4
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1
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2
2
Module
Systems Physiology
Systems Physiology
Oral Biology
Biochemistry
Pharmacology
Pharmacology
Pharmacology
Pharmacology
Pharmacology
Pharmacology
Systems Physiology
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Biochemistry
Oral Biology
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Neurophysiology
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Biochemistry
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Biochemistry
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Oral Biology
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Oral Biology
Question
T effector lymphocytes
Atropine
Ionotropic receptors:
Stimulation of 2-adrenoreceptors:
Metaphase is when:
Suxamethonium:
Which of the following statements is correct?
A buffer is a . . .
Ribosomes are . . .
The amount of an acid or base that can be added to a
volume of a buffer solution before its pH changes
significantly is defined as the
What is the major buffer in saliva
Which amino acid does not have an asymmetric carbon
atom
Two spatially distinct but chemically identical
arrangements of atoms which are mirror images of each
other are called . . .
Which amino acid causes a bend in the peptide chain
What is Glaucoma?
What is asthma?
What is true?
What is diazepam?
What is phenytoin?
What is digoxin?
What is chlorpromazine?
Which drugs are used to treat hypertension?
In control of ventilation:
What inhibits inspiration?
What is a virus?
What cannot be found on a stress strain plot
Which is true?
Which is true?
Ionisation effects
NM junctions function by
NN junctions function by
What is epilepsy
What is dystonia?
Which was the first drug that was used to treat TB that
also proved to be effective in elevating the moods of
patients?
Keratin is an
Collagen is an
Which is not a condition for bacterial cell walls
Chymotrypsinogen is made up of
Glucokinase is found in
Heparin is used to
Maltose is a
What is esterification?
GLUT 4 is present on
GLUT 3 is present on
GLUT 2 is present on
Where does glucokinase work?
What is glycogenolysis?
What is gluconeogenesis?
Which is a factor involved in gestational diabetes?
a) Increase
b) Decreases
c) Stays same
d) Becomes more negative
e) Becomes less negative
a) Frontal process and median nasal process
b) Median nasal and lateral nasal process
c) Frontal process and lateral nasal process
d) Mastoid and styloid process
e) None of the above
a) Sternocleinomastoid
b) Carotid Artery
c) External Jugular Vein
a) Foramen Magnum
b) Internal auditory meatus
c) Carotid canal
d) Jugular foramen
e) Foramen Lacerum
a) They are large veins
b) Valveless veins
c) Its connected to veins outside the skull
d) Its connected to the confluens sinus
a) Cavernous sinus
b) Sigmoidal sinus
c) Straight sinus
d) Transverse sinus
e) None of the above
a) Stick your tongue out
b) Check gag reflex
c) Check swallowing
a) Olfactory
b) Oculomotor
c) Trigeminal
d) Facial
e) Glossopharyngeal
a) Facial
b) trigeminal
a. Used as a hypnotic
b. CNS depressants
c. Causes coma and death by medullary and respiratory depression
d. Lacks withdrawal symptoms
e. Enzyme inducers
a. Diazepam
b. Clonezapem
c. Triazolam
d. Temezepam
e. Midazolam
a. Death
b. Coma
c. Prolonged sleep
d. Dizziness
e. Anxiety
a. Acetylcholine
b. Flumazenil
c. Alprazolam
d. Barbiturates
e. Noradrenaline
a. Serotonin pathway
b. Noradrenaline pathway
c. Acetylcholine pathay
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
a. Large groups of neurones are inhibited repeatedly
b. Excess stimulation of inhibitory interneurones
c. Lack of EEG activity
d. Low frequency in brain
e. Neurones are activated repeatedly
a. Not confined to one part of the brain
b. Occurs all over the brain
c. Excess EEG activity in frontal part of brain
d. Localised to one part of the brain
e. Disrupts consciousness
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamezapine
c. Lorezepam
d. Lamotrigine
e. All of the above
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamezapine
c. Gabapentin
d. Lamotrigine
e. Nidazolam
a. Valproic acid
b. Gabapentin
c. Lorazepam
d. Phenytoin
e. Ethosuximide
a. Hepatic metabolism
b. Liver
c. Kidneys
d. Intestinal enzymes
e. Pancreatic Enzymes
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamezapine
c. Lorezepam
d. Lamotrigine
e. Nidazolam
a. Chromosome 6
b. Chromosome 16
c. Chromosome 16 and 22
d. Chromosome 6 and 22
e. Chromosome 6 and 26
a. Loss of dendrites
b. Cell death and gliosis
c. Frontal cortex damage
d. Damage to limbic system
e. None of the above
a. Mesocortical
b. Mesolimbic
c. Nigrostriatal
d. Tuberoinfundibular
e. Weinberg
a. Mesocortical
b. Mesolimbic
c. Nigrostriatal
d. Tuberoinfundibular
e. All of the above
a. Aspirin
b. Amphetamine
c. Ammonium chloride
d. Dopamine receptor agonists
e. None of the above
a. Spasm of leg
b. Over activity of eye
c. Irregular spasm in head, neck and trunk muscles
d. Postural hyptension
e. Tremors
a. Dry mouth
b. Urine retention
c. Blurred vision
d. Constipation
e. Tremors
a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Tachycardia
d. Blurred vision
e. Urine retention
a. 15-20%
b. 17-19%
c. 10-15%
d. >45%
e. 100%
a. Inhibit Na+/K+/2Cl-
b. Stimulate Na+/K+/2Cl-
c. Inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase
d. Stimulate Na+/K+ ATPase
e. Inhibit Na+/K+ channels
a. Inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase
b. Inhibit Na+/Cl-
c. Stimulate Na+/Cl-
d. Stimulate Na+/K+ ATPase
e. Inhibit Na+/K+ channels
a. Spironolactone
b. Traimterene and Amiloride
c. Flumezenil
d. Acetozolamide
e. Prolactin
a. In water impermeable but not in water permeable section
b. In both water permeable and impermeable sections
c. In neither water permeable and impermeable sections
d. In water permeable but not in water impermeable section
a. Iproniazid
b. Imprazolam
c. Aldosterone
d. Phenelzine
e. Morphine
a. TCAs
b. Lithium
c. ECT
d. MAOIs
e. Atypical antidepressants
a. Amitriptyline
b. Imiprazine
c. Sodium Nitroprusside
d. Ethosuximide
e. Valproic acid
a. Fluvoxamine
b. Citalopram
c. Fluoxetine
d. Midazolam
e. All of the above
a. Reboxetine
b. Mirtazapine
c. Nefazodone
d. Venlafaxine
e. None of the above
a. NA
b. 5HT
c. NA AND 5HT
d. DA
e. NA, DA AND 5HT
a. NA
b. 5HT
c. NA AND 5HT
d. DA
e. NA, DA AND 5HT
a. Reduced cAMP
b. Increased cGMP
c. Increased cAMP
d. Activates guanyl cyclise
e. Increases calcium release
a. Chorea
b. Athetosis
c. Akinesia
d. Ballism
e. Dystonia
a. Increased dopaminergic, increased cholinergic activity
b. Increased dopaminergic, decreased cholinergic activity
c. Decreased dopaminergic, increased cholinergic activity
d. Decreased dopaminergic, decreased cholinergic activity
a. Bromocrpitine
b. Pergolide
c. Apomorphine
d. Rasagiline
e. All of the above
a. Antiviral drug
b. Antibacterial drug
c. Antifungal drug
d. Inhibits DNA replication
e. None of the above
a. Benzotropine
b. Alprazolam
c. Midazolam
d. Tiagabine
e. Chlorpromazine
a. K, DELTA, MEU
b. K,DELTA,BETA
c. K, BETA, ALPHA
d. DELTA, BETA, ALPHA
e. ALPHA AND MEU
a. Opens k+ channels
b. Increased opening of calcium ion channels
c. Reduced release of neurotransmitters
d. Hyperpolarisation
e. Inhibition
a. Meu/k/delta agonists and morphine
b. Morphine and delta agonists
c. Morphine and meu/k agonists
d. Delta and meu agonists
e. Morphine and atropine
a. Gastric motility increased and emptying time decreased
b. Gastric motility decreased and emptying time decreased
c. Gastric motility decreased and emptying time increased
d. Gastric motility increased and emptying time increased
a. Decreased pancreatic, biliary and intestinal secretions
b. Decreased biliary and intestinal secretion but increased
pancreatic secretion
c. Decreased biliary and pancreatic secretion but increased intestina
secretion
d. Increased pancreatic, biliary and intestinal secretion
e. Increased pancreatic and gall bladder secretions but no change in
other secretions
a) Kaolin
b) Boric acid
c) Gypsum
d) Quartz
One other option - not recalled
a) Lingual groove
b) Lingual pit
c) Cingulum
d) Contact Point
Other option not recalled
a) Frontal and medial nasal prominence
b) Lateral nasal prominence and medial nasal prominence
c) None of the above
Other options not recalled
Correct Answer
Aldosterone
PRIF
Vitamin C
Nifedipine
Potentiating the action of GABA
Chlorpromazine
Liver
cortex
coronoid notch
CaF is insoluble
hexagonal
Copper
Atlas
Fibrous capsule
Maxillary Artery
Olfactory
Histidine
Lysine
Endergonic
Pyruvate Kinase
Spectrin
Sodium
Midbrain
IV
Simple squamous
Keratinocytes
Superior meatus
Paranasal sinuses enhance the resonance of
the voice and lighten the skull
Submandibular
Parotid
Styloglossus
Guanosine
Rifampicin
Calmodulin
Hilum
Middle mediastinum
Diaphragm
Tidal volume
Basement membrane
Technician
Potassium nitrate
Attachment
Trigeminal
Corticobulbar
Amnesia
The accessory muscles are important in forced
breathing
1) Pyruvate decarboxylase
2) Lipoamide reductase transacetylase
3) Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
Small, lipophilic, non ionic
Hexamethonium is a nicotinic antagonist at
NMJ junctions (WRONG BECAUSE they are
ganglionic antagonists)
Lysine
blood vessels?
pH= -log10(H+)
Pyruvate Kinase
Midbrain
Serine, histidine and aspartate
Epineurium
Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and
isocitrate dehydrogenase
Type IV
Diet and Liver
Loose Connective Tissue
Reticular Dermis
Vomiting
Adenine
The Haemoglobin will have an increased
affinity for O2 therefore, less oxygen will
dissociate in tissues
LV pumps blood around whole body
Sigmoidal sinus
P wave
UAC
Venous return
Between superficial and mylohyoid muscle
Mylohyoid and the Stylo/Hyo-glossus
High molecular weight proteins
Tertiary
Enamel
46
Interproximal Space
nerve supply
Prevents moisture loss
Thermal Insulator
Make antibiotics
Is main signature antibody in secretion
They act as co-enzymes
Rifampicin
Capillary beds open at all times
Ventricular Contraction
Angiotensin II
Liver
Glass
CN V, CN VI, CN VII
Renal Pelvis
Frusemide
Sodium Oxide
Opioid Receptor Competitive Antagonist
Surface Enamel
Enamel tuft
Galvinisation
Decreases Tg
Paralysis
Periosteum
Submandibular gland
CNVI (abducens)
Abducens CN VI
Thick
Saggital suture
Diaphysis
axis
atlas
Alveoli and capillaries
Genioglossus
Sigmoid sinus (and the inferior petrosal
sinus)
Maxillary Artery
CN VII (Facial)
Buccinator
Buccinator
Hydroxyapatite
CaF is insoluble
vanDer Waals
non-crystalline
Submandibular gland
To strengthen enamel
Next to the 2nd maxillary molar
Collagen type 1
a) 2 paste cartridge
b) 2 paste penta mix
c) 2 paste (hand-mixed)
d) 2 paste (knead with gloved hands)
b) 2 paste penta mix
c) 2 paste (hand-mixed)
d) 2 paste (knead with gloved hands)
Signature Ig of secretions
Secrete antibodies
2-6 lobes (multi-lobed nuclues)
Cricoid cartilage
Nasopharynx
Hydrophobic
Buffer capacity
PKU (Phenylketonuria)
Glucose-6-phosphatase
HYPOTHYROIDISM:
Letharygy, tiredness, Cold intolerance, Slow
pulse, Constipation, Weight Gain
Apathy, Myxoedema (tissue swelling), Elevated
serum TSH
HYPERTHYROIDISM:
Hyperactivity, insomnia, Heat intolerance,
Palpitation, Diarrhea, Weight Loss, Agitation,
Suppressed TSH, elevated T4 (Thyroxine)
Insulin consists of two polypeptide chains, the
A- and B- chains, linked together by disulfide
bonds.
Buffers are chemical compounds that help
stabilise the pH of a solution by removing or
adding protons (H+)
Protein Factories
Buffer capacity
Carbonic Acid
Glycine
Stereoisomers
Proline
Histidine
Glucose transporters
Liver
This is when protein degradation is greater
than protein synthesis
Glycine
Proline
Unaltered
Golgi apparatus
Inactive enzyme
Carbonic Acid
Histidine
Reduced to lactate
Vitamin C
This question has decribed symptoms of Scurvy
Pyruvate Kinase
Glycolysis= 2
TCA cycle= 6
Serine, Histidine, Aspartate
Efferent Lymph Nodes
The strength of attraction between an enzyme
and a substrate
Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate and AMP
Diet and Liver
Competitive Inhibition
Increases it
Glutamate to aKG and NH3
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Aldolase B
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
Reduce blood serum levels of Ca2+ and
phosphate by increasing excretion of the ions
and preventing bone resorption
UMN - CNS only
LMN - CNS or PNS
Memory
Arcuate fasciculus
Broca's (a.k.a. Expressive) aphasia is
characterized by the loss of the ability to
produce language (spoken or written).
Wernicke's (a.k.a. receptive) aphasia is when
an individual is unable to understand language
in its written or spoken form
Dorsolateral Cortex
Medulla
Period of hyperpolarisation when the
membrane cannot be excited again (more
negative than -70mV)
Otic ganglion
Corticobulbar
voluntary control
Globus pallidus
Substantia nigra
Caudate nucleus
Putamen
Subthalamic nucleus
Nucleus accumbens
Corticobulbar
Arcuate Fasciculus
Broca's Area
C-fibers
Astrocytes foot processes
Pericyte
Brain microvascular endothelial cell (BMEC)
Dull pain
Unmyelinated
Slow transmission
Cerebellum
COPD?
Thiazide diuretics
Loop Diuretics
Residual Volume
bile duct
Woven
In the absence of calcium
Lower pressure
The diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli into
the pulmonary capillaries and the diffusion of
carbon dioxide from the blood in the pulmonary
capillaries to the alveoli
Residual volume
Tidal volume+ Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
+ Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
Haematocrit
Does not require ATP
Movement down the concentration gradient
Does not achieve saturation
Match ventilation and perfusion
Physiological shunt-blood from the bronchial
circulation enters the pulmonary vein
Collecting duct
Liver
Macula Densa
Kidney
Metabolic Alkalosis
Lower oesophagus, sphincter and diaphragm
salbutamol
MAOI (antidepressant)
Temazepam
bronchodilation
Spironolactone
Muscle
Simple squamous
Fibroblasts
Type IV
Both
Maxilla
Optic canal
Atlas
Coronal plane
Bicarbonate
Histidine
Mitochondria
Independent subunits with independent
function
Competitive Inhibition
Glycine
when a hydroxyl group oxidised to a carboxyl
group
Endergonic
Acetyl CoA
alpha 2->6
peripheral protein
All of the above
Endoneurium
GABA
Adenyl Cyclase
Intravenous
Pharynx
Increased alveolar pressure will expand the
alveoli, which will press against the alveolar
vessels reducing the blood flow
Erythropoietin
carotid artery
carotid canal
Sigmoidal sinus
Olfactory
Trigeminal (CN V)
Occipitofrontalis
Venous return
PR interval
P wave
Preganglionic Neurone
Decrease sweat
10%
Right Atrium
Bronchodilation
Because they are co enzymes
Vitamin C
Increased osteoclast bone resorption
Increased excretion of phosphate by kidneys
Superior meatus
Polysaccharide
Dorsal horn
1b
Angiotensin II
Decrease in ADH
Multiple endothelial cells
Venous return
Nociceptors
Liver
Condensation polymerisation
Rifampin
Skeletal muscles
Subclavian
Hint: even if you cant remember this is the
answer, the name hints that it is "sub"
(under/below) "clavian" (clavicle bone i.e. collar
bone) which suggests it is not in skull
Parakeratinisied
Calcium hydroxyapatite
70%
Easy to deform
CaF is insoluble
Eutectic
Paralysis
Eyes
Muscle spindle
Respiratory Acidosis
Furosemide
Gall bladder
Medulla
PRIF
Sublingual
Inhalation
Aspirin
Albumin
Functionalisation
Sweat
Aspirin metabolite
Ammonium chloride
Conjugation
Distribution
Liver
Tertiary Ammonium
R group is not an aryl group
Excitatory or inhibitory
Homeostatic Centres
Excitatory only
Cerebrum
Acetylcholine
NA and acetylcholine
Trigeminal (CN V)
Sodium-potassium channel
Sodium-potassium channel
Phospholipase C
cAMP
BDZ
Glossopharyngeal
Occulomotor
Tyrosine Hydroxylase
Biopterin
Pyroxidine
Ascorbate
Phenylephrine
Clonidine
Isoprenaline
Dobutamine
negative60 to negative 90 mV
Hypoxia
NA
Promotes exocytosis
Tubocurare
Hypothermia
Max effect
Competitive antagonists
Ipratropium bromide
Beclomethasone dripropionate
Glycopeptides
Beta lactams
Beta lactams
Acyclovir
Liver failure
Hypotension
Hydralazine
Phenytoin
DM
Alpha-adrenergic blockers
Tachycardia
Cardiac glycosides
Diuretics
Increases sodium excretion, increases
potassium excretion
Beta-adrenergic agonists
diazepam
Prolonged sleep
Flumazenil
Serotonin pathway
Lorezepam
Gabapentin
Valproic acid
Hepatic metabolism
Phenytoin
Chromosome 6 and 22
Mesolimbic
Mesocortical
Amphetamine
Tremors
Hypotension
15-20%
Inhibit Na+/K+/2Cl-
Inhibit Na+/Cl-
Acetozolamide
Iproniazid
Lithium
Amitryptiline
Midalozam
Reboxitine
5-HT and NA
Reduced cAMP
Akinesia
Antiviral drug
Chlorpromazine
K, DELTA, MEU
Morphine 6- glucuronide
Morphine 3- glucuronide
Helicobacter pylori
H+/K+ ATPase
Prostaglandin
Cimetidine/Ranitidine
Pirenzipine
Proglumide
Omeprazole
Metronidazole
Fats
Endocrine system
1.3 mMol/L
2.2
9.4
Lysine
Phenylalanine
Tyrosine
Proline
Negative charge
Tyrosine
Hydrogen bonds
Non-covalent interactions
Cysteine
Tertiary structure
Fibrous protein
Fibrous protein
3-4M of bicarbonate ions
245 Aas
Weak bonds
Low Affinity to be more specific therefore
maybe the answer should be "none of the
above"
Liver
Hexokinase
Non-covalent interactions
Covalent interactions
Succinate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate Kinase
8C
Stereoisomers that have different orientation of
hydroxyl at carbon one
Anti-coagulant
Disaccharide
10 residues
24 residues
HA (hyaluronic acid)
Chondroitin Sulphate
Heparin
Triacylglycerol synthesis
Beta oxidation
Skeletal muscle
Liver and skeletal muscle
Hydrolysis of ATP
Plasma membrane
PFK
Glycogen synthase
Liver
Mitochondria
ER
PEP carboxykinase and pyruvate carboxylase
Oxaloacetate
Lactate dehydrogenase
Leucine
PEPCK,PC, MDH
Citrate synthase
Fumarase
Amino Transferase
Phenylalanine to tyrosine
Phosphate
Cytosine
Two nucleotides joined together
Phosphoanhydride bonds
Liver
Purines
Phosphodiester bonds
Separates the fragments
5' to 3'
Methionine
Absence of aldolase B
Somatostatin
Pancreatic polypeptide
Parasympathetic
Meningitis
Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Insulin
Adrenal glands
Liver cells
.6mg
VitD
Liver
K2
VitA
Albumin
Calcitonin
Eccrine glands
Reticular dermis
Collagen
Stratified squamous
Pteryoid humuculus
None of the above
ICA# Module
Pharmacology
Dental Materials
Systems Physiology
Biochemistry
2
Neurophysiology
3
Dental Materials
Systems Physiology
4
Dental Materials
Systems Physiology
3
Oral Biology
Oral Biology
2
Oral Biology
Oral Biology
2
Oral Biology
Oral Biology
Oral Biology
4
Oral Biology
3
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
1
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
2
Neurophysiology
3
Neurophysiology
3
Neurophysiology
Neurophysiology
2
Neurophysiology
2
Pharmacology
Pharmacology
4
Pharmacology
2
Pharmacology
1
Pharmacology
1
Systems Physiology
Systems Physiology
Systems Physiology
4
Systems Physiology
3
Systems Physiology
3
Systems Physiology
3
Systems Physiology
Systems Physiology
3
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
3
Biochemistry
Oral Biology
Neurophysiology
Neurophysiology
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
Neurophysiology
Neurophysiology
Oral Biology
Neurophysiology
Oral Biology
3
Oral Biology
Oral Biology
3
Oral Biology
Oral Biology
3
Dental Materials
3
Dental Materials
Oral Biology
4
Oral Biology
4
Systems Physiology
Systems Physiology
3
Systems Physiology
Pharmacology
2
Pharmacology
Pharmacology
4
Pharmacology
Oral Biology
3
Oral Biology
3
Oral Biology
3
Oral Biology
3
Oral Biology
2
Oral Biology
Neurophysiology
2
Neurophysiology
Biochemistry
1
Biochemistry
Biochemistry
3
Neurophysiology
4
Question
b) With the aid of a diagram, describe an osteon and its formation. (7 marks)
b) Name 4 key factors involved in DNA replication and briefly describe their
roles. (8 marks)
a) Draw and label a diagram of a monosynaptic reflex. (6 marks)
b) How does the muscle spindle maintain its sensitivity to stretch? (4 marks)
a) List FIVE desirable properties of a restorative filling material and briefly
describe each one. (5 marks)
Give example of former and modifier and the affect a modifier has on
properties
b) Name the 2 pumps involved in venous return and describe how they work
c) Define preload and after load and describe factors affecting preload
3 types of dentinogenesis (8 marks)
The mandible can be elevated, depressed and moved side-to-side. Name the
muscles involved and their origin, insertion and innervation (8 marks)
Outline the layers of the scalp
What are the 2 parts of the occipitofrontalis muscle, what their origin and
insertion and what is their function
State the systolic pressure in the aorta and the pulmonary artery (1 mark)
Explain the difference between Ventricular and SAN action potentials (10
marks)
What are the effects of Noradrenaline and ACh on the rate of firing at the
SAN?
Free energy
a) Explain what free energy is and how it can be used to predict whether a
reaction will occur (6 marks)
What is obesity and what are the effects it can have on CHD (10 marks)
Explain the difference between fat soluble and water soluble vitamins and
explain the effect of Vitamin D deficiency (10 marks)
Using a diagram, explain the effects on the pupillary light reflex if light is
shined into the left eye a) if the left optic nerve is damage and b) if the left
oculomotor nerve is damaged (10 marks)
Brainstem
a) What are the roles of the brainstem? (6 marks)
b) With the aid of a diagram, explain the ionic changes during an action
potential (6 marks)
What is the role of interphase in the cell cycle and what each phase signifies
(10 marks)
Explain what a Fischer projection is and the differences between D-glucose
and D-galactose and draw a Fischer projection of each (10 marks)
Protein synthesis
a) What is protein synthesis and where does it take place in the cell (2
marks)
b) Briefly explain what agnosia is and outline the two main types of agnosia
(4 marks)
Incisors
a) What is the first permanent incisor to erupt? (1 mark)
b) What are the differences between permanent maxillary central and lateral
incisors? (3 marks)
c) How can you tell a left from right permanent maxillary lateral incisor? (3
marks)
b) Explain the changes in structure of the oral mucosa when deciduous teeth
are replaced by permanent teeth and name the process by which teeth are
replaced in humans? (4 marks)
Parotid
a) Describe the location of the parotid gland and the passage of the parotid
duct (6 marks)
c) Name the structures that pass through the parotid gland (2 marks)
Damage to facial nerve of a man from operation on parotid tumour; he finds
it hard to move food around mouth and close eye on that side
a) Why is there loss of sensation and which facial muscles control affected
parts (3 marks)
b) What tests should be carried out to assess nerve damage and which other
roles of the facial nerve should be tested (7 marks)
Occlusion
a) Chart the expected dentition of an 8 year old girl (2 marks)
b) How is room made for the increased width of the permanent central
incisors? (2 marks)
c) What is the leeway space and its significance in the relationship of the
molars? (4 marks)
d) Explain the purpose of the second deciduous molars in eruption of the first
permanent molar? (2 marks)
Dental materials
a) List FIVE desired properties of a restoration and give a brief description of
each (5 marks)
Microbes
a) Explain the mechanical defences of the body that affect the microbial flora
(5 marks)
What happens to the lungs if there is a hole pierced through the thorax (3
marks)
What are the main cells in the epidermis and what are the four main cell
types in the epidermis (5 marks)
Which cell type of the epidermis is responsible for the cell proliferation.
What are stem cells and transmit amplifying cells (3 marks)
What are two other cells in the skin and what is their function (2 marks)
How can you tell the right from the left incisors? (3 marks)
What are the striae of retzius (1 mark)
What are enamel spindles and lamellae and how do they form (4 marks)
Describe the THREE patterns of enamel and cementum at the CEJ (6 marks)
What are typing and identification (4 marks )
Describe the steps for how to isolate bacteria from a clinical specimen (6
marks)
Briefly make notes on the divisions of the trigeminal nerve (10 marks)
Describe the boundaries of the nasal cavity and the blood and nerve supply
to it (7 marks )
What is the differ nice between an upper motor neuron and lower motor
neuron lesion and give two signs/symptoms of each (4 marks)
Give three examples of biological buffers and describe how they work (3
marks)
The pH in mouth is 6.3 which buffers maintain, what buffer is responsible for
maintaining this pH (4 marks)
What is the importance physiologically of converting glycogen to lactate in
the fasted state (4marks)
Describe three features involved with the translation process and what they
do (6marks)
(b) What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS and how does it
have its effects? (2/3 marks)
(a)
In addition reactions, the two reactants will combine together forming a prod
In a condensation reaction, the reactants will react together forming a produc
(b)
When a force is applied above its elastic limit a metal becomes permanently
Metals can become deformed by dislocations.
Over time the polymer may leach monomers into the systemic circulation, ca
In a normal vessel, the blood doesnt clot because the epithelial cell lining of
The blood will begin to form a clot when the vessel wall is damaged and expo
In clotting, platelets, which are small ciruclating cell fragments that have ma
activated. Platelets are essential for haemostasis, they contain 2 types of ves
fibrinogen and factor V
Preload is the volume of blood filling within the ventricles prior to ventricular
the blood is ejected.
PREDENTINE:
Predentine is the innermost layer which is unmineralised, it is where new den
MANTLE DENTINE:
This is the first-formed layer of dentine in the crown region of the tooth
Insertion: Fibers run downward, backward and laterally and are inserted into
Moving from the lower layers upwards to the surface, the 4 layers of the epid
>stratum basale (basal or germinativum cell layer)
>stratum spinosum (spinous or prickle cell layer)
>stratum granulosum (granular cell layer)
>stratum corneum (horny layer)
In addition, to the epidermis layer, there is the stratum lucidum, which is a th
corneum and is not usually seen in thin epidermis.
Below the epidermis, there is the basement membrane under which it is the d
subcutaneous layer (loose connective tissue)
Commensals: These are microbes that are normally found colonizing a host a
NB opportunistic pathogens e.g. oral flora caries, periodontal disease, syste
Opportunistic Pathogen:
A microorganism that only causes disease when the host resistance is impair
organisms in the urinary tract, or oral organisms on heart valves)
The resident microflora includes commensal organisms that are regularly pre
mechanism by which the resident microflora of the body acts as a barrier (de
The resident microflora also is important for gut health and development, and
A dipeptide bond is formed as a condensation reaction between two amino ac
text. It is formed between the carboxyl group of one AA and the amino group
Globular proteins:
Nearly all enzymes in the body are globular proteins, an example being carbo
Haemaglobin, which is made up from 4 globular subunits with associated hae
Filamentous Proteins:
Fibrous proteins form rod or wire like shapes and are usually structural or
structures (eg. Collagen triple helix). These structures often contain cross-lin
fibres. An example of a filamentous protein is keratin, which are a family of fi
in hair and nails.
Membrane-Associated Proteins:
These include: Transmembrane proteins (intrinsic proteins), Lipid-associated
Mitosis takes place during the M phase of the cell cycle, this is where the cell
PROPHASE = chromatin fibres condense, nucleolus and nucleus membrane
METAPHASE = Centromeres of chromatids line up at the midline of the cell-
ANAPHASE = centromeres divide, Identical sets of chromosomes move to op
TELOPHASE = nuclear envelopes reappears, Chromosomes resume chromat
The process ends with cytokinesis which involves the cell splitting into two
PDC is an enzyme complex consisting of three different enzymes:
Pyruvate decarboxylase, lipoamide reductase transacetylase, dihydrolipoyl d
The PDC complex converts pyruvate into acetyl-CoA by a process called pyru
Acetyl-CoA may then be used in the citric acid cycle to carry out cellular resp
This is a process that is also commonly reffered to as the ETC (electron transp
It takes place in the mitochondrial membrane and the ultimate product is ATP
There is a cascade involving 4 enzyme complexes that carry out oxidative ph
Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
Complex II (succinate dehydrogenase)
Complex III (coenzyme Q reductase)
Complex IV (cytochrome C reductase)
The knee jerk reflex - STRETCH REFLEX
When we tap the patella the muscle spindles in the quadriceps muscles are s
connections. At the same time they inhibit antagonistic (flexor) muscles via a
Both these receptor types have free nerve endings. They are high-threshold r
The pain signals are then received by either WDR neurones or NS (nociceptiv
The ascending and descending pathways of pain diagram is a good one to lea
2) Paracrine signalling: This is when the cell secretes signalling molecules tha
important for mediating a local inflammatory response in situations such as w
4) Endocrine signalling: These cells secrete their signal molecules, called horm
release of insulin from the beta cells of the islets of langerhans in the pancrea
To specify two examples:
The release of acetylcholine from presynaptic terminals which then bind to AC
potential.
The release of insulin from the beta cells of the islets of langerhans in the pan
Amitriptyline is a non-selective NA and 5-HT reuptake inhibitor, therefore it w
(tri-cyclic antidpressants).
Tyramine is also broken down by MOA, so if the individual consumes foods ric
enter the blood stream.
Indirect acting sympathomimetics such as Tyramine work by entering the pre
forces the NA neurotransmitter to exit the vesicles and enter the synapse. So
The ultrafiltrate forms at the nephrons within the renal corpuscle, which cons
As the blood flows into the glomerulus via the efferent arteriole, it passes acr
that is within the blood stream passes across, except for this molecules that a
GFR is the rate at which the ultrafiltrate is formed as it passes from the glom
GFR is autoregulated and factors that affect it include:
Plasma oncotic pressure (determined by plasma proteins mainly)
Glomerular capillary pressure determined in turn by Systemic blood pressure
Glomerular capillary surface area (which can be affected in a damaged/disea
Systemic Arterial pressure: 120/80mmHg
The output of the right side of the heart serves the relatively low pressure pu
In the pulmonary system the pressure drop between pulmonary artery and ca
The lack of high resistance arterioles minimizes active regulation of lung bloo
The right ventricle muscle tone is adapted to be lower than the tone of the LV
Pulmonary vessels have the ability to distend much more than systemic vess
More vessels can be recruited that are normally closed and this in turn cause
Arterioles in the lung vasoconstrict in response to hypoxia. This tends to direc
Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction tends to promote an optimum V/Q ratio
In the normal heart the SAN serves as the cardiac primary pacemaker and de
node, high in the right atrium. The SA node is the natural pacemaker of the h
muscular contraction.
This is different ot the ventricular contraction, which occurs after the SAN has
the atrioventricular or AV node. The AV node acts as a conductor of impulses
allows the ventricles to fill with blood after the atria have contracted.
The SAN AP is signified on an ECG by the P wave, and then the ventricular co
Two nerves carry impulses from the brain to the SAN. One of these is the vag
cells and makes the SAN pacemaker tissue beat more slowly.
The other nerve is the sympathetic nerve, which releases NA which has the o
Free Energy: It is a measure of energy contained in a molecule, due to its vibr
free energy) kcal.
G = Negative (Exergonic)
G = positive (Endergonic)
ATP Hydrolysis:
The G for hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and Pi usually= -11 to -13 kcal/mole.
In principle hydrolysis of ATP can be used to drive an energetically unfavoura
Many physiological reactions are coupled with the hydrolysis of ATP molecule
These problems, all eventually lead to coronary heart disease (CHD), because
Coronary arteries fail to sustain te heart, there will be a lack of blood reachin
The heart tissue will become more rigid, losing its elasticity, as the left ventri
blood will be pumped around the body.
It can lead to serious issues, such as cardiac necrosis, where the hearts tissue
Fat Soluble Vitamins:
These include Vitamins A, D, E and K.
They can be found in fats and oils of food. They are absorbed into the lymph
They are stored in the liver and in body fat (adipose tissue) - if they are accum
They are not excreted in urine - they are not easily excreted.
Vitamin D:
The main role of vitamin D is to maintain calcium and potassium levels. A defi
associated with a VitD deficiency.
Rickets:
During growth of children, the bones increase in size, and their growth depen
immature bone (osteoid). So insufficient VitD leads to deformed bones, with r
OsteoMalacia:
This is due to insufficient vitD in adults, and it causes the individuals to have
The brainstem has a number of key functions. It is a conduit that connects th
1. Cranial nerve functions contains functional centres associated with 10 of
2. Conduit function contains ascending & descending pathways that transm
3. Integrative functions respiratory and cardiovascular activities, consciousn
Interphase is a state of high metabolic activity during which the cell does mu
Interphase consists of 3 stages: G1, S (when DNA is Synthesised) and G2
G0 Phase: this is when a cell exits the cell cycle for a period of time. Usually c
Having said this, cells that enter G0 usually terminally differentiate
The other stages of the cell cycle are within the M phase, which is when mito
worth mentioning for a mark.
A fischer projection is a 2D representation of a 3D organic molecule by projec
Below is a diagram that depicts the fischer projections for D-glucose, and for
are in this rigid format so NOT interchangable, but in fact actually two distinc
Protein synthesis is the formation of proteins within cells of the human body.
amino group of one AA and the carboxyl group of another AA. There are 20 A
In glycolysis, there is a net production of only 2xATP molecules. These are for
One of the ATP molecules is formed in this step of glycolysis:
PHOSPHOGLYCERATE KINASE catalyses: 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate + ADP to 3-
NTs are released from synaptic vesicles in synapses into the synaptic cleft, w
Many NTs are synthesized from simple and plentiful precursors such as amino
play a major role in shaping everyday life and functions.
NTs can be stored in presynaptic granules, once they are formed, and this pro
released upon Calcium uptake to the presynpatic terminal. The granules are
IN THE EXAM, IT IS PROBABLY BEST TO DRAW OUT A DIAGRAM AND USE THIS
G-proteins (a.k.a. GTP-binding proteins) are trimeric - i.e. they are made up fr
In the un-stimulated state, the -subunit has GDP bound and the G-protein is
These G proteins are attached to the cytoplasmic face of the plasma membra
After the -subunit has carried out its action, it shuts itself off by hydrolysing
an inactive G protein.
These 2nd messengers are associated with different enzymes, which are:
Adenylate cyclase (for cAMP)
Guanylate cyclase (for cGMP)
Phospholipase C (for IP3 AND DAG)
Phospholipase A2 (for prostaglandins)
The trigeminal nerve is one of the 12 cranial nerves. It is number 5, common
Ophthalmic branch: CN V1
Innervates the mucosa of the nose, the skin of the forehead, the upper eyelid
Mandibular branch: CN V3
This has a number of sub-branches too:
Auriculotemporal, buccal, lingual, inferior alveolar, nerve of masticatory mus
The auriculotemporal nerve innervates the secretomotor fibres of the parotid
There are two sections to the frontal association cortex:
1) The dorsolateral cortex
It is responsible for forward planning and ability to conceptualise different fut
brain.
The first permanent incisor to erupt is typically the lower central incisor
Three differences between the maxillary central and lateral (permanent) incis
1) The crowns of the central incisors are typically wider and larger
2) The lingual fossa are deeper on the lateral incisors
3) The mesial angle is typically more of a sharp 90degree angle on the centra
4) The distal angle is typically more of a distinctly rounded on the laterals com
The mesial angles are more of a sharp 90degree, also the roots are typically
Three key differences between the mandibular central and lateral incisors inc
1) The laterals tyically are larger, but not always obviously so.
2) The central incisors typically are first to erupt
3) The lateral's crown is rotated towards the canines slightly
A few differences between the permanent and deciduous molars are (pick thr
The deciduous molars are larger than the permanent premolars which replac
The permanent molars are larger than the deciduous molars (i.e. they have la
The crowns or the deciduous teeth are more bulbous - this gives particular em
The deciduous teeth are less mineralised than the permanent teeth, so the cr
The roots of the deciduous molars are divergent, allowing space for the deve
The roots of the deciduous teeth are smaller and thinner typically
The process when the deciduous teeth are lost is known as exfoliation and th
Answer to (b) not available, not sure about this to confidently answer here
To answer part three of the SAQ, it is probably best to draw the deciduous an
there are no premolars in the primary dentition.
1 (central incisor) replaces a
2 (lateral incisor) replaces b
3 (canine) replaces c
4 (first premolar) replaces d
5 (second premolar) replaces e
6, 7, 8 do not replace any decidous teeth.
The parotid duct that allows the flow of saliva into the oral cavity is known as
masseter muscle, then it pierces through the buccinator to enter the oral cav
Based on the information given, it seems most likelt that the affected cranial
mixed nerve (i.e. has both sensory and motor fibres)
There is motor innervation to the parotid gland through the parotid nerve ple
The muscles that are affected which are associated with the eye lid are those
supports eyelid protraction. The temporal and zygomatic branches of the fac
procerus, both of which secondarily contribute to upper eyelid protraction.
The muscles of the facial nerve affected that are responsible for helping to m
Clinical tests to carry out in order to assess the health and functioning of the
Test the motor functions by asking pt to close eyes, smile, frown, whistle, rais
Room is made available for the permanent central incisors via primate spacin
The leeway space is the difference between the combined mesio-distal width
In the lower arch: 2mm per quadrant whereas in the upper arch: 1mm per qu
The Leeway space is present because the deciduous c, d, e are wider than th
mandibular arch).There is more space in the mandibular arch and this allows
the maxillary teeth to there being a biting overlap (with each mandibular too
The permanent molars are guided in to unit class II relation by the flush te
relation. Class I relation describes how the mandibular teeth are a little more
Ideal/desirable properties of dental material used in restorations include:
1) Longevity - will the restoration last a good amount of time or will it be sho
2) Aesthetics - ideally the restorations should match the natural tissue, be i
3) Strength - restorations such as crowns and bridges for example need to b
4) Thermal Conductvity - this needs to be similar to the thermal conductivi
very hot or cold things.
5) Biocompatibility - the restoration material should be relatively inert with
6) Chemically resistant - the material should be resistant to chemicals that
7) Dimensionally Stable - it is very important that the restoration material
moisture and expand, nor should it decrease in size (which would be far from
Cobalt-chrome dentures, are a metal that has been known to be the cause fo
Inhalation of dust can cause allergic dermatitis: examples of materials - the p
mites)
Free (residual monomer) may cause a wide range of adverse effects eg: irrita
The free monomers may be present in the mouth as they are not incorporate
I believe in the 2012 cirriculum, we dont need to learn and remember examp
Microbes can be used in the production of some food and drinks (inc. brewing
They can also be important in medicine (e.g. antibiotics, insulin) as well as fo
Lactic acid and acetic acid bacteria (AAB) are the only families of bacteria fou
A good diagram to draw and annotate is below:
Intrapleural presure (Ppl): is the pressure in the small amount of fluid betwee
Intrapleural pressure is usually negative with respect to the atmosphere (and
The stratum basale is the cell type that is responsible for proliferation - it con
Stem cells ability for unlimited self-renewal
TAs have limited cell division before undergoing terminal differentiation
FIBROBLASTS - Most abundant cell in dermis - Responsible for repair the derm
LANGERHAN CELLS: Dendritic, Basal and spinous layers, Antigen presenting c
MERKEL CELLS: Located at the Stratum basale layer, Involved with sensory p
MAST CELLS: Found in the Dermis, Involved with the Immune response, Secre
LA blocks the channel from the intracellular side, therefore must enter the ne
Increased lipophilicity is associated with increased potency, since the LA mor
LA bind most strongly to inactivated channels and so the proportion of inactiv
The more a nerve is stimulated the faster the onset of anaesthesia use dep
The LA works best on a fast acting neuron, which fires more because there is
Since LAs block the channel from the intracellular side, in order to penetrate
So the pH and pKa are critical. The majority are weak bases, (pKa 8-9). Inflam
Phenytoin:
It is used in all types of seizure except Petit Mal.
Also used as anti- dysrhythmic (i.e. for a heart condition)
Mechanism of action
a. Controls membrane excitability rather than synaptic transmission.
b. Blocks increase in Na+ conductance that is required for action potentials.
c. Use dependent blockade -- effectiveness increases with high rate discharge
USE-DEPENDENT - The greater the neuronal activity, the greater the blockade
Phenytoin is well absorbed orally, 80-90% plasma protein bound.
Readily displaced by salicylates, valproate --> increased toxicity.
Eliminated primarily by hepatic metabolism.
Metabolism/elimination processes exhibit saturation kinetics (zero order and
Therefore, there will be an accumulation of the drug in the body if too much i
Mechanism of action.
Augments inhibitory action of GABA at GABAA receptors.
Increases frequency of opening
Enamel Spindles:
These are narrow, round, sometimes club-shaped tubules.
They can extend up to 25um into the enamel
They are not aligned with prisms and are thought to be the result of odonto
Enamel Lamellae:
These are sheet-like, apparent faults that run through the entire thickness o
They are hypomineralised and narrower, longer and less common than ena
Cemento-Enamel Junction (CEJ):
3 arrangements of the junction between cementum & enamel
Typing:
The term given to the process by which different strains of a particular bacte
Isolating Bacteria:
To answer this, describe the processes taking place in the diagrams below an
NOTE: THE NOTES BELOW ARE MUCH MORE THAT WOULD BE NEEDED TO GA
THAN 10 POSSIBLE MARKS AVAIALBLE
The trigeminal nerve is the fifth cranial nerve - CN V - it is the largest cranial
Its nuclei are present in the anterior pons, the senory root is relatively large c
It has three main branches: CNV1 (ophthalmic), CNV2 (maxillary), CNV3 (man
UMN lesion can be in CNS only, whereas a LMN lesion can be in the CNS or PN
When lower motor neurones are damaged tone is reduced or becomes com
Many lesions of upper motor neurones produce syndromes where there a
TRANSLATION:
In molecular biology and genetics, translation is the process in which cellular
ribosome to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide.
Benzodiazepines work by binding to the a BDZ binding site on the GABA rece
Stations
Describe the parts and function of the dental chair
Chart teeth
Identify surfaces and function of teeth
Set up bay
Identify bits of equipment from the dental kit
Dental Materials Practical: Mix alginate and answer a question e.g
4 handed dentistry
LA needle
Ask for consent doing a survey
Wash hands
Blood pressure (and ulnar and radial pulse)
Reporting Problems with bay
Respiratory - Peak Flow
Isolation Techniques: Rubber Dams, Cotton Wool, Triguard, Gauze et
Identify hard tissues in oral cavity
PICO etc
Case Scenario
"Mrs Jones is aged 75. She has recently had her teeth treated by a d
student six months ago at the Royal London Hospital. She has now
appointment for a routine check-up. She is nervous coming to the d
but enjoys being treated by students."
Professionalism (10marks):
List seven professional responsibilities that you have toward Mrs Jon
should refer to General Dental councils standards and principles) (7
What are the three main roles of the General Dental Council? (3 ma
Teamwork (10marks):
What do you understand by the term scope of practice (2 marks)
List two key tasks for each of these team members-
Dental hygienists (2 marks)
Dental therapists (2 marks)
Dental nurses (2marks)
Why is teamwork important in healthcare? (2marks)
Read the case scenario and answer all four sections below. Each sec
carries 10 marks and you should spend about 10 minutes on each s
Who are two dental professional members of the team and describe
skills they must have (4 marks)
If Mrs Begum said: "I'm very nervous that I'm going to be in a lot of
when you pull my tooth out" - how would you respond using good
communication (2/3 marks)
Answers:
GDC website
Dentists, dental nurses, dental hygeinists, dental therapists, dental
orthodontic therapists
Every 5 years providing the requored CPD has been done