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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

Pre-clinical Sciences Email:sidharta123@yahoo.com


Time: 1 hr Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60

Medical Microbiology
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is an Sample Test Paper on Medical / Clinical Microbiology.

Please Note: There is no negative marking.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. All of the following organisms cannot be grown in (artificial) culture media except:

A Mycobacterium leprae C Borrelia burgdorferi


B Treponema pallidum D Human papillomaviruses

2. Which of the following statements about desensitization is incorrect?

A may involve sublingual C direct the immune response toward


immunotherapy humoral immunity
B causes an increase in D direct the immune response toward
allergen-specific Ig G cellular immunity

3. Drug of choice for treating nongonococcal urethritis due to Chlamydia trachomatis:

A Co-trimoxazole C Erythromycin
B Azithromycin D Ofloxacin

4. Spongospora subterranea belongs to Class:

A Myxomycetes C Plasmodiophoromycetes
B Chytridiomycetes D Oomycetes

5. The causative agent of glanders:

A Burkholderia pseudomallei C Burkholderia mallei


B Burkholderia cepacia D Burkholderia solanacearum

6. What enters the human host when an infected Anopheles mosquito bites a person?

A Merozoites C Sporozoites
B Oocysts D Trophozoites

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

7. Regarding complement receptor (CR2), spot the correct statement(s):

A acts as a receptor for E-B virus C helps to clear away immune


complexes
B binds to complement C3d
D binds to complement C5a

8. One of the following has no relationship with virulence of group A streptococci:

A Streptolysin O C M proteins
B Lipoteichoic acid D T proteins

9. Transplacental transmission of infections can occur with all of the following except:

A Yaws C Malaria
B Varicella D Cytomegalovirus

10. Source of infection of Seven-day fever:

A Swine C Rat urine


B Dog urine D Mice

11. Regarding Schistosoma haematobium, correct statement is:

A caused by a Nematode C raw crabs are intermediate host


B treatment of choice is Pyrantel D eggs hatch in freshwater to produce
pamoate Miracidia

12. Which of the following treatment is highly effective in Schistosomiasis due to


Schistosoma haematobium?

A Pyrantel pamoate C Ivermectin


B Surgical excision D Praziquantel

13. Treatment of choice for hydatid cyst due to Echinococcosis:

A Surgical excision C Thiabendazole


B Praziquantel D Bithionol

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

14. Killed Treponemes are used in

A Treponema pallidum C Treponema pallidum agglutination


haemagglutination (TPHA) (TPA)
B Venereal Disease Research D Treponema pallidum immobilization
Laboratories (VDRL) (TPI)

15. The causative organism of Rift Valley fever belongs to genus:

A Flavivirus C Phlebovirus
B Orthobunyavirus D Alphavirus

16. Commercially available preparation 'Serameba' used in serological testing is

A Enzyme immunoassay C Ouchterlony double diffusion


B Counterelectrophoresis D Latex agglutination technique

17. Which of the following statements about Streptolysin-O (SLO) is/are incorrect?

A is a leukocidin C is oxygen stable


B is a hemolysin D causes alpha hemolysis

18. The most widely used specific test for Treponema pallidum:

A fluorescent treponemal C Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)


antibody-absorption (FTA-ABS)
D T. pallidum hemagglutination
B Venereal Disease Research (TPHA)
Laboratories (VDRL)

19. All of the following are tests for nontreponemal antigens except:

A Rapid Plasma Reagin test C T. pallidum complement fixation


B Wassermann test D VDRL

20. Which of the following drugs helps to eradicates dwarf tapeworm (Hymenolepis nana)?

A Pyrantel pamoate C Diethylcarbamazine


B Ivermectin D Praziquantel

21. SV40 is a

A avian leukosis virus C simian cytomegalovirus


B simian polyomavirus D simian immunodeficiency virus

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

22. Regarding Streptococcus pyogenes, spot the correct statements:

A produces nonantigenic hemolysin C streptolysin S is oxygen instable


streptolysin O
D serum ASO titer > 180 units
B streptolysin S combines with indicates infection with S pyogenes
antistreptolysin O

23. Ig M antibodies is involved in which of the following type of hypersensitive immune


reactions?

A Type II hypersensitivity reaction C Type III hypersensitivity reaction


B Type IV hypersensitivity reaction D Type I hypersensitivity reaction

24. Treponema pallidum organism is best visible/detected with

A Transmitted light microscopy C Phase-contrast microscopy


B Dark-field microscopy D Infrared microscopy

25. Not a dimorphic fungus:

A Coccidioides posadasii C Histoplasma capsulatum


B Blastomyces dermalitidis D Cryptococcus gattii

26. What is correct about Polio vaccines?


Note: OPV ? Oral Polio Vaccine, and eIPV ? enhanced (inactivated) polio vaccine.

A eIPV has a greater chance of C trivalent OPV has a higher


reversion to virulence than OPV seroconversion rate than monovalent
OPV
B OPV-induced secretion of IgA is
less than eIPV-induced secretion of D monovalent OPV has a higher
IgA seroconversion rate than trivalent
OPV

27. Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Rat-bite fever?

A Spirillum minor C Tropheryma whipplei


B Bartonella henselae D Borrelia recurrentis

28. The causative agent of Chromoblastomycosis (chromomycosis):

A Hortaea werneckii C Piedraia hortai


B Fonsecaea pedrosoi D Microsporum gypseum

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

29. The causative organism of Murray Valley encephalitis belongs to which genus?

A Phlebovirus C Hantavirus
B Alphavirus D Flavivirus

30. Which of the following Bacteria produce filaments and looks like Fungi?

A Acremonium C Actinomycetes
B Actinomyces D Ascomycetes

31. Indicator organisms for the presence of pathogenic microorganisms in water includes all
except:

A E. coli C Streptococcus bovis


B Staphylococcus aureus D Clostridium perfringenes

32. Madura foot is due to __________ infection.

A Actinomycosis C Actinomyces
B Actinomycetes D all of the above

33. Which of the following diseases leaves a sequelae following resolution?

A Pharyngoconjunctival fever C Norwalk viral gastroenteritis


B Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis D Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

34. Actinomycosis infection is due to:

A Actinomycetemcomitans C Actinomyces israelii


B Actinomadura pelletierii D Actinomycetes

35. Complement activation pathway that plays an important role in innate, nonspecific
immune defense against invasion by bacteria and fungi:

A lectin complement pathway C classical complement pathway


B alternative complement pathway D both a & b

36. Treatment of choice of Fascioliasis due to Fasciola hepatica is:

A Pyrantel pamoate C Surgical excision


B Diethylcarbamazine D Bithionol

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

37. The causative organism of Lyme disease:

A B. burgdorferi C B. fragilis
B B. malayi D B. recurrentis

38. Which of the following serotypes of C. trachomatis is the causative agent of Inclusion
conjunctivitis of the newborn?

A C. trachomatis A C C. trachomatis D
B C. trachomatis L1 D C. trachomatis B

39. Which of the following is not an Opsonin?

A fibronectin C complement C3b


B complement C5a D mannose-binding protein

40. The vector of Kyasanur Forest disease:

A Fleas C Tick
B Mosquito D Mites

41. A tick-borne viral disease:

A Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever C Korean hemorrhagic fever


B Lassa fever D Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome

42. Monilinia fructicola belongs to:

A Basidiomycetes C Ascomycetes
B Chytridiomycetes D Zygomycetes

43. Regarding Ebola viruses, all of the following statements are correct except:

A negative sense single-stranded RNA C assembly: budding from plasma


virus membrane
B belongs to Flaviviridae family D replication: cytoplasm

44. Chinese liver fluke is

A Echinostoma ilocanum C Clonorchis sinensis


B Hymenolepis diminuta D Opisthorchis felineus

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

45. Francisella tularensis is resistant to:

A Streptomycin C Penicillin
B Gentamicin D Tetracycline

46. Which of the following of Plasmodium develops and differentiates into male and female
gametocytes?

A Trophozoites C Merozoites
B Sporozoites D Schizonts

47. The virus that causes Banzi belongs to Genus:

A Alphavirus C Flavivirus
B Hantavirus D Phlebovirus

48. Regarding Serologic tests for Syphilis, spot the incorrect statements:

A VDRL remains positive for life C antigen in FTA-ABS is killed T.


pallidum
B antigen in RPR is beef heart
cardiolipin D FTA-ABS does not decline with
treatment

49. According to modified Jone's criteria, which of the following is not a major manifestation
of Rheumatic fever?

A Carditis C Chorea
B Arthralgia D Erythema marginatum

50. Oral metronidazole is the treatment of choice for

A Bacterial Vaginosis C Ascariasis


B Trichinosis D Amebic dysentery

51. All of the following are associated with Streptococcus pyogenes except:

A neuraminidase C lipoteichoic acid


B coagulase D M protein

52. Basidomycetes:

A Filobasidiella neoformans C Claviceps purpurea


B Neurospora crassa D Agaricus campestris

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

53. Correct about Tetanus and its causative organism Clostridium tetani:

A tetanospasmin is a potent exotoxin C tetanospasmin is heat stable


neurotoxin
B C. tetani is a nonmotile pleomorphic
organism D tetanolysin has a MW of 150000
daltons

54. The enzymes produced by Clostridium perfringens include all except:

A coagulase C protease
B lecithinase D collagenase

55. Which of the following microorganisms causes indolent cutaneous infections?

A Mycobacterium kansasii C Mycobacterium ulcerans


B Mycobacterium scrofulaceum D Mycobacterium abscessus

56. Croup is associated with:

A Rhinovirus C Parainfluenza virus


B Coxsackievirus D Adenovirus

57. A rodent-borne viral disease:

A West Nile fever C Lassa fever


B Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever D Rift Valley fever

58. True about Atypical Mycobacteria:

A Group IV includes Mycobacterium C Group II includes Mycobacterium


abscessus ulcerans
B pathogenic only in animals D classified according to Lancefield
groups

59. Which of the following fungi are Dermatophytes?

A Trichosporon beigelii C Blastomyces dermatitidis


B Microsporum gypseum D Geotrichum candidum

60. Penicillin G is not effective against:

A S. bovis C S. pneumoniae
B E. faecalis D C. perfringens

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

61. Nocardiae are:

A Atypical mycobacteria C Spirochaete


B Fungi D Actinomycetes

62. All of the following antibiotics are derived from the Streptomyces spp. except:

A clavulanic acid C tetracyclines


B vancomycin D erythromycin

63. Which among the given following is a 'threadworm'?

A Dracunculus medinensis C Necator americanus


B Strongyloides stercoralis D Enterobius vermicularis

64. Green sulfur bacteria belongs to:

A Eubacteria C Archaeabacteria
B Halobacterium D Algae

65. The most common causes of actinomycetoma (mycetoma):

A Actinomyces israelii C Actinomycetem comitans


B Actinomyces naeslundii D Actinomadura madurae

66. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae is the cause of which disease in humans?

A Marsh fever C Weil's disease


B Ft. Bragg fever D Swineherds disease

67. Drug of first choice for the treatment of hookworm infestation due to Ancylostoma
duodenale:

A Ivermectin C Thiabendazole
B Mebendazole D Diethylcarbamazine

68. All of the following are arboviral diseases except:

A Nipah viral encephalitis C Dengue


B Japanese B encephalitis D Yellow fever

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

69. Dwarf tapeworm that infests small intestine is:

A Trichinella spiralis C Hymenolepis nana


B Hymenolepis diminuta D Dipylidium caninum

70. Haemocin is produced by:

A H. influenzae C S. aureus
B E. coli D P. aeruginosa

71. Match the following parasites with the corresponding mode of transmission:
1. Clonorchis sinensis 1. Bite of deer flies
2. Trichinella spiralis 2. Uncooked pork
3. Paragonimus westermani 3. Raw crabs
4. Loa loa 4. Undercooked freshwater fish
5. Onchocerca volvulus 5. Bite of black fly Simulium

72. Which of the following organisms is generally identified by coagulase production?

A Staphylococcus epidermidis C Streptococcus viridans


B Streptococcus pyogenes D Staphylococcus aureus

73. Which of the following is a nonenterococcal Group D Streptococci?

A Streptococcus pyogenes C Streptococcus bovis


B Streptococcus agalactiae D Streptococcus viridans

74. Example of Type III hypersensitivity reaction:

A Erythroblastosis fetalis C Serum sickness


B Allergic contact dermatitis D Tuberculin test

75. Which of the following typically infects cattle?

A Brucella canis C Brucella suis


B Brucella melitensis D Brucella abortus

76. All of the following are examples of organisms that causes Zoonoses except:

A Streptobacillus moniliformis C Brucella melitensis


B Trypanosoma cruzi D Streptomyces coelicolor

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

77. Histolysain which is a cysteine protease, is secreted by:

A Histoplasma capsulatum C Entamoeba histolytica


B Ancylostoma duodenale D Schistosoma haematobium

78. Which of the following bears cytotoxic character of hypersensitivity reactions?

A Type II hypersensitivity C Type IV hypersensitivity


B Type I hypersensitivity D Type III hypersensitivity

79. The source of Vancomycin is:

A Streptomyces peucetius C Ammi majus


B Anamirta cocculus D Amycolatopsis orientalis

80. All of the following are DNA viruses except:

A Coxsackievirus C Epstein-Barr virus


B Herpes simplex virus type 1 D Adenovirus

81. Regarding DNA-dependent DNA polymerase, which of the following statements is/are
incorrect?

A it uses DNA template for catalysis C catalyse polymerisation only in 3'


? 5' direction
B catalyse polymerisation only in
5'? 3' direction D replication is continuous on both
strands

82. The Human Influenza virus isolates includes all of the following information except:

A strain number C year of isolation


B host of origin D geographic origin

83. In complement fixation test:

A immune complex fixes the C complement-bound immune


complement and sequesters it complex causes hemolysis
B complement fixes the immune D anti-erythrocyte antibody plus
complex and sequesters it immune complex causes hemolysis

84. The causative agent of undulant fever, or Malta fever is:

A B. bronchiseptica C B. melitensis
B F. tularensis D B. malayi

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

85. Ascomyecetes:

A Cryptococcus neoformans C Rhizopus stolonifer


B Claviceps purpurea D Hicidiomyces apophysatus

86. Regarding serological tests for Syphilis:

A TPI is a test for nontreponemal C FTA-ABS is a test for treponemal


antigens antigens
B TPHA is a test for treponemal D VDRL is a test for nontreponemal
antibodies antibodies

87. The causative agent of Lymphogranuloma venereum:

A Chlamydia trachomatis C Klebsiella granulomatis


B Haemophilus ducreyi D Sporothrix schenckii

88. Which among the given following is a Helminth?

A Trypanosoma cruzi C Entamoeba histolytica


B Schistosoma haematobium D Giardia lamblia

89. One of the late sequelae of streptococcus pyogenes infection:

A acute glomerulonephritis C pyoderma


B sore throat D erysipelas

90. All of the following microorganisms secrete neurotoxins except:

A Corynebacterium diphtheriae C Clostridium tetani


B Clostridium botulinum D Clostridium difficile

91. Yellow fever virus is a member of the genus

A Orthobunyavirus C Alphavirus
B Phlebovirus D Flavivirus

92. Regarding phagocytosis spot the incorrect statements:

A phagocytosis can occur in the C phagocytosis is greatly enhanced by


absence of serum antibodies opsonins
B granulocytic phagocytes live longer D phagocytosis causes increased
than macrophages glycolysis

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

93. Which of the following statements about nongonococcal urethritis is/are incorrect?

A causative organism is Chlamydia C 50% of women are asymptomatic


trachomatis
D dark inclusion bodies characteristic
B 50% of cases of NGU are due to of Chlamydia trachomatis
ureaplasma urealyticum

94. Lymphokines and macrophages are involved in which type of hypersensitivity reactions?

A Type I hypersensitivity reaction C Type IV hypersensitivity reaction


B Type III hypersensitivity reaction D Type II hypersensitivity reaction

95. All of the following primary exposure to infection provides lifelong immunity to
reinfections except in:

A Infectious mononucleosis C Herpangina


B Chicken pox D Measles

96. Zika virus belongs to Family:

A Bunyaviridae C Reoviridae
B Filoviridae D Flaviviridae

97. An extracellular protein that binds to prothrombin in host cells to form staphylothrombin

A Neuraminidase C Coagulase
B Hyaluronidase D Staphylokinase

98. All of the following are dimorphic fungi except:

A Histoplasma capsulatum C Penicillium marneffei


B Cryptococcus neoformans D Sporothrix schenckii

99. In Heterophyiasis, the parasite Heterophyes heterophyes infects which organ systems of
humans?

A Liver C Lymph nodes


B Small intestine D Subcutaneous

100. The causative organism of necrotizing fasciitis due to flesh eating bacteri is:

A Clostridium perfringens C Streptococcus pyogenes


B Staphylococcus aureus D Klebsiella oxytoca

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MCQ-Series Practice Test III Microbiology

Disclaimer: This question series is a mock test for practice. Students can undertake the
exam under time settings. This mock test is designed to recap critical and essential
facts related to Pre-clinical science domains. Questions are based on theoretical
understanding of the topics which links to bedside clinical approach.

Please note: Multiple Choice Questions with inaccurate language or wrong choices
may better be left unanswered. This practice series is available free to download, and
designed for the benefit of graduate and post-graduate medical students.

Every attempt has been made to validate each and every question/answer. All
remaining errors are deeply regretted. Author will not be held responsible for any
errors. Please consult the standard textbooks given in the reference section for
any discrepancy.

Reference Textbooks:
1. Medical Microbiology: Jawetz, Melnick & Adelberg's, 24th Edition, Lange
McGraw-Hill publications
2. Microbiology: Prescott M. Lansing (Ed): Prescott- Harley- Klein, 5th Edition
McGraw-Hill publications

Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

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