Module 17 Infancy Through Childhood Name:____________________________

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. CLEARLY indicate your response
in the space provided. Illegible responses will be marked incorrect.

____ 1. Given that more courts are awarding custody to adoptive parents rather than biological parents, there
is a growing realization that:
a. adoptive parents often hire better lawyers than biological parents
b. income and education level of parents needs to be considered
c. nature is important
d. nurture is important

____ 2. Kyle is looking into buying a dog for his children. He learns that golden retrievers by their nature are
very good with children. What does "by their nature" mean?
a. It refers to how the dog is trained by the owner.
b. Nature refers to how his children will interact with the dog.
c. It refers to their genetic makeup.
d. "By their nature" refers to the dogs' genetic predisposition.

____ 3. Individuals interested in biological, emotional, cognitive, and social factors across the life span are
called:
a. humanistic psychologists
b. behavioral psychologists
c. developmental psychologists
d. psychoanalytic psychologists

____ 4. Professor Rose's most recent book describes the changes seen in the drawings of children from four
to ten years of age. Professor Rose is most likely a:
a. developmental psychologist
b. behavioral psychologist
c. humanistic psychologist
d. biological psychologist

____ 5. Samantha, a five-year-old, shows extraordinary musical ability. She is of average intelligence, can
play the piano very well, and comes from a very musical family. Samantha is a:
a. mnemonist
b. autistic child
c. prodigy
d. savant

____ 6. The term "savant" refers to people:

a. with eidetic imagery abilities
b. who have photographic memories
c. who are mentally retarded with unusual artistic or mathematical abilities
d. who have eidetic memory

____ 7. What percent contribution does the father make to a child's genetic instructions?
a. depends if the instructions are for behavior or biological functioning
b. depends on age of father
 c. 50%
d. 75% for male children; 25% for female children

____ 8. You are listening to a talk show on television discussing intelligence. Right before a commercial, the
host says, "When we return to our discussion of nature and nurture, we will find out which one is
more important." What is your learned reaction to his statement?
a. "The question should not be 'which is more important' but how nature and nurture
interact."
b. "Everyone knows that nurture is more important than nature."
c. "Everyone knows that nature is more important than nurture."
d. "How can we know which is more important since psychologists do not study
these topics?"

____ 9. The period that lasts nine months, extending from conception to birth is called the ____ period.
a. prenatal
b. embryonic
c. germinal
d. fetal

____ 10. The three phases of the prenatal period in the correct order are:
a. germinal, fascia, zygote
b. embryonic, preoperational, operational
c. mitosial, chromosomal, fetal
d. germinal, embryonic, fetal

____ 11. The briefest period of prenatal development is the:

a. germinal stage
b. embryonic stage
c. fetal stage
d. baby-making stage

____ 12. Which of the following is not a stage in prenatal development?

a. zygote
b. embryonic
c. germinal
d. fetal

____ 13. The germinal period starts at ____ and lasts ____.
a. conception; 4 weeks
b. 4 weeks; 8 weeks
c. 8 weeks; until birth
d. conception; 2 weeks
____ 14. ____ refers to the release of an ovum from a woman's ovaries.
a. Conception
b. Ovulation
c. Amniocentesis

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 d. Fertilization

____ 15. The Curtis family is made up of mom and dad, 8-year-old Susan, 5-year-old Grant, and the identical
twins Christopher and Carson. In regard to genetic make-up, Christopher is most similar to his:
a. mother
b. father
c. identical twin
d. Brother

____ 16. Identical twins result from:

a. the release and fertilization of two ova
b. the release of more than 23 strands of chromosomes
c. a single ovum that splits into two parts after fertilization
d. an extra 21st chromosome produced by the father's sperm

____ 17. Conception occurs when:

a. ova are released by the fallopian tubes
b. the baby is born
c. a sperm penetrates the ovum's membrane
d. the embryo develops

____ 18. Following fertilization, the single cell is called a(n):

a. embryo
b. germinal
c. ovum
d. zygote

____ 19. Which of the following marks the end of the germinal period?
a. fertilization of the ovum
b. the zygote attached itself to the wall of the uterus
c. cells divide and differentiate into bone, muscle, and organs
d. the birth of the fetus

____ 20. Why do most major birth defects occur during the embryonic stage?
a. The amniotic fluid can "leak" into the embryo and cause damage.
b. The placenta is still developing and does a poor job protecting the embryo.
c. Most women do not know they are pregnant until the fetal stage.
d. Most of the basic organs are being formed during the embryonic stage.

____ 21. Most miscarriages occur:

a. when the fetus is born
b. in the embryonic stage
c. in the germinal stage
d. during conception

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____ 22. The fetal period is characterized by:
a. conception and fertilization
b. attachment to the wall of the uterus
c. functioning vital organs and human physical characteristics
d. the beginnings of the spinal cord, heart, and other organs

____ 23. Denise is pregnant and has an ultrasound to "see" her unborn baby. Denise's doctor can clearly
identify the baby as a female. This suggests that the baby is in the ____ period of prenatal
development.
a. zygote
b. embryonic
c. fetal
d. germinal

____ 24. A six-month-old fetus has a good chance of surviving if born prematurely. Why?
a. the lungs function
b. it has enough body fat to maintain body temperature
c. its nervous system is functional
d. the heart begins to beat around this time

____ 25. Down syndrome and similar genetic abnormalities can be identified during prenatal development
through:
a. amniocentesis
b. ovulation
c. the Lamaze method
d. the proximodistal procedure

____ 26. The medical test called ____ is performed to indicate genetic problems like ____.
a. teratogen identification; lead poisoning
b. placentosis; fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
c. fetal stage assessment; brain damage
d. amniocentesis; Down syndrome

____ 27. The substance that is analyzed in amniocentesis is:

a. the blood plasma of the mother
b. the cerebrospinal fluid of the baby
c. the blood of the baby
d. amniotic fluid

____ 28. The organ that connects the mother's blood supply to that of the fetus is called the:
a. germinal
b. teratogen
c. placenta
d. blood-baby barrier

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____ 29. The blood supply of the fetus is partially protected by the:
a. germinal
b. placenta
c. teratogen
d. amniotic fluid

____ 30. Chemicals that can cause birth defects are called:
a. biohazards
b. teratogens
c. amniocentesis
d. biochemoses

____ 31. Short-term effects of exposure to nicotine during prenatal development is associated with:
a. poor muscle control
b. loss of reflexes
c. temporary liver damage
d. low birth weight

____ 32. Prenatal exposure to lead is associated with:

a. poor muscular control
b. lower IQ scores
c. liver damage
d. stunted growth

____ 33. Heavy drinking during pregnancy can result in:

a. chromosomal damage to the fetus
b. high levels of arousal in the newborn
c. fetal alcohol syndrome
d. a newborn with a large appetite

____ 34. If you believe what the textbook says about teratogens, you would tell all pregnant women to:
a. watch their weight gain very carefully
b. get plenty of rest--even more as they approach delivery
c. avoid alcohol entirely
d. avoid becoming overly stressed

____ 35. Which of the following is not generally seen in adolescents and adults with fetal alcohol syndrome?
a. short stature
b. dyslexia
c. below average IQs
d. poor socialization

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____ 36. A woman who is in the habit of having two drinks every day after work discovers that she is
pregnant. If she follows the advice of medical findings, she will:
a. cut her drinking in half
b. abstain from alcohol for the duration of her pregnancy
c. maintain her drinking behavior since it is good for her heart
d. drink beer after work since it will help her maintain valuable protein levels

____ 37. The best piece of advice given to pregnant women regarding drug use would be:
a. recreational drug use is probably ok
b. use of all drugs should be avoided
c. we do not know enough about the effects of drugs on prenatal development to give
solid advice
d. social drinking does not seem to have any effect on the unborn child

____ 38. Chromosomes consist of:

a. zygotes
b. sperm
c. DNA
d. phenotypes

____ 39. In what specific structure is the "chemical alphabet" found--the alphabet that will provide the
instructions for growth and development?
a. zygotes
b. genes
c. DNA
d. chromosomes

____ 40. Infants first use their more developed arms, and then their fingers, whose control develops later--this
is the:
a. cephalocaudal principle
b. proximodistal principle
c. principle of maturation
d. principle of normal development

____ 41. Newborns have a preference for ____ tasting things.

a. cool/acidic
b. sour
c. sweet/salty
d. bitter/cool
____ 42. The visual cliff allowed Gibson and Walk to study:
a. the proximodistal principle
b. preference for complex patterns
c. visual acuity
d. depth perception

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____ 43. If a child stops on the shallow side of the visual cliff and refuses to cross the deep side, what is your
most likely conclusion?
a. The child is fatigued because crawling uses much energy.
b. Depth perception prevents the child from crossing the cliff.
c. The child has been distracted by something else.
d. There is not enough incentive for the child to move.

____ 44. Regarding the sensory development of the neonate, research has indicated that newborns:
a. can discriminate between odors
b. do not distinguish between sounds until they are 6 months old
c. have no inborn preferences for taste
d. cannot smell the difference between their mother and a stranger

____ 45. Motor development involves the acquisition of:

a. sensory abilities including hearing and taste
b. reflexive movements and abilities
c. the muscular control necessary for coordinated movement
d. language and speech patterns necessary for communication

____ 46. The proximodistal principle states that parts of the body that are ____ develop before parts of the
body that are ____.
a. close to the center of the body; farther away
b. close to the head; close to the feet
c. internal; external
d. used for processing information; used for motor skills

____ 47. Parts of the body which are close to the head develop before the parts closer to the feet according to
the:
a. proximodistal principle
b. cephalocaudal principle
c. visual cliff
d. sensorimotor stage of development

____ 48. Development occurs in a sequential and orderly fashion because of a genetic plan called:
a. proximodistal
b. cephalocaudal
c. maturation
d. norms for development

____ 49. Should a parent be concerned if their 10-month-old is not crawling?

a. No--development norms represent average ages and not absolute ages
b. No--development norms have been shown to be false
c. Yes--the norms represent absolute ages
d. No--maturation typically does not influence motor skills

____ 50. In the early stages of motor development, ____ seems to be the major force guiding development.

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 a. maturation
b. learning
c. experience
d. Genetics

____ 51. Development norms refer to:

a. parts of the body growing at differing rates
b. the genetic plan by which individuals are created
c. development occurring in a sequential and orderly fashion
d. the average age at which individuals perform skills

____ 52. An infant's characteristic mood, activity level, and attention span are referred to as components of
the infant's:
a. temperament
b. personality
c. genotype
d. phenotype

____ 53. Brenda gave birth to fraternal twins. After a few months, Brenda notices that one twin is always
happy and energetic, whereas the other twin is always fussy and fearful. Brenda's twins are showing
differences in:
a. vulnerability
b. maturation
c. resiliency
d. temperament

____ 54. Tony and Julie describe their newborn, Carson, as happy and cheerful, with regular sleeping and
eating habits, and the ability to adapt quickly. Carson has a(n) ____ temperament.
a. easy
b. positive
c. optimal
d. optimistic
____ 55. A baby who is more withdrawn, moody, and tends to take more time to adapt to new situations has
a(n) ____ temperament.
a. easy
b. difficult
c. slow-to-warm-up
d. moderate
____ 56. Bethany is a 9 month old baby with an easy temperament. If you studied her brain activity you
would notice:
a. more dense neural connections
b. increased activity in the areas that are involved in memory transfer
c. increased activity in the brain areas that are involved with positive emotions
d. decreased activity in the corpus callosum

____ 57. Emotional development is an interaction among:

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 a. temperament and cognitions
b. maturation and norms for development
c. genetic, cognitive and cultural factors
d. cephalocaudal and proximodistal principles

____ 58. In the weeks shortly after birth, infants showed signs of all of the following except:
a. sadness
b. interest
c. distress
d. Guilt

____ 59. Tina is introducing her topic by saying, "Today I will be talking about the fundamental emotional
bond that develops between the infant and the caregiver." What is the topic of her presentation?
a. psychosocial development
b. closeness
c. temperament
d. attachment

____ 60. What behavior can a newborn perform that triggers care and sympathy from the parent?
a. eye contact
b. first words
c. crying
d. smiling

____ 61. Jane and John were always able to leave baby Rebecca with a baby-sitter, but now, at 6 months of
age, she begins to cry loudly when they leave. This separation anxiety indicates that Rebecca:
a. is somewhat retarded in her development
b. must have suffered some type of birth defect
c. has formed a social attachment with her parents
d. will be a child who always clings to her parents
____ 62. When 1-year-old Terrace is in new surroundings, he will explore freely if his mother watches him. If
she leaves the room he begins to cry, but when she returns he smiles and stops fussing. Terrace
would be considered a(n) ____ infant.
a. securely attached
b. insecurely attached
c. unattached
d. disturbed
____ 63. A study in which the same group of individuals is repeatedly studied across many years is known as
a ____ study.
a. longitudinal
b. multilevel
c. repetitional
d. cross-sectional

____ 64. The fact that researchers must wait many years for their subjects to grow older, and that subjects
may drop out of the study for a variety of reasons, are disadvantages of:

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 a. cross-sectional designs
b. amniocentesis
c. longitudinal methods
d. the nature-nurture question

____ 65. A study in which a group of individuals of different ages is studied at the same time is a ____ study.
a. longitudinal
b. multilevel
c. repetitional
d. cross-sectional

____ 66. A disadvantage of the cross-sectional method is that:

a. subjects tend to drop out of the study
b. it is difficult to track people over several years
c. it prevents the study of people across the life-span
d. it does not examine the development in each person over time

____ 67. Sophia is a very shy and inhibited six-year-old. What should her parents do?
a. provide her with support and encouragement
b. show their anger at her shyness
c. nothing--she'll outgrow it
d. protect her from any situation that may prove to be anxiety-provoking

____ 68. Which of the following theorists studied the cognitive development of children?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Erik Erikson
c. Carroll Izard
d. Jean Piaget

____ 69. Piaget called the incorporation of new objects into existing knowledge:
a. assimilation
b. object permanence
c. conservation
d. formal operations

____ 70. For Jean Piaget, children deal with and adjust to the world through twin processes he called:
a. conservation and revisionism
b. motor learning and cognitive learning
c. egocentric thinking and magical thinking
d. assimilation and accommodation

____ 71. Which of the following is the correct sequence for Piaget's cognitive stages?
a. preoperational, formal operations, sensorimotor, concrete operations
b. preoperational, permanent operations, egocentrism, formal operations
c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations

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 d. sensorimotor, egocentrism, concrete operations, permanent operations

____ 72. Piaget called the knowledge that an object continues to exist even after it has been removed from
view:
a. existential constancy
b. substance constancy
c. item memory
d. object permanence

____ 73. The concept of object permanence develops during the ____ stage.
a. sensorimotor
b. preoperational
c. concrete operations
d. formal operations

____ 74. Children begin to use words to think about things that are out of sight during the ____ stage.
a. object permanence
b. conservation
c. preoperational
d. formal operations

____ 75. Use of symbols such as words and mental images, simple problem solving and talking about things
not present characterizes the:
a. sensorimotor stage
b. preoperational stage
c. classical stage
d. attachment stage

____ 76. The term conservation refers to the fact that:

a. the amount of a substance remains the same even though its shape changes
b. children see and think about the world from other people's viewpoints
c. infants interact with and learn about their environment through sensory
experiences
d. symbols and words can be used to think about things that do not exist

____ 77. Watching juice poured from a short, wide glass into a tall, narrow glass, the child cries, "I want [the
tall] glass!" thus illustrating the problem of:
a. object permanence
b. egocentric thinking
c. classification
d. Conservation

____ 78. ____ refers to seeing and thinking of the world from your own viewpoint and having difficulty
appreciating another's viewpoint.
a. Egotistical thinking
b. Egocentric thinking

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 c. Conceited thinking
d. Conservation

____ 79. According to Piaget, the ability to solve problems in a logical manner is characteristic of which of
the following stages?
a. concrete operations
b. preoperational
c. formal operations
d. sensorimotor

____ 80. In what stage can an individual consider abstract ideas and hypothetical concepts?
a. conservation
b. preoperations
c. concrete operations
d. formal operations

____ 81. A child's primary goal is to satisfy desires associated with innate biological needs. This statement is
characteristic of the theory of:
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Jean Piaget
c. Erik Erikson
d. Albert Bandura

____ 82. A key component of Freud's psychosexual theory is ____ between child and parent.
a. mutual respect
b. communication
c. conflict
d. love
____ 83. If an individual's wishes are overgratified or undergratified at any particular psychosexual stage,
Freud would argue that ____ will occur.
a. projection
b. fixation
c. displacement
d. Freudian slips
____ 84. Which of the following is the correct order of psychosexual stages according to Freud?
a. projection, fixation, displacement, genital
b. anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital
c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete, formal
d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital

____ 85. The first of Freud's stages of psychosexual development is called the:
a. oral stage
b. anal stage
c. genital stage
d. undifferentiated stage

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____ 86. The second of Freud's stages of psychosexual development is called the:
a. anal stage
b. oral stage
c. genital stage
d. undifferentiated stage

____ 87. In Freud's psychosexual stages, when do sexual thoughts become repressed?
a. oral
b. anal
c. latency
d. genital

____ 88. The final psychosexual stage, during which the adolescent experiences sexual feelings toward others,
is called the ____ stage.
a. genital
b. phallic
c. latency
d. oral

____ 89. Twelve-year-old Katelyn has started thinking more and more about boys. In which stage is Katelyn
most likely?
a. genital
b. phallic
c. latency
d. oral

____ 90. In his theory of development, Erik Erikson focused on:

a. observation
b. resiliency
c. psychosocial issues
d. psychosexual issues

____ 91. According to Erikson, the first major task of the child is to:
a. develop basic trust
b. form an intimate attachment with another person
c. become independent of the principal caretaker
d. overcome natural feelings of shame

____ 92. If the parents of the four-year-old boy encourage his ability to plan, he will successfully resolve the
____ stage.
a. autonomy vs. shame
b. initiative vs. guilt
c. intimacy vs. isolation
d. trust vs. mistrust

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____ 93. The influence of learning via imitation and observation on social development is central to:
a. Freud's psychosexual stages
b. Erikson's psychosocial stages
c. Piaget's theory of cognitive development
d. Bandura's social cognitive theory

____ 94. Which of the following is a factor associated with resiliency in children?
a. positive temperaments
b. androgyny
c. aggression
d. conservation

____ 95. Three-year-old Jenny knows she's a girl. Jenny's feeling and labeling as a female exemplifies:
a. gender role
b. sex typing
c. gender identity
d. gender orientation

____ 96. Denise instructs her six-year-old daughter to act like a young lady and to cross her legs when she sits
on a chair. This expectation of behavior is an example of:
a. androgynous beliefs
b. dispositional traits
c. gender roles
d. gender stereotypes

____ 97. According to research examining differences in gender roles around the world:
a. young children show much similarity in gender roles
b. young children show many differences in gender roles
c. western cultures show more similarity in gender roles than eastern cultures
d. cultures that emphasize strong family ties tend to show similarity in gender roles

____ 98. The most common type of child abuse is:

a. neglect
b. physical
c. sexual
d. emotional

____ 99. The principle of bidirectionality states that:

a. children's emotions swing rather rapidly between extremes
b. mothers interact with their children in both play and caretaking
c. children's behaviors influence adults' behaviors and vice versa
d. the same caretaker treatment can produce entirely different behavior in different
infants

____100. What factor seems to help children make the best recovery from sexual abuse?

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a. strong siblings who are not sexually abused themselves
b. a significant other like a friend or teacher who provides support and care
c. strong support and care from a caregiver
d. the father or stepfather apologizing for his behavior

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