PHARMACOLOGY

1. Scopolamine ____________ Transdermal drug delivery system (skin patch) for a patient who will be __ very
susceptible to _______ what comorbidity would _______ it is most likely to adverse effects of truly
contraindicated????

a. Angle closure glaucoma

b. Bradycardia

c. Allergy to uncooked shellfish

d. Resting BP of 110/70

e. Hypothyroidism (mild)

2. A patient with alzheimers disease is taking acetylcholinesterase inhibitor specifically approved for
that and so enters the CNS well. What drug is this patient most likely receiving?

a. ?

b. Levodopa

c. Neostimine

d. Pyridostigimine

e. Tacrine

3. A variety of ophthalmic drugs working by several main mechanisms of action are useful for managing
chronic open angle glaucoma. Which one reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing formation of
aqueous humor rather than by changing the size of pupil?

a. Timolol

b. C

c. Isoflourophate

d. Neostigmine

e. Pilocarpine

4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease eg. Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, is receiving an
orally inhaled muscarinic receptor blocking drug to maintain bronchodilation. What drug belongs to that
class?

a. Albuterol

b. Diphenhydramine

c. Ipratropium (or tiotropium)

d. Pancurnium

e. Pilocarpine

5. A10 year old boy is diagnosed with attention deficit / attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADD/ADHD).
Which drug is most likely to prove effective for relieving the boys main symptom?

a. D

b. Methylphenidate
 c. Pancuronium

d. Prazosin

e. Scopolamine

6. The record shows that propofol was given for induction. What would be the most likely adverse response
associated with the administration of the widely used drug?

a. Hypotension and respiratory ventilator depression

b. Laryngospasm

c. Long term memory loss

d. Malignant hyperthermia

e. Seizure

7. A physician considers placing a patient on long term (months, years). Phenobarbital for control of a
relatively common medical condition. For most of these indications, newer and arguably more efficacious
drugs that participate in fewer drug interactions are available and preferred. For which one of the
following uses, nonetheless, this barbiturate still considered reasonable and appropriate?

a. Alcohol withdrawal signs/symptoms

b. Anxiety management

c. Certain epilepsies

d. Endogenous depression (adjunct to SSRIs)

e. Sleep disorder such as insomnia

8. A patient with Parkisons disease has signs and symptoms that can be considered moderate now, but
they are worsening and not responding well to current drug therapy. The physician decides to empirically
assess and antiparkison drug that is a selective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase type B (MAOB) .
Which of the following drugs would that be?

a. Bromocriptine

b. Carbidopa

c. Phenolazine

d. Selegiline

e. Tranylcypromine

9. Meperidine is similar to morphine in many ways but has same ?? differences that are clinically relevant with
very high blood levels or with true overdose, meperidine can cause significant adverse responses that
simple arent seen with morphine or must either opiod analgesics. What is the rather unique effect of
meperidine?

a. Constipation leading to paralytic ileus

b. Heightened response to pain (paradoxical hyperalgesia)

c. Intense biliary tract spasm

d. Psychotic like state, possible seizures

e. Respiratory depression, apnea, ventilator arrest

10. Package inserts for a drug caution, against administering a concurrent with any other drug that can raise or
lower sodium concentration change. This of course requires or cautious use or avoidance (if possible) of the
common diuretics. To which drug does this caution or warning apply?

a. Cholestyramine

b. Lithium

c. Nifedipine

d. Phenylephrine

e. Statin type cholesterol lowering agents

11. A 42 year old woman with a long history of anxiety that has been treated with diazepam decides to triple
her daily dose because of increasing fearfulness about global warming. Two days after her attempt of self
prescribing she was found extremely lethargic and nonresponsive with markedly obtunded reflexes and
reaction to painful stimuli. Respirations are and shallow. What drug would you give to manage these drug
induced signs and symptoms?

f. Dextromethorphan

g. Flumazenil

h. Naltrexone

i. Physotigmine

j. Pralidoxime

12. A patient with undiagnosed coronary artery disease is given a medication. Shortly thereafter she
develops intense tightness and crushing discomfort of her chest. An ECG reveals ST segment changes
indicative of acute myocardial ischemia in tissues supplied by the left anterior descending coronary
artery and distal vessels. Which drug most likely caused them reaction?

a. Clozapine

b. Pentasocin

c. Phenytoin

d. Sumatriptan

e. Zolpidem

13. Nitrous oxide is a common component in the technique of balanced anesthesia. It is used in conjunction with
other drugs as a halogenated hydrocarbon volatile liquid anaesthetic and is usually included as 80% of the
total gas mixture. Which phrase best summarizes why NO cannot be used alone as a general anesthesia

a. Almost total lack of analgesic activity, regardless of concentration

b. Desired concentration >10% or so tend to profound cardiac negative inotropic effects

c. Minimum alveolar concentration >100%

d. Methemoglobinemia occurs even in low inspired concentration

e. Solubility in blood

14. A patient in the neurology unit at your hospital develops status epilepticus and at the time there is no
general information about the etiology. What drug should be given first for the fastest suppression of the
seizures?
 a. Carbamazepine

b. Lorazepam

c. Phenobarbintal

d. Phenytoin

e. Valproic a cid

15. A patient had a documented severe allergic reaction to ester type local anesthetics. What other drug is a
member of the ester class and so would be the most likely to prove an allergic reaction or anaphylactic
reaction if this patient received it?

a. bupivacaine

b. lidocaine

c. mepivacaine

d. prilocaine

e. tetracaine

16. Many legal jurisdictions have imposed various restrictions on over the counter sale of products that contain
pseudoephedrine. For example, in various oral decongestant prodcuts. That is because pseudoephedrine
can be rather easily used to synthesize which of the following highly psychoactive and abuse prone drug?

a. Methamphetamine

b. Morphine

c. Oxycodone

d. Pentazocine

e. Phenylcyclidine (PCP)

17. A 26 year old woman has been on antidepressant therapy for several months. Today she complains of
missing her period and having what is eventually determined to be galactorrhea. Your careful assessment
reveals that she has developed some dyskinesias not unlike those you would typically associate with a
phenothiazine or butyrophenone (eg. Haloperidol) antipsychotic drug. Pregnancy tests are negative. What
drug is most likely to have caused these findings?

a. Amoxapine

b. Citalopram

c. Fluoxetine

d. Sertraline

e. Tranylcypromine

18. A 33 year old woman patient who has been treated with haloperidol is seen in the emergency department.
Her husband reports that she has complained of rapidly worsening fever and muscle stiffness and she has
the shakes (tremor). Her level of consciousness is diminishing. Her temperature is 104 F and her blood
creatine kinase level is elevated. What is the most likely explanation of this finding?

a. Allergic response to her medication

b. Neuroepileptic malignant tumor

 c. Overdose

d. Parkinsonism

e. Tardive dyskinesia

19. Nearly all the drugs used as primary therapy or adjuncts for the treatment of Parkinson disease or drug
induced parkinsonism exert their desired effect directly in the brains striatum. Which one exerts its main
effects in the gut not in the brain?

a. Amantadine

b. Benztropine

c. Bromocriptine

d. Carbidopa

e. Selelgiline

20. One approach to managing hyperprolactinemia is to administer a drug that has relative selecitivity, as an
agonist, central dopamine D2 receptors. What drug works in this manner?

a. Bromocriptine

b. Chlorpromazine

c. Fluphenazine

d. Haloperidol

e. promethazine

Case: A 35 kg child with heart disease requires immediate treatment with the antiarrthymic drug procainamide. The
textbook list the following pharmacokinetic values for procainamide on a 70 kg person V 130L, C/36 I/h oral
availability 10% and therapeutic concentration of 5mg/L.

21. What constant intervention infusion rate should be used to maintain the therapeutic concentration of 5mg/L?
a. 90 mg/h b 100mg/h c. 180mg/h d. 217 mg/h e. 650mg/h

22. Which of the following need not be accomplished before a drug can be tested in humans?
a. acute toxicity testing in animals
b. reproductive toxicity testing in animals
c. approval of an investigational New Drug (IND) exemption application
d. approval of a New Drug Application (NDA)

Case: A teenager presented at his local dentist for extraction of an impacted molar. He had never had a dental
procedure and was so nervous that the dentist was unable to administer the local anesthetic. The dentist therefore
administered a sedative drug intravenously, which had an immediate calming effect. He was then able to give the
anesthetic and carry out the extraction. There were no complications and bleeding was minimal. When the patient
was asked to return to the waiting room, he fainted upon standing. He immediately regained consciousness, but
had a marked tachycardia whenever he tried to stand. After 30 minutes of rest, his orthostatic symptoms resolved
and he was able to leave.

23. Which of the following drugs would be most suitable for oral use in patients who faint frequently when standing
up?
a. epinephrine b. esoproterenol c. atropine d. epinephrine e. prazosin
Case: A farm worker is brought to the emergency department following exposure to an organophosphate insecticide
at the fields. He has wheezing and shows signs of severe bronchospasm.

24. Which of the following would not be expected as a sign of cholinesterase inhibitor insecticide poisoning?
a. mydriasis b. increased salivation c. increased bowel sounds
d. urinary urgency e. skeletal muscle spasms followed by paralysis

25. Which of the following combinations of drugs would be used in the treatment of this farm worker?
a. atropine and epinephrine b. ___ and isopreternol c. norepinephrine and propranolol
d. atropine and pralidoxime e. pralidoxime and propranolol

Case: A patient with no apparent comorbide condition exhibits symptoms of a community acquired pneumonia with
liver, cheast pain, rales on auscultation and purulent sputum. There was no extrapulmonary manifestations. A chest
xray visualizes the presence of infiltrates. Samples for blood and sputum are sent for microbiological analysis.
29. ____ about the possibility that the infection in the patient may be caused by drug-resistant pneumococcus.
Consequently, empiric treatment should involve the administration of which of the following?
a. Amoxicillin b. Erythromycin c. Levofloxacin d. metronidazole e. Penicillin G

Case: A 22 year old male presents with , . And milky penile discharge

30. Azithromycin provides ___ for nongonoccocal pathogen that are often associated with gonococcal urethritis, but
the drug has no activity against which of the following?
a. any of the following organism d. irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
b. chlamydial species e. cause vasodilation
c. mycoplasmal species

31. Mr. Cruz has just been diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis. You are considering different therapies for this
disease. Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may cause which one of the following?
a. bronchodilatation c. diarrhea d. irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
b. Cyclopegia e. reduce gastric acid secretion

32. Parasympathetic nerve stimulation and a slow infusion of betanechol will each:

a. Increase bladder tone

b. Cause ganglion cell depolarization
c. increase heart rate
d. cause skeletal muscle end plate depolarization
e. cause vasodilation

33. Actions and clinical uses of muscarinic and cholenoceptor agonist include which one of the following?

a. Bronchodilation (asthma)
b. Cyclopegia, improve aqueous humor drainage (glaucoma)
c. Increase gastrointestinal motility (abdominal surgery)
d. Decreased neuromuscular transmission and relaxation of skeletal muscle (surgical anesthesia)

34. Which of the following agents is a prodrug that is much less toxic in mammals than in insect?

a. Malathion
b. Nicotine
c. Parathion
d. Physostigmine
e. Pilocarpine

35. Which of the following is a direct acting cholinomimetic used for its mode elevating action and acts as an
insecticide?
 a. Betanechol
b. Neostigmine
c. Nicotine
d. Physostigmine
e. Pilocarpine

36. An indirect acting cholinomimetic that readily enters the CNS is:

a. bethanechol
b. neostigmine
c. nicotine
d. physostigmine
e. pilocarpine

37. The primary second messenger process involved in the constriction of the ciliary muscle when focusing on near
objects involve?

a. cAMP
b. DAG
c. Depolarizing influx of sodium ions via a channel
d. IP3
e. NO (Nitric Oxide)

38. Atropine overdose may cause which of the following?

a. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle cramping

b. Increased cardiac rate
c. Increased gastric secretion
d. Pupillary constriction
e. Urinary frequency

39. Which of the following path of drugs and properties is most correct?

a. Atropine, poorly absorbed after oral administration

b. Benztropine , quaternary amide, poor CNS penetration
c. Cyclophosphamide, well absorbed from the conjunctival sac into the eye
d. Ipratropium, well absorbed, long elimination half life
e. Scopolamine, short duration of action when used in anti-motion sickness agent

40. Which of the following can be blocked by atropine?

a. Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium

b. Increased blood pressure casued by nicotine
c. Increased skeletal muscle strength cause by neostigmine
d. Tachycardia caused by exercise
e. Tachycardia caused by infusion of acethylcholine
41. Which one of the following does not cause CYCLOPEGIA (paralysis of accomodation) when used topically in the
eye?

a. atropine b. cyclopentolate c. physostigmine d. scopolamine e. tropicamide

42. A friend has a very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician
explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased
hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described?

a. captopril b. guanethidine c. minoxidil d. prasozin e.propanolol

43. A pregnant patient is admitted to the hematology service with moderately severe hemolytic anemia. After a
thorough work-up, the only positive finding is a history of treatment with an antihypertensive drug since 2 months
after beginning the pregnancy. The most likely cause of the patients blood disorder is:

a. atenolol b. captopril c. hydralazine d. methyldopa e. minoxidil

44. Comparison of prasozin with propanolol shows that:

a. both decrease cardiac output

b. both decrease renin secretion

c. both increase heart rate

d. both increase sympathetic outflow from the CNS

e. both produce orthostatic hypotension

45. Verapamil is associated with which one of the following:

a. constipation b. decreased PR interval c. hypoglycemia d. tachycardia e.

thyrotoxicosis

46. A drug that can cause renal damage in the fetus if given during pregnancy:

a. captopril b. diaxozide c. fenoldepamd. guanethidine e. hydralazine

47. The drugs that have been found to be least useful in heart failure are the:

a. Na/K ATPase inhibitors

b. calcium channel blockers

c. beta-adrenoreceptor agonists

d. beta-adrenoreceptor antagonists

e. ACE inhibitors

48. The mechanism of action of digitalis glycosides is associated with:

a. a decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b. an increase in AFP synthesis

c. a modification of the actin molecule

d. an increase in systolic cystoplasmic calcium levels

e. block of cardiac beta adrenoreceptors

49. Which one of the following is most likely to contribute to the arrythmogenic effect of digoxin?

a. increase of vagal discharge

b. increased intracellular calcium

c. decreased sympathetic discharge

d. increased extracellular magnesium

e. increased extracellular potassium

50. Which of the following drugs does NOT reduce mortality in chronic congestive heart failure?

a. captopril b. carvedilol c. digoxin d. enalapril e. spironolactone

51. When used as an anti-arrhythmic drug, lidocaine typically?

 a. increases action potential duration

b. increases contractility

c. increases PR interval

d. reduces abnormal automaticity

e. reduces resting potention

52. Which of the following drugs is NOT suitable for chronic oral therapy of arrhythmias?

a. amiodarone b. disopyramide c. esmolol d. quinidine e. verapamil

53. A patient is admitted at the emergency department for evaluation of an abnormal ECG. Overdose of an anti-
arrhythmic drug is considered. Which of the following drug is correctly paired with its ECG effects?

a. quinidine: increased PR and decreased QT interval

b. flecanide: increased PR, QRS, and QT interval

c. verapamil: increased PR interval

d. lidocaine: decreased QRS and PR interval

e. metoprolol: increased QRS duration

54. Which of the following drugs does NOT consistently reduce the potassium (I K) repolarizing recurrent and thereby
prolong the action potential?

a. amiodarone b. ibutilide c. lidocaine d. quinidine e. sotalol

55. A drug that hyperpolarizes and prevents conduction of impulses in the AV node is:

a. adenosine b. digoxin c. lidocaine d. quinidine e.verapamil

56. A 50 year old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high-calcium renal stones. The most
useful diuretic agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is:

a. acetazolamide b. furosemide c. hydrochlorothiazide d. mannitol e. spironolactone

57. A 60 year old patient complains of paresthesias and occassional nausea associated with one of her drugs. She
is found to have hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. She is probably taking:

a. acetazolamide for glaucoma

b. amiloride for edema associated with aldosteronism

c. furosemide for severe hypertension and heart failure

d. hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension

e. mannitol for cerebral edema

58. A 70 year old woman is admitted to the emergency department because of a fainting spell at home. She
appears to have suffered no trauma from her fall, but her blood pressure is 110/60 when lying down and 60/40
when he sits up. Neurologic examination and an ECG are within normal limits when she is lying down. History
reveals that she is taking water pills (diuretics) for a heart condition. Which of the following drugs the most likely
cause of her fainting spell?

a. putol sya b. amiloride c. furosemide d. hydrochlorothiazide e. spironolactone

59. A patient with severe with posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days ..
What drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis?

a. putol b. putol c. furosemide d. hydrochlorothiazide e. spironolactone

60. Patient was hospitalized 5 times between the ages 7 and 9. He is now. And reduced the frequency of severe
attacks. Which of the following over long periods for severe asthma? (sorry guys putol talaga)

a. ---
 b. ---

c. ---

d. ---

e. prednisone by mouth (Baka ito kasi controller sya)

f. theophylline in long-acting oral form

61. Patient D is 28 year old bi sexual who just recently tested positive for HIV. Prophylaxis for
pneumocystosis was considered, and the following drugs can be used except:

A. Contrimoxazole B. Pentamidine C. Clindamycin D. Pyrimethamine

62. Metronidazole except:

A. Amoebiasis B. Giardiasis C. Trichomoniasis D. P. Carinii

63. This anti helminthic blocks GABA mediated neurotransmitter causing paralysis to the helminthes
thus making them susceptible to destruction by the host cell.

A. Pyranteri Pamoate B. Bithionol C. Niclosamide D. Piperazine

64. Mazzoti reaction is a hypersensitivity reaction characterize by lymphadenopathy, dermatologic

manifestations due to Ag-Ab reaction against the dying microfilariae and is seen with the use of this
antihelminthic agent.

A. Metronidazole B. Bithionol C. Diethyl Carbamazine D. Emetine

65. G6PD status of the patient is always assess before administering this anti malarial agent.

A. Halofantrine B. Quinine C. Primaquine D. Atovaquone

66. This anti leprosy agent is useful in multi bacillary leprosy, it possess anti inflammatory effects thus
it is use in erythema nodosum leprosy.

A. Dapsone B. Rifampicin C. Clofazimine D. Ciprofloxacin

67. One of this combination is not correct:

A. Isoniazid: Active against multiplying organism

B. Rifampin: Active against dormant or non dividing micro bacterium

C. Ethambutol: Slow down bacterial resistance in drug combination

D. Streptomycin: Active against mycobacterium intracellularly in acidic environment pyrazinamide dapat

68. Patient C is on her second trimester of pregnancy when she developed low grade fever and
malaise, she sought consult when she cough out blood streak sputum that alarmed her. The sputum
exam was done and revealed with positive acid fast bacilli, her husband has been diagnosed with far
advanced TB 2 months ago and is currently taking anti Koch medication for 2 weeks. How would you
manage her case?

A. Request for chest x ray

B. Start treatment with RIPE

C. Administer streptomycin IM monthly

D. Delay treatment until after delivery

69. Use as sterilizing agent should the TB isolate prove resistant to anti TB agents.
A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

70. Amikacin can be given to the following except:

A. M. Kansasi B. M. Marinarum C. M. Avium D. M. Fortuitum

71. indication for the use of corticosteroids except:

A. Peptic ulcer B. Bronchial asthma C. hypersensitivity reaction D. Nephritic syndrome

72. special precaution with patients receiving steroids:

A. hypoglycemia B. Hypotension C. Hyperkalemia D. Mycotic infection

73. Supplemental measures when using corticosteroids include the following, except:

A. alendronate- to prevent osteoporosis

B. Omeprazole- to prevent peptic ulcer disease

C. High sodium diet- to prevent hyponatremia

D. High caloric diet to prevent muscle wasting

74. effect of glucocoticoid include all of the following, except:

A. increase skin protein synthesis

B. inhibition of leukotriene synthesis

C. altered fat deposition

D. reduce circulating lymphocytes

75.An anti fungal imidazole derivative that is also a potent and rather non selective inhibitor of
adrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis:

A. Trilostane B. Mifepristone C. aminoglutetimide D.ketoconazole

76. the end product of coagulation targeted to be dissolve by plasmin:

A. fibrinogen B. Fibrin C. prothrombin D. Thrombin

77. an 18 year old patient came in because his routine urinalysis revealed glycosuria and an RBS of
250 mg/dl. History revealed that patient experienced weight loss, polydiipsia, fatigue, and 3 episodes
of vaginal yeast infection in the past 3 months. The family is negative for DM, and patient is not
taking any medications. PE: weight: 48 kg, ht:52. Lab results- 280 mg/dl FBS, and strongly positive
urine glucose and ketones. To achieve control of the diabetes and probable ketoacidosis in the
diabetic patient, the appropriate antidiabetic agent to be use is:

A. crystalline zinc insulin B. tolbutamide C. glyburide D. ultra lente insulin

78. the following are features of loop diuretics except:

A. very potent, produce the greatest volume of dieresis

B. act mainly on ascending loop of henle to increase sodium, chloride and water secretion

C. has a high risk of adverse reactions

D. are use for long term treatment of hypertension

79. the following are features of potassium sparing diuretics, except:

A. has relatively weak diuretic and anti hypertensive effects

B. act directly on distal tubule of the kidney to increase excretion of sodium, water, chloride, calcium ions

C. increase excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions

D. increase the serum potassium level

80. which of the following is Ace inhibitors pharmacokinetics is FALSE:

A. all are eliminated primarily by the kidneys except fosinopril and moexipril

B. food may reduce absorption of ace inhibitors except: perindopril, enalapril and lisinopril

C. converted to active agent by hydrolysis in the liver

D. most of ace inhibitors are prodrug - ang nakalagay kasi sa katzung, All are prodrug

81. Have a particular role in treating patients with chronic kidney disease because they diminish
proteinuria and stablilize renal function: ACEi
82. NSAIDs used in arthritidis may impair the hypotensive effects of ACEi by: BLOCKING THE
BRADYKININ-MEDIATED VASODILATION
83. Drug A has T of 6 hours. Drug A was adminis at a dose of 500mg at 6am. Twelve hrs later, how
much would be the amount of drug A in the plasma? 125mg
84: if a drug is said to have a therapeutic index (TI) of 1, it means that: THE DRUG HAS A WIDE
MARGIN OF SAFETY
85: Phase III in clinical drug evaluation aims to determine: IF A DRUG WORKS DOUBLE BLIND
(HEALTHY VS DISEASE SUBJECTS)
86 A portion of the drug that is pharmacologically active: UNBOUND
87. True statement about receptors, EXCEPT: RECEPTORS MEDIATE THE ACTIONS OF
PHARMACOLOGIC ANTAGONISTS
88. A 67 yr old patient on anti-Arrythmic drug for reccurrnt ventricular tachycardia develops joint and
muscle pains, fatigue and skin rash. The drug taken by the patient is most probably: PROCAINAMIDE
89. A patient takinganti-arrythmic drug for atrial fibrillation noted development of cough and DOB with
grayish blue discoloration of his skin and photodermatitis, CXR showed pulmonary fibrosis. The possible
cause of this condition is: AMIODARONE
90. Naturally occurring metabolites, given by IV administration, this anti-arrythmic agent slows
conduction through the AV node; with half life of 10 seconds: ADENOSINE
91. The following are partial agonist estrogen inhibitors EXCEPT: MIFEPRISTONE
92. This is an anti-androgen which is an inhibitor of 5 alpha reductase FINASTERIDE
93. An effective anti androgen that inhibit the action of androgens at the target organ and used for
prostatic CA: CYPROTERONE
94. The mini pill contains this/these hormone/s at a constant dose: PROGESTERONE ONLY
95. SORRY DI KO MABASA
96. A patient complaining of chest pain even at rest had consulted a cardiologist, which of the following
agent would likely be prescribed to relieve the pain? : NIFEDIPINE
97. Anti-anginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to all of the following: BLOCK EXERCISE
INDUCE TACHYCARDIA AND REDUCED RESTING HEART RATE
98. The combination is useful in vasospastic or particularly in patient with exertional angina with CHF
and sick sinus syndrome: NITRATES and CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKERS
99. Nitrates cause vascular smooth muscle relaxation by: RELEASING NITRIC OXIDE THAT ACTIVATES
GUANYLYL CYCLASE
100. The following condition are contraindicated with the use of Calcium channel blockers:
CARDIOGENIC SHOCK and RECENT MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION
101. The agent blocked bradycardia associated with anticholinesterase agent:

ATROPINE

102. Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic nervous system is incorrect:

THE PARASYMPATHETIC SYSTEM OFTEN DISCHARGE AS A SINGLE FUNCTIONAL SYSTEM

103. A 60 year old diagnosed with parkinsons disease maintained on levodopa for 2 years later developed end of
dose akinesia and fluctuations in response. This is secondary to:

PROGRESSIVE LOSS OF DOPAMINERGIC NIGROSTRIATAL NEURONS

104. The patient has an existing bladder outlet obstruction, use of this drug is contraindicated:

AMANTADINE

105. The following are the main goals in the treatment of parkinsons disease except:

INCREASE ACH ACTIVITY

114. Epinephrine a direct acting adrenergic agonist is clinically indicated for the following condition except:
HYPERTENSION

115. Receptors found at the sympathetic and parasympathetic autonomic ganglion:

MUSCARINIC RECEPTORS

116. Mr yan diagnosed with myasthenia. Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may cause all of the following:
BRONCHOCONSTRICTION AND REVERSIBLE INHIBITION OF ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE

117. When a dose response study of atropine is carried out, which of the effects may be observed:

ALL OF THE ABOVE

118. Overdose may lead to bradycardia:

NEOSTIGMINE

119. thiopental is:

BARBITURATE

120. If the anesthetic agent is poory soluble, little will be required to be dissolved in the blood to raise the partial
pressure: FALSE

121. The drug diazepam is

a. an anxiolytic c. an anticonvulsant
b. a muscle relaxant d. all of the above

122. Indication for ampicillin use except:

a. L. monocytogens c. Shigellosis
b. H. influenzae d. Uncomplicated Salmonella Gastroenteritis

123. With good penetration to the CSF

a. Cefaclor b. Cefuroxime c. Cefotetan d. Cephalexin

124. The following agent does not cross the BBB

a. Ceftriaxone b. Ceftazidime c. Ceftizoxime (?!) d. Cefoperazone

125. Used to treat tuberculosis resistant to the first line agents, inhibits alanine racemase.
a. Vancomycin b. Bacitracin c. Cycloserine d. Fosfomycin

126. Useful in BZ poisoning, a short acting BZ antagonist:

a. Flurazepam b. 5-fluorouracil c. Flumezanil d. Fluconazole

127. Effects of benzodiazepam on sleep:

a. Prolong REM sleep c. Prolong stage 2 NREM sleep
b. Prolong stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep d. Prolong stage 1 NREM sleep

128. This ultra short-acting barbiturate is useful as an IV anesthetic:

a. Phenobarbital b. Amobarbital c. Pentobarbital d. Thiopental

129. This drug can cause anterograde amnesia, useful prior to diagnostic procedures or operation:
a. Diazepam b. Phenobarbital c. Buspirone d. Zolpidem

130. A 24 year old was taking diazepam for almost 2 months. She was noted to be sleeping heavily and for longer
period of time this last few days. She was taking also another drug. The drug that she most probably is taking at
the same time with diazepam is:
a. Rifampin b. Cimetidine c. Valproic Acid d. Acetaminophen

131. A 7 year old boy was brought to the Emergency room because of ongoing seizure whoch has lasted for >5mins
. The best drig to give at once is:

A. Diazepam B. phenytoin C. Lorazepam D. Phenobarbital

132. A 25 year old female taking anti convulsant for almost 2 years developed diplopia, ataxia, severe anaphylactic
reaction, and aplastic anemia: Most probably the patient is taking this drug:

A. phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Lamotigrine D. Valproic Acid

133. May cause hepatotoxocity and cause spina bifida in babies with mothers taking this drug

A. phenytoin B. Phenobarbital C. Diazepam D. Valproic Acid

134. This drug has will have increase concentration in acute alcoholism and decrease concentration in chronic
alcoholism

A. phenytoin B. Phenobarbital C. Diazepam D. Valproic Acid

135. A spindle poison, this plant alkaloid which comes from periwinkle plant is a neurotoxic and of lesser bone
suppression effect

A. Vincristine B. Vinblastin C. Irinotecan D. Paclitaxel

136.Common acute adverse effects of associated with cytotoxic agent

A. nausea/ vomiting B. Cardiomyopathy C. Bone marrow suppression D.hepatotoxicity

137.------

138. A 60 year old is being treated for his lung Cancer with procarbazine. This should not be given in with

A. Alcohol B. Cytarabine D. Amoxicillin E. Vinblastine

139. a 50 year old was diagnosed to have brain tumor, this lipid soluble nitrourea drug is ............ .

A. carmustine B. Cyclophosphamide C. Daunorubucin D. Busulfan

140. The 30 s inhibitor should not be taken with food antacid and iron supplement

A. gentamicin B. tetracycline C. Erythromycin D. levofloxacin

141. Floroquinolones should not be taken by children under 12 years of age because it can cause?

a. optic neuritis b. yellow discoloration of the teeth c. arthropathy d. not affordable

142. Aminoglycosides are available..

a. orally b. parenterally c. both d. neither

143. Cholestatic jaundice has been reported with the use of this drug

a. Chloramphenicol b. Tetracycline c. Amikacin d. Erthromycin

144. this kills both vegetative cells and spores when applied to materials for appropriate times and temperature

a. Sterilants b. Antiseptics c. Astringent d. Disinfectant

145. A hallucinogen not classified as banned but sold legally as a general anaesthetic for human use

a. LSD b. Mescaline c. Phencyclidine d. Ketamine

146. A inhalant general anesthetic popularly known as laughing gas

a. Chloroform b. Ether c. Halothane d. Nitrous oxide

147. This agent works mainly on the Serotonergic system decreasing the activity if the neurotransmitter and its
metabolit 5 hydroxy indoleacetic acid and produces a state of hyperarousal through the CNS

a. Diazepam b. GHB c. LSD d Cocaine

148. A strong opiod narcotic analgesic useful for anethesiologist for intraspinal injection to minimize post operative
pain

a. Heroine b. morphine c. nalbuphine/nubain d. Codeine

149. A non addicting opiod sold as over the counter anti diarrheal

a. Phentermine b. Diphynoxylate c. Fentanyl d. Codaine

150. Oral use of this agent is effective only when the fungi is only on the lumen of GIT and not for systemic
infection

a. Amphotericin B b. Flucytosine c. Ketoconazole d. Fluconazole

151. True regarding the antifungal activity of amphotericin B except?

a. binds to ergosterol in the fungal cell wall

b. leakage of intracellualr ions

c. increase cell permeability

d. inhibits fungal cell growth

152. Drug that potentiates the synthesis, release and prevents reuptake of dopamine

a. Levodopa b. MAOI c. Amantadine d. Dopa agonist

153. A sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system are divisioins of which of the following

a. somatic nervous system division of PNS

b. somativ nervous system division of CNS

c. autonomic division of PNS

d. autonomic division of CNS

154. A 54 year old female complained of headache and nape pain, VS taken include a BP of 180/110. Alpha 2
agonist work by decreasing sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone which of the following is NOT a selective
alpha 2 agonist
 a. Clonidine b. Methlydopa c. Guanabenz d. Guainfacine e. epinephrine

155. A 25 year old female took 15 tabs of diazepam after knowing that her BF had an affair with another woman.
She was rushed to the ER having loss of consciousness. The drug that should be given immediately is

a. flurazepam b. Flumazenil c. Flouracil d. Fluoxetine

156. A 60 year old male was diagnosed to have a brain tumor. This lipid soluble alkylating agent was given to the
patient as chemotherapy

a. anastrozol b. Tamoxifen c. Methotrexate d. Carmustine

157. A 60 year old female has uncontrolled HPN, maintained on Metoprolol 100mg BID. What is the diuretic best
used as a combination therapy

a. Furosemide b. Acetazolamide c. Mannitol d. Thiazides

158. A 4 year old boy was diagnosed to have Absence seizures. What is the treatment of choice

a. Phenobarbital b. Phenytoin c. Ethosuximide d. Carbamazepine

159. Carbamazepine can be used for the following conditions except

a. Petit mal seizures b. Partial seizures c. Grand mal siezures d. trigeminal neuralgia

160. A 28 year old female has been taking this drug for more than 3 years. She complained of ____________
incoordination, hirsutism, and gingival hyperplasia. She is possibly taking this drug

a. Phenobarbital b. Phenytoin c. Carbamazepine d. valproic acid