UNIVERSITY OF BRISTOL

Summer 2013 Examination Period

School of Earth Sciences

Year 1 Examination

EXAM PAPER CODE EASC10001

GEOLOGY 1

TIME ALLOWED

3 HOURS

This paper contains 3 sections: 1, 2 and 3

All students must answer all questions in each section.

Section 1 (1 hour)

Section 1 consists of 40 multiple choice questions

Answer all multiple choice questions by filling in the OMR sheet on lines 1-40 for
questions 1-40.

Section 2 (1 hour)

Section 2 consists of 4 questions.

PLEASE ANSWER EACH QUESTION IN A NEW BLUE ANSWER BOOK.

Section 3 (1hour)

Section 3 consists of 2 questions

AGAIN ANSWER EACH QUESTION IN A NEW BLUE ANSWER BOOK AND USE THE
ATTACHED SHEET AS INSTRUCTED.

Other instructions

PLEASE READ AND FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING IN THE

OMR SHEET VERY CAREFULLY.
NON-PROGRAMMABLE AND NON-GRAPHING CALCULATORS ARE PERMITTED IN THIS
EXAMINATION

TURN OVER ONLY WHEN TOLD TO START WRITING

 Section 1. 40 marks in total.

1. Which of the following words best describes the variation in temperature with depth
within the earth?

A. Geochron
B. Isochron
C. Isobar
D. Isostatic gradient
E. Geobaric gradient
F. Lithostatic gradient
G. Adiabat
H. Geotherm
I. Isotherm
J. None of the above

2. According to the Richter Scale, approximately how much more energy is released from a
magnitude 7 earthquake than from a magnitude 4 earthquake?

A. 3 times
B. 9 times
C. 20 times (i.e. e3)
D. 27 times
E. 1,000 times (i.e. 103)
F. 9,000 times
G. 27,000 times
H. 36,000 times
I. 100,000 times
J. None of the above

3. Which of the following has the largest numerical value? (Pay careful attention to the units)

A. Radius of a potassium ion (metres)
B. Age of the Earth (Ga)
C. Pressure at a depth of 30 km in the Earths crust (Pa)
D. Spreading rate of the East Pacific Rise (cm s-1 )
E. Time taken to complete glacial rebound in Fennoscandia (years)
F. Flow velocity of basaltic lavas in Hawaii (km s-1)
G. Diameter of the Earth (metres)
H. P-wave velocity in the mantle (m s-1)
I. Density of water at atmospheric temperature and pressure (g m-3)
J. Eruption temperature of andesite magma (Kelvin)

4. The following graph shows the response to deformation of two rocks, I and II.

Stress

I
II

Strain

Which rock has the smallest elastic modulus?

A. Rock I
B. Rock II
C. They both have the same elastic modulus
D. It depends on the strain rate
E. It depends on temperature
F. Insufficient information provided

5. Which of these materials has the highest viscosity?

A. Rhyolite liquid at 1000 C
B. Rhyolite liquid at 800 C
C. Rhyolite liquid at 800 C with 40% suspended crystals
D. Rhyolite liquid at 800 C with 2.3 wt% dissolved H2O
E. Basalt liquid at 1250 C
F. Basalt liquid at 1400 C
G. Insufficient information provided

6. Which types of lava is most commonly erupted at mid-ocean ridges?

A. Andesite
B. Rhyolite
C. Basalt
D. Gabbro
E. Dacite
F. Granite
G. Carbonatite
H. All of the above


7. Planet X-2076 has a metallic iron core and an oxidised silicate mantle. Which of the
following elements is likely to be highly enriched in the planets core relative to the
mantle?

A. Oxygen
B. Silicon
C. Aluminium
D. Nickel
E. Calcium
F. Lithium
G. Chlorine
H. Iodine
I. All of the above

8. Which of the following pairs of minerals can form complete solid solutions?
A. Fayalite-Forsterite
B. Pyrope-Quartz
C. Pyrope-Diopside
D. Orthoclase-Anorthite
E. Albite-Muscovite
F. Enstatite-Forsterite
G. Forsterite-Quartz
H. Calcite-Diopside

9. The density of the crust of the Altiplano in South America is 2750 kg m-3. What is the
density at 25 km depth? (Assume acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m s-2)?

A. 0.674 Pa
B. 0.674 kg
C. 0.674 MPa
D. 0.674 GPa
E. 7.015 Pa
F. 7.015 MPa
G. 2750 kg m-3
H. 26950 kg m-2
I. 11.224 N m-2
J. Not possible to calculate with data provided

10. Which of the following volcanic eruptions could produce a pyroclastic flow?

A. Effusion of basaltic andesite lava from a volcanic vent
B. Sedimentation of volcanic ash through a crater lake
C. Collapse of a basaltic spatter cone
D. Collapse of a dacite lava dome
E. Basalt lava discharge at a mid-ocean ridge
F. Passive degassing of carbon dioxide
G. Passive degassing of steam
H. Fire fountaining
I. Any of the above
J. None of the above


11-13.
From the list below select the appropriate chemical formula

A. SiO2
B. CaMgSi2O4
C. CaMgSiO4
D. Mg2SiO4
E. (CO3)2-
F. (CO2)2-
G. NaAlSi3O8
H. CaAl2Si2O8
I. KAlSi3O8
J. Fe2O3
K. Fe3O4
L. FeO


11. Carbonate anion

12. Olivine

13. Albite

14. In which of these locations could you find rocks older than 4.1 Ga?

A. On the ocean floor
B. Greenland
C. The Lunar Highlands
D. The Lunar Maria
E. Iceland
F. Scottish Highlands
G. The Andes
H. Any of the above
I. None of the above













15. Under which of the following sets of circumstances would you expect to find the highest,
isostatically equilibrated mountain ranges? Choose the most complete correct
answer.

A. Thick crust
B. Low density crust
C. Thick, low density crust
D. Dense crust
E. Thin crust
F. Thin, low density crust
G. Thin, dense crust
H. Thick, dense crust above mantle that is hotter than usual
I. Thick, dense crust above mantle that is cooler than usual
J. Thick, low density crust above mantle that is hotter than usual
K. Thick, low density crust above mantle that is cooler than usual
L. Thin, dense crust above mantle that is hotter than usual
M. Thin, dense crust above mantle that is cooler than usual
N. Mountain elevation does not depend on these factors

16. Which of the following is used as a measure of clastic grain maturity?

A. Roundness and sphericity
B. Grain size
C. Diagenetic fabric
D. Matrix support
E. Moderate sorting
F. Fissility

17. In a fluid flow, the Reynolds number is defined by

A. Velocity and viscosity
B. Depth and velocity
C. Velocity, viscosity and atmospheric pressure
D. Velocity, depth and viscosity
E. Atmospheric pressure and viscosity
F. Atmospheric pressure and velocity

18. Lake Baikal is an example of

A. A volcanic lake
B. A glacial lake
C. A cratonic sag lake
D. A strike-slip basin lake
E. A foreland basin
F. A continental rift lake





19. Kaolinite is

A. A product of high latitude weathering
B. A clay mineral with a 3-layer structure
C. A clay mineral with a 2-layer structure
D. A reef rock
E. A product of congruent dissolution
F. None of the above

20. Sabkha sequences are characterised by

A. Enterolithic gypsum
B. Continental groundwater recharge
C. Metamorphic basement rocks
D. Antidune transport
E. Precipatation of sodium salts
F. Vitric tuffs


21. Which terms could be used to describe the folds in the photo?

A. Upright, symmetrical, open, angular
B. Tight, recumbent, sub-angular, symmetrical
C. Inclined, clockwise-verging, rounded, close
D. Overturned chevron folds.

22. If a sedimentary bed that was originally 10 m long is folded and is now 8m long, what is
the linear strain?
A. 10 m
B. 8 m
C. 20 %
D. 80%
E. 25 %
F. 2 m


23. You are recording structural data in your notebook on behalf of a group. Your colleague
shouts out that the fold hinge has a trend of 30o and plunges at 40o to the north.
Which of the following is the best way to record this?
A. 030/40N
B. 40-030
C. 030-40
D. 030/040N
E. 40-30N
F. 40-210

24. According to Andersons theory of faulting, if the smallest principle stress, s3, is vertical,
what type of structure will form?
A. An anticline
B. A normal fault
C. A reverse fault
D. A right-lateral fault
E. A left-lateral fault
F. A syncline

25. Imbricate thrusts, also known as piggy-back thrusts, are typically found in:
A. Continental rifts
B. The core of a mountain belt
C. The foreland of a mountain belt
D. Oceanic transform faults
E. Accretionary prisms
F. A and B
G. C and E
H. A and D

26. Which of the following rock types are associated with low pressure/high temperature
metamorphism of basalts/gabbros?
A. Hornfels
B. Pelites
C. Blueschists and eclogites
D. Greenschists and amphibolites
E. Buchan zones.

27. Which of the following minerals is the high-pressure polymorph of the aluminosillicates?
A. Sillimanite
B. Muscovite
C. Kyanite
D. Quartz
E. Glaucophane
F. Andalusite

28. The word protolith describes
A. A pre-cambrian rock
B. The metamorphic facies
C. The metamorphic grade
D. The rock type prior to metamorphism
E. The pressure/temperature conditions.

29. From the following list, which is the highest grade Barrow Zone?
A. The chlorite zone
B. The sillimanite zone
C. The garnet zone
D. The staurolite zone
E. The biotite zone


30. The Skiddaw Aureole in the Lake District is an example of:
A. Burial metamorphism
B. Contact metamorphism
C. Impact Metamorphism
D. Pyrometamorphism
E. Cataclastic metamorphism.

31. A relative increase in sea level is known as a
A. Eustatic
B. Transmission
C. Recapitulation
D. Transformation
E. Tsunami
F. Transgression

32. Which type of unconformity represents the largest gap in stratigraphy?

A. Nonconformity
B. Quantum nonconformity
C. Disconformity
D. Angular unconformity
E. Paraconformity
F. Transconformity

33. Which of the following do NOT inform understanding of ancient climates?
A. Fossil crocodiles
B. Fossil echinoids
C. Fossil palms
D. Ooids
E. Coals
F. Fossil hermatypic corals

34. Which is the OLDEST of the following supercontinents?

A. Rodinia
B. Pangaea
C. Laurentia
D. Old Red Sandstone Continent
E. Gondwana
F. Avalonia

 35. The first evidence of life on Earth comes from what kind of data?
A. Shelly fossils
B. Oxygen isotopes
C. Carbon isotopes
D. Organic biomarkers
E. Organic-walled fossils
F. Banded ironstones

36. Stromatoporoids are:
A. Stromatolites
B. Metazoans
C. Sponges
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C
F. None of the above

37. Scleractinian corals are known in the fossil record from:
A. Triassic to present
B. Ordovician to Recent
C. Ordovician to Permian
D. Triassic to Cretaceous
E. Cretaceous to present

38. What type of rock are graptolites most commonly preserved in?
A. Mudstones
B. Fine-grained sandstones
C. Cherts
D. Black shales
E. Limestones
F. Lignite

39. Which of these statements about dinosaurs is incorrect:
A. Dinosaurs belong to the clade Archosauria
B. Lizard-hipped dinosaurs gave rise to modern birds
C. Dinosaurs inhabited terrestrial, arboreal and aquatic habitats
D. Herbivory evolved in dinosaurs at least three times
E. Dinosaurs probably evolved in the mid-late Triassic
F. Pterosaurs are not dinosaurs

40. Which supercontinent preceded Pangaea:
A. Gondwana
B. Pannotia
C. Ur
D. Laurentia
E. Avalonia
F. Rodinia


 Section 2. 40 marks in total. 10 marks for each question.

Question 1. A sample of nuclear waste (A) initially contains 8.8x1021 grams of radioactive
Rubidium-88 (88Rb), 8.8x1020 grams Strontium-88 (88Sr), and 8.6x1020 grams of Strontium-
86 (86Sr). With time 88Rb decays to 88Sr with a radioactive half-life of 17.7 minutes. Neither
88Sr or 86Sr are radioactive.

Use this information to answer the following questions. Give your answer to (b) and (c) to 6
significant figures and show all working

(a) What particle is emitted when 88Rb decays to 88Sr? (1 mark)

(b) How many moles of 88Rb remain in A after 177 minutes? (2 marks)

(c) What is the atomic ratio of 88Sr to 86Sr after 177 minutes? (7 marks)


Question 2. Using three named stratigraphic units, describe the sedimentary environments
represented in the Triassic rocks of the Bristol district.


Question 3. Evaluate the effect of the carbonate compensation depth on the deposition of
pelagic ocean floor sediments.


























PTO


Question 4. The following diagram shows and idealized stress-strain relationship for a rock.

(a) Redraw the diagram, labeling the following features (2.5 marks)

i) Stress and strain axes
ii) Elastic deformation
iii) Plastic deformation
iv) Yield Point
v) Brittle Failure



(b) With reference to the diagram,

i) describe the differences in characteristics between brittle and ductile rocks. (1.5 marks)

ii) state the pressure, temperature and strain rate conditions which favour brittle and ductile
deformation respectively. (3 marks)

iii) state at what depths you would expect to find brittle deformation and ductile
deformation in the Earth. (1 mark)

iv) quickly sketch the geological structures which typify brittle and ductile deformation. (2
marks)

 Section 3. 40 marks in total.

Question 1. (30 marks) Use the map on the attached sheet

(a) Indicate the exposed plane of the unconformity [3 marks]
(b) Determine the direction and amount of dip of the boundaries between the mappable
units (i) below the unconformity, and (ii) above the unconformity [4.5 marks]
(c) Determine the true stratigraphic thicknesses of units M, N, O and Y. [6 marks]
(d) Indicate the position of an outlier [1.5 marks]
(e) Determine the depth below the surface of the coal seam at map positions A, B and C; if
the coal seam is not present below the surface at any of these map positions, provide an
explanation as to why. [4.5 marks]
(f) Produce a cross section along the Y-Z 650 structure contour [10.5 marks]

Question 2. (10 marks)

(a) Pleochroism is seen in which, plane polarised light or cross polarised light?

(b) Which mineral is colourless in plane polarised light, has low relief, low birefringence and
no cleavage?

(c) Two factors determine the maximum interference colour displayed by a mineral in cross
polarised light. One is thickness, what is the other?

(d) What property do magnetite and graphite have in common under the polarizing
microscope?

(e) Which double chain silicate has 2 cleavages at 60?

(f) Which common mineral displays lamellar twinning?

(g) Does biotite display straight or inclined extinction?

(h) How many rotation axes are present in a triclinic crystal?

(i) In a 2-dimensional sheet of silicate tetrahedra (as in talc for example) each silicate
tetrahedron is connected to how many other tetrahedra?

(j) What is the coordination number of Mg2+ in talc?



Additional Sheet. Map for Question 1 of section 3.
Please fill in Candidate number, detach sheet and insert into answer booklet.


CANDIDATE NUMBER ____________________________________