Table of Contents
PREFACE ............................................................................................................................................. 4
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2013: (COMPLETE QUESTION PAPER) ........ 20
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL EXAM 2012: (COMPLETE QUESTION PAPER) ..... 118
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Introduction to SSC
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Notification
Syllabus, Selection Procedure, Exam Pattern and Tips and Strategies
Fully solved Question Papers of 2013 and 2012
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(i) Group B posts in the various Ministries/Departments of the Govt. of India and
their Attached and Subordinate Offices and
(ii) Group C posts in the various Ministries/Departments of the Govt. of India and
their Attached and Subordinate Offices.
SSC Conducts both Open Level and Departmental Exams for the recruitment.
1. Combined Graduate Level Examination Assistants ,in CSS,AFHQ, MEA etc, Inspectors in Central Excise/Preventive
Officer/Income Tax, Inspector of Posts, Sub Inspector in CBI, Divl Accountants,
Auditors,UDC etc
3. Statistical Investigators (SSS) Grade IV Statistical Investigators (SSS( Grade IV in Deptt. of Statistice & PI
Examination
4. Junior Engineers(Civil & Elect) Examination Junior Engineers (Civil & Elect) in CPWD/Deptt of Posts,Military Engineering Service
7. Deputy Field Officer (Cab Sectt) Examination Deputy Field Officer(Cabinet Sectt)
8. Data Entry Operator(DEO) Examination
Data Entry Operator(DEO)
Staff Selection Commission will conduct the Combined Graduate Level Examination, 2013 for
the recruitment to the different posts. The Graduation from a recognized University is the
minimum Educational Qualification for the examination. The eligible candidate can apply for
the posts before 15 February 2013.
IMPORTANT DATES
Opening Date for Online Registration: 18 January 2014
Closing Date for Online Registration: 14 February 2014
Date of Examination: 27 April 2014 and 4 May 2014
NAMES OF POSTS
Assistant Central Secretariat Service
Assistant Central Vigilance Commission
Assistant Intelligence Bureau Group
Assistant Ministry of Railway Group
Assistant Ministry of External Affairs Group
Assistant Ministry of External Affairs Group
Assistant AFHQ Group
Assistant Other Ministries/ Departments/Organisations
Assistant Other Ministries/ Departments/Organisations
Inspector of Income Tax CBDT
Inspector, (Central Excise) CBEC
Inspector (Preventive Officer)
Inspector (Examiner)
Assistant Enforcement Officer: Directorate of Enforcement, Department of Revenue
Sub Inspectors Central Bureau of Investigation
Inspector of Posts Department of Post
Divisional Accountant Offices under CAG
Statistical Investigator Gr.II M/Statistics & Prog Implementation
Inspector Central Bureau of Narcotics Group B
Auditor Offices under C&AG
Auditor Offices under CGDA
Auditor Offices under CGA & others
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
Accountant/ Junior Accountant Offices under C&AG
Accountant/ Junior Accountant Offices under CGA & others
Upper Division Clerk Central Govt. Offices/Ministries other than CSCS cadres
Tax Assistant CBDT
Tax Assistant CBEC
Compiler Registrar General of India
Sub-Inspector Central Bureau of Narcotics
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION
Compiler: Bachelors Degree from any recognized University with Economics or Statistics or
Mathematics as compulsory or Elective subject.
Statistical Investigator Grade II: Bachelors Degree with Statistics as one of the main subjects
or
Bachelors Degree with Mathematics (with Statistics as a papers studied in one year/two
years/all three years as the case may be) as one of the main subjects or
Bachelors Degree with Economics (with Statistics as a paper studied in one year/two years/all
the three years as the case may be) as one of the main subjects or
Bachelors Degree with Commerce (with Statistics as a paper studied in one year/two years/all
the three years as the case may be) as one of the main subjects
AGE LIMIT
SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
The candidate can apply through online and offline mode of application and registration before
15 February.
APPLICATION FEE
Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, Physically
Handicapped, and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation are exempted from paying application
fee, as per extant government orders
SELECTION PROCEDURE
The candidates will be selected on the basis of Written Papers prescribed for different posts
and interview. After this, the merit list of candidates will be prepared by the commission.
Tier -III -- Personality Test cum Interview/Computer Proficiency Test/ Skill Test
(wherever applicable)/ Document Verification & Descriptive/on-line test of qualifying
nature.
Tier 1 (Posts for which interview is prescribed other than Statistical Investigator Grade 2)
Tier 2 (Posts for which interview is prescribed other than Statistical Investigator Grade 2)
The Computer Proficiency Test (CPT) will be required for the post of Assistant CSS only, and for
the same the total marks will be 700. For posts, where no interview is prescribed the total
marks will be 600.
Candidates qualifying in Tier 2 of the examination, for the computer proficiency test and
interview for the posts of Assistant in CSS, interview for the other interview posts, Data Entry
Skill Test for posts of Tax Assistant and document verification for other non interview posts, will
be subjected to a short description paper/online test of not more than one hours duration with
questions drawn from English Language and Comprehension, Quantitative Abilities and
General Awareness.
The examination will be qualifying in nature and will not be taken into account for determining
the position of the candidates in the merit order.
Students must also note that there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong
answer in Tier 1, and in Tier 2, there will be negative marking of 0.25 marks in paper 2 and 0.50
marks in paper 1 and paper 3 for each wrong answer.
PERSONALITY TEST/INTERVIEW
For posts for which Interview cum Personality Test is prescribed, the Personality Test/
interview will carry a maximum of 100 marks.
NOTE-I: The Commission, at its discretion may fix different minimum qualifying marks in
interview for General and Reserved category candidates.
NOTE-II : The interview will be held at the Commissions Regional /Sub Regional Offices of the
Commission or at any other place as decided by the Commission.
NOTE-III : SC/ST candidates called for interview will be paid TA as per Govt. Orders. However,
no TA is payable to any candidate for appearing in the written examination.
SKILL TEST: FOR THE POST OF TAX ASSISTANTS (CENTRAL EXCISE & INCOME TAX)
Data Entry Speed Test (DEST) at 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depression per hour on
Computer.
The Data Entry Speed Skill Test at 2000 (two thousand) key depressions for a duration of 15
(fifteen) minutes will be of qualifying nature. Computer will be provided by the Commission at
the Centre/venue notified for the purpose. Candidates shall not be allowed to bring their own
Key-board.
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
NOTE-I: The Skill test will be conducted in the manner decided by the Commission for the
purpose.
NOTE-II: Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the
written examination as may be fixed by the Commission at their discretion, will be eligible to
appear in the SKILL TEST. The SKILL TEST will be held at the Commissions Regional/Sub
Regional Offices or at other Centres as may be decided by the Commission.
NOTE-III: EXEMPTION FROM SKILL TEST FOR OH CANDIDATES: OH CANDIDATES OPTING FOR
THE POST OF TAX ASSISTANT IN CBDT ARE EXEMPTED FOR APPEARING IN SKILL TEST. OH
CANDIDATES OPTING FOR POST OF TAX ASSISTANT IN CBEC ARE NOT EXEMPTED FROM SKILL
TEST. HH AND VH CANDIDATES ARE NOT ELIGIBLE FOR EXEMPTION FROM THE SKILL TEST.
NOTE-IV: Detailed instructions regarding Skill Test will be sent by the Regional /Sub Regional
Offices of the Commission to eligible candidates declared qualified for appearing in Skill Test.
Questions in this section will be asked for testing the candidates general awareness of the
environment around him and its application to society. The several questions will specially
designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of every day observations
and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of any educated person. The test
will also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining
History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
The questions in this section will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers
and number sense of the candidate. The main scope of the test will be computation of whole
numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio 8
Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business,
Mixture and Allegation, Time and distance, Time 8 Work, Basic algebraic identities of School
Algebra 8 Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of
centers, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles
subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle,
Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular
Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with
triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard
Identities, Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar
diagram and Pie chart.
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
The question will be asked to judge the candidates ability to understand correct English, his
basic comprehension and writing ability, etc.
The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number
sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers,
decimals ,fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion,Square
roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and
Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra &
Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres,
Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by
chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular
Polygons , Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres,
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base,
Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angles,
Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart
Questions in this components will be designed to test the candidates understanding and
knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in the blanks, synonyms,
antonyms, spelling/detecting mis-spelt words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution,
improvement of sentences, active/passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/indirect
narration, shuffling of sentence parts, shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage &
comprehension passage.
Collection Classification and Presentation of Statistical Data Primary and Secondary data,
Methods of data collection; Tabulation of data; Graphs and charts; Frequency distributions;
Diagrammatic presentation of frequency distributions.
Measures of Central Tendency- Common measures of central tendency mean median and
mode; Partition values- quartiles, deciles, percentiles.
Moments, Skewness and Kurtosis Different types of moments and their relationship;
meaning of skewness and kurtosis; different measures of skewness and kurtosis.
Correlation and Regression Scatter diagram; simple correlation coefficient; simple regression
lines; Spearmans rank correlation; Measures of association of attributes; Multiple regression;
Multiple and partial correlation (For three variables only).
Sampling Theory Concept of population and sample; Parameter and statistic, Sampling and
non-sampling errors; Probability and non-probability sampling techniques(simple random
sampling, stratified sampling,
Statistical Inference - Point estimation and interval estimation, Properties of a good estimator,
Methods of estimation (Moments method, Maximum likelihood method, Least squares
method), Testing of hypothesis, Basic concept of testing, Small sample and large sample tests,
Tests based on Z, t, Chi-square and F statistic, Confidence intervals.
Analysis of Variance - Analysis of one-way classified data and two-way classified data.
Index Numbers - Meaning of Index Numbers, Problems in the construction of index numbers,
Types of index number, Different formulae, Base shifting and splicing of index numbers, Cost of
living Index Numbers, Uses of Index Numbers.
NOTE-I : Questions in Paper-I will be of 10th standard level, Paper-II of 10+2 level and Paper-III
of graduation level.
NOTE- II: (i)The Commission will have full discretion to fix separate minimum qualifying marks
in each of the papers in Tier II and in the aggregate of all the papers separately for each
category of candidates (viz. SC/ST/OBC /PH/ExS/General (UR) Only those candidates who
qualify in all the papers as well as in the aggregate would be eligible to be considered for
being called for Interview and/or Skill Test.
(ii)There will be different set of Questions for Visually Handicapped (VH) candidates in Paper-
I-Quantitative Ability, which shall not have any component of Map/Graphs/Statistical Data/
Diagrams/Figures/Geometrical problems/Pie-chart etc. However, components of other
papers will be the same as that for general candidates.
NOTE-III: Any representation to key of the examination will be scrutinized with the help of
experts, wherever necessary, and evaluation in that case will be done with modified answer
key. The decision of the Commission in this regard will be final and no further representation
will be entertained.
Jagranjosh.com is an ideal destination for the candidates where, the candidates get complete
information about all banking exam like notifications, previous year question papers, Model
Practice sets, Online test, eBooks etc. our banking team develop each and every product by
amalgamating proper ingredients after proper understanding of exam requirement. Here are
some tips and strategies related to all 4 sections of SSC Combined Graduate Level Examination
(Tier I) 2014.
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Each section will have 50 questions with negative marking of .25 marks for each wrong answer.
Here are some tips and strategies related to English Language, which will help the students to
score well in the examination.
English Language Section is included in SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam to test your English
language ability.
The candidates should have good knowledge of rules of Grammar and its correct usage in
right perspective.
Questions from the topics like Reading Comprehensions, Sentence Arrangement, Synonyms,
Antonyms, spelling test, common error, fillers etc are being asked.
The rules of part of speech must be understood well as they are highly required to solve
grammar part.
The candidate should give attention to the various exceptions to the grammatical rules also as
it is highly helpful in spotting Errors type questions.
They should have good reading ability for attempting questions of Reading Comprehension.
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Quantitative Aptitude section will have 50 questions with negative marking of .25 marks for
each wrong answer. Here are some tips and strategies related to Quantitative Aptitude, which
will help the students to score well in the examination.
Quantitative Aptitude section generally includes questions from topic like Simplification,
Approximation, Profit and Loss Percentage, Discount, Average, Data Interpretation, Time and
Work, Trigonometry, Ratio Proportion, Square Roots, Decimal and Fractions.
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
Knowledge of Basic Mathematics from class V to X is required for QA Section of SSC
Combined Higher Secondary Exam. In Mathematics, questions from Trigonometry,Algebra and
Geometry are asked.
The candidates should know the basic concepts applied in each chapter. Application of those
concepts with right method is the key to solving questions.
By heart learning of formulas and their application would be perfect way to solve many
questions.
Basic calculation and approximation concept should be strong as they directly drive the
candidate to right option. A small amount of time is to be devoted for learning fast calculation
methods including Vedic maths. It helps in saving time devoted for each question.
More and More Practice of Model Questions and Previous Year Questions will be very helpful
for the candidates in scoring well in the exam.
General Intelligence & Reasoning section will have 50 questions with negative marking of .25
marks for each wrong answer. Here are some tips and strategies related to General Intelligence
& Reasoning, which will help the students to score well in the examination.
The General Intelligence and Reasoning occupies prominent position in almost all the
competitive examinations. General Intelligence and Reasoning is variously rendered as Mental
Ability, Reasoning Ability, Mental Aptitude, Analytical Skills, and Aptitude.
This questions in this section broadly classified into both verbal and non verbal type.
a) Analogy
b) Classification
c) Word Formation/Building
d) Ranking/Arrangement
e) Blood Relationship
g) Series
h) Mathematical Problem
l) Trends
n) Coding Decoding
o) Problem Solving
q) Syllogism
Verbal Reasoning incorporates in itself the skills in language and the capacity to infer
something logically means reasoned thinking or reasoned conclusion.
a) Series
b) Analogy
c) Classification/Grouping
d) Embedded Figure
f) Completion of Figure
This section is a part of abstract reasoning. It is meant to test your ability to argue,
reasoning and thinking and finally arrive to valid conclusion with the help of different
figures provided in options.
Here, persons logic and thinking should be in right directions because once he/she start
thinking in wrong direction
GENERAL AWARENESS
The general Awareness Section of SSC-CGL Exam(Tier-I) Question Paper is aimed at testing the
general awareness of the candidate about national and international affairs and matters that
happens in everyday life. The questions from topics like History, Culture, Geography, Science,
Economics, General Policy and Scientific Research would be asked in this section. Therefore, to
prepare for this section, a candidate has to take into consideration all these topics and should
try to ensure a fair amount of knowledge of the same.
Economics 7
Total 50
For preparation of history part, the candidates are required to go through historical
events (Dates, Person involved, and places of happening, and final outcome)
Make a good notes of all the important events of pasts and try to learn them by heart
The preparation of geography and science involves continuous revision of the important
concepts, facts, problems that you would have marked during book reading.
For this, the candidates should make notes for important discoveries, life processes,
Cells, Environment, Biodiversity, Ecosystem, Nutrition, Atmosphere, Climate, Soil, Land
and Resources
Thorough revision of all the topics will make the candidates more confident.
Economics
Economics is one the important section in General Awareness Section of the Question
Paper.
The candidates should have good knowledge of Basic Economy, National income and
aggregates, Demand, Supply, Foreign Exchange, Economic Development, Balance of
Payment and National and International Financial Institutions etc.
One should thoroughly learn and revise policies, programs, latest updating in economy
to score well in exam
Latest Scientific researches with the name of researchers and its main implications
should be properly prepared for CGL Tier 1 Exam.
Prepare notes of important banking news, economy news and corporate affairs and
revise them meticulously to keep yourselves perfect in General Awareness
Keep an eye on latest happenings and read a daily newspaper to yourselves updated
with latest news.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) In the following questions, from the given alternative words, select the
word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
1. DISTANCE
(a) DANCE
(b) STAND
(c) SANE
(d) TEASE
2. RESURRECTIONIST
(a) TOURIST
(b) NOISE
(c) SORCERER
(d) TENDER
3. COMMERCIALISM
(a) CROME
(b) LANCER
(c) MISER
(d) OSCAR
(a) XLHOJVIM
(b) MLTBDCRI
(d) HLTBNCRI
(a) VQOG
(b) VKOG
(c) VOKG
(d) VGKO
(a) YMPPRT
(b) YMPBGP
(c) YMPBFP
(d) YMBPPG
Directions (Q. Nos. 7 and 8) In the following questions, which of the following interchange of
signs would make the given equation correct?
7. 10 + 10 10 10 10 = 10
(a) + and
(b) + and
(c) + and
(d) and +
8. (8 8) + 8 32 = 64
(a) , +,
(b) ,, +
(c) +,, +
(d) +,,
25 A 37 C 2 B 4 R 1 =?
(a) 32
(b) 35
(c) 30
(d) 27
Directions (Q. Nos. 10-15) In the following questions, select the related letter/word/ number
form the given alternatives.
(a) Gardener
(b) Mason
(c) Blacksmith
(d) Guard
(a) Sun
(b) Planet
(d) Round
(a) JCDU
(b) BCJU
(c) EVFU
(d) XCWD
(a) OL
(b) KP
(c) PK
(d) YZ
14. AG : IO :: EK : ?
(a) LR
(b) MS
(c) PV
(d) SY
15. 25 : 175 :: 32 : ?
(a) 150
(b) 170
(c) 162
(d) 160
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-21) In the following questions, select the one which is different from the
other three responses?
16.
(a) Shimla
(b) Darjeeling
(c) Ooty
(d) Agra
(a) Foal
(b) Hen
(c) Lamb
(d) Leveret
18.
(a) BADC
(b) XWZY
(c) VUST
(d) NMPO
19.
(a) DCFG
(b) FEHI
(c) JILM
(d) HGJL
20.
(a) (1, 0)
(b) (2, 3)
(c) (3, 8)
21.
22. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words
in ascending order?
1. Accommodation
2. Perception
3. Scheme formation
4. Assimilation
5. Sensation
(a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
(b) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
23. Which of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following starting
from the inner layer?
1. Hydrosphere
2. Atmosphere
3. Biosphere
4. Lithosphere
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-27) In the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing.
Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series?
(a) ABC
(b) DEF
(c) MNO
(d) INS
25. B O C N D M E ? ?
(a) LF
(b) OP
(c) KL
(d) EF
26. 7, 2 = 59 ; 5, 3 = 28 ; 9, 1 = 810 ; 2, 1 = 13 ; 5, 4 = ?
(a) 19
(b) 9
(c) 20
(d) 239
(a) 2600
(b) 3240
(c) 3040
(d) 2400
28.
81 64 16
4 9 49
36 16 25
108 96 ?
(a) 230
(b) 140
(c) 120
(d) 410
29.
25 5 5
30 5 6
35 ? 5
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
24 51 67
2 4 6
5 7 5
53 211 ?
(a) 135
(b) 235
(c) 247
(d) 407
31. G is fatter than H but not as fat as M. Q is also not as fat as M. Who is the most lean
person in the group?
(a) Q
(b) H
(c) G
(d) M
32. A man walks 15 m South. Then, turning to his right he walks 15 m. Then, turning to his
left, he walks 10 m. Again turns to his left and walks 15 m. How far is he from his initial
position?
(a) 10 m
(b) 25 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 60 m
(a) M
(b) P
(c) N
(d) Q
34. If + stands for multiplication, < stands for division, stands for subtraction,
stands for addition and stands for greater than. Identify which expression is
correct?
(a) 20 4 4 + 8 < 2 26
(b) 20 8 + 15 < 5 9 8
(d) 20 < 5 + 25 10 2 96
35. One day, Nita left home and cycled 10 km Southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and
turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometers
will he have to cycle to reach her home straight?
(a) 10 km
(b) 15 km
(c) 20 km
(d) 25 km
36. Rajat moves from his office to the canteen straight at a distance of 12 m. Then, he
turned left and walked for 2 m. Then, he turns left again and walks straight for 12 m.
How far is he from his office?
(a) 10 m
(b) 12 m
(c) 8 m
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
(d) 2 m
Directions (Q. Nos. 37 and 38) In the following question, two/ four statements are given
followed by two/four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Your have to decide which of
the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
37. Statements
Conclusions
38. Statements
Conclusions
39. Which of the following cubes can be created by folding the given figure?
Question Figure
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 6
41. Identify the response figure from which the question figures pieces have been cut.
Question Figure
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In the above figure, the circle stand for employed, the square stands for social worker,
the triangle stands for illiterate and the rectangle stands for truthful. Employed, truth
and illiterate social workers are indicated by which region?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
(a) 37
(b) 45
(c) 47
(d) 57
In the above diagram, parallelogram represents women, triangle represents the sub-
inspectors of police and circle represents the graduates. Which numbered area
represents women graduate sub-inspectors of police?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 8
(d) 13
Directions (Q. Nos. 45 and 46) In the following questions which answer figure will complete the
pattern in the question figure?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Question Figure
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Question Figure
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Question Figure
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Matrix I
0 1 2 3 4
0 A B C D E
1 D C B A E
2 B A D C E
3 D B C A E
4 C D A E B
Matrix Ii
5 6 7 8 9
5 P Q R S T
6 Q S P R T
7 P T R S Q
8 Q S P R T
9 T P S Q R
51. Which one of the following is responsible for the working of Newton's colour disc
experiment?
(a) force
(c) acceleration
(d) velocity
(a) Einstein
(b) Bohr
(c) Plank
(d) S N Bose
(a) EOVAC
(b) ONIVAC
(c) (c)ENIAC
(d) EDSAC
56. Which among the following standard protocols is the most widely used by the Internet?
(a) HITP
(b) TCP/lP
(d) SLIP
57. The outer skin most of the crustaceans are made up of a carbohydrate. This
carbohydrate is
(a) cellulose
(b) galactose
(c) chitin
(d) starch
59. When a metal is heated in a flame, the electrons absorb energy and jump to higher
energy state. On coming back to the lower energy state, they emit light, which we can
observe in
(d) Fluorescence
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Testosterone
(c) Estradiol
(d) Estral
(c) M S Swaminathan
63. The Particulate Matter (PM - 10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered
out during the process of
(a) Coughing
(b) Sneezing
(c) a and b
(a) Rajasthan
(a) Australia
(b) Indonesia
(a) Thailand
(b) Philippines
(c) China
(d) Tibet
67. BCCI named the "Indian Cricketer of the year 2011-12" to honour
(d) Yuvraj
(a) 1 January
(b) 15 January
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
(c) 30 January
(d) 9 January
70. The animal who can consume more salt among the following is
(a) Sheep
(b) Camel
(c) Donkey
(d) Dog
72. Tick the correct option with regards to the contribution towards GDP (Gross Domestic
Product) from Agriculture
(a) Eretrea
(b) Ethiopia
(c) Sudan
(d) Nigeria
(a) Pune
(b) Aurangabad
(c) Ahmadnagar
(d) Mumbai
76. Which Five Year Plan is not correct among the following?
77. The ordinary and maximum tolerance limit of sound by human being is
(a) 50 db to 70 db
(b) 60 db to 80 db
(c) 65 db to 75 db
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
(d) 70 db to 85 db
(a) Axion
(b) Proposition
(c) Hypothesis
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2004
(d) 2006
(a) 1950
(b) 1949
(c) 1951
(d) 1952
(a) Capital
(b) Land
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(c) Labour
83. The National Emergency in India declared by the President of India due to the external
aggression or armed revolt through
(a) 1950
(b) 1952
(c) 1951
(d) 1953
(a) Mahayana
(b) Hinayana
(c) Digambar
(d) Theravad
90. 'Yosemite' is a
(a) River
(b) Peak
(c) Waterfall
(d) Dam
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1977
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
(d) 1979
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Salem
(c) Vishakhapatnam
(d) Mangalore
93. Which two of the following are connected by the North South corridor?
94. The pollutants which move downward with percolating ground water are called
(a) Leachates
(b) Pollutates
(c) Earthites
(d) Percolates
96. Which one of the following is the ideal food for newborn babies?
(a) Water
(b) Sugar
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
(c) Honey
(d) Milk
(a) Lipids
(b) Protein
(c) DNA
(d) RNA
(b) Stomach
(c) Ileum
(d) Colon
99. Emulsification is
(a) Morphology
(b) Anatomy
(c) Classification
11
(a) 4
49
(b) 4
(c) 0
49
(d) 4
(a) 64
(b) 70
(c) 72
(d) 76
x y
+ and x 2 + y 2 is
y x
(a) xy
(b) xy
3
(c) xy
4
(d) xy
104. In a ABC, the side BC is extended upto D. Such that CD = AC, if BAD = 109 and ACB
= 72, then the value of ABC is
(a) 35
(b) 60
(c) 40
105. Two circles touch each other internally. Their radii are 2 cm and 3cm. The biggest chord
of the greater circle which is outside the inner circle is of length
(a) 2 2cm
(b) 3 2cm
(c) 2 3cm
(d) 4 2cm
106. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. AB and DC are produced to meet at P. If ADC = 70 and
DAB = 60, then the PBC + PCB is
(a) 130
(b) 150
(c) 155
(d) 180
107. From a point P which is at a distance of 13 cm from centre O of a circle of radius 5 cm, in
the same plane, a pair of tangents PQ and PR are drawn to the circle. Area of
quadrilateral PQOR is
(a) 65 cm2
(b) 60 cm2
(c) 30 em2
(d) 90 em2
108. ABCD is a cyclic trapezium with ABDC and AB diameter of the circle. If CAB = 30, then
ADC is
(a) 60
(b) 120
(c) 150
109. ABC is a triangle. The bisectors of the internal angle B and external angle C intersect
at D. If BDC = 50, then A is
(a) 100
(b) 90
(c) 120
(d) 60
110. AB is the chord of a circle with centre O and DOC is a line segment originating from a
point D on the circle and intersecting AB produced at C such that BC = OD. If BCD = 20,
then AOD is equal to
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 60
111. In a circle of radius 17 cm, two parallel chords of lengths 30 cm and 16 cm are drawn. If
both the chords are on the same side of the centre, then the distance between the
chords is
(a) 9 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 23 cm
(d) 11 cm
1 1
112. If sin = cos + = 2 , > > 0 + is an acute angle,
2
then the value B is
(a) 6
(b) 12
(d) 2
113. The fifth term of the sequence for which t1 = 1, t2 = 2 and tn+2 = tn + tn+1 is
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 8
(a) 1
(b) 16
(c) 9
(d) 4
115. A can do a piece of work in 12 days while B alone can do it in 15 days. With the help of
C, they can finish it in 5 days. If they are paid Rs. 960 for the whole work how much
money A gets?
116. Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronal takes 6 h to type 32 pages on a
computer, while Elan takes 5 h to type 40 pages. How much time will they take, working
together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
(a) 7 h 30 min
(b) 8 h
(c) 8 h 15 min
117. One man, 3 women and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 96 h, 2 men and 8 boys can do
it in 80 h, 2 men and 3 women can do it in 120 h. 5 men and 12 boys can do it in
1
(a) 39 11
7
(b) 42 11
7
(c) 43 11
(d) 44 h
118. ABC is a right angled triangle, B being the right angle. Mid-points of BC and AC are
respectively B and A. The ratio of the area of the quadrilateral AA BB to the area of
ABC is
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
119. A square ABCD is inscribed in a circle of unit radius. Semi-circles are described on each
side as a diameter. The area of the region bounded by the four semi-circles and the
circle is
(a) 1 sq unit
(b) 2 sq unit
120. If the perimeters of a rectangle and a square are equal and the ratio of two adjacent
sides of the rectangle is 1 : 2, then the ratio of area of the rectangle and that of the
square is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 8 : 9
121. The interest on a certain sum of money is Rs. 22 and the discount on the same sum for
the same time and at the same rate is Rs. 20, find the sum
122. A retailer purchased radio sets at the rate of Rs. 400 each from a wholesaler. He raised
the price by 30% and then allowed a discount of 8% on each set. His profit will be]
(a) 19%
(b) 78.4%
(c) 22%
(d) 19.6%
123. A reduction in the price of apples enables a person to purchase 3 apples for Rs. 1
instead of Rs. 1.25. What is the percent of reduction in price (approximately)?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
1
(d) 33 3
124. Rs. 700 is divided among A, B, C in such a way that the ratio of the amounts of A and B is
2 : 3 and that of B and C is 4 : 5. Find the amounts (in Rs.) each received, in the order A,
B, C
125. The ratio of monthly incomes of A, B is 6 : 5 and their monthly expenditures are in the
ration 4 : 3. If each of them saves Rs. 400 per month, find the sum of their monthly
incomes
126. A and B have together three times what B and C have, while A, B, C together have Rs. 30
more than that of A. If B has 5 times that of C, then A has
(a) Rs. 60
(b) Rs. 65
(c) Rs. 75
(d) Rs. 45
127. A cricket player after playing 10 tests scored 100 runs in the 11th test. As a result, the
average of his runs is increased by 5. The present average of runs is
(a) 45
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 55
128. A fruit seller buys some oranges at the rate of 4 for Rs. 10 and an equal number more at
5 for Rs. 10. He sells the whole lot at 9 for Rs. 20. What is his loss or gain per cent?
19
(a) 1 81 %
19
(b) 1 81 %
129. 15 L of a mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio 1 : 4. If 3 L of water is mixed in
it, the percentage of alcohol in the new mixture will be
(a) 15
2
(b) 16 3
(c) 17
1
(d) 18 2
130. A man rides at the rate of 18 km/h but stops for 6 min, to change horses at the end of
every 7th km. The time that he will take to cover a distance of 90 km is
(a) 6 h
(b) 6 h 12 min
(c) 6 h 18 min
(d) 6 h 24 min
1
131. A man rows down a river 15 km in 3 h with the stream and returns in 7 . The rate at
2
which he rows in still water is
132. There is 100% increase to an amount in 8 yr, at simple interest. Find the compound
interest of Rs. 8000 after 2 yr at the same rate of interest
133. If the number p is 5 more than q and the sum of the squares of p and q is 55, then the
product of p and q is
(a) 10
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 15
1
134. If + = 4, then the value of
2
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 2
(d) 4
2 + 2 + 2 + 2
135. If a + b + c = 2s, then is equal to
2 + 2 + 2
(a) 2 + 2 + 2
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
1
136. If ( + ) = 1, then the value of 3 3 is
3 3
(a) 3
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 1
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 1
138. A horse is tied to a post by a rope. If the horse moves along a circular path always
keeping the rope stretched and describes 88 m when it has traced out 72 at the centre
22
the length of the rope is = 7
(a) 70 m
(b) 75 m
(c) 80 m
(d) 65 m
(a) 2
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 1
(d) irrational
142. One of the four angles of a rhombus is 60. If the length of each side of the rhombus is,
8 cm, then the length of the longer diagonal is
(a) 8 3
(b) 8 cm
(c) 4 3
8
(d)
3
143. If the arcs of square length in two circles subtend angles of 60 and 75 at their centres
the ratio of their radii is
(a) 3 : 4
(b) 4 : 5
(c) 5 : 4
(d) 3 : 5
Column1
120
100
80
60
Column1
40
20
0
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
144. What is ratio between the maximum production and the minimum production during
the given periods?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 5 : 2
12
10
Number of students
0
10 20 30 40 50
Marks
(a) 33
(b) 32
(c) 43
(d) 42
146. The maximum number of students got the marks in the interval of
(a) 10-20
(b) 20-30
(c) 30-40
(d) 40-50
147. The least number of students got the marks in the interval
(a) 40-50
(b) 20-30
(d) 0-10
148. The ratio of the students obtaining marks in the first and the last interval is
(a) 5 : 4
(b) 6 : 5
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 3 : 4
149. The difference in the amount estimated by the family on interior decoration and
architects fees is
150. .
In a certain country, allocations to various sectors of the yearly budget per Rs. 1000
crore are represented by this pie-diagram. The expenditure (in Rs.) on Agriculture is
Directions (Q. Nos. 151 and 152) In the following questions, four words are given in each
question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
151.
(a) connivance
(b) connivance
(c) connivance
(d) conivence
152.
(a) maintennance
(b) manteinance
(c) maintenance
(d) mentenance
Directions (Q. Nos. 153-162) In the following questions, you have a passage with 10 questions.
Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four
alternatives.
Passage
Cyber Bogeys
It is just as absurd and part of the same syndrome, to try to ban Twitter accounts that parody
despatches from the Prime Minister's Office. To describe such forms of humour and dissent as
'misrepresenting' the PMO-as if Twitterers would take these parodies for genuine despatches
from the PMO-makes the PMO look more ridiculous than its parodists manage to. With the
precedent forsuch action set recently by the Chief Minister of West Bengal, this is yet another
proof that what Bengal thinks today India will think tomorrow. Using the cyber-world for flexing
the wrong muscles is essentially not funny. It might even prove to be quite dangerously
distracting.
(c) ungovernable
(a) the centre should start negotiations with Google, Twitter and Facebook
(b) the centre should help the citizens evacuate their city
(a) Confused
(b) Vague
(c) Iridescent
(d) Glowing
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
156. The author's seriousness' regarding the situation can best be described in the following
sentences. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Our leaders should display their powers of censorship when needed
(b) If this is the official idea of prompt action at a time of crisis among communities,
then Indians have more reason to fear their protectors than the nebulous mischief-
maker of the cyber-world
(d) If a few morphed images and spurious texts can unsettle an entire nation, then there
is something deeply wrong with the nation
(a) genuine
(b) authentic
(c) substantial
(d) fake
(a) twist
(b) jeopardize
(c) ridicule
(d) imitate
(b) sane
(c) insane
(d) insensible
161. The passage suggests different ways of keeping the public busy with 'inessentials'. Pick
the odd one out.
162. The following is a list of statements made by the author of the above passage. Pick the
odd one out.
(a) It is absurd to ban Twitter accounts that parody despatches from the Prime
Minister's Office
(b) Twitterers take these parodies for genuine despatches from the PMO
(c) To describe such forms of humour as 'misrepresenting' the PMO makes the PMO
look more ridiculous
(d) The precedent for such action was set recently by the Chief Minister of West Bengal
Directions (Q. Nos. 163-167) In the following questions/some parts of the sentences have errors
and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose to the
appropriate letter (a, b, c). If a sentence is free from error, your answer is (d).
163. In India (a)/ working woman lead a life of dual responsibilities (b)/ if they are married
and have a family. (c)/ No error (d)
164. Greatly to our surprise (a)/ we find the ringleader (b)/ was lame. (c)/ No error (d)
165. They have (a)/ played a game (b)/ last week. (c)/ No error (d)
166. The teacher made the boys (a)/ to do the sum (b)/ all over again. (c)/ No error (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 168-172) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be
filled with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose
the correct alternative out of the four.
168. Student-parking should be .. , students should not be charged to buy parking stickers.
(a) fined
(b) free
(c) costly
(d) cheap
169. If you have roses growing in your garden, you can make a lovely .... of flowers at home.
(a) bouqutte
(b) bucquete
(c) bouquet
(d) bouquet
171. With the changing times, most of the students have become business like they are ....
and want to take only those courses which they find rewarding ..
(a) idealistic
(b) pragmatic
(c) enthusiastic
(d) partial
(a) a, the, an
(c) the, a, an
Directions (Q. Nos. 173-175) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the
one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
173. Parsimony
(a) Expenditure
(b) Bankruptcy
(c) Bribery
(d) Miserliness
174. Tribulation
(a) Palpitation
(b) Suffering
(c) Weakness
(d) Stimulation
175. The Prime Minister goes on the ramparts of the Red Fort to hoist the National flag.
(a) rompway
(b) staircase
(c) parapet
Directions (Q. Nos. 176-178) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning
to the given word.
176. Lunacy
(a) Sanity
(b) Stupidity
(c) Sensibility
(d) Insanity
177. Obtuse
(b) Transparent
(c) Timid
(d) Blunt
178. Inadvertently
(a) Secretly
(b) Accidentally
(c) Completely
(d) Deliberately
Directions (Q. Nos. 179-183) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom/ Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
(a) urged
(b) dampened
(c) hindered
180. Many politicians in India are not fit to hold a candle to Mahatma Gandhi.
(a) superior
(b) equal
(c) inferior
(d) indifferent
181. She must be paying through the nose for the face left.
182. He is putting the cart before the horse by purchasing furniture before buying a house.
Directions (Q. Nos. 184-193) In the following questions, a sentence/part of the sentence is
underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined sentence/part of the sentence at (a),
(b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
(a) along
(b) towards
(c) on
(d) No improvement
185. 20 km are not a great distance in these days of fast moving vehicles.
(d) No improvement
(b) I adopted
(d) No improvement
187. Hoping not to be disturbed, I sat down in my easy chair to read the book, I won as a
prize.
(d) No improvement
188. If you are living near a market place you should be ready to bear the disturbances
caused by traffic.
(d) No improvement
189. The more they earn, more they spend on luxury items.
(d) No improvement
(a) to insulting me
(b) of insulting me
(d) No improvement
191. A little rail-road engine was empolyed by a station yard for doing small pieces of work.
(d) No improvement
192. From an aesthetic point of view, the painting did not appeal to me.
(a) From the Viewpoint of aesthetics, the painting did not appeal to me.
(c) From an aesthetic point of view, the painting had a little appeal to me
(d) No improvement
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 194-200) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the
one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
194. An apartment building in which each apartment is owned separately by the people living
in it, but also containing shared areas.
(a) Condominium
(b) Multiplex
(c) Duplex
(d) Caravan
(a) Trio
(b) Tritium
(c) Trivet
(d) Triumvirate
(a) Post-mortem
(b) Obituary
(c) Homage
(d) Mortuary
(a) Oblique
(b) Opaque
(c) Optique
(d) Opulant
(a) Taxidermy
(b) Taxonomy
(c) Toxicology
(d) Classicology
(a) Dictator
(b) Tyrant
(c) Popularist
(d) Demagogue
(a) Closophobia
(b) Clusterophobia
(c) Claustrophobia
(d) Liftophobia
1 d 51 c 101 d 151 c
2 d 52 a 102 c 152 c
3 b 53 c 103 a 153 d
4 (*) 54 d 104 a 154 a
5 b 55 c 105 d 155 b
6 b 56 b 106 a 156 a
7 c 57 c 107 b 157 d
8 d 58 d 108 b 158 c
9 c 59 c 109 a 159 c
10 a 60 c 110 d 160 b
11 b 61 a 111 b 161 c
12 d 62 c 112 b 162 b
13 d 63 c 113 d 163 b
14 b 64 b 114 a 164 b
15 d 65 d 115 d 165 a
16 b 66 c 116 c 166 b
17 d 67 c 117 c 167 c
18 c 68 c 118 c 168 b
19 d 69 (*) 119 b 169 d
20 d 70 b 120 d 170 c
21 a 71 d 121 a 171 b
22 d 72 a 122 d 172 c
23 a 73 b 123 a 173 d
24 d 74 c 124 b 174 b
25 a 75 b 125 c 175 c
26 a 76 d 126 b 176 a
27 a 77 d 127 c 177 a
28 b 78 d 128 a 178 d
29 d 79 d 129 b 179 a
30 d 80 a 130 b 180 b
31 b 81 c 131 c 181 b
32 b 82 c 132 d 182 a
33 (*) 83 a 133 c 183 b
34 c 84 b 134 b 184 b
35 b 85 d 135 c 185 a
36 d 86 c 136 a 186 b
37 d 87 c 137 c 187 a
1. (d) Due to absence of letter 'E' in the main word, the word 'TEASE' cannot be formed.
2. (d) Due to absence of letter 'D' in the main word, the word 'TENDER' cannot be formed.
3. (b) Due to absence of letter 'N' in the main word, the word 'LANCER' cannot be formed.
7. (c) From the Given equation => 10 + 10 + 10 10 x 10 = 10 From option (c), after
interchanging the signs
10 x 10 10 10 + 10 = 10
20 10 = 10
(8 + 8) 8 x 32 = 64
16 + 8 x 32 = 64
2 x 32 = 64
25 + 37 x 2 4 1
= 124 4 1
= 31 1 = 30
10. (a) As, 'Sculptor' made Idol with help of 'Chisel'. Similarly, 'Gardener' plough garden with the
help of 'Harrow'.
(a) 1 and 12 1 = 0
(b) 2 and 22 1 = 3
(c) 3 and 32 1 = 8
(d) 4 and 42 1 = 15 # 27
21. (a) Only in (96, 24), first number is multiple of second number.
23. (a) Words in meaningful order starting from the inner layer are as follows:
5, 3 (5 3) + (5 + 3) 28
9, 1 (9 1) + (9 + 1) 810
and 2, 1 (2 1) + (2 + 1) 13
Similarly, 5, 4 (5 4) + (5 + 4) = 19
M>Q>G>H
= (15 + 10) m
= 25 m
M N O P Q
(a) 20 4 4 + 8 < 2 x 26
= 20 + 4 4 x 8 2 > 26
= 24 4 x 4 > 26
= 24 16 > 26
= 8 > 26 (False)
(b) 20 x 8 + 15 < 5 9 8
= 20 > 8 x 15 5 9 + 8
= 20 > 8 x 3 9 + 8
= 20 > 24 9 + 8
= 20 2 x 10 4 + 6 > 100
= 10 x 10 4 + 6 > 100
(d) 20 < 5 + 25 10 2 x 96
= 20 5 x 25 10 + 2 > 96
= 4 x 25 10 + 2 > 96
= 100 10 + 2 > 96
= 102 10 > 96
= 92 > 96 (False)
= (5 + 10)km = 15km
Conclusions
I.
II.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
39. (b)
AD
BF
CE
From above it can be observed that Opposite faces cannot adjacent to each other. Hence,
answer figure (b) can be created by folding the given figure.
40. (d) Number 3 appear in same face. Hence, 2 is opposite to number 6 and 5 is opposite to
number 1.
41. (d)
Hence, from the answer figure (d) question figure's pieces have been cut.
42. (d)
(d) Number 1 is common in all four figures. Hence, number 1 region represents employed,
truthful and illiterate social workers.
44. (b) Since Number 3 is common in all three figures. Hence, number 3 area represents women
graduate sub-inspectors of police.
45. (c) Answer figure (c) will complete the pattern of the given question figure.
46. (b) Answer figure (b) will complete the pattern of the given question figure.
47. (c)
48. (d) answer figure (d) will appear when a piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in
the questo figures.
49. (c)
Hence, when the mirror is held at MN answer figure (c) is the exact mirror image of the
question figure.
50. (c)
51. (c) Persistence of vision is responsible for the working of Newton's colour disc experiment.
53. (c) Max Plank explained the distribution of energy in the spectrum of radiations of a hot
body by his Quantum Theory of Radiation. According it, the Radiant energy is always in the
form of tiny bundles of light called quanta i.e., the energy is absorbed or emitted
discontinuously, each quantum has some definite energy. Which depends upon the frequency
of the radiations.
54. (d) An optical fiber is a flexible transparent fiber made of glass (silica) or plastic. It can
function as a wave guide or light pipe to transmit light between the two ends of the fiber. Its
transmits light along its axis by the process of total internal reflection.
55. (c) ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator And Computer) was the first electronic general-
purpose computer. ENIAC (1946) was designed to calculate artillery firing tables for the US
Army's Ballistic Research Laboratory. It constructed at the University of Pennsylvania's Moore
School of Electrical Engineering.
56. (b) The Internet protocol suite is the networking model and a set of communications
protocols used for the Internet and similar networks. It is commonly known as TCP/IP, because
its most important protocols the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and the Internet Protocol
(IP) were the first networking protocols defined in this standard.
58. (d) Rutherford's scattering experiment proved the presence of nucleus is atoms. It suggests
that the entire mass of an atom is concentrated on its centre at the nucleus, the nucleus is
surrounded by electrons that more around the nucleus with a very high speed in circular paths
called orbits.
59. (c) The emission spectrum of a chemical element or chemical compound is the spectrum of
frequencies of electromagnetic radiation emitted due to an atom's electrons making a
transition from a high energy state to a lower energy state.
60. (c) Blood pressure may be increased by the excessive secration of Estradiol (Sex Harmone).
61. (a) The theory that gases in the atmosphere might increase Earth's temperature was first
postulated by Joseph Fourier in 1827, a scientist who also seems to have coined the term
"Green House Gases".
62. (c) Bhopal gas tragedy, was a gas leak incident in India, considered the world's worst
industrial disaster. It occurred on the night of 2-3 December 1984 at the Union Carbide India
63. (c) The particulate matter (PM -10) exhaled from the polluted atmosphere is often filtered
out during the process of coughing and sneezing.
65. (d) Mount Tongario is a compound volcano in the Taupo volcanic zone of the North Island of
New Zealand. Its Te Mari craters erupted in 2012, for the first time since 1897.
66. (c) Daocheng Yading Airport is located in Daocheng country in Graze Tibetan Autonomous
Prefecture of Sichuan Province. China.
67. (c) Virat Kohli has been named the Indian Cricketer of the year for 2011-12, picking up the
Polly Umrigar Trophy and a cheque for Rs. 5 lakh at the BCCI awards function in Mumbai on Nov
22,2012.
68. (c) 30 January is observed as Martyr's Day at the National level. The date was chosen as it
marks the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi in 1948.
69. (*) 6th World Carrom Championship 2012 held in Sri Lanka during 31 Oct. to 4th Nov. 2012
in Galadare hotel, Colombo. In this event Nishanta Fernando (Sri Lanka) won the men's single
and Rashmi Kumari (India) won the women's single trophy. The team title won by Indian team.
70. (b) The camel's physiology allows it to cope with the salt intake from its food and from
drinking salty water indeed, they need the salt and in the absence of natural source of salt,
need to be given a daily ration of as much as 45-60 grams.
71. (d)
72. (a) On the eve of planning (1950-51) agriculture generated as much as 51 % of the country's
national income. As per the 2011-12, quick estimates, agriculture and allied activities accounted
for 14.01 % of the GDP, at constant 2004-05 prices.
73. (b) The second India-Africa Forum Summit 2011 was held at Addis Ababa (Ethiopia). The
leaders discussed significant aspects of the India-Africa partnership with the objective of
enhancing and widening its ambit for mutual benefit.
74. (c) Aurangzeb died in Ahmadnagar on 20 February 1707 at the age of 88 years.
75. (b) The principle of maximum social advantage was introduced by British economist Hugh
Dalton. According to him, Public Finance is concerned with income and expenditure of public
authorities and with the adjustment of one with the other.
77. (d) The ordinary and maximum tolerance limit of sound by human being is 70 db to 85 db.
79. (d) Indian Special Economic Rules amendment came in the year 2006.
80. (a) Provisions of citizenship in Indian Constitution become applicable from 26th January,
1949.
81. (c) Women of Bardoli gave the title of 'Sardar' to Ballabh Bhai Patel during Bardoli Satyagrah
(1928).
82. (c) According to Marx's labour theory of value, human labour is the only source of net new
economic value.
83. (a) Article 352 confers power on the President to make a proclaimation of Emergency on
the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
84. (b) The community development programme was launched on a pilot basis in 1952 to
provide for a substantial increase in the country's agricultural programme and for
improvements in systems of communication in rural health and hygiene and in rural education.
85. (d) Flag Satyagraha were conducted mostnotably in the city of Nagpur in 1923 but also in
many other parts of India.
86. (c) Digambar is a sect of Jainism. They believed in the retention of the rule of nudity.
87. (c) Lord Hardinge II (1910-1916) was the viceroy, when Delhi (1911) became the capital of
British India.
88. (c) The Indian Civil Liberties Union was established by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1936.
89. (b) The University of Mumbai (Bombay) is one of the oldest and premier universities in
India. It was established in 1857 consequent upon "Woods Education Dispatch".
90. (*) Yosemite is a United States National park in the central Eastern portion of California.
Yosemite is internationally recognized for its spectacular granite cliffs, water falls, clear
streams, Gaint sequoia groves and bio-diversity.
92. (c) Vizagh Steel Plant, Vishakhapatnam is the only Indian shore based steel plant founded in
1971.
94. (a) Leachates are pollutants which move downward with percolating ground water.
98. (b) Hydrochloric acid (HCI) is a component of Gastric acid. It is produced by cells lining the
stomach.
99. (a) Emulsification is the breakdown of large fat globules into smaller, uniformly distributed
particles. It is the first preparation of fat for chemical digestion by specific enzymes.
100. (c) Taxonomy is the academic discipline of defining groups of biological organisms on the
basis of shared characteristics and giving names to those groups.
101. (d)
( x 2) ( x 9)
( x2 x 9 x 18)
( x 2 1x 18)
121 121
x 2 11x 18
4 4
2
11 49
x
2 4
11
On putting x
2
49
4
49
Minimum value of ( x 2) ( x 9)
4
Given, x y z 6
2 2 2
x y z 20
According to the question,
(x y z)2 x2 y2 z 2 2( xy yz zx)
2
(6) 20 2( xy yz zx)
36 20 2( xy yz zx)
16 2( xy yz zx)
( xy yz zx) 8
x3 y3 z 3 3xyz
(x y z) ( x2 y2 z 2 ( xy yz zx)
6(20 8)
6 12 72
103. (a)
105. (d)
OM MN ON
4 3 1 cm
2, O ' N radius at inner circle
In PMO,
PM OP 2 OM 2
2 2
3 1
9 1 PM 8 cm
2 2 cm
PQ 2 2 2
4 2 cm
PBC PCB
(180 110 ) (180 120 )
70 60 130
107. (b)
ACB 90
In ABC,
CAB+ CBA+ ACB=180
30+90+ CBA=180
CBA=180 120=60
ABCD is a cyclic trapezium.
ADC=180 60
= 120
109. (a)
In BDC ,
y 180 2 x x 50 180
y x 50 0
x y 50
In ABC ,
2 y 180 2x A 180
2 ( y x) A 0
2( 50) A 0
A 100
CD 30cm
AB 16cm
Then, OM OC 2 CM 2
2 2
OM 17 15
289 225
64 8cm
Similarly ,
2 2
ON OA AN
2 2
17 8
289 64 225 15cm
Re quired dis tan ce 15 8 7cm
112. (b)
1
sin( A B )
2
sin( A B ) sin 30
A B 30 ...(i)
1
cos( A B)
2
cos( A B) cos 60
A B 30 ...(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
B=15
15
Value of B
180
12
Given
tn 2 tn tn 1
On putting n 1,
t1 2 t1 tl 1
t3 t1 t2 ..(i )
Given, t1 1, t2 2
On putting tl 1, t2 2 in Eq. (i ), we get
t3 1 2
t3 3
Again,
tn 2 tn tn 1
On putting n 2,
t2 2 t2 t2 1
t4 t 2 t3
t4 2 3
t4 5
Similarly , putting n 3,
tn 2 tn tn 1
t3 2 t3 t3 1
t5 t3 t4
t5 3 5
t5 8
x 1
1 7954 7956
1 7954 7954 2
2
1 7954 2 7954
2
1 7954 7955
1 1 1
C ' s 1 day's work
5 12 15
12 5 4
60
1
20
1 1 1
A: B :C : :
12 15 20
A: B :C 5: 4:3
960 5
A ' s share Rs.
12
Rs. 400
116. (c)
32
Ronald ' s 1 h work
6
40
Elan ' s 1 h work 8
5
32
( Ronald : Elan) ' s 1 h work :8
6
32 : 48
2:3
Total pages 110
110 2
Type by Ronald 44 pages
5
6
Time taken by Ronald 44 8 h 15 min
32
1
(2 M 8 B) ' s 1 h work
80
1
(1M 4 B) ' s 1 h work
160
1
(1M 3W 4 B) ' s 1 h work
96
1 1 1
3W ' s 1 h work
96 160 240
1
(2 M 3W ' s) 1 h work
20
1 1 1
2 M ' s 1 h work
120 240 240
1
(2 M 8 B) ' s 1 h work
80
1 1
8 B ' s 1 h work
80 240
2 1
240 120
5 12
(5M 12 B) ' s 1 h work
2 240 8 120
1 1
96 80
176 11
80 96 480
480 7
(5M 12 B) will finish 43 h
11 11
By theorem,
sq unit
4
2
Hence, the required area 4
4 4
2
2 sq unit
x r t
22
100
x r t 2200 ...(i)
Discount r t
Interest Discount
100
20 r t
22 20
100
200 20 r t
r t 10
On putting r t 10 in Eq. (i ),
10 x 2200
2200
x
10
x 220
Re quired sum Rs. 220
(1.25 1) 100
123. (a) Per cent of reduction= 20%
1.25
124. (b)
A: B 2:3
B :C 4:5
A : B : C 8 :12 :15
700 8
A's share= Rs.160
35
700 12
B's share= Rs.240
35
700 8
C's share= Rs.300
35
125. (c) Let the monthly income A and B be Rs. 6x and Rs. 5x.
A B 3 B C
and A B C A 30
B C 30
A B 3 30
A B Rs. 90
B C 5
5C C 30
6C 30
B 5 5
x = 45
10
CP of 1 orange Rs.
4
10 x
CP of x oranges Rs.
4
According to the case II ,
10
CP of 1 orange Rs.
5
10 x
CP of x oranges Rs.
5
10 10 90
CP of 2 oranges x x
4 5 20
9
Rs. x
2
20
SP of 1 orange Rs.
9
40 x
SP of 2 x oranges Rs.
9
9 x 40 x
Loss
2 9
x 81 80 x
18 18
x 100
Per cent loss
9x
18
2
x 100 2
18 9 x
200 100
162 81
19
1 %
81
130. (b)
Rate of riders 18 km / h
Time taken by riders to change horses 6 min
According to the question, 90 7 12
Because he stops every 7 km
So he stops 12 times.
Time taken by riders in 12 times 12 6
72 min
1 h 12 min
90
Total time 1 h 12 min
18
5 h 1 h 12 min
6 h 12 min
15
Man ' s rate with current 5 km / h
3
15
Man ' s rate agamst current
15
15 2
15
2 km / h
1
Man ' s rate of still water 5 2
2
3.5 km / h
134. (b)
1
Given exp ression, a 4
a 2
Subtracting 2 from both sides,
1
a 2 4 2
a 2
1
a 2 2
a 2
On squaring both sides,
2
2 1
a 2 2 4
a 2
2
2 1
a 2 4 2
a 2
2
2 1
a 2 2
a 2
Given, a b c 2s
2 2 2
s a s b s c s2
a 2 b2 c2
s 2 a 2 2sa s 2 b 2 2sb s 2 c 2 2sc s 2
a 2 b2 c2
4 s 2 a 2 b 2 c 2 2s (a b c )
a 2 b2 c2
4s 2 a 2 b 2 c 2 2s 2s
a 2 b2 c2
a 2 b2 c2
1
a 2 b2 c2
136. (a)
x. y ( x y ) 1
On cubing both sides,
[ x. y ( x y )]3 (1)3
x3 y 3 [ x3 y 3 3xy ( x y )] 1
1
x3 y 3 3 xy ( x y) 3 3
x y
1
3 xy ( x y) 3 3
x3 y3
x y
Given, x. y ( x y ) 1
1
3 1 x3 y3
x y33
1
x3 y3 3
x y3
3
138. (a)
139. (b)
141. (a)
142. (a)
143. (c)
area
angle
radius
r1 area / angle 1
r2 area / angle 2
angle2 75
angle1 60
r1 5
r2 4
72 1000
Required expenditure Rs.200 crore
360
156. (a)
158. (c)
161. (c)
162. (b)
172. (c)
176. (a)
182. (a)
183. (b)
187. (a)
190. (a) use with a view to verb Ist + ing i.e., to insulting me.
191. (b)
192. (b)
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
193. (b)
195. (d) Triumvirate means a board of three officials jointly responsible for some task.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-9): In these questions select the related letters/words/numbers from the
given alternatives.
1. 9 : 80 :: 100 : ?
(a) 901
(b) 1009
(c) 9889
(d) 9999
2. 25 : 125 :: 36 : ?
(a) 180
(b) 206
(c) 216
(d) 318
(a) 868
(b) 867
(c) 872
(d) 888
(a) ROUX
(b) ORUX
(c) LQUT
(d) LOQT
(a) GTHS
(b) GHTS
(c) GSTH
(d) TGSH
(a) QTWZ
(b) PTVX
(c) JLNP
(d) TVXZ
(a) wood
(b) fire
(c) heat
(d) smoke
(a) Theatre
(b) Situation
(c) Music
(d) Direction
(a) Risky
(b) Comfortable
(c) Safe
(d) Harmful
10.
(a) VWY
(b) QRT
(c) LMO
(d) JKL
11.
(a) BE
(b) GJ
(c) NP
(d) QR
12.
(a) 400
(b) 484
(c) 625
(d) 729
13.
(a) 1000
(b) 1725
(c) 2744
(d) 4096
14.
(a) 12 - 16
(b) 60 - 80
(c) 30 - 50
(d) 36 - 48
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
15.
(a) CX
(b) DW
(c) JQ
(d) LR
16.
(a) Cyclotron
(b) Basic
(c) Pascal
(d) Fortran
17.
(a) Rooster
(b) Buck
(c) Gander
(d) Peahen
18.
(a) Booklet
(b) Pamphlet
(c) Voucher
(d) Brochure
(a) Ballium
(b) Ballistics
(c) Ballerina
(d) Ballistite
20.
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
Which word will appear last in the dictionary?
(a) Laugh
(b) Latch
(c) Laurels
(d) Latitude
1. Infant
2. Adolescent
3. Child
4. Old
5. Adult
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
(b) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(c) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Directions (Q. Nos. 22 and 23): Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in
the given letter series shall complete it?
22. c_ab_ca_bc_a
(a) b c a b
(b) a b c b
(c) b a c b
(d) c b a c
23. _ba_bab_babb_b
(a) b a a a
(b) a b b b
(c) b a b b
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-27): Select the missing number from the given responses.
(a) 384
(b) 432
(c) 418
(d) 423
25. MNOPWXYZRSTUBCD?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) I
(d) F
(a) 110
(b) 117
(c) 109
(d) 120
(a) 54
(b) 52
(c) 57
(d) 51
28. The average age of 25 subordinates in an office is 30 yr. If the age of Manager is added, the
average increases to 31 yr. What is the age of the Manager?
(a) 26
(b) 36
(d) 56
29. Class A has students twice that of class B. After adding 20 students to class A and 30
students to class B, the total number of students in both the classes is 140. What is the number
of students in class A in the beginning?
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 140
30. Find the lowest number which when divided by 8, 12, 15 and 20 leaves the remainder 2.
(a) 360
(b) 242
(c) 122
(d) 82
31. If B becomes A and P becomes 0, what will K becomes in the English alphabet?
(a) L
(b) J
(c) H
(d) N
32. The given word is followed by 4 responses, one of which cannot be formed by using the
letters of the word given 'CAMBRIDGE'. Find out the word.
(a) BRIDGE
(b) CAME
(c) BRIDE
(d) CAMP
33. IF SEASONAL is written as ESSANOLA, how can SEPARATE be written in that code?
(a) SEAPARET
(c) ESPAARTE
(d) ESAPARET
34. In certain code, 'RAGHA V AN' is written as 'GARV AHNA'. In that code which word will be
written as MATHAVAN?
(a) TAMVAHNA
(c) TAMHAVNA
(d) MATVAHNA
(a) HQHPB
(b) HQHPA
(c) HQEMY
(d) HQHPG
36. In a coded language, if the word 'EQUATION' is coded as 'GSWCVKQP', then how is the word
'DONKEY' be coded?
(a) FQPMGA
(b) YEKNOD
(c) GWCVKJ
(d) PQKUCW
(a) 77
(b) 88
(c) 80
(d) 94
(a) 40
(b) 36
(c) 56
(d) 28
Directions (Q. Nos. 39 and 40): Select the missing number from the given responses.
39.
7 8 6
4 9 5
3 2 ?
25 70 29
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 1
(d) 5
40.
3 4 5
6 7 8
9 1 2
57 11 ?
(a) 42
(c) 11
(d) 18
41. From the given details, estimate the number of people affected by Tuberculosis in particular
locality in the year 1994.
(a) 99
(b) 85
(c) 71
(d) 78
42. A man started from a place walked towards North for 5 km then turned 90 to his right and
walked another 5 km. Then he turned 45 to his right and walked 2 km and turned as 45 to his
left. What is his direction now?
(a) South
(b) South-East
(c) East
(d) South-West
43. A boy running towards South, turns to his right and runs. Then he turns to his right and
finally turns to his left. Towards which direction is he running now?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) South
(d) North
Directions (Q. Nos. 44 and 45): One statement is given followed by two conclusion I and II. You
have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given
statements.
Conclusions
Conclusions
Answer Figures
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure in
hidden/embedded.
Question Figure
Answer Figures
(a)
(b)
(c)
Direction (Q. No. 48): A piece of paper is folded and cut as show below in the question figures.
From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
Answer Figures
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
49. Select the correct option that will be the mirror reflection of the problem figure.
Question Figure
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives.
The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in
two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that
of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can represented first by its
row and next by its column e.g., 'P' can be represented by 11, 32 etc. and 'K' can be represented
by 65, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word SALM.
Matrix I
0 1 2 3 4
0 P A I V R
1 I P R A V
2 A R V P I
3 V I P R A
4 R V A I P
5 6 7 8 9
5 S L K M E
6 K M S E L
7 M E L K S
8 L K E S M
9 E S M L K
51. A movement along the demand curve of a commodity occurs due to change in
(b) ASSOCHAM
56. Which one of the following subjects is not available on the Union List?
(a) Census
(b) Banking
59. Which of the following Presidents held office for two consecutive terms?
60. Which Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 52nd
(d) 61st
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
61. Match the following
C. Kalachuri Era 3. 58 B C
D. Gupta Era 4. A D 78
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
63. Which one among the following woman scholars challenged the invincible Yainavalkyain
debate?
(a) Ghosa
(b) Apala
(c) Maitreyi
(d) Gargi
64. Which one of the following event made the crown of England to take over the Indian
Administration?
65. Who built the famous Dilwara temple At Mount Abu in Rajasthan in the 13th century?
(a) Mahendrapala
(b) Mahipala
(c) Rajyapala
(d) Tejapala
(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Sutlej
(d) Ravi
List I List II
B. Monsoon 2. Shillong
D. Mangrove 4. Nilgiris
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Cauvery
(d) Tapti
71. Drug which helps about calmness is to reduce anxiety and brings about calmness is
(a) tranquiliser
(b) diuretic
(c) analgesic
(d) antihistamine
(a) chicken
(b) ostrich
(c) duck
(d) peacock
(a) streptomyces
(b) aspergillus
(c) pencillium
(d) bacillus
74. The pigment that protect plants from harmful effect of ultraviolet rays is
(a) chlorophyll
(b) carotenoid
(c) phycocyanin
(d) plastic
(a) fructose
(b) glucose
(c) lactose
(d) maltose
(a) cancer
(b) plague
(c) AIDS
(d) gonorrhea
80. Device which uses sound waves for detection and ranging is called
(a) radar
(b) sonar
(c) pukar
81. What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directional links between
each possible node?
(a) Ring
(b) Star
(c) Tree
(d) Mesh
85. When H2 gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure
the temperature of the gas
(b) increases
(a) dissociation
(b) reduction
(c) oxidation
(d) ionization
87. Which of the following weeds has been found useful to check water pollution caused by
industrial affluents?
(a) Parthenium
88. In which year the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant of the former USSR had accident that
caused escape of radio nuclides into atmosphere?
(a) 1979
(b) 1980
(c) 1984
(d) 1986
89. Certain desert lizards excrete their wastes in dry form. This serves as a means of
91. Kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the
(a) nitrogen
(b) sulphur
(c) oxygen
(a) Tibet
(c) Sikkim
(d) Kerala
94. The commodity for which India spends the largest amount to import is
(a) foodgrains
(c) fertilizers
95. In which categories did Marie Curie win her two different Nobel Prizes?
96. Michail Phelps won . gold medals in swimming events in the Beijing Olympics.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
(a) Tarapur
(b) Trombay
(c) Kalpakkam
(d) Narora
SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
98. Which one of the following players has the unique distinction of winning 50 Doubles Titles
in ATP tour history?
99. As per the 2011 census, the state with the largest gap in male and female literacy is
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Kerala
(a) FII
(b) FDI
(c) ADR
(d) GDR
(a) 51
(b) 62
(c) 71
(d) 78
102. The least multiple of 13 which when divided by 4, 5, 6, 7 leaves remainder 3 in each case is
(a) 3780
(b) 3783
(c) 2520
(d) 2522
1 1 1 1
103. The simplest value of + + + is
2+ 3 3+ 4 4+ 5 5+ 6
(a) 3( 2-1)
(b) 2( 3-1)
(c) 3-1
(d) 2-1
1
104. A and B are partners in a business. A contributes of the capital for 15 month and B
4
2
received of the profit. Find for how long Bs money was used.
3
(a) 6 month
(b) 8 month
(c) 10 month
(d) 12 month
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 19
106. Two men A and B are started a job in which A was thrice as good as B and therefore took
60 days less than B to finish the job. How many days will they take to finish the job if they start
working together?
(a) 15 days
(b) 20 days
1
(c) 22 days
2
(d) 25 days
107. A rectangular garden is 100 m x 80m. There is a path along the garden and just outside it.
Width of the path is 10 m. The area of the path is
(a) 1900 sq m
(b) 2400 sq m
(c) 3660 sq m
(d) 4000 sq m
108. A dealer offered a machine for sale for Rs. 27500 but even if he had charged 10% less, he
would have made a profit of 10%. The actual cost of the machine is
109. An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8 : 5 and increases their wages
in the ratio 7 : 9. As a result, the overall wages bill is
110. The average age of a jury of 5 is 40. If a member aged 35 resigns and a man aged 25
becomes a member, then the average age of the new jury is
(a) 30 yr
(b) 38 yr
(c) 40 yr
(d) 42 yr
111. With average speed of 40 km/h, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an
average speed of 35 km/h, it is late by 15 min. The total journey is
(a) 30 km
(b) 40 km
(c) 70 km
(d) 80 km
112. A man makes a profit of 20% on the sale by selling 20 articles for Rs. 1. the number of
articles he bought by Rs. 1 is
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 25
(d) 30
113. The number of seats in an auditorium is increased by 25%. The price of a ticket is also
increased by 12%. Then the increase in revenue collection will be
(a) 40%
(b) 35%
(c) 45%
114. A ship is moving at a speed of 30 km/h. To know the depth of the ocean beneath it. it
sends a radiowave which travels at a speed 200 m/s. The ship receives the signal after it has
moved 500 m. The depth of the ocean is
143
(a) km
2
(b) 12 km
(c) 6 km
(d) 8 km
115. A person takes a loan of Rs. 10000 partly from a bank at 8% per annum and remaining
from another bank at 10% per annum, He pays a total interest of Rs. 950 per annum. Amount of
loan taken from the first bank (in Rs.) is
(a) 2500
(b) 5200
(c) 2050
(d) 5020
1 1
116. If a 2 + 2
= 98 (a > 0), then the value of a 3 + 3 will be
a a
(a) 535
(b) 1030
(c) 790
(d) 970
(a) 6 6
(b) 0
(c) 3 6
(d) 2 6
(a) 10
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 12
x
119. If 4x = 18y, then the value of 1 is
y
1
(a)
3
7
(b)
2
2
(c)
3
3
(d)
2
1
1 x4 + 2
120. If x + = 5, then the value of 2 x is
x x - 3x + 1
(a) 70
(b) 50
(c) 110
(d) 55
x2 + y2
121. If x = 2 + 3, y = 2 - 3, then the value of 3 3 is
x +y
7
(a)
38
7
(b)
40
7
(d)
26
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
1 1
123. If 2x - = 6, then the value of x2 + is
2x 16x2
19
(a)
2
17
(b)
2
18
(c)
3
15
(d)
2
1 1
124. If 5a + = 5, the value of 9a 2 + is
3a 25a 2
34
(a)
5
39
(b)
5
42
(c)
5
52
(d)
5
160
(a) sq units
3
150
(b) sq units
3
140
(c) sq units
13
(d) 10 sq units
126. In an obtuse-angle triangle ABC, A is the obtuse angle and O is the orthocenter. If BOC
= 54, then BAC is
(a) 108
(b) 126
(c) 136
(d) 116
127. If the ratio of area of two similar triangles is 9 : 16, then the ratio of their corresponding
sides is
(a) 3 : 5
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 4 : 3
128. Let BE and CF be the two medians of a ABC and G be their intersection. Also let EF cut AG
at O. Then, AO : OG is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 1
129. If S is the circumcentre of ABC and A = 50, then the value of BCS is
(a) 20
(c) 60
(d) 80
130. AC and BC are two equal chords of a circle. BA is produced to any point P and CP, wen
joined cuts the circle at T. Then,
(a) CT : TP = AB : CA
(b) CT : TP = CA : AB
(c) CT : CB = CA : CP
(d) CT : CB = CP : CA
131. PQ is a direct common tangent of two circles of radii r1 and r2 touching each other
externally at A. then, the value of PQ2 is
(a) r1r2
(b) 2r1r2
(c) 3r1r2
(d) 4r1r2
132. BC is the chord of a circle with centre O. A is a point on major arc BC as shown in the above
figure. What is the value of BAC + OBC =?
(a) 120
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 180
133. Two circles with radii 5 cm and 8 cm touch each other externally at a point A. If a straight
line through the point A cut the circles at points P and Q respectively, then AP : AQ is
(a) 8 : 5
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 4 : 5
134. If l is the in-centre of ABC and A = 60, then the value of BIC is
(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 150
(d) 110
135. The external bisectors of B and C of ABC meet at point P. If BAC = 80, then BPC
is
(a) 50
(b) 40
(c) 80
(d) 100
136. When a pendulum of length 50 cm oscillates, it produces an arc of 16 cm. The angle so
formed in degree measure is (approx).
(a) 1825
(b) 1835
(c) 1820
(d) 1808
137. If x, y are positive acute angles x + y < 90 and sin (2x - 20) = cos (2y + 20), then the value
of sec (x + y) is
(a) 2
1
(b)
2
(c) 1
(d) 0
1
(a)
7
2
(b)
7
5
(c)
7
2
(d)
5
139. The least value of (4 sec2 + 9 cosec2 ) is
(a) 1
(b) 19
(c) 25
(d) 7
2x
140. If tan(x + y) tan (x y) = 1, then the value of tan is
3
1
(a)
3
2
(b)
3
(c) 3
(d) 1
141. If x = cosec sin and y = sec cos, then the value of x2y2 (x2 + y2 + 3) is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
143. When the angle of elevation of the sun increases from 30 to 60, the shadow of a post is
diminished by 5 m. Then, the height of the post is
5 3
(a) m
2
2 3
(b) m
5
2
(c) m
5 3
4
(d) m
5 3
144. A rail road curve is to be laid out on a circle. What radius should be used if the track is to
change direction by 25 in a distance of 42 m?
(a) 91.64 m
(b) 90.46 m
(c) 89.64 m
(d) 93.64 m
145. If sin + sin2 = 1, then the value of cos12 + 3 cos10 + 3 cos8 + cos6 - 1 is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 2
Population of five adjacent areas of a town, in the year of 2010, are represented in the
following pie-chart. The ratio of the numbers of males to that of females in these areas are
stated in the table below. The total of the population in all the five areas is 72 lakh.
Areas S1 S2 S3 S4 S5
(a) S1
(b) S3
(c) S5
(d) S4
148. The ratio of number of females in the area S2 to that in the area S5 is
(a) 7 : 9
(c) 9 : 7
(d) 13 : 36
149. If in the year 2010, there was an increase of 5% population in the area S 1 and 8% increases
in population of the area S3 compared to the previous year, then the ratio of population in the
areas S1 and S3 in the year 2009 was
(a) 3 : 10
(b) 27 : 10
(c) 27 : 70
(d) 10 : 3
150. The average of females population in all the five areas is lower than the female population
in each of the areas
(a) S1 and S2
(b) S2 and S5
(c) S2 and S4
(d) S4 and S5
Directions (Q. Nos. 151-155): In these questions some parts of the sentences have errors and
some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error to the appropriate letter (a, b,
c). If there is no error, your is (d).
151. Instead of being (a)/ helpful he was (b)/ being hindrance. (c)/ No error (d)
152. Where (a)/ have I (b)/ to deposit fees? (c)/ No error (d)
153. By the time she had finished her work (a)/ I had nearly given up (b)/ all hope of arriving at
the part in time. (c)/ No error (d)
154. Some categorically suspected (a)/ having seen the (b)/ guard and thief together. (c)/ No
error (d)
155. He was (a)/ not in position to state (b)/ the speed the ship travelled. (c)/ No error (d)
Directions (Q. Nos. 156-160): In these questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in
with an appropriate words. Four alternative are suggested for each question. Choose the
correct alternative out of the four.
(c) have
(d) had
(a) is
(b) was
(d) will be
(a) against
(b) at
(d) from
159. To the dismay of the student body, the class president was . berated by the principal
at the school assembly.
(a) ignominiously
(b) privately
(c) magnanimously
(d) fortuitously
(a) am
(b) was
(d) were
Directions (Q. Nos. 161-165): In this questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
161. Gaol
(a) destination
(b) Garden
(c) Jail
(d) Bird
162. Loathing
(a) Warmth
(b) Affectation
(c) Hatred
(d) Affection
(a) Intelligent
(b) Wise
(c) Religious
(d) Practical
164. Notion
(a) Thought
(b) Fact
(c) Truth
(d) Hypothesis
165. Vivacious
(a) Poisonous
(b) Energetic
(c) Tricky
(d) Slow
Directions (Q. Nos. 166-170): In these questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the
given word.
166. Hasten
(a) Dash
(b) Dawdle
(c) Hurry
(d) Scurry
167. Spirited
(a) Animated
(b) Excited
(c) Lively
168. Forthright
(a) Blunt
(b) Tricky
(c) Candid
(d) Plainspoken
169. Antagonism
(a) Cordiality
(b) Animosity
(c) Hostility
(d) Enmity
170. Vanity
(a) Humanity
(b) Humility
(c) Pretension
(d) Arrogance
Directions (Q. Nos. 171-175): In these questions four alternatives are given for the
Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentences. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
171. The project is carried over to this year, and we need to keep the ball rolling.
(c) to do better
172. The host team bore the palm in the league matches.
174. Parents pay through their nose for their children's education.
(c) grudgingly
(d) willingly
Directions (Q. Nos. 176-180): In these questions a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are
given alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentences.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your is (d).
(a) from
(b) by
(c) to
(d) No improvement
(a) on
(b) though
(c) at
(d) No improvement
(c) slips in
(d) No improvement
179. The court was forced to respect the profundity of the learned judge's knowledge.
(a) probity
(b) proximity
(c) prodigality
(d) No improvement
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 181-185): In this questions out of the four alternatives choose the one which
can be substituted for the given words/sentences.
181. A group of three books, films etc, that have the same subject or characters
(a) Trinity
(b) Trilogy
(c) Trio
(a) Anthropology
(b) Archaeology
(c) Ethnology
(d) Etymology
(a) Neophyte
(b) Amateur
(c) Connoisseur
(d) Enthusiast
(a) Topology
(b) Taxonomy
(c) Seismology
(d) Taxidermy
(a) Narration
(b) Recitation
(c) Incartation
(d) Utterance
Directions (Q. Nos. 186-190): In these questions four words are given in each question, out of
which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
186.
(a) Abracadebra
(b) Abracadebri
(d) Abrakadabra
187.
(a) Apparrel
(b) Aparell
(c) Aparel
(d) Apparel
188.
(a) Refferee
(b) Refere
(c) Referre
(d) Referee
189.
(a) Commissioner
(b) Comissioner
(c) Commissionar
(d) Comissionor
190.
(a) Etiquete
(b) Etiquette
(c) Ettiquette
(d) Ettiquete
Read the passages carefully and choose the best to each question out of the four alternatives.
Passage I
"Nobody knows my name" is the title of one of James Baldwin's celeberated books, Who knows
the name of the old man sitting amidst ruins pondering over his hubble-bubble? We do not. It
does not matter. He is there like the North Pole, the Everest and the Alps but with one
difference. The North pole, the Everest and the Alps will be there when he is not there any
more. Can we really say this? "Dust thou act to dust returneth" was not spoken of the soul. We
do not know whether the old man's soul will go marching on like John Brown's. While his body
lies mouldering in the grave or becomes ash driven by the wind or is immersed in water, such
speculation is hazardous. A soul's trip can take one to the treacherous sholas of metaphysics
where there is no "yes" or "no". "Who am I?" asked Tagore of the rising sun in the first dawn of
his life, he received no answer. "Who am I?" he asked the setting sun in the twilight of his life.
He received no answer.
We are no more on solid ground with dust which we can feel in our hands, scatter to the wind
and wet with water to turn it into mud. For this much is sure, that in the end, when life's
ceaseless labour grinds to a halt and man meets death, the brother of sleep, his body buried or
burnt, becomes dust. In the form of dust he lives, inanimate yet in contact with the animate. He
settles on files in endless government almirahs, on manuscripts written and not published on all
shelves, on faces and hands. He becomes ubiquitous all pervasive sometimes sneaking even
into hermetically scaled chambers.
191. What is the difference between the old man and the North Pole, the Everest and the Alps?
192. What according to the passage, happens to a person's soul after death?
(b) The rising sun did not tell Tagore who he was
(d) The rising sun told Tagore that he would becomes dust
195. What figure of speech is used in the expression 'the brother of sleep'?
(a) Simile
(b) Metaphor
(c) Oxymoron
(d) Irony
Passage II
To write well you have to be able to write clearly and logically, and you cannot do this unless
you can thin clearly and logically. If you cannot do this yet you should train yourself to do it by
taking particular problems and following them through, point by point to a solution; without
leaving anything out and without avoiding any difficulties that you meet.
At first you find clear, step-by-step thought very difficult. You may find that your mind is not
able to concentrate. Several unconnected ideas may occur together. But practice will improve
your ability to concentrate on a single idea and think about it clearly and logically. In order to
increase your vocabulary and to improve your style, you should read widely and use a good
dictionary to help you find the exact meanings and correct usages of words.
Always remember that regular and frequent practice is necessary if you want to learn to write
well. It is no good waiting until you have an inspiration before you write. Even with the most
famous writers, inspiration is rare. Someone said that writing is ninety-nine per cent hard work
and one per cent inspiration, so the sooner you get into the habit of disciplining yourself to
write, the better.
(a) precise
(b) accurate
(c) very
(d) erect
1. (d)
As 92 1 = 81 1 = 80
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
As we observe,
Similarly,
As we observe ,
Similarly,
6. (d)
As we observe,
Similarly,
7. (b)
8. (c)
12. (d)
In option (d), As required, the sum of first and second digit is equal to third digit.
13. (b)
15. (d)
opposite
C X
opposite
D W
opposite
J Q
16. (a)
17. (d)
19. (d)
21. (b)
1, 3, 2, 5, 4
bacb
abbb
24. (d)
25. (b)
MNOP/WXYZ/RSTU/BCDE
At ? position E
Hence, ? 110
27. (b)
Hence, ? 52
28. (d)
According to question,
25 30 + x
= 31
26
x = 26 31-2530
= 806 - 750
= 56 yr
29. (b)
x
So number of student in class B in the beginning =
2
According to the given question,
32. (d)
Since the letter P is not present in the keyword and hence, the word CAMP cannot be made
from the letters of the word CAMBRIDGE.
33. (d)
As,
Similarly,
34. (a)
As,
35. (a)
As,
Similarly,
36. (a)
As,
Similarly,
37. (c)
38 + 15 = 66, 29 + 36 = 99
(2 + 9) (3 + 6) = 99
Similarly,
82 + 44 (8 +2) (4 + 4) = 10 8 = 80
38. (d)
45 + 9 3 15 2
45 9 3 + 15 2
= 5 3 + 15 2
= 15 + 15 2
= 28
39. (c)
7 4 3 = 25
8 9 2 = 70
6 5 ? = 29
? = 30 29 = 1
40. (b)
3 + 6 9 = 57
4 + 7 1 = 11
Similarly,
5 + 8 2 = 21
41. (d)
From the given figure, now that boy running towards West.
43. (b)
From the given figure, now that boy running towards west
44. (c)
45. (c)
46. (c)
47. (c)
48. (d)
49. (c)
50. (b)
By option (b),
S 79
A 13
L 69
M 75
51. (b)
52. (c)
53. (c)
54. (d)
55. (c)
56. (c)
58. (c)
59. (c)
60. (d)
61. (b)
62. (b)
63. (c)
64. (d)
65. (d)
66. (c)
67. (c)
68. (c)
69. (a)
70. (b)
71. (b)
72. (a)
73. (a)
74. (b)
75. (b)
76. (b)
77. (d)
78. (b)
79. (c)
80. (b)
81. (d)
82. (d)
181 SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
83. (c)
84. (d)
85. (b)
86. (b)
87. (c)
88. (d)
89. (c)
90. (c)
91. (a)
92. (d)
93. (c)
94. (b)
95. (a)
96. (c)
97. (b)
98. (a)
99. (c)
100. (a)
101. (c)
102. (b)
1 1 2- 3
=
2+ 3 2+ 3 2- 3
= 3- 2
similarly,
1 1
= 4- 3, = 5- 4
3+ 4 4+ 5
1
and = 6- 5
5+ 6
simplest value
= 3- 2+ 4- 3+ 5- 4+ 6- 5
= 6- 2= 2 3-1
104. (c)
3
Let B contributer of the capital for x month
4
According to question,
1 3 2 2
15 :x 1 :
4 4 3 3
5 1
x 2
x=10 month
105. (a)
106. (c)
107. (d)
From Figure,
108. (c)
1
a2 + = 98
a2
1
a2 + + 2 = 100
a2
2
1
a+ = 100
a
1
a+ 100 = 10
a
3
1 3
a+ 10
a
1 1 1
a3 + 3
+ 3a. a+ = 1000
a a a
1
a 3 + 3 + 3 10 = 1000
a
1
a 3 + 3 = 1000 - 30 = 970
a
x=1+ 2 + 3
x-1= 2 + 3
x 2 - 2x + 1 = 2 + 3 + 2 6
x 2 - 2x = 4 + 2 6....................(i)
x 2 - 2x - 4 = 2 6
Squaring both side,
x 4 - 4x 2 + 16 - 4x 3 16 x - 8x 2 = 24
x 4 - 4x 3 - 4x 2 16 x - 8 = 0
2x 4 - 8x 3 - 8x 2 + 32x - 16 = 0
2x 4 - 8x 3 - 5x 2 + 26x - 28
= 3x 2 - 6x - 12
= 3 x 2 - 2x - 12
= 3 4 + 2 6 - 12
= 12 + 6 6 - 12
= 6 6
Given, 4x = 18y
x 9
=
y 2
x 9 7
-1 = -1 =
y 2 2
1
x+ =5
x
x 2 - 5x + 1 = 0
x 2 - 3x + 1 = 2x.........................(i)
1 1
x4 x x3
x 2 x3
=
x 2 - 3x + 1 2x
1 1
= x3
2 x3
3
1 1 1
= x+ -3 x+
2 x x
1
= 125 - 15
2
= 55
a 2 + b2 + c2 = 2 a - b - c - 3
a 2 - 2a + 1 + b 2 + 2b + 1 + c 2 + 2c + 1 = 0
2 2 2
a-1 + b+1 + c+1 0
a - 1 = 0, b + 1 = 0, c + 1 = 0
a = 1, b = -1, c = -1
2a - 3b + 4c = 2 1 - 3(-1) + 4(-1) = 1
1 1 1
x2 + 4x2 +
16 x 2 4 4 x2
2
1 1
= 2x - +2
4 2x
1 2 19
= 6 +2 =
4 2
1
5a + =5
3a
5 1
3a + =5
3 5a
1 5 3
3a + = =3
5a 5
On squaring both side,
1 1
9a 2 + 2
+2.3a. = 9
25a 5a
1 6 39
9a 2 + 2
=9- =
25a 5 5
Given,
In ABCD,
MAN = 360 - 90 + 90 + BOC
= 360 - 180 + 54
= 126
BAC = MAN = 126
EF BC
In ABD,
AF AO
=
FB OD
AO
=1
OD
AO = OD
AO = OG + GD
1
AO = OG + AG
2
1
AO = OG + AO + OG
2
1 3
AO = OG
2 2
AO : OG = 3 : 1
The angle substened at the centre is double to that substened in the arc
From figure
The angle substened at the centre is double to that substened in the arc.
BOC = 2 BAC
In BOC,
BOC + 2 OBC = 180
2 BAC + 2 OBC = 180
180
BAC + OBC = = 90
2
From Figure,
A
BIC = 90 +
2
60
= 90 + = 120
2
From figure,
Circumference of a circle
=2 R
=2 50 [ R = 50]
= 100 cm
Angle substened at the centre by a circle
= 360
Angle substened at the centre by an arc BC
360
= 16
100
360 16 7
=
100 22
18.33 or 18 20' (approx.)
Given,
sin(2 x 20 ) cos(2 y 20 )
cos 90 - 2x - 20 = cos( 2y+ 20 )
90 - 2 x - 20 2y + 20
90
x+y= = 45
2
sec(x + y) = sec 45 2
5 sin
cos 3
cos
sin
cos 5 3
cos
5 tan -3
5 tan +3
4
5. 3
5 1
=
4 7
5. 3
5
2 2
x 2 y 2 = cosec - sin sec - cos
2 2
1 1
= - sin - cos
sin cos
2
1 - sin 2 1 - cos 2
=
sin cos
2
cos 2 sin 2
= = cos 2 sin 2
sin cos
1
x 2 y 2 x 2 + y2 + 3 = cos 2 sin 2
sin cos 22
=1
3 45
Number of male s in area S1 = 72
5 360
= 5.4 lakh
2 105
Number of male s in area S4 = 72
5 360
= 8.4 lakh
total number of male s in area S1 and S4
= 5.4 + 8.4 = 13.8 lakh
151. (c)
152. (b)
153. (a)
154. (a)
155. (d)
156. (d)
157. (b)
158. (d)
159. (a)
160. (d)
162. (c)
163. (d)
164. (a)
165. (b)
166. (b)
167. (d)
168. (b)
169. (a)
170. (b)
171. (a)
172. (b)
173. (c)
174. (b)
175. (b)
176. (b)
177. (c)
178. (d)
179. (d)
180. (c)
181. (b)
182. (a)
183. (c)
184. (d)
185. (c)
186. (c)
206 SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2014: Complete Guide
187. (d)
188. (b)
189. (a)
190. (b)
191. (c)
Answer can be drawn from the sixth sentence of the first paragraph.
192. (d)
Answer can be drawn from the ninth sentence of the first paragraph.
193. (b)
Answer can be drawn from the eleventh sentence of the first paragraph.
194. (c)
Answer can be drawn from the second sentence of the second paragraph.
195. (b)
196. (c)
Answer can be drawn from from the very first sentence of the first paragraph.
197. (b)
Answer can be drawn from the third sentence of the second paragraph.
198. (d)
Answer can be drawn from the last sentence of the second paragraph.
199. (b)
Answer can be drawn from the last two sentence of the last paragraph.
200. (d)
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