1.

If two vectors 2 + 3 + and 4 6 are parallel to each other then value of

is :-
1) 0
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

2.
If = 3 + 4 and = 6 + 8 then magnitude of component of on is :-
1) 5
2) 10
3) 15
4) 6

3. A particle starts moving along x-axis from t = 0 and its position varies with time as
x = 2t3 3t2 + 1 then velocity of particle is zero at :-
1)
sec
2)
sec
3) 2 sec
4) 1 sec

4.
At what angle should the two forces 2P and P act so that the resultant force is P

?
1) 45
2) 60
3) 90
4) 120

5.

A physical quantity Q is calculated according to the expression Q = . If

percentage errors in A, B, C and D are 2%, 1%, 3% and 4% respectively then
maximum percentage error in Q is :-
1) 8%
2) 10%
3) 14%
4) 12%

6. A force is given by F = at + bt2, where t is the time. The dimensions of a/b are :-
1) T2
2) T
3) T1
 4) T2

7. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units then
dimensional formula for mass will be :-
1) [FL1T2]
2) [FLT2]
3) [FL1T1]
4) [FL5T2]

8. In an experiment of simple pendulum time period measured was 50 sec for 25

vibrations when the length of the simple pendulum was taken 100 cm. If the least
count of stop watch is 0.1 sec. and that of meter scale is 0.1 cm then maximum
possible error in value of g is :-
1) 0.5 %
2) 1 %
3) 0.4 %
4) 0.1 %

9.
Two vectors and are acting at a point such that if is reversed, the direction of
the resultant is turned through 90 then :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

10. The wavelength associated with a moving particle depends on pth power of its mass
m, qth power of its velocity v and rth power of planck's constant h. Then value of p,
q, r is :-
1) 1, 1, 1
2) 1, 1, 1
3) 1, 1, 1
4) 1, 1, 1

11.
ABCDEF is a regular hexagon then value of is :

1)
 2)

3)

4)

12.
If are two vectors then unit vector perpendicular

to is :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

13. Given that y = a sin t + bt + ct2 cos t. The unit of abc is same as that of :-
1) y
2) y/t
3) (y/t)2
4) (y/t)3

14.

If x and a stand for distance then for what value of n the equation =
1
sin x/a is dimensionally correct :-
1) 0
2) 2
3) 4
4) 1

15.
If = 3 + 4 and = 7 + 24 then find a vector having the same magnitude as

that of and parallel to :-

1)

2) 15 + 20
3)

4)
16. Two concentric spherical shell's of radius R1 & R2 have q1 & q2 charge respectively as
shown in figure. How much charge will flow through key k when it is closed :-

1)

2)

3)

4)

17. Two concentric spheres A & B are kept very near to each other. A is negatively
charged and B is earthed. The true statement is :-

(A) Charge on B is zero

(B) Potential at B is zero
(C) Charge is uniformly distributed on A
(D) Charge is non uniformly distributed on A
1) A & C
2) A & D
3) B & C
4) B & D

18. Two spheres of radius R & 2R having charge Q & 2Q respectively placed for away
from each other. How much charge will flow when key 'k' is pressed.

1) Q
2) Q/2
3) Q/3
4) Zero
19. Point charge q0 is placed at centre of a cylinder as shown in figure. Find electric flux
through curved surface :-

1)

2)

3)

4)

20. A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a charge q. Another charge Q is
placed at the centre of the shell. The electrostatic potential at a point P at a

distance from the centre of the shell is :-

1)

2)

3)

4)

21. Conducting solid cube is charged :-

1) Charge will be uniformly distributed on surface
2) Charge will be uniformly distributed in volume
3) Charge density at corners will be maximum
4) Charge density is maximum at face centres

22. A sphere of radius 1 m is given 10 mC charge how much charge will leak in air :-
1)
mc
2)
mc
3)
mc
4)
mc
23. A semicircular ring of radius 'a' has charge density = 0 cos where 0 is constant
and '' is shown in figure. Then total charge on the ring is :-

1) 20R
2) 40R
3)

4) Zero

24. If the potential at inner shell is 20V and that of the outer shell is 10V. Then find
potential at centre.

1) 20V
2) 10V
3) 30V
4) Zero

25.
A sphere of radius R has volume charge density then potential at R distance
inside the surface is :-
1)

2)

3)

4)
26. Electric flux through surface s1 :-

1) is minimum
2) is maximum
3) equal to s2 but less than s4
4) equal for all surfaces

27. A negative charged particle is released from rest in uniform electric field the electric
potential energy of charge :-
1) Remains constant because of uniform electric field
2) Increases because charge moves opposite to electric field
3) Decreases because charge moves against electric field
4) Decreases because charge will move along electric field

28. Consider a uniform electric field in y-direction. The potential is a constant :-

1) In all space
2) For any x for a given z
3) For any z for given x
4) On x-z plane for a given y

29. Two electric dipoles are placed in end on position. The force on one dipole due to
other is proportional is :-
1) r2
2) r2
3) r3
4) r4

30. If 109 electrons moves out of a body every second. How much time is required to
get total charge of magnitude 1C on the body :-
1) 1.6 1019 sec
2) 6.25 108 sec
3) 6.25 109 sec
4) 6.25 109 sec

31.
Electric field at a place is = E0 v/m a particle of charge +q0 moves from point A to
B along a circular path find work done in this motion by electric field :-
 1)

2)

3) q0aE0
4) 2qE0a

32. The electrostatic potential due to the charge configuration at P as shown in figure
for b << a is :-

1)

2)

3)

4) Zero

33. A uniformly positively charged ring is in horizontal plane (Radius R) a particle of

positive charge q0 and mass m is placed x distance above centre of the ring in

equilibrium if x > then :-

 1) equilibrium will be stable
2) equilibrium will be unstable
3) equilibrium will be neutral
4) particle can not be in equation

34. A wire is bent in form of a semicircular ring it's half part has charge density + &
other half has charge density. Find net electric field at centre :-

1)

2)

3)

4)

35.
Let V0 be the potential at origine in an electric field = Ex + Ey potential at (x, y) is
:-
1) v0 xEx yEy
2) v0 + xEx + yEy
3) xEx + yEy v0
4)

36. A large flat metal surface has a uniform charge density +. An electron of mass 'm'
and charge e leaves. The surface at a point 'A' with speed 'U', and returns to it at
point B disregard gravity the maximum value of AB is :-
1)

2)
 3)

4)

37. Let V & E are potential and electric field intensity at a point then :-
1) if V = 0 then E must be zero
2) if V 0 then E can not be zero
3) if E 0 then V can not be zero
4) if V = 0 then E may be zero

38. s1 and s2 are two equipotential surfaces on which the potentials are not equal. then
:-
1) s1 and s2 can intersect
2) s1 and s2 can not both be plane surfaces
3) In the between s1 and s2 the field is maximum. Where they are closest to each other
4) Line of force is tangential to s1 & s2 both

39. A charged particle moves with a speed u in a circular path of radius r around long
uniformly charged conductor :-
1)
2)

3)

4) u is independent of r

40.
Electric field in A region is = Ex + Ey + Ez a triangular surface ABC is placed on
the x, y and z axis as shown in figure find electric flux redated to triangle :-

1)

2)

3)
a2(Ex + Ey + Ez)
4) Zero
41. A charged particle is under equilibrium of gravitational force and electro static force.
If direction of electric field is rotated by 90 angle then net acceleration of the
particle is :-
1) g
2) 2g
3) zero
4)
g

42. In given diagram two charged bodies of mass m1 and m2 and charge q1 and
q2 respectively are hanged on free ends of two mass less threads of length each.
Point of suspension (S) is same in equilibrium threads make and angles with
vertical direction. If < then :-

1) q1 > q2
2) q1 < q2
3) m1 > m2
4) m1 < m2

43. A plastic (solid) sphere is rubbed with wool then charge on it :-

1) distributed uniformly in volume
2) distributed non uniformly in volume
3) distributed uniformly on surface
4) distributed non uniformly on surface

44. A uniformly charged rod passes through a cube of side 'a' then maximum possible
flux related to cube is (charge density of rod is ) :-
1)

2)

3)

4)
45. Identical point charges of magnitude q are placed at corners of a cube of side . Find
electrostatic potential energy of system :-
1)

2)

3)

4)

Chemistry
46. The speed of an electron moving at 600 ms1 is measured to an accuracy of 0.005%. What
would be the minimum error in determining its position ?
1) 1.9 104 m
2) 1.9 103 m
3) 0.9 104 m
4) 0.9 103 m

47. Number of waves made by Bohr's electron in one complete revolution in 3rd orbit :
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

48. Ni+2 is :
1) Paramagnetic
2) Diamagnetic
3) Psuedo inert
4) None

49. Number of electrons in Ce4+ ion is :

1) 54
2) 58
3) 62
4) 136

50. What do we mean when we say that the energy of the electron in an atom is
quantized :
1) The electron has a very small energy
2) The energy of electron is proportional to the mass of nucleus
3) When electron changes its energy. It emits a quantum of light
4) The energy of the electron can have certain fixed energies and not others
51. Which of the following transition in the spectrum of the hydrogen atom results in the
absorption of a photon with the largest energy :
1) n = 2 to n = 3
2) n = 2 to n = 4
3) n = 1 to n = 4
4) n = 3 to n = 1

52. When atomic orbitals are filled according to the Aufbau principle. The 6p orbitals are
filled immediately after the :
1) 4f
2) 5d
3) 6s
4) 7s

53.
Maximum number of electons haivng n = 3, = 2, m = 0 and ms = + are :-
1) 2
2) 4
3) 1
4) 18

54.
What will be correct relation of for H+, D+, He2+, He+ ?
1) H+ > D+ > He2+ > He+

2) H+ > D+ = He2+ > He+

3) He2+ = He+ > D+ > H+

4) H+ > D+ > He+ > He2+

55. An element which have atomic weight (m + 0.5) and the mass number of its three
isotopes are m, (m + 1) (m + 2). Find the % amount of three isotopes :
1) 1 : 1 : 4
2) 1 : 4 : 1
3) 4 : 1 : 1
4) None

56. In He+ distance between Ist and IInd shell is x then the radius of third excited state
of H-atom will be :-
1)

2)
 3)

4)

57. The distance between e and nucleus in H=atoms is 4.761 . Then the angular
momentum in nth shell will be :
1) 4
2)

3) 3
4)

58. If in H-atom 3 bracket lines are found when electron is jumped from nth shell to
ground state. Find the frequency of spectral lines when it is jumped from nth shell to
ground state :
1)
C RH
2)
RH C
3)
C RH
4)
C RH

59. Find the orbital showing below does not exist :

1) 420
2) 311
3) 220
4) 510

60. The electronic transition from n = 2 to n = 1 will produce shortest wavelength in :

1) H-atom
2) D-atom
3) He+ ion
4) Li+2 ion

61. Find the ratio of E3 E2 and E3 E1 for H-atom :

1)

2)
 3)

4)

62. Two particles A and B are moving and the momentum of A is 25% greater than B
then the ratio of wavelengths of both particles will be :-
1) 1/4
2) 4/1
3) 5/4
4) 4/5

63. If there are 2 nodal surfaces in third excited state then the value of orbital angular
momentum will be :-
1)

2)

3)
4)

64. Find the % difference in De broglie wavelength (approx) if the temperature of gas
become double
1) 30%
2) 40%
3) 50%
4) 100%

65. Find the uncertinity in position if uncertinity of velocity is 50% of x

1)

2)

3)

4)

66. What is the Debrogli wavelength of SO2 molecule if it is moving with the velocity of
0.01 m/s
1) 5000
2) 6000
3) 7000
4) 8000
67. If e revolves in 4 elepitcal path in nth shell then find the maximum lines in Balmer
series :
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

68. 310 has :

1) 1 radial node and 1 angular node
2) 2 radial node and 1 angular node
3) 1 radial node and 2 angular node
4) 2 radial node and 2 angular node

69. An element crystallises in BCC structure which has arm length 300 pm. If 1.5
1023 atoms of it are present in 50 gram then density of crystal will be :-
1) 6.17 g/cm3
2) 24.69 g/cm3
3) 8.23 g/cm3
4) 49.38 g/cm3

70. Incorrect statement from the following statements related with FCC structure is :-
1) This structure contains totally 8 tetrahedral voids.
2) In FCC structure atoms present at face centres contribute 75% in unit cell.
3) In FCC structure co-ordination number of atom is 12.
4) In FCC structure a face centre and 3 corners construct a tetrahedral void.

71. A solid has CCP arrangement having atoms A, B and C. If A atoms are present at
face centres, B at corners and C atoms occupy 50% tetrahedral voids then
molecular formula of solid will be :-
1) A3B4C
2) AB3C4
3) A4BC3
4) A3BC4

72. An element A (atomic mass = 150) having bcc structure has unit cell edge length of
400 pm. Calculate the number of unit cells in 7.78 g of A :-
1) 1.56 1022
2) 1.56 1022
3) 3.12 1022
4) 3.12 1022
73. In an oxide (AB2O4), oxide ions are packed with FCC unit cell in which B+3 ion
occupy x% of octrahedral void and A+2 ion occupy y% of tetrahedral void then what
is correct about the unit cell :-
1) x = 50% and y = 12.5%
2) x = 50% and y = 50%
3) x = 12.5% and y = 50%
4) None

74. The unit cell length of NaCl crystal is 564 pm. Its density would be :-
1) 1.082 g/cm3
2) 2.165 g/cm3
3) 3.2147 g/cm3
4) 4.33 g/cm3

75. In face centered cubic unit cell, edge length is :-

1)

2)

3) 2r
4)

76. The volume of atoms present in FCC unit cell of metal is :-

1)
r3
2)
r3
3)
r3
4)
r3

77. An element (atomic mass = 100 mol1) having bcc structures has unit cell edge 400
pm. The density of element is :-
1) 10.376 g cm3
2) 5.188 g cm3
3) 7.289 g cm3
4) 2.144 g cm3

78. How many tetrahedral voids are occupied in diamond ?

1) 25%
2) 50%
 3) 75%
4) 100%

79. Schottky detect is :-

1) Vacancy of ions
2) Delocalisation of ions
3) Interstitial vacancy of ions
4) Vacancy of only cation

80. Copper crystallises in fcc with a unit cell length of 360 pm. What is the radius of
copper atom?
1) 157 pm
2) 181 pm
3) 108 pm
4) 127 pm

81. There are 12 1023 atoms are present in fcc lattice then how many number of fcc
unit cells will be?
1) 3 104
2) 3 1023
3) 6 1023
4) 12 1023

82. Face centred cubic packing of uniform spherical units is represented by :-

1) AB AB...
2) ABB AAB
3) ABC ABC...
4) ABC ACB ABA

83. Percentage of unoccupied space in a body centred cubic unit is :-

1) 32%
2) 34%
3) 28%
4) 30%

84. In the ionic compound AB the ratio rA+ : rB is 0.414. Indicate the correct statement
of the following :-
1) Cations form close packing and anions exactly fit into the octahedral voids.
2) Anions form close packing and cations occupies precisely half of the tetrahedral voids.
3) Anions form close packing and cations occupy precisely all the octahedral voids.
4) Anions form close packing and cations fit into the octahedral voids loosely.

85. Which of the following statement is not true about NaCl structure ?
 1) Each unit cell contain 4 NaCl molecule
2) Cl ions has coordination number six
3) Na+ ions has coordination number four
4) Cl ions are in fcc arrangement

86. Na and Mg crystallise in bcc and fcc type crystals, then the number of Na and Mg
atoms present in the unit cell of their respective crystal is :
1) 4 and 2
2) 2 and 4
3) 9 and 14
4) 14 and 9

87. In cubic lattice each edge of the unit cell is 400 pm. Atomic weight of the element is
60 and its density is 6.25 g/cc. The crystal lattice is :
1) face-centred
2) primitive
3) body-centred
4) end-centred

88. The total number of octahedral voids is, if number tetrahedral voids are 2n :
1) n
2) 2n
3) 3n
4) n/2

89. Number of atoms in simple cubic, body-centred cubic and face-centred cubic unit
cells is :
1) 1,2,4
2) 1,4,2
3) 1,1,1
4) 4,2,1

90. Calculate the diameters of face-centred cubic cell whose edge length is 1.41
1) 1
2) 0.5
3) 1.5
4) 2

Biology
91. List of some plants is given below :
Allium, Makoi, Mustard, Petunia, Lupin, Sesbania
How many of the above plants have bicarpellary gynoecium ?
1) Three
2) Four
 3) Five
4) Two

92. Complementary cells are formed by the activity of :-

1) Vascular cambium
2) Phellogen
3) Intercalary meristem
4) Apical meristem

93. List of some plants is given below :

Gram, Brinjal, Tulip, Makoi, Withania, Pea
How many above plants have zygomorphic symmetry in flowers :-
1) Three
2) Four
3) One
4) Two

94. Select incorrect statement?

1) Bark is a non-technical term
2) In pea, flower is pentamerous
3) In temperate regions, climatic conditions are not uniform throughout the year
4) Cork cambium is an example of primary meristem

95. In which of the following collenchyma is found in patches below epidermis?

1) Sun flower stem
2) Cucurbita stem
3) Zea mays stem
4) Zea mays root

96. Enucleated condition is found in :-

1) Meristem cell
2) Vessel element
3) Companion cell
4) Guard cell

97. The cross section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features under
microscope. The vascular bundles are radially arranged, four xylem strands with
exarch condition and pith is less developed. The plant material should be :-
1) Dicot stem
2) Monocot stem
3) Monocot root
4) Dicot root
98. Which of the following is an example of drupe fruit?
1) Papaya
2) Apple
3) Lemon
4) Mango

99. In which of the following vexillary aestivation in petals, gynoecium is

monocarpellary, ovary unilocular with many ovules and marginal placentation are
found :-
1) Arhar
2) Makoi
3) Mustard
4) Tulip

100.

Given floral formula is related to flower of which plant?

1) Allium cepa
2) Solanum nigrum
3) Glycine max
4) Petunia alba

101. In the flower of a plant following characters are observed :

Twisted aestivation in petals and valvate aestivation in sepals
Stamen - infinite and monoadelphous
Five free stigmas
Plant may be :-
1) Pea
2) China rose
3) Asparagus
4) Sunflower

102. Select correctly matched pair/s :-

(A) Lemon Axile placentation
(B) Petunia Funnel shaped corolla
(C) Castor seed Endospermic
(D) Lotus Syncarpous gynoecium
1) Only 'A' & 'B'
2) Only 'D'
3) Only 'A', 'B' & 'C'
4) Only 'B' & 'C'

103. In roots, pericycle is :-

1) Prosenchymatous
2) Chlorenchymatous
3) Sclerenchymatous
 4) Collenchymatous

104. List of some plants is given below :

Lupin, Cucumber, Gram, Pea, Petunia, Tomato, Onion, Chinarose, Brinjal,
Sunflower, Aloe and Tulip
How many of the above plants have pentamerous flower, superior ovary with axile
placentation and swollen placenta?
1) Three
2) Five
3) Six
4) Eight

105. ___'X'___ reported in her early publications that curly top virus spreads through a
plant via the food conducting tissue or phloem tissue.
1) Ernst mayr
2) K. Esau
3) R. H. Whittaker
4) Zimmerman

106. Opuntia is an example of :-

1) Phyllode
2) Cladode
3) Phylloclade
4) Both (1) & (2)

107. Which of the following is an example of whorled phyllotaxy?

1) Nerium
2) Calotropis
3) Guava
4) Mustard

108. Crotalaria juncea is an example of :-

1) Fabaceae
2) Solanaceae
3) Malvaceae
4) Liliaceae

109. Which of the following is not considered in periderm?

1) Phellem
2) Phellogen
3) Phelloderm
4) Spring wood
110. Which of the following is the product of redifferentiation?
1) Primary xylem
2) Primary medullary rays
3) Primary phloem
4) Phelloderm

111. Given figure represents cross section of a woody dicotyledonae stem passing
through lenticel.

In which labelled structures A & B are, respectively:-

1) Phellogen and phelloderm
2) Epidermis and phellogen
3) Phellogen and complementary cells
4) Complimentary cells and phelloderm

112. Given figure represents internal structure of dorsiventral leaf. In which within
vascular bundle position of xylem and phloem are, respectively :-

1) Adaxial and abaxial

2) Abaxial and adaxial
3) Both towards adaxial
4) Both towards abaxial

113. In which of the following sclerenchymatous pericycle is found in patches located just
above phloem bundles :-
1) Sunflower stem
2) Cucurbita stem
3) Zea mays stem
4) Sugarcane stem

114. Presence of tetradynamous stamen is characteristic feature of :-

 1) Pea
2) Mustard
3) Tulip
4) Chinarose

115. Vessels are not found in the wood of :-

1) Eucalyptus
2) Teak
3) Pinus
4) Acacia

116. Select incorrect statement.

1) Axillary bud is derived from shoot apical meristem
2) Secondary phloem and periderm are considered in bark
3) In the dicot root, vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin
4) Companion cells are component of xylem

117. In sunflower stem, the primary xylem is called endarch, because?

1) The protoxylem is surrounded by the metaxylem
2) Both the protoxylem and the metaxylem lie towards the centre
3) The protoxylem lies towards the centre and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery
4) The protoxylem lies towards the periphery and the metaxylem lies towards the centre

118. Select correctly matched pairs :-

1) Dorsiventral leaf Two distinct patches of parenchyma are present above & below each large
vascular bundle
2) Isobilateral leaf Two distinct patches of sclerenchyma are present above and below each large
vascular bundle
3) Zea mays stem Each vascular bundle is surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
extension
4) All of the above

119. A vascular bundle in which a group of xylem and a group of phloem are on the
same radius with xylem near the pith and phloem near the cortex and the two are
not separated by the cambium, called as :-
1) Radial
2) Conjoint, collateral and open
3) Conjoint, collateral and closed
4) Concentric

120. Which one of the follwoing option gives the correct categorisation of six plants according to
types of flower on the basis of insertion of floral parts on thalamus?
(A) (B) (C)
Hypogynous Perigynous Epigynous
 (I) Apple, Datura Plum, Peach Mustard, China-rose
(II) Mustard, China-rose Plum, Peach Guava, Cucumber
(III) Peach, Mustard China-rose, Rose Sunflower, Cucumber
(IV) Onion, Rose Pea, Petunia Apple, Banana
1) (I)
2) (II)
3) (III)
4) (IV)

121. The end product of sexual reproduction is :-

1) Flowers and leaves
2) Root and stem
3) Fruits and seeds
4) Male and female gametes

122. To a biologist, flowers are morphological and embryological marvels and the sites of
........... :-
1) Vegetative reproduction
2) Sexual reproduction
3) Asexual reproduction
4) Vegetative and sexual reproduction

123. The microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs. They extend
............... all through the length of an anther and are packed with pollen grains.
1) Transversely
2) Longitudinally
3) Horizontally
4) Obliquely

124. The cells of tapetum possess :-

1) Dense cytoplasm
2) Light cytoplasm
3) Generally one nucleus
4) Both (2) & (3)

125. When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells occupy
the centre of each microsporangium. These cells are called the :
1) Megaspore mother cells
2) Archesporial cells
3) Primary parietal cells
4) Sporogenous tissue

126. Which of the following character is not present in a pollen grain?

 1) Generally spherical structure
2) Diameter about 25-50 micrometers
3) Two layered wall present
4) It is surrounded by a continuous thick layer of sporopollenin

127. The inner wall of the pollen grain is :-

1) Thick and continuous
2) Thin and discontinuous
3) Thick and discontinuous
4) Thin and continuous

128. The vegetative cell of the pollen grain is :-

1) Smaller and has a large irregularly shaped nucleus
2) Bigger and has a small irregularly shaped nucleus
3) Bigger and has a large rounded nucleus
4) Bigger and has a large irregularly shaped nucleus

129. The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable and to some
extent depends on the prevailing :-
1) Pressure and humidity
2) Temperature and humidity
3) CO2 concentration and temperature
4) O2 concentration and pressure

130. Which structure develops into the female gametophyte?

1) MMC
2) Functional microspore
3) Functional megaspore
4) PMC

131. What is the usual ploidy of the cells of nucellus and functional megaspore?
1) n and 2n respectively
2) 2n and n respectively
3) 2n
4) n

132. What is the ploidy of the cells of female gametophyte and MMC?
1) n and 2n respectively
2) 2n and n respectively
3) 2n
4) n
133. After which stage cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical
female gametophyte?
1) 2-nucleate stage
2) 4-nucleate stage
3) 6-nucleate stage
4) 8-nucleate stage

134. Male and female gametes in flowering plants are produced in the :-
1) Pollen grain and embryo-sac respectively
2) Embryo-sac and pollen grain respectively
3) Female gametophyte and male gametophyte respectively
4) Embryo sac and female gametophyte respectively

135. Which type of flowers are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of cross-
pollen landing on the stigma?
1) Chasmogamous flowers
2) Cleistogamous flowers
3) Unisexual flowers
4) All of the above

136. Well exposed stamens and large, often feathery, stigmas are found in :-
1) Insect pollinated flowers
2) Bat pollinated flowers
3) Water pollinated flowers
4) Wind pollinated flowers

137. In which type of flowers pollen grains are covered by a mucilaginous covering?
1) Insect pollinated flowers
2) Bat pollinated flowers
3) Water pollinated flowers
4) Wind pollinated flowers

138. Which type of flowers are generally large, colourful, fragrant and rich is nectar?
1) Insect pollinated flowers
2) Bat pollinated flowers
3) Water pollinated flowers
4) Wind pollinated flowers

139. The flowers which are pollinated by flies and beetles secrete :-
1) Fragrance
2) Foul odours
3) Good odours
4) All of the above
140. In which plant, the moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary and the flower,
in turn, gets pollinated by the moth?
1) Salvia
2) Fig
3) Rafflesia
4) Yucca

141. Vegetative propagules are :-

1) Sucker & offset
2) Rhizone & tuber
3) Runner & bulb
4) All of the above

142. Babmoo species flower only once in their life time, generally after :-
1) 10-20 years
2) 20-50 years
3) 50-100 years
4) 100-200 years

143. Strobilanthus kunthiana (neelakuranji) flowers once in :-

1) 4 years
2) 8 years
3) 12 years
4) 16 years

144. Which of the following plant is dioecious?

1) China rose
2) Date palm
3) Coconuts
4) Maize

145. Which of the following plant is monoecious?

1) Papaya
2) Mulberry
3) Cucurbits
4) All of the above

146. Following diagram represents.

 1) Lead buds of Bryophyllum
2) Leaf buds of Agave
3) Bulbil of Oxalis
4) Bulbil of Agave

147. Following diagram represents.

1) Lead buds of Bryophyllum

2) Leaf buds of Agave
3) Bulbil of Oxalis
4) Leaf bud of opuntia

148. Following diagram represents.

1) Pistia
2) Water hyacinth
3) Vallisneria
4) Hydrilla

149. The diagram represents enlarged view of an egg apparatus showing entry of pollen
tube. Identify labelled structures [A] and [B] of diagram.
 1) [A] Egg nucleus, [B] Male gametes
2) [A] Egg nucleus, [B] Vegetative nucleus
3) [A] Synergid, [B] Vegetative nucleus
4) [A] Synergid, [B] Male gametes

150. Identify the following figure.

1) Water pollinated plant showing compact inflorescence

2) Wind pollinated plant showing compact inflorescence
3) Insect pollinated plant showing loose inflorescence
4) Bird pollinated plant showing loose inflorescence

151. Which of the following is a structural and functional unit between developing
embryo (foetus) and maternal body?
1) Yolk sac
2) Umblical cord
3) Allantois
4) Placenta

152. Which type of cells have the potency to give rise to all the tissue and organs in
embryo?
1) Amniogenic cells
2) Trophoblast
3) Mesoderm
4) Inner cell mass
153. In following select the option giving correct identification together with number of
cells present in developing stage of embryo :-
(A) Zygote One cell
(B) Morula 4 cells
(C) Blastocyst 32 cells
(D) Gastrula 16 cells
1) A, B and C
2) B and C
3) A and C
4) B, C and D

154. In a tubectomised human female, which of the following event will not occur?
(A) Ovulation (B) Menstruation
(C) Fertilisation (D) Formation of mature ovum
1) A and C
2) B and C
3) C and D
4) Only D

155. In which phase of menstruation cycle the corpus luteum is formed?

1) Bleeding phase
2) Follicular phase
3) Proliferative phase
4) Secretory phase

156. Which of the following option is mismatched?

1) Mons pubis : Cushion of fatty tissue
2) Labia majora : Fleshy fold of tissue
3) Clitoris : Tiny finger like structure
4) Hymen : Reliable indicator of virginity

157. Identify the mismatched homologus organ?

1) Penis Vagina
2) Testis Ovary
3) Prostatic utricle Vagina
4) Cowper's gland Bartholin gland

158. Read the following statements :-

(a) It is a paired structure
(b) It help in lubrication of penis
(c) It present lateral side of membranous urethra
In the above statements 'It' refers to :-
1) Seminal vesicle
2) Bulbourethral gland
3) Prostate
 4) Bartholin gland

159. Which phase of oogenesis is completed after ovulation in human?

1) Multiplication phase
2) Growth phase
3) Maturation phase
4) Secretory phase

160. If estrogen is not able to attain peak level during pre-ovulatory phase of
menstruation cycle in a female then what will be happen in this cycle?
1) Inhibit ovulation
2) Corpus luteum will degenerate
3) LH surge will not occur
4) Both (1) and (3)

16 Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of animals according to the type
1. of eggs :-
(A) (B)
Isolecithal Discoidal Centrolecithal
(I) Prototherians, Eutherians Birds, Reptiles Amphibians, Insects
(II) Eutherians, Metatherians Protochordata, Prototherians Insects, seaurchin
(III) Human, Seaurchin Prototherians, Reptiles Insects
(IV) Human, Amphibians Birds, Insects Prototherians, Protochordata
1) (I)
2) (II)
3) (III)
4) (IV)

162. The figure below shows development of follicles select the option giving correct
identification :-

1) A = Mature follicle
B = Primordial follicle
 C = Corpus haemorragicum
D = Corpus luteum
2) A = Primary follicle
B = Graafian follicle
C = Corpus luteum
D = Corpus albicans
3) A = Primordial follicle
B = Corpus luteum
C = Mature follicle
D = Corpus albicans
4) A = Primordial follicle
B = Tertiary follicle
C = Graafian follicle
D = Corpus luteum

163. Which one of the following option give the correct match of animals according to the
type of fertilisation and site of embryonic development?
(C)
(A) (B)
Site of embryonic
Animal Fertilisation
development
(I) Bird Internal Inside the female body
(II) Human Internal Inside the female body
(III) Insect External Inside the female body
(IV) Prototherian External Out side the female body
1) (I)
2) (II)
3) (III)
4) (IV)

164. Which of the following egg membranes are secreted by the ovary?
(a) Fertilisation membrane (b) Vitelline membrane
(c) Corona radiata (d) Zona pellucida
(e) Shell membrane (f) Chorion
1) a, c, d
2) c, e, f
3) b, c, f
4) Only c and f

165. Which of following ducts are included into intratesticular genital duct system :-
(a) Vasa efferentia (b) Tubuli recti
(c) Epididymis (d) Vas deferens
(e) Ejaculatory duct (f) Rete testis
1) a, b, c, d
2) b, c, d, f
3) a, b, f
4) d, e, f
166. The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of human development. Select the
option giving correct identification together with site of occurrence :-

Development stage Site of occurrence

(I) (a) Zygote Ovary
(II) (b) Morula Uterus
(III) (c) Gastrula Fallopian tube
(IV) (d) Blastocyst Uterine cavity
1) (I)
2) (II)
3) (III)
4) (IV)

167. How many stages of gametogenesis in the list given below are haploid?
Spermatid, Spermatozoa, secondary spermatocyte, Secondary oocyte, Primary
spermatocyte, Polar body, Spermatogonia, Oogonia.
1) Six
2) Four
3) Three
4) Five

168. A female undergoing hysterectomy, then which of the following events will not
occur?
(A) Menstruation
(B) Ovulation
(C) Formation of mature ovum
(D) Formation of corpus luteum
1) A and C
2) B and D
3) A and B
4) Only D

169. If all sertoli cells of both testes are destroyed during puberty then what will be
happen?
1) Sperm will not produce
2) Level of testosterone will be decrease
3) Mullerian duct always active
4) Both (1) and (3)
170. In which animal the testes are developed into abdominal cavity during the
embryonic stage but migrate to scrotum just before birth where they remain
throughout life :-
1) Elephant
2) Rabbit
3) Bat
4) Human

171 Identify the correct match from columns I, II and III :-

. Column-I Column-II Column-III
(A) Sertoli cells (a) Testis (i) Temperature regulation of testis
(B) Dartos muscles (b) Secondary follicle (ii) Form blood testis barrier
(C) Theca interna (c) Scrotum (iii) Secrete androgens
(D) Leydig cells (d) Seminiferous tubule (iv) Secrete estrogen
1) A - a - iv, B - b - iii, C - c - ii, D-d-i
2) A - d - ii, B - c - i, C - b - iii, D - a - iv
3) A - d - iv, B - a - i, C - b - ii, D - c - iii
4) A - d - ii, B - c - i, C - b - iv, D - a - iii

172. Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which includes all
the correct ones only :-
(a) Each testicular lobule contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules in
which sperms are produced
(b) Sertoli cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation
(c) The corpus luteum secrete large amount of estrogen which is essential for
maintenance of endometrium
(d) Oxytocin causes strong contraction in foetus during parturition.
1) Statements (a), (b) and (d)
2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
3) Statements (a) only
4) Statements (c) and (d)

173. It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system. Identify the

structure formed by fusion of duct of seminal vesicle and vasdeferens?

1) A
2) B
 3) C
4) D

174. How many statements are correct about in vitro fertilisation?

(A) Fertilisation in fallopian tube and embryo develop upto 816 cells in test tube
(B) Gestation period is same as a normal gestation
(C) Fertilisation takes place in test tube but complete development of embryo inside
female body.
(D) Both fertilisation and development of embryo occur inside female body.
1) 4
2) 3
3) 2
4) 1

175. Given below are four method (A-D) of contraceptive and their modes of action (a-
d). Select their correct matching :-
Method Mode of action
(A) LNG-20 (a) Prevent ovulation
(B) CuT (b) Prevent fertilisation
(C) MALA-N (c) Prevent sperms reaching in cervix
(D) Nirodh (d) Prevent implantation
1) A - d, B - c, C - a, D-b
2) A - c, B - c, C - a, D-d
3) A - d, B - b, C - a, D-c
4) A - d, B - b, C - c, D-a

176. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is legalised in our country from the year :-
1) 1947
2) 1960
3) 1971
4) 2001

177. Given below are some assisted reproductive technologies (ARTs), in which how
many technologies ivolves invitro fertilisation :-
GIFT, ZIFT, ICSI, IUT, IUI
1) Four
2) Three
3) Two
4) Only one

178. Which of the following contraceptive method is very common and also prevent the
STDs?
1) CuT
2) LNG-20
3) Nirodh
 4) Saheli

179. Which hormone is used as a contraceptive in male?

1) Testosterone
2) Prolactin
3) Progesterone
4) Cortisol

180. The hormones that are produced in women only during the pregnancy?
1) Only progesterone
2) Progesterone and prolactin
3) HPL, HCG, Relaxin
4) Thyroxine, HCG, hPL