiple hornet stings
increases secretion d. Prolonged coma
b. Secretin decreases secretion e. Anemia
c. Fractional test meal is the best 47. In the body bilirubin is obtained from
screening index a. Heamoglobin
d. H2 receptor blockers block acid b. Myoglobin
secretion c. Muscle
e. Total acid secretion reflects on d. Cholestrol
the functional parietal cell mass e. Amino acids
43. In a patient with transplanted heart 48. All of the following are required for fat
which of the following are reasons for digestion except
increased cardiac output in him during a. Bile pigment
exercise b. Gastric lipase
a. Reinnevation of the heart by the c. Colipase
vagus d. Bile salts
b. Intrinsic mechanisms e. Pancreatic lipase
c. Increased epinephrine released 49. Causes of sterile pyuria without urinary
from medulla tract infection include
d. Bainbridge reflex a. Cortical tubercular abcess
e. Due to Starlings effect b. Pyelonephritis
c. Fungal infection
44. Regarding the renal excretion d. Gonococcal infection
a. Sodium reabsorption occurs in e. Urolithiasis
the DCT 50. Criteria for diagnosis of multiple
b. Pottassium is both excreted and myeloma include
reabsorbed in the tubules a. Plasma cells in bone marrow
c. Heamoglobin is not excerted in greater then 30%
the glomerulus as it is a large b. Bence jones proteins
molecule c. Lytic bone lesions
d. Glucose is reabsorbed in the d. Decreased beta 2
DCT microglobulins
e. Amino acids are reabsorbed in e. Rouleux formation in the blood
the collecting ducts 51. In a patient with acute arsenic
45. The histopathological features of poisoning which of the following
Shock include strictures would show accumulation of
a. Acute tubular necrosis arsenic
b. Lung infarcts a. Liver
 b. Bone marrow b. Lateral condyle #
c. Skin c. Olecranon #
d. Kidney d. Distal radioulnar dislocation
e. Brain e. Medial condylar #
52. Both hepatic and renal failures can be 59. Hb A2 is increased in
caused by which of the following a. Alpha thallessemia
a. Paracetamol toxicity b. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Carbon tetrachloride c. Beta thallessemia
c. Arsenic d. Sickle cell trait
d. Copper sulphate e. Megaloblastic anemia
e. Silver nitrate 60. Metaphysical lesions seen commonly
53. Chronic arsenic poisoning causes are
a. Pure sensory neuropathy a. Metaphyseal fractures
b. Pure Motor neuropathy b. Osteomyelitis
c. Mixed motor and sensory c. Osteosarcoma
neuropathy d. Ewings sarcoma
d. Painful neuropathy e. Osteoclastoma
e. Hyperkeratosis 61. True regarding salmonella
54. Widmarks formula is used for gastroenteritis include
estimation of a. Mainly diagnosed by serology
a. Cocaine b. Blood and mucous are present
b. Arsenic in stools
c. Alcohol c. Caused via animal products
d. Carbon monoxide d. Symptoms appear between 8
e. Lead -48 hours
55. McNaughtens rule is applicable in e. The features are mainly due to
a. Calculating length of fetus exotoxin released
b. In estimating stature 62. True regarding E-Coli is/are
c. In insanity a. The LT labile toxin in ETEC
d. In dactylography acts via cAMP
e. To detect metals b. In those types causing urinary
56. Not seen in Wrights stain is infections the organism attaches
a. Reticulocytes by pili antigen
b. Basophilic stippling c. The ST stable toxin of ETEC is
c. Heinz bodies responsible for causation of
d. Howell jolly bodies HUS
e. Clot rings d. The EIEC invasiveness is under
plasmid control
57. Motor neuropathy is caused by e. In EPEC the toxin helps in
a. Dapsone invasion of the organism
b. Cisplatin 63. The sputum examination under district
c. Arsenic TB control programme is done when
d. Lead the patient presents with which of the
e. Hypothyroidism following
58. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is caused by a. Cough for 1-2 weeks
a. Supracondylar # b. Cough for 3-4 weeks
 c. Heamoptysis 69. All of the following are antigen
d. Chest pain presenting cells except
e. Intermittent fever a. T cells
64. In cryptoccocal infection the organism b. B cells
can be readily demonstrated by c. Fibroblasts
a. Alberts stain d. Dendritic cells
b. India ink stain e. Langerhans cells
c. Giemsa stain 70. All of the following are true regarding
d. Grams stain H pylori except
e. Zeil Niehlson stain a. Gram negative bacilli
65. Regarding HSV 2 infection which of b. Strongly associated with
the following are correct Duodenal ulcer
a. Primary infection is usually c. Associated with lymphoma
wide spread d. C14 urea breath test is used in
b. Recurrent attacks occur due to the diagnosis
latent infection e. It should be eradicated in all
c. Encephalitis is commonly cases when ever detected
caused by it 71. Breast cancer is seen more commonly
d. Newborn acquires the infection in women who
via the birth canal or at the time a. Consume non vegetarian food
of labor b. Have early menopause
i. Treatment is by c. Smoke
acyclovir d. Have multiple sex partners
66. IgE is secreted by e. Who did not breast feed their
a. Mast cells babies
b. Eosinophils 72. Predisposing factors in colonic cancer
c. Basophils is/are
d. Plasma cells a. Animal fat consumption
e. Neutrophils b. Familial adenomatous
67. The T helper cell subtype attach to polyposis
which of the following sites c. Ulcerative colitis
a. MHC I cells d. Crohns disease
b. MHC II cells e. Tuberculosis
c. Processed peptide 73. Abdominoperineal resection is
d. CD8 preferred in colorectal cancer based on
e. Delta region which of the following
a. Age of patient
68. Apart from B cells, T cells there is a b. Distance from anal verge
distinct third type of lymphocytes. c. Fixity of tumor
They are d. Hepatic metastasis
a. MHC cells e. Extent of tumor
b. NK cells 74. Predisposing factors for skin cancer are
c. Macrophages a. Lichen planus
d. Neutrophils b. Leukoplakia
e. Eosinophils c. Bowens disease
d. Psoriasis
 e. Behcets disease b. Mitochondria membrane
75. True regarding ankylosing spondylitis c. DNA
is d. Plasma membrane
a. More common in men e. Cell enzymes
b. Associated with HLA B 27 82. In spectroscopy nucleotides absorb at
c. Associated with B8 260 nm wavelength. This absorption is
d. Affects only small joints due to
76. Squamous cell carcinoma in bladder is a. Purines and pyrimidines
predisposed to by b. Deoxyribose
a. Urolithiasis c. Ribose
b. Shistosomiasis d. Histones
c. Persistent urachus e. Phosphates
d. Polyp 83. Regarding oncogenesis
e. Smoking a. Topoisomerase II causes break
77. Restrictive Fragment Length in both strands
Polymorphism is used in the diagnosis b. P53 is the most common
of oncogene mutation causing
a. Thallessemia cancer in humans
b. Sickle cell trait c. At G2-M phase there is loss of
c. Gilberts syndrome inhibitors controlling cell cycle
d. Phenylketonuria d. Decrease in telomerase activity
e. Von Gierkes disease causes antitumor effect
78. True regarding Gilberts syndrome 84. The investigation of choice in acute
is/are cholecystitis is
a. Unconjugated a. Ultrasound
hyperbilirubinemia b. HIDA scan
b. Increased liver transaminases c. CT scan
c. Bleeding tendencies d. Oral cholestogram
d. Autoantibodies are present e. MRI

79. Regarding cholestasis of pregnancy 85. All can cause hyperglycemia except
which of the following is/are true a. Growth hormone
a. Deep jaundice is present b. Cortisol
b. Pruritus is the 1st symptom c. Epinephrine
c. Maximum during the third d. Glucagon
trimester e. Insulin
d. Raised liver transaminases 86. Primary hyperparathyroidism is caused
80. Purpuric rashes are seen in by
a. Dengue a. Parathyroid hyperplasia
b. Borrelia b. Parathyroid adenoma
c. Secondary syphilis c. MEN syndrome
d. Measles d. Thyrotoxicosis
e. Typhoid e. Chronic renal failure
81. The most sensitive structure in a cell 87. Hyperphosphatemia with hypocalcemia
for radiotherapy is is seen in
a. Cell membrane a. CRF
 b. Pseudohypoparathyroidsim
c. Tumor lysis syndrome
d. Vitamin D intoxication
e. Sarcoidosis
88. Raised calcium and phosphate is seen
in
a. Chronic renal failure
b. Vitamin D intoxication
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
e. Sarcoidosis
89. Hypokalemia is associated with
a. Furesemide
b. Cortisol
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Amiloride
e. Addisons disease
90. VIPOMA is associated with
a. Watery diarrhea
b. Hypochlorhydria
c. Hyperchlorhydria
d. Hyperkalemia
e. Hypokalemia
91. Universal finding in Asthma is
a. Hypoxia
b. Hypercarbia
c. Hypoxemia
d. Respiratory acidosis
e. Metabolic acidosis
92. Which of the following are seen in DIC
a. Increased PT
b. Increased BT
c. Decreased fibrinogen
degradation products
d. Normal platelet count
e. Decreased fibrinogen
93. True regarding postmenopausal
osteoporosis is/are
a. Decreased Vitamin D
b. Decreased calcium
c. Normal serum chemistries
d. Decreased Vitamin C
e. Ammenorrhea
94. Varicose veins are seen in
a. Deep vein thrombosis
b. Superficial venous thrombosis
c. AV fistula
d. Prolonged standing
e. Hypertension
95. Trendlenburgs test is positive in
a. Saphenofemoral incompetence
b. Perforator incompetence above
knee
c. Deep vein incompetence
d. Perforator incompetence below
knee
e. Superficial thrombophlebitis
96. True regarding A-V fistula is/are
a. Leads to cardiac failure
b. Local gigantism
c. Causes ulcers
d. Causes excess bleeding on
injury
e. Closes spontaneously
97. The causes of dilated cardiomyopathy
are
a. Viral myocarditis
b. Amylodosis
c. Alcohol
d. Lofflers endocarditis
e. Post partum cardiomyopathy
98. In comparison between restrictive
cardiomyopathy and constrictive
pericarditis they are differentiated as in
constrictive pericarditis
a. The diastolic pressures are
equalized
b. There is mild pericardial
effusion
c. The pulmonary artery pressure
is lesser then 50 mmHg
d. Presence of right heart failure
e. Associated with septal
hypertrophy
99. True regarding inverted papilloma is
a. Common in children
b. Arises from the lateral wall
c. Always benign
d. Can be premalignant
e. Causes obstruction in nose
100. Which of the following are true c. Anaerobic infection
about carcinoma larynx d. Septicemia
a. The glottic carcinoma is the e. Pneumonia
MC 105. Predisposing factors for gastric
b. Supraglottic has the best cancer include
prognosis a. Atrophic gastritis
c. Lymphatic spread is most b. Hyperplastic polyp
common in the subglottic type c. Adenomatous polyp
d. T1 tumor involving the glottis d. Achlorhydria
is best treated with radiotherapy e. Animal fat consumption
only 106. Which of the following are seen
e. Lymphatic spread is most in apoptosis
common in supraglottic type a. Membrane blebs
101. A 14 year old boy presented b. Inflammation
with epistaxis and a swelling in the c. Nuclear fragmentation
cheek. Which of the following is true d. Spindle formation
regarding his condition e. Cell swelling
a. Diagnosis is nasopharyngeal 107. True regarding recurrent
angiofibroma thrombophlebitis (migratory
b. Contrast CT is used to see the thrombophlebitis) is
extent 108. Which of the following
c. Has high propensity to spread investigations would U do for a case of
to lymphnodes strangulated hernia
d. It arises from the roof of the a. Xray abdomen
nasopharynx b. Ultrasound abdomen
e. Surgery is treatment of choice c. Aspiration of the contents of
the sac
102. Metabolites of tryptophan can d. Correction of volume for
give rise to which of the following hypovolemia
symptoms e. Prepare the OT for urgent
a. Hypotension surgery
b. Vasoconstriction 109. True regarding carcinoma gall
c. Sweating bladder is
d. Predispose to albinism a. Squamous cell carcinoma is the
e. Increase phenylketonuria most common type
103. The amino acid which is b. Presents with jaundice
associated with atherosclerosis c. Good prognosis
a. Arginine d. Gall stones predispose
b. Homocysteine e. 65% survival after surgey
c. Cysteine 110. Genetic abnormalities in the
d. Tryptophan fetus can be diagnosed by
e. Alanine a. Maternal serum
104. Hyperbaric oxygen is used in b. Maternal urine
which of the following c. Amniotic fluid
a. Carbon monoxide poisoning d. Choroinic villi
b. ARDS e. Fetal blood
111. Membranous 117. Diseases caused by EBV
glomerulonephritis is associated with include
a. Renal vein thrombosis a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Hodgkins disease b. Burkitts lymphoma
c. Subepithelial dense deposits c. Kaposis sarcoma
d. Heamturia d. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
e. Acute nephritis e. Herpangina
112. Sensorineural deafness is seen 118. High hepatic extraction ration is
in seen
a. Alports syndrome a. Propranolol
b. Pierre Robins syndrome b. Lidocaine
c. Pendreds syndrome c. Diazepam
d. Treacher Collins syndrome d. Phenytoin
e. Gauchers syndrome e. Theophylline
113. Heamoptysis is seen in 119. The drugs which increase level
a. Mitral stenosis of theophilline include
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma a. Ciprofloxacin
c. Bronchiectasis b. Barbiturates
d. Pneumonia c. Cimetidine
e. Empyema d. Allopurinol
114. Morphine can be administered e. Phenytoin
as 120. Antipsychotics with lesser
a. Inhalation extrapyramidal side effects include
b. Rectal a. Clozapine
c. Subcutaneous b. Respiridone
d. IV c. Thioridazine
e. Intramuscular d. Chlorpromazine
e. Haloperidol
115. Properties making
cardioselective beta blockers desirable
are
a. Lesser Bronchoconstriction 121. Which of the following is true
b. No adverse effect on lipid a. Imipramine is used in the
profile treatment of Endogenous
c. Less glucose intolerance depression
d. Can be used in Raynauds b. Diazepam has lesser sedative
disease propensity as compared to
e. Lesser AV block barbiturates
116. Arteriolar dilators used in the c. Fluvaxamine is associated with
treatment of congestive heart failure weight gain
include d. Thioridazine causes lesser
a. Hydralizine extrapyramidal side effects
b. Nifedipine 122. Drugs used in the treatment of
c. Prazosin Schizophrenia include
d. Enalapril a. Chlorpromazine
e. Nitrates b. Haloperidol
 c. Olanzapine
d. Imipramine
e. Resperidone
123. Shizophrenia has which of the
following features in common with
depression
a. Formal thought disorder
b. Social withdrawal
c. Poor personal care
d. Decreased interest in sex
e. Inappropriate behavior
124. Suicidal tendencies are seen in
a. Shizophrenia
b. Post traumatic stress disorder
c. Depression
d. OCD
e. Anxiety disorder
125. Features seen in Obsessions and
compulsions is/are
a. Repetetiveness
b. Irresistiblility
c. Unpleasant
d. Social withdrawal
e. Poor personal care
126. Pleural fibrosis is caused by
a. Phenytoin
b. Methysegide
c. Amiodarone
d. Ergotamine
e. Ranitidine
127. True regarding bromocriptine
a. Natural derivative
b. Synthetic derivative
c. Also has alpha blocking
property
d. Decreases GI motility
e. Acts on both D1 and D2
128. A lady with 16 weeks
pregnancy presents with acute
appendicitis. Management includes
a. Conservative treatment
b. Do early surgery
c. Appendecectomy with
termination of pregnancy
d. Appendecectomy following
child birth after 3rd trimester
e. Medical treatment with surgery
on recurrence
129. A lady with 4 months
ammenorhea presents with pain
abdomen, constipation, and vomiting.
What will be done in her management
a. X ray abdomen
b. USG
c. CT scan
d. Complete obstetrical evaluation
130. True regarding hirshsprungs
disease is/are
a. Seen in infants and children
only
b. Absence of auerbachs plexus in
the involved segment
c. The involved segment is the
dilated colon
d. Bleeding per rectum is a
presenting feature
e. Surgery is used in the treatment
131. True about achalasia cardia
is/are
a. Dysphagia is a presenting
feature
b. Absence of auerbachs plexus is
the cause
c. Eosophagectomy is used in
treatment
d. Barium swallow shows
irregular filling defect in the
lower esophagus
e. Motility improving agents are
used in treatment
132. Bone marrow transplantation is
indicated in
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Heamophilia
c. Mucopolysacharidosis
d. Ineffective erythropoeisis
e. Diamond Blackfan syndrome
133. Pancytopenia is seen in
a. Aplastic anemia
 b. Megaloblastic anemia
c. Myelofibrosis
d. Myelodysplastic syndrome
e. Diamond Blackfan syndrome
134. Massive splenomegaly is
associated with
a. Gauchers
b. Chronic kala azar
c. CML
d. Myelodysplastic syndrome
e. Splenic infarcts
135. Intravenous gammaglobulins
are used in
a. Myasthenia Gravis
b. Multiple myeloma
c. ITP
d. Takayasus arteritis
e. HUS
136. Perurethral catheterization is
indicated in which of the following
conditions
a. Prostatic carcinoma
b. Urethral trauma
c. Urethral stricture
d. Before taking the patient in for
appendecectomy
e. Post op retention
137. The antigen binding region on
the antibody is/are
a. Hinge region
b. Constant region
c. Variable region
d. Hypervariable region
e. Idiotype region
138. ANCA is associated with
a. Wegeners granulomatosis
b. Churg struas disease
c. Microscopic Polyangitis
d. Takayasus arteritis
e. SLE
139. Find the correct match among
the following
a. ANCA - d. Pemphigus
Takayasus arteritis
b. Antihistone antibodies - SLE
in the newborn
c. Naproxone -
Pseudoporphyria
d. Antimitochondrial antibody-
PBC
140. Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is
associated with all except
a. Sub aortic stenosis
b. Takayasus arteritis
c. Williams syndrome
d. Coarctation of aorta
e. Rubella
141. Wide split S2 is seen in
a. Endocardial cushion defect
b. Ebstien anomaly
c. Transposition of great vessels
d. Anomalous origin of
pulmonary artery
e. Truncus arteriosis
142. True about Hepatocellular
carcinoma is/are
a. Most commonly associated
with HBV/HCV
b. Cirrhosis is usually
predisposing
c. Fibrolamellar variety is not
associated with cirrhosis
d. Less propensity of vascular
invasion
e. Alcoholic cirrhosis does not
predispose to cancer
143. Immunoflourence test in skin is
positive in
a. Scabies
b. Lichen planus
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Erythema Multiforme
e. Atopic dermatitis
144. Mucous lesions are seen in
a. Secondary syphilis
b. Dermatitis herpetiformis
c. Psoriasis
e. Porphyria
145. Loosers zones are seen
 a. Osteoporosis b. Uric acid deposition in the bone
b. Hyperparathyrodism c. Fracture and collapse of
c. Osteomalacia cancellous bone
d. Multiple myeloma d. Periosteal reaction
e. Pagets e. Flourosis
146. Osteoarthritis commonly 152. Regarding brucella all of the
involves following are true except
a. Proximal interphalengeal joint a. Man to man transmission
b. Distal interphalyngeal joint b. It is a zoonosis
c. 1st carpophalegeal joint c. Blood culture is used for
d. Wrist joint diagnosis
e. Distal radioulnar joint d. Brucella miletensis is the
147. Early morning stiffness is seen commonest cause
in e. Transmitted through animal
a. Osteoarthritis products
b. Ankylosing spondylitis 153. Disease transmitted by
c. Rheumatoid arthritis arboviral include
d. SLE associated arthritis a. Yellow fever
e. Psoriasis b. Japanese encephalitis
148. Fracture of talus without c. Trench fever
displacement in X ray would give rise d. Epidemic typhus
to e. Dengue
a. Avascular necrosis of Body of 154. Diseases transmitted by louse
talus include
b. Avascular necrosis of neck of a. Epidemic typhus
talus b. Endemic typhus
c. Osteoarthritis of ankle c. Trench fever
d. Osteonecrosis of head of talus d. Rocky mountain fever
e. Scrub typhus
149. McMurrays test is positive in 155. True regarding point source
damage to epidemic include
a. Anterior cruciate ligament a. Rapid rise
b. Posterior cruciate ligament b. Rapid fall
c. Medial semilunar cartilage c. Secondary peaks do not occur
d. Lateral semilunar cartilage d. Slow rise
e. Popliteal bursa e. Slow fall
150. In anterior cruciate ligament 156. In patients with substance abuse
tear which of the following tests are for maintenance drugs used is/are
positive a. Naltrexone
a. Lachmans Test b. Naloxone
b. Mcmurrays test c. Disulfiram
c. Pivot test d. Clonidine
d. Anterior drawers test e. Lithium
151. The bone density is increased in 157. Ondansetron acts by
all of the following except a. Acts directly on the CTZ
a. Avascular necrosis of bone b. 5 HT3 antagonist
 c. Acts on D1, D2 receptors
d. Inhibits vomiting center
e. Increases GIT motility
158. True about gout is
a. Occurs due to accumulation of
urea crystals in the joints
b. Can be precipitated by
pyrazinamide
c. Birefringent crystals are present
in the joints
d. Occurs more in females
e. Due to decreased excretion of
uric acid
159. Diabetes Mellitus can lead to
the following complications
a. Vitreous hemorrhage
b. Rubeosis Iridis
c. Primary retinal detachment
d. 3,4th and 6th nerve palsy
e. Hypermetropia
160. Posterior subcapsular cataract is
diagnosed by
a. Direct ophthalmoscopy
b. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
c. Distant direct opthalmoscopy
d. Slit lamp microscopy
e. Examination with aplain mirror
at a distance of 1 m
161. Refractive power of the eye can
be changed by
a. Radial keratotomy
b. Keratomileusis
c. Intraocular lens
d. LASIK
e. Photocoagulation
162. In angle closure glaucoma,
treatment given to the fellow is
a. Pilocarpine eye drops
b. Atropine eye drops
c. Laser iridotomy
d. Trabeculoplasty
e. Physostigmine eye drops
163. Parenchymatous xerosis of the
conjuctiva is caused by
a. Trachoma
b. Vitamin A deficiency
c. Vernal catarrh
d. Phlyctenular conjuctivitis
e. Alkali burns
164. Charcots joint is caused by all
of the following except
a. Arnold chiarri malformation
b. Syrngomyelia
c. Secondary syphilis
d. Leprosy
e. Hydrocephalus
165. Short stature is seen in
a. Maternal deprivation syndrome
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Bulimia
d. Paternal smoking
e. IUGR
166. True regarding acute
osteomyelitis in child is/are
a. Diagnosis is by Xray after 8-10
days of onset of infection
b. Diagnosis must be suspected on
all cases of subcutaneous
cellulites
c. There is diffuse tenderness at
the site
d. Treatment should be for at least
4 weeks
e. Salmonella is the most common
cause
167. True about mycobacterium
tuberculosis is/are
a. Can produce visible colonies in
a weeks time on LJ media
b. Decolorized with 20%
suphuric acid
c. Facultative aerobes
d. It is niacin positive
168. Anterior scalloping of the c. Pagets disease of nipple
vertebrae is seen in d. Psoriasis
a. Aortic aneurysm e. Pemphigus
b. Tuberculosis 174. In the diagnosis of filariasis the
c. Renal tumors blood sample collected for
d. Sarcoidosis identification of microfilaria is stored
169. Regarding aqueous humor in/as
which of the following is correct a. Citrated blood
a. It is secreted 2-3 ml/min b. EDTA
b. It is secreted by ciliary c. Oxalated blood
processes d. Heparinized blood
c. It has less protein then plasma e. Defibrinogenated blood
d. It has less vitamin C then 175. Secondary messengers include
plasma a. cAMP
e. Provides nutrition b. IP3
170. Which of the following drugs is c. DAG
associated with least causation of d. cGMP
raised intraocular tension e. ADP
a. Hydrocortizone 176. Increased severity of mitral
b. Prednisolone stenosis is demonstrated by
c. Fluvamethezone a. Loud S1
d. Triamcinolone b. Increased S2-OS gap
e. Rexamethasone c. Prolonged diastolic murmur
d. S3
171. Which of the following are e. S4
associated with increased risk of 177. Left sided pleural effusion is
colorectal cancer seen
a. Increased intake of animal fat a. Pancreatitis
b. Aspirin intake b. Rheumatoid lung
c. Enteric colitis c. Hypoproteinosis
d. Amoebic colitis d. CHF
e. Ulcerative colitis e. Pulmonary artery obstruction
172. True about amoebic colitis due to emboli
is/are 178. True about Quinsy is/are
a. Commonly caused by a. Penicillin is used in treatment
entameoba histolytica b. Abcess is located within the
b. Cyst found in soil contains 8 capsule
nuclei c. Occurs bilaterally
c. Flask shaped ulcers are found d. Immediate tonsillectomy is
d. Most common site is the advised
ceacum e. Patient presents with toxic
e. Is premalignant features and drooling of saliva
173. Premalignant lesions of skin 179. Transudative pleural effusion is
include seen
a. Leukoplakia a. Renal artery stenosis
b. Bowens disease b. Nephrotic syndrome
 c. SLE e. Diazepam over dose
d. Rheumatoid arthritis 186. SSPE is associated with
180. Live attenuated vaccines are a. Mumps
a. Sabin vaccine b. Measles
b. BCG c. Rubella
c. Varicella d. Typhoid
d. H.Infleunza e. Diphtheria
e. HBV 187. In a patient with CRF which of
181. HIV infection is associated with the following drugs are to be given
a. Glandular like fever illness with caution
b. Generalized lymphadenopathy a. Spirinolactone
c. Gonococcal septicemia b. Amlodipine
d. Sinus disease c. Amiloride
e. Presenile dementia d. Pottasium binding resins
182. Volume of air taken in and e. Furesemide
given out during normal respiration is 188. Acute pancreatitis is caused by
referred to as a. Gall stones
a. Inspiratory reserve volume b. Alcohol intake
b. Tidal volume c. Starvation
c. Expiratory reserve volume d. Hyperparathyroid phenomenon
d. Vital capacity e. Thyrotoxicosis
e. Inspiratory capacity
183. True regarding idiopathic 189. A patient was started on
pulmonary fibrosis is antihypertensive treatment develops
a. Decreased FEV1 renal insufficiency, the drug/drugs
b. Decreased FEV/FVC implicated are
c. Decreased DLco a. Beta blocker
d. Decreased residual volume b. Alpha blocker
e. Decreased TLC c. Calcium channel blocker
184. Choose the correct match d. AT1 antagonist
a. Mumps -RA e. Enalapril
27/3 190. Woods lamp is used in the
b. Rubella -Jeryl diagnosis of
lynn strain a. Tinea capatis
c. Measles b. Tinea versicolor
-Edmonston Zagreb strain c. Pityriasis rosea
d. BCG d. Psoriasis
-Danish 1331 strain e. Lichen planus
e. Polio 191. 13 cis retinoic acid is used in
-shwartz strain as
185. Regarding Hypoxemia, it is a. Chemoprophylactic
seen in b. Chemotherapeutic
a. Hypoventilation c. Radiosensitive
b. Decreased FiO2 d. Radioprotective
c. Myasthenia gravis e. Immuno stimulant
d. Pulmonary emboli
192. In patient suffering through c. Brain tumors
CML the heamoglobin level falls from d. Villous adenomas
11gm% to 4 gm%, in a short span of e. Hyperplastic polyps
time. Also the spleen shows an increase 198. Black gun powder all of the
in size. The cause for this could be following are found except
a. Accelerated CML a. Charcoal
b. CML in blast crisis b. Pottassium nitrate
c. Ineffective erthropoiesis c. Sulphur
d. Myelofibrosis d. Lead peroxide
e. Infection e. Arsenic
193. True regarding Legionella 199. Haabs straie is seen in
pneumonia include a. Angle closure glaucoma
a. It occurs in epidemics b. Infantile glaucoma
b. It is treated by penicillin c. Stargardts disease
c. It is associated with d. Disciform keratitis
splenomegaly e. Lebers disease
d. Can be easily diagnosed from 200. In a young patient presenting
sputum with recurrent vitreous heamorrage
e. More common in children a. Eales disease
b. CRVO
194. Chordoma commonly involves c. Proliferative retinopathy
which of the following sites d. Coats disease
a. Dorsal spine e. Episcleritis
b. Clivus 201. LMN lesion includes
c. Lumbar spine a. Dorsal horn cells
d. Sacrum b. Sympathetic ganglia
e. Cerical spine c. Peripheral nerve
195. True about oocyte is d. Gasserian ganglia
a. It is also called primordial e. Anterior horn cells
follicle 202. Functions of basal ganglia
b. Formed after a single meiotic include
division a. Gross motor
c. Maximum in number during the b. Skilled movements
5th month fetus c. Emotion
d. It is in prophase arrest d. Maintaining equilibrium
e. Also known as blastocyst e. Co-ordination of movements
196. Ovary develops from 203. Central muscle relaxant acts by
a. Mullerian duct a. Decreasing nerve conduction
b. Genital ridge b. Inhibits spinal polysynaptic
c. Genital tubercle reflexes
d. Mesonephric duct c. Blocks conduction across nerve
e. Sinovaginal bulbs muscle junction
197. Turcots syndrome is associated d. CNS depression
with e. Decreases muscle excitation
a. Duodenal polyps 204. Preaneasthetic medication is
b. Familial adenosis used for which of the following reasons
 a. It decreases the autonomic c. Post op fall in CEA reflects
reflexes complete clearance of tumor
b. It helps in anesthesia d. Follow up after surgery for
c. Reduce anesthetic side effects recurrence
d. Decrease blood pressure e. High levels reflect metastasis
e. Prevent tachycardia 211. True about septal heamatoma is
205. In myasthenia gravis which of /are
the following should not be given a. Common in adults
a. Gallamine b. Occurs commonly due to
b. Neostigmine trauma
c. Aminoglycoside antibiotics c. Can lead to saddle nose
d. Metronidazole deformity
206. WHO ORS contains d. Conservative management
a. Na+ 2.5 gms e. Leads to formation of abscess
b. K+ 1.5 gms after sometime
c. Glucose 20 gm 212. In management of head injury
d. Sucrose 108 gm % a. Antibiotics are given for upto
e. Potassium bisulphate- 90 48 hours
b. CT scan of head is done
207. In IV hyperalimentation given c. Hydrocortisone is given
is/are d. Complete clinical examination
a. Hypertonic saline is required
b. Fats e. Diazepam is given
c. Amino acids 213. True about CSF rhinorrhea
d. Dextrose a. Commonly occurs due to break
e. Low molecular weight dextran in cribriform plate
208. Health is associated by b. Decreased glucose content
a. Mental peace confirms diagnosis
b. Adequate nutrition c. Contains less amount of
c. Daily moderate physical proteins
activity d. Immediate surgery is required
d. Yearly blood and urine 214. True about Fox Fordyce spot is
examination a. It is more common in females
e. Less stress b. Reflects presence of internal
209. CA-125 is associated with malignancy
a. Carcinoma colon c. Is premalignant
b. Ca breast d. Present in axilla and groin
c. Ca ovary e. Presents with itching
d. Ca lung 215. Carcinoma of the right colon
e. Ca pancreas presents as
210. CEA as a tumor marker is a. Anemia
useful in carcinoma colon b. Mass in the right iliac fossa
a. Levels give an indication of c. Bleeding PR
prognosis after surgery d. Alternate constipation and
b. Extent of tumor diarrhea
 e. Presents with obstruction 221. Non irritant gas causing
commonly systemic toxicity include
216. Immediate surgery is required a. Ammonia
in b. Hydrochloric acid
a. Adhesions c. Carbon monoxide
b. Volvolus d. Nitrogen
c. Perforated appendix with e. Chlorine
paralytic ileus 222. True about adenoids is/are
d. Intestinal obstruction a. Failure to thrive
e. Tubercular stricture b. Mouth breathing
217. In external beam radiotherapy c. CT scan is done to assess size
used is/are d. Immediate surgery is required
a. I-123 for even mild symptoms
b. Cesium 137 e. Glottic arch palate is seen
c. Co-60 223. Nocardia is differentiated from
d. Tc 99 actinomycosis by
e. Iridium 191 a. Gram stain
b. Acid stain
218. All of the following iodine c. Different clinical features
isotopes are in use except d. Facultative anaerobe
a. I 131 224. True about Creutzfeldt Jacobs
b. I 123 disease is
c. I 125 a. Inheritable disease
d. I 122 b. Corneal implants transmit
e. I 129 disease
219. Breech presentation with c. It is transmitted by RNA
hydrocephalous is managed by containing organism
a. Ceasarian section d. Transmitted by DNA containing
b. Transabdominal CSF organism
decompression e. Arthropod borne disease
c. Pervaginal decompression of 225. Prominent a waves are seen in
after coming head all of the following except
d. Craniotomy of after coming a. Mitral stenosis
head b. Tricuspid stenosis
220. A postmenopausal woman c. Pulmonary hypertension
presenting with bleeding PV has a d. Right atrial myxoma
mass in the fornix measuring 3*3 cms. e. ASD
Which of the following can be 226. Uterine fibromyoma is
considered in the diagnosis associated with
a. Carcinoma Endometrium of a. Endometriosis
uterine body b. PID
b. Tuboovarian mass c. Ca ovary
c. Ovarian theca tumors d. Amennorhea
d. Dermoid tumor of ovary e. Tamoxifen
e. Subserous fibroid 227. True about hepatitis A include
 a. IgG anti Hep A is used in
diagnosis
b. Boiling for 5 minutes kills the
virus
c. Spread by faeco-oral route
d. Incubation period is 45-180
days
e. Predisposes to cirrhosis
228. Arlts line is seen in
a. Opthalmia neonatorum
b. Trachoma
c. Angular conjunctivitis
d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
e. Vernal catarrh
229. Dietary cholesterol is
transported to extra hepatic tissues by
a. IDL
b. VLDL
c. Chylomicrons
d. LDL
e. HDL
230. True regarding fibomyoma
uterus is/are
a. Estrogen dependant
b. Capsulated
c. Can lead to red degeneration in
pregnancy for which immediate
surgery is required
d. Danazol is used in treatment
e. Pressure symptoms when
present at the cervix
231. In rheumatoid arthritis
a. More common in females
b. Disease primarily affects
cartilage
c. Involves small and large joints
d. Presence of RA factor is
diagnostic
232. Hepatic infarcts are seen in
a. Chronic passive venous
congestion
b. Acute Budd Chiarri syndrome
c. Septicemia
d. Hepatoveno-occlusive disease
e. Extra hepatic biliary
obstruction
233. The surgical lobes of liver are
divided on the basis of
a. Hepatic vein
b. Hepatic artery
c. Bile ducts
d. Hepatic portal vein
e. Central vein
234. Most important diameters of
pelvis during labor is/are
a. Interspinous diameter in mid
pelvis
b. Oblique diameter in inlet
c. AP diameter at outlet
d. Transtubercular diameter
e. Intertubercular diameter
235. Pubertal menorrhagia is
managed by
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen and progesterone
c. GnRH
d. Danazol
e. Surgery
236. Bilateral breast carcinoma is
caused by
a. Scirrhous carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Lobular carcinoma
d. Intra ductal carcinoma
e. Pagets disease
237. Enucleation is done in all of the
following except
a. Retinoblastoma with glaucoma
b. Dystoma of ciliary body
c. Vitreous hemorrhage
d. Malignant melanoma
e. Malignant glaucoma
238. Familial Retinoblastoma is
associated with
a. Presents at later age
b. More commonly bilateral
c. Associated with other
malignancies
d. Better prognosis
e. Is due to mutation
 239. Continous variables are
depicted graphically as
a. Histogram 245 Prominent a waves are seen in
b. Pie chart all of the following except
c. Frequency polygan a. Mitral stenosis
d. Bar chart b. Tricuspid stenosis
e. Olgive c. Pulmonary hypertension
240. True regarding DIC is d. Right atrial myxoma
a. Increased PT e. ASD
b. Increased PTT
c. Decreased fibrinogen
degradation products
d. Decreased fibrinogen
e. Normal platelet count
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242. True about oxytocin is/are
a. It is secreted by anterior
pituitary
b. It acts on the myoepithelial
cells of breast
c. It causes contraction of uterus
in labor
d. It causes retention of water
e. Also has sympathetic activity
243. True about HCG is/are
a. Glycoprotien
b. Has 2 subunits
c. Increased to maximum level in
3rd trimester
d. Secreted by trophoblastic tissue
e. The alpha subunit is specific

244 The antigen-binding region on

the antibody is/are
a. Hinge region
b. Constant region
c. Variable region
d. Hyper variable region
e. Idiotype region