GATE Electrical Engineering Question & Answer Key

GATE
Electrical Engineering
Question Papers
E-Book
(2013-2015)
SOLVED
Introduction
Preparing for GATE? Are you looking for EE question
papers, and that too with solutions? Careers360 brings you a
comprehensive e-book of GATE EE question papers
(2013 to 2015) along with the answer keys. Download this
e-book and get access to GATE EE question papers of last 3
years.
This e-book helps you in strengthening your question solving
ability, cross-checking yur answers, thus helping you master
the questions that are expected to come in the actual test
paper of GATE EE.
GATE
Question Paper
2015
(with Solutions)
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
Notations :
Question Paper Name: EE: ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 7th Feb Shift1

Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0
Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions.
Section Marks: 15.0
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each & Q.6 to Q.10 carry 2 marks each.
Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ
Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :
Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
32
Options :

Options :
Section Marks: 85.0
Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each & Q.36 to Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
Correct Answer:
0.25

Options :
Correct Answer :
9
Options :

Options :
Correct Answer :
0.22 to 0.23

Options :
Correct Answer :
1
Correct Answer :
90

Options :
Correct Answer :
0.17 to 0.2

Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
100 to 110
Options :

Options :
Options :

Options :
Correct Answer :
3.3 to 3.4

Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
-3
Options :
Options :

Options :
Correct Answer :
7
Options :
Correct Answer :
60 to 64
Correct Answer :
1.16 to 1.22
Options :
Correct Answer :
17 to 20
Correct Answer:
6
Options :
Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
20
Options :
Correct Answer :
5.7 to 6.1

Options :
Correct Answer :
9.9 to 10.1

Correct Answer:
0.4 to 0.6
Correct Answer :
0.48 to 0.52
Correct Answer:
8
Correct Answer :
57 to 58

Correct Answer :
1.3 to 1.4
Correct Answer :
554 to 556
Options :
Options :
Options :

Options :
GATE
Question Paper
2014
(with Solutions)
careers 360
A Career is a Life National Defence
Academy
GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination
1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:
The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.
Navigating to a Question :
7. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
careers 360
Academy
Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.
You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.
Answering a Question :
8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.
9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.
11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.
Choosing a Section :
13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will
careers 360
Academy
only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.
Changing the Optional Section :
18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.
19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
warning message will appear: "Deselecting the checkbox will DELETE all the answers
for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section? If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.
20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.
careers 360
Academy
GATE 2014 Examination
EE: Electrical Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
Declaration by the candidate:
I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.
careers 360
Academy
GATE 2014 SET- 9 General Aptitude -GA
Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 While trying to collect an envelope from under the table, Mr. X fell down and
I II III
was losing consciousness.
IV
Which one of the above underlined parts of the sentence is NOT appropriate?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
Q.2 If she _______________ how to calibrate the instrument, she _______________ done the
experiment.
(A) knows, will have (B) knew, had
(C) had known, could have (D) should have known, would have
Q.3 Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word coherent.
(A) sticky (B) well-connected (C) rambling (D) friendly
Q.4 Which number does not belong in the series below?

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64
(A) 17 (B) 37 (C) 64 (D) 26
Q.5 The table below has question-wise data on the performance of students in an examination. The
marks for each question are also listed. There is no negative or partial marking in the examination.
Answered Answered Not

Q No. Marks
Correctly Wrongly Attempted
1 2 21 17 6
2 3 15 27 2
3 2 23 18 3
What is the average of the marks obtained by the class in the examination?
(A) 1.34 (B) 1.74 (C) 3.02 (D) 3.91
Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 A dance programme is scheduled for 10.00 a.m. Some students are participating in the programme
and they need to come an hour earlier than the start of the event. These students should be
accompanied by a parent. Other students and parents should come in time for the programme. The
instruction you think that is appropriate for this is
(A) Students should come at 9.00 a.m. and parents should come at 10.00 a.m.
(B) Participating students should come at 9.00 a.m. accompanied by a parent, and other parents
and students should come by 10.00 a.m.
(C) Students who are not participating should come by 10.00 a.m. and they should not bring their
parents. Participating students should come at 9.00 a.m.
(D) Participating students should come before 9.00 a.m. Parents who accompany them should
come at 9.00 a.m. All others should come at 10.00 a.m.
GA 1/2
careers 360
Academy
GATE 2014 SET- 9 General Aptitude -GA
th
Q.7 By the beginning of the 20 century, several hypotheses were being proposed, suggesting a
paradigm shift in our understanding of the universe. However, the clinching evidence was provided
by experimental measurements of the position of a star which was directly behind our sun.
Which of the following inference(s) may be drawn from the above passage?
(i) Our understanding of the universe changes based on the positions of stars
(ii) Paradigm shifts usually occur at the beginning of centuries
(iii) Stars are important objects in the universe
(iv) Experimental evidence was important in confirming this paradigm shift
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) (B) (iii) only (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (iv) only
Q.8 The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in Rupees grew at 7% during 2012-2013. For international
comparison, the GDP is compared in US Dollars (USD) after conversion based on the market
exchange rate. During the period 2012-2013 the exchange rate for the USD increased from
Rs. 50/ USD to Rs. 60/ USD. Indias GDP in USD during the period 2012-2013
(A) increased by 5 % (B) decreased by 13%
(C) decreased by 20% (D) decreased by 11%
Q.9 The ratio of male to female students in a college for five years is plotted in the following line graph.
If the number of female students in 2011 and 2012 is equal, what is the ratio of male students in
2012 to male students in 2011?
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1.5:1 (D) 2.5:1
Q.10 Consider the equation: (7526)8 (Y)8 = (4364)8 , where (X)N stands for X to the base N. Find Y.
(A) 1634 (B) 1737 (C) 3142 (D) 3162
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GA 2/2
careers 360
Academy
GATE 2014 SET3 ELECTRICAL EE
Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Two matrices A and B are given below:
p q p2 + q2 pr + qs
A= ; B=
r s pr + qs r 2 + s2
If the rank of matrix A is N, then the rank of matrix B is
(A) N /2 (B) N-1 (C) N (D) 2 N
Q.2 A particle, starting from origin at t = 0 s, is traveling along x-axis with velocity

v= cos t m/s
2 2
At t = 3 s, the difference between the distance covered by the particle and the magnitude of
displacement from the origin is _________.
Q.3 Let ( f v ) = x y + y z + z x , where f and v are scalar and vector fields respectively. If
2 2 2
=v yi + zj + xk , then v f is
(A) x y + y z + z x
2 2 2 (B) 2 xy + 2 yz + 2 zx
(C) x + y + z (D) 0
Q.4 Lifetime of an electric bulb is a random variable with density f(x) = kx2, where x is measured in
years. If the minimum and maximum lifetimes of bulb are 1 and 2 years respectively, then the value
of k is ________.
Q.5 A function f(t) is shown in the figure.

f(t)
1/2
T/2
-T/2 0 t
-1/2
The Fourier transform F() of f(t) is

(A) real and even function of . (B) real and odd function of .
(C) imaginary and odd function of . (D) imaginary and even function of .
EE 1/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.6 The line A to neutral voltage is 1015 V for a balanced three phase star-connected load with phase
sequence ABC. The voltage of line B with respect to line C is given by
(A) 10 3105 V

(B) 10105 V
(C) 10 3 75 V (D) 10 390 V

Q.7 A hollow metallic sphere of radius r is kept at potential of 1 Volt. The total electric flux coming out
of the concentric spherical surface of radius R ( > r) is
(A) 4 0 r (B) 4 0 r
2
(C) 4 0 R (D) 4 0 R
2
Q.8 The driving point impedance Z(s) for the circuit shown below is
1H 1H
Z(s) 1F 1F
4 +3 2 +1 4 +2 2 +4
(A) (B)
3 +2 2 +2
2 +1 3 +1
(C) (D)
4 + 2 +1 4 + 2 +1
Q.9 A signal is represented by

1 t <1
x(t) =
0 t >1
=
The Fourier transform of the convolved signal y(t) x(2t) x(t/2) is
4 4
(A) sin sin( 2 ) (B) sin
2
2 2
2
4 4
(C) 2 sin( 2 ) (D) 2 sin 2

Q.10 For the signal () = 3 sin 8 + 6 sin 12 + sin 14, the minimum sampling frequency
(in Hz) satisfying the Nyquist criterion is _________.
Q.11 In a synchronous machine, hunting is predominantly damped by

(A) mechanical losses in the rotor
(B) iron losses in the rotor
(C) copper losses in the stator
(D) copper losses in the rotor
EE 2/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.12 A single phase induction motor is provided with capacitor and centrifugal switch in series with
auxiliary winding. The switch is expected to operate at a speed of 0.7 Ns, but due to malfunctioning
the switch fails to operate. The torque-speed characteristic of the motor is represented by
(A) (B)
Torque Torque
0.7Ns Ns 0.7Ns Ns
Speed Speed
(C) (D)
Torque Torque
0.7Ns Ns 0.7Ns Ns
Speed Speed
Q.13 The no-load speed of a 230 V separately excited dc motor is 1400 rpm. The armature resistance
drop and the brush drop are neglected. The field current is kept constant at rated value. The torque
of the motor in Nm for an armature current of 8 A is ____________.
Q.14 In a long transmission line with , , and are the resistance, inductance, shunt conductance and
capacitance per unit length, respectively, the condition for distortionless transmission is
(A) = (B) = /
(C) = (D) = /
Q.15 For a fully transposed transmission line

(A) positive, negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
(B) positive and negative sequence impedances are equal
(C) zero and positive sequence impedances are equal
(D) negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
Q.16 A 183-bus power system has 150 PQ buses and 32 PV buses. In the general case, to obtain the load
flow solution using Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the minimum number of
simultaneous equations to be solved is ___________.
EE 3/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.17 The signal flow graph of a system is shown below. () is the input and () is the output.
1 1
0 1 1 1
U(s) C(s)
.
()
Assuming, 1 = 1 and 0 = 0 1 1 , the input-output transfer function, () =
()
of the system is given by
0 +1 1 + 0
(A) () = (B) () = 2
2 + 0 + 1 +1 +0
1 +0 0 + 1
(C) () = 2
(D) () = 2
+ 1 + 0 +0 +1
Q.18 A single-input single-output feedback system has forward transfer function () and feedback
transfer function (). It is given that |()()| < 1. Which of the following is true about the
stability of the system?
(A) The system is always stable
(B) The system is stable if all zeros of ()() are in left half of the s-plane
(C) The system is stable if all poles of ()() are in left half of the s-plane
(D) It is not possible to say whether or not the system is stable from the information given
Q.19 An LPF wattmeter of power factor 0.2 is having three voltage settings 300 V, 150 V and 75 V, and
two current settings 5 A and 10 A. The full scale reading is 150. If the wattmeter is used with 150 V
voltage setting and 10 A current setting, the multiplying factor of the wattmeter is _________.
EE 4/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.20 The two signals S1 and S2, shown in figure, are applied to Y and X deflection plates of an
oscilloscope.
S2
1 S1 1
v v
T 2T T 2T
t t
The waveform displayed on the screen is

(A) (B) Y
Y 1
1
X
X
-1
-1
(C) Y (D) Y
1 1
X X
-1
-1
Q.21 A state diagram of a logic gate which exhibits a delay in the output is shown in the figure, where X
is the dont care condition, and Q is the output representing the state.
0X/1, 10/1
11/0
Q=0 Q=1 0X/1, 10/1
11/0
The logic gate represented by the state diagram is

(A) XOR (B) OR (C) AND (D) NAND
EE 5/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.22 An operational-amplifier circuit is shown in the figure.
R
+Vsat
+Vsat R
-
vi
-
+ vo
+ -Vsat
-Vsat
R2
R1
The output of the circuit for a given input vi is
R R
(A) 2 vi (B) 1 + 2 vi
R1 R1
R2
(C) 1 + vi
R1
(D) + Vsat or -Vsat

Q.23 In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100H is
(A) ( H ) 21H , ( L) 00 H
(B) ( H ) M (2100 H ) , ( L) M (2101H )
(C) ( H ) M (2101H ) , ( L) M (2100 H )
(D) ( H ) 00 H , ( L) 21H
Q.24 A non-ideal voltage source has an internal impedance of . If a purely resistive load is to be
chosen that maximizes the power transferred to the load, its value must be
(A) 0
(B) real part of
(C) magnitude of
(D) complex conjugate of
Q.25 The torque-speed characteristics of motor (TM) and load (TL) for two cases are shown in the figures
(a) and (b). The load torque is equal to motor torque at points P, Q, R and S
TM
Speed
S
Torque TL
P Speed
TM
Q R
TL Torque
(a) (b)
The stable operating points are

(A) P and R (B) P and S (C) Q and R (D) Q and S
EE 6/15
careers 360
Academy
Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 z2
Integration of the complex function f ( z ) = , in the counterclockwise direction, around
z 1
2
|z-1| = 1, is
(A) -i (B) 0 (C) i (D) 2i
Q.27 The mean thickness and variance of silicon steel laminations are 0.2 mm and 0.02 respectively. The
varnish insulation is applied on both the sides of the laminations. The mean thickness of one side
insulation and its variance are 0.1 mm and 0.01 respectively. If the transformer core is made using
100 such varnish coated laminations, the mean thickness and variance of the core respectively are
(A) 30 mm and 0.22 (B) 30 mm and 2.44 (C) 40 mm and 2.44 (D) 40 mm and 0.24
Q.28 The function f= (x) e 1 is to be solved using Newton-Raphson method. If the initial value of x0
x
is taken as 1.0, then the absolute error observed at 2nd iteration is _______.
Q.29 The Nortons equivalent source in amperes as seen into the terminals X and Y is _______.
2.5V
X
2.5
5 5
5V
Y
Q.30 The power delivered by the current source, in the figure, is ________.
1V
1 1
1V 2A 1
EE 7/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.31 A perfectly conducting metal plate is placed in x-y plane in a right handed coordinate system. A
charge of +32 2 columbs is placed at coordinate (0, 0, 2). is the permittivity of free space.
Assume , , to be unit vectors along x, y and z axes respectively. At the coordinate 2 , 2, 0,
the electric field vector (Newtons/Columb) will be
(A) 22 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 22
Q.32 A series circuit is observed at two frequencies. At 1 = 1 krad/s, we note that source voltage
1 = 1000 V results in a current 1 = 0.0331 A. At 2 = 2 krad/s, the source voltage
2 = 1000 V results in a current 2 = 20 A. The closest values for , , out of the
following options are
(A) = 50 ; = 25 mH; = 10 F; (B) = 50 ; = 10 mH; = 25 F;
(C) = 50 ; = 50 mH; = 5 F; (D) = 50 ; = 5 mH; = 50 F;
Q.33 A continuous-time LTI system with system function () has the following pole-zero plot. For
this system, which of the alternatives is TRUE?
(0,0)
(A) |(0)| > |()|; || > 0 (B) |()| has multiple maxima, at 1 and 2
(C) |(0)| < |()|; || > 0 (D) |()| = constant; < <
Q.34 A sinusoid () of unknown frequency is sampled by an impulse train of period 20 ms. The
resulting sample train is next applied to an ideal lowpass filter with a cutoff at 25 Hz. The filter
output is seen to be a sinusoid of frequency 20 Hz. This means that () has a frequency of
(A) 10 Hz (B) 60 Hz (C) 30 Hz (D) 90 Hz
Q.35 A differentiable non constant even function () has a derivative (), and their respective Fourier
Transforms are () and (). Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) () and () are both real. (B) () is real and () is imaginary.
(C) () and () are both imaginary. (D) () is imaginary and () is real.
EE 8/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.36 An open circuit test is performed on 50 Hz transformer, using variable frequency source and
keeping V/f ratio constant, to separate its eddy current and hysteresis losses. The variation of core
loss/frequency as function of frequency is shown in the figure
15
Pc/f 10
(W/Hz)
5
25 50
f (Hz)
The hysteresis and eddy current losses of the transformer at 25 Hz respectively are
(A) 250 W and 2.5 W (B) 250 W and 62.5W
(C) 312.5 W and 62.5 W (D) 312.5 W and 250 W
Q.37 A non-salient pole synchronous generator having synchronous reactance of 0.8 pu is supplying 1 pu
power to a unity power factor load at a terminal voltage of 1.1 pu. Neglecting the armature
resistance, the angle of the voltage behind the synchronous reactance with respect to the angle of
the terminal voltage in degrees is ________.
Q.38 A separately excited 300 V DC shunt motor under no load runs at 900 rpm drawing an armature
current of 2 A. The armature resistance is 0.5 and leakage inductance is 0.01 H. When loaded,
the armature current is 15 A. Then the speed in rpm is _____
Q.39 The load shown in the figure absorbs 4 kW at a power factor of 0.89 lagging.
1
2:1
50 Hz X 110 V ZL
ac source
Assuming the transformer to be ideal, the value of the reactance X to improve the input power
factor to unity is ___________.
EE 9/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.40 The parameters measured for a 220V/110V, 50 Hz, single-phase transformer are:
Self inductance of primary winding = 45 mH

Self inductance of secondary winding = 30 mH
Mutual inductance between primary and secondary windings = 20 mH
Using the above parameters, the leakage (Ll1 , Ll2) and magnetizing (Lm) inductances as referred to
primary side in the equivalent circuit respectively, are
(A) 5mH, 20mH and 40mH (B) 5mH, 80mH and 40mH
(C) 25mH, 10mH and 20mH (D) 45mH, 30mH and 20mH
Q.41 For a 400 km long transmission line, the series impedance is (0.0 + j0.5) /km and the shunt
admittance is (0.0 + j5.0) mho/km. The magnitude of the series impedance (in ) of the
equivalent circuit of the transmission line is ________.
Q.42 The complex power consumed by a constant-voltage load is given by (1 + 1 ),

where, 1 kW 1 1.5 kW and 0.5 kVAR 1 1 kVAR.
A compensating shunt capacitor is chosen such that || 0.25 kVAR, where Q is the net reactive
power consumed by the capacitor-load combination. The reactive power (in kVAR) supplied by the
capacitor is _________.
Q.43 The figure shows the single line diagram of a single machine infinite bus system.
Infinite
bus
The inertia constant of the synchronous generator = 5 MW-s/MVA. Frequency is 50 Hz.

Mechanical power is 1 pu. The system is operating at the stable equilibrium point with rotor angle
equal to 30o . A three phase short circuit fault occurs at a certain location on one of the circuits of
the double circuit transmission line. During fault, electrical power in pu is sin . If the values
of and at the instant of fault clearing are 45o and 3.762 radian/s respectively, then (in
pu) is _______.
Q.44 The block diagram of a system is shown in the figure
1 -
R(s) +
-
+
- G(s) s C(s)
s
If the desired transfer function of the system is
C ( s) s
=
R( s) s 2 + s + 1
then G(s) is
s
(A) 1 (B) s (C) 1/s (D)
s + s2 s 2
3
EE 10/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.45 Consider the system described by following state space equations
x1 0 1 x1 0 x
x = 1 1 x + 1 u ; y = [1 0] 1
2 2 x2
If u is unit step input, then the steady state error of the system is
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 1
Q.46 The magnitude Bode plot of a network is shown in the figure
|G(j)| Slope 20 dB/decade

dB
0 log10
1 1
3
The maximum phase angle m and the corresponding gain Gm respectively, are
(A) 30 and 1.73 dB (B) 30 and 4.77dB
(C) + 30 and 4.77dB (D) + 30 and 1.73 dB
Q.47 A periodic waveform observed across a load is represented by
1 + sin t 0 t < 6
V (t ) =
1 + sin t 6 t < 12
The measured value, using moving iron voltmeter connected across the load, is
3 2 3 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 2 3
Q.48 In the bridge circuit shown, the capacitors are loss free. At balance, the value of capacitance C1 in
microfarad is _________.
35k C1
Vsin(t) G
105k 0.1F
EE 11/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.49 Two monoshot multivibrators, one positive edge triggered (M1) and another negative edge triggered
(M2), are connected as shown in figure
+5V
10k M1 M2
Q1 Q2 vo
10F Q1 Q2
The monoshots M1 and M2 when triggered produce pulses of width T1 and T2 respectively, where
T1>T2. The steady state output voltage vo of the circuit is
(A) vo
T1 T2 T1 T2 T1
t
(B) vo
T1 T1 T1 T1
t
(C) vo
T2 T1 T2 T1 T2
t
(D) vo
T2 T2 T2 T2 T2 T2
EE 12/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.50 The transfer characteristic of the Op-amp circuit shown in figure is
R
+Vsat R
vi R
+Vsat
- R
-
+
-Vsat + vo
R
-Vsat
R
(A) (B)
v0
1
-1 v0
vi vi
(C) (D)
v0 v0
vi vi
1 -1
Q.51 A 3-bit gray counter is used to control the output of the multiplexer as shown in the figure. The
initial state of the counter is 0002. The output is pulled high. The output of the circuit follows the
sequence
A2
+5V
3-bit gray A1
counter A0
S0 S1
E R
I0 0
I1 1 4X1
I2 2 MUX Output
3
CLK
I3
(A) I0, 1, 1, I1, I3, 1, 1, I2 (B) I0, 1, I1, 1, I2, 1, I3, 1

(C) 1, I0, 1, I1, I2, 1, I3,1 (D) I0, I1, I2, I3, I0, I1, I2, I3
EE 13/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.52 A hysteresis type TTL inverter is used to realize an oscillator in the circuit shown in the figure.
10k
+5V
vo
0.1F
If the lower and upper trigger level voltages are 0.9 V and 1.7 V, the period (in ms), for which
output is LOW, is __________.
Q.53 A three-phase fully controlled bridge converter is fed through star-delta transformer as shown in the
figure.
IR Io
1:K
R
The converter is operated at a firing angle of 300. Assuming the load current (I0) to be virtually
constant at 1 p.u. and transformer to be an ideal one, the input phase current waveform is
(A) 2/3K (B) 2K/3

1/3K K/3
IR IR
0 2 0 2
(C) 2K/3 (D) 2/3K
IR IR
0 2 0 2
EE 14/15
careers 360
Academy
Q.54 A diode circuit feeds an ideal inductor as shown in the figure. Given = 100 sin() V, where
= 100 rad/s, and L = 31.83 mH. The initial value of inductor current is zero. Switch S is closed
at t = 2.5 ms. The peak value of inductor current iL (in A) in the first cycle is ________.
Q.55 A single-phase voltage source inverter shown in figure is feeding power to a load. The triggering
pulses of the devices are also shown in the figure.
S1 S2
C S1,S4
VDC 2
O A iL B
Load
C
S3 S2,S3
S4
+ 2
If the load current is sinusoidal and is zero at 0, , 2, the node voltage VAO has the waveform
(A) VDC/2 (B) VDC/2
VAO
2 VAO
2
-VDC/2
(C) VDC/2 (D) VDC/2
VAO
2 VAO
2
-VDC/2
EE 15/15
careers 360
Academy
GATE2014
AnswerKeysforEEElectricalEngineering
SESSION9 SESSION9
Section Q.No. Section Q.No.
Key/Range Marks Key/Range Marks
GA 1 D 1 EE 24 C 1
GA 2 C 1 EE 25 B 1
GA 3 C 1 EE 26 C 2
GA 4 C 1 EE 27 D 2
GA 5 C 1 EE 28 0.05to0.07 2
GA 6 B 2 EE 29 2to2 2
GA 7 D 2 EE 30 3to3 2
GA 8 D 2 EE 31 B 2
GA 9 C 2 EE 32 B 2
GA 10 C 2 EE 33 D 2
EE 1 C 1 EE 34 C 2
EE 2 2to2 1 EE 35 B 2
EE 3 A 1 EE 36 B 2
EE 4 0.4to0.5 1 EE 37 32.4to34.0 2
EE 5 C 1 EE 38 879to881 2
EE 6 C 1 EE 39 23to24 2
EE 7 A 1 EE 40 B 2
EE 8 A 1 EE 41 186to188 2
EE 9 A 1 EE 42 0.75to0.75 2
EE 10 14to14 1 EE 43 0.22to0.24 2
EE 11 D 1 EE 44 B 2
EE 12 C 1 EE 45 A 2
EE 13 12.45to12.65 1 EE 46 C 2
EE 14 A 1 EE 47 A 2
EE 15 B 1 EE 48 0.3to0.3 2
EE 16 332to332 1 EE 49 C 2
EE 17 C 1 EE 50 C 2
EE 18 A 1 EE 51 A 2
EE 19 2to2 1 EE 52 0.62to0.66 2
EE 20 A 1 EE 53 B 2
EE 21 D 1 EE 54 16.6to17.4 2
EE 22 D 1 EE 55 D 2
EE 23 C 1
GATE
Question Paper
2013
(with Solutions)
careers 360
Academy
2013 Question Booklet Code
A
EE : ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that either:
a. The Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with
the Question Booklet Code at the right hand top corner of the ORS or
b. The Question Paper Code preceding the Registration number on the ORS is not EE,
then exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet.
3. On the right half hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, (i) darken the
appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number,
your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the
bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE
marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks
questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked
answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no
negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the Question Booklet itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
Question Booklet for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ballpoint pen.
Name
Registration Number EE
EE-A 1/20
careers 360
Academy
2013 ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING - EE
Q.1 to Q.25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 In the circuit shown below what is the output voltage (Vout) in Volts if a silicon transistor Q and an
ideal op-amp are used?
(A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15
Q.2 V2 ( s )
The transfer function of the circuit shown below is
V1 ( s )
0.5 s + 1 3s + 6
(A) (B)
s +1 s+2
s+2 s +1
(C) (D)
s +1 s+2
Q.3 Assuming zero initial condition, the response y (t ) of the system given below to a unit step input
u (t ) is
(D) e t u (t )
2
(A) u (t ) (B) t u (t ) (C) t u (t )
2
Q.4 The impulse response of a system is h(t ) = t u (t ) . For an input u (t 1) , the output is
2 t (t 1) (t 1) 2 t2 1
(A) t u (t ) (B) u (t 1) (C) u (t 1) (D) u (t 1)
2 2 2 2
EE-A 2/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.5 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a continuous time causal and stable
LTI system?
(A) All the poles of the system must lie on the left side of the j axis.
(B) Zeros of the system can lie anywhere in the s-plane.
(C) All the poles must lie within s = 1.
(D) All the roots of the characteristic equation must be located on the left side of the j axis.
Q.6 Two systems with impulse responses h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) are connected in cascade. Then the overall
impulse response of the cascaded system is given by
(A) product of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )

(B) sum of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )
(C) convolution of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )
(D) subtraction of h2 (t ) from h1 (t )
Q.7 A source vs (t ) = V cos100 t has an internal impedance of (4 + j3) . If a purely resistive load
connected to this source has to extract the maximum power out of the source, its value in should
be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7
Q.8 A single-phase load is supplied by a single-phase voltage source. If the current flowing from the
load to the source is 10 1500 A and if the voltage at the load terminals is 100600 V, then the
(A) load absorbs real power and delivers reactive power.
(B) load absorbs real power and absorbs reactive power.
(C) load delivers real power and delivers reactive power.
(D) load delivers real power and absorbs reactive power.
Q.9 A single-phase transformer has no-load loss of 64 W, as obtained from an open-circuit test. When a
short-circuit test is performed on it with 90% of the rated currents flowing in its both LV and HV
windings, the measured loss is 81 W. The transformer has maximum efficiency when operated at
(A) 50.0% of the rated current.
(B) 64.0% of the rated current.
(C) 80.0% of the rated current.
(D) 88.8% of the rated current.
Q.10 The flux density at a point in space is given by B = 4 x a x + 2ky a y + 8 a z Wb/m2. The value of
constant k must be equal to
(A) 2 (B) 0.5 (C) +0.5 (D) +2
Q.11 A continuous random variable X has a probability density function f ( x) = e x , 0 < x < . Then
P { X > 1} is
(A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0
EE-A 3/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.12 The curl of the gradient of the scalar field defined by V = 2 x 2 y + 3 y 2 z + 4 z 2 x is
(A) 4 xy a x + 6 yz a y + 8 zx a z
(B) 4 a x + 6 a y + 8 a z
( ) ( ) (
(C) 4 xy + 4 z 2 a x + 2 x 2 + 6 yz a y + 3 y 2 + 8 zx a z )
(D) 0
Q.13 In the feedback network shown below, if the feedback factor k is increased, then the
+ v + + vout
in v1 A0

vf =kvout+ k +

(A) input impedance increases and output impedance decreases.

(B) input impedance increases and output impedance also increases.
(C) input impedance decreases and output impedance also decreases.
(D) input impedance decreases and output impedance increases.
Q.14 The input impedance of the permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) voltmeter is infinite.
Assuming that the diode shown in the figure below is ideal, the reading of the voltmeter in Volts is
(A) 4.46 (B) 3.15 (C) 2.23 (D) 0
EE-A 4/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.15 The Bode plot of a transfer function G (s ) is shown in the figure below.
The gain (20 log G ( s ) ) is 32 dB and 8 dB at 1 rad/s and 10 rad/s respectively. The phase is
negative for all . Then G (s) is
39.8 39.8 32 32
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s 2 s s2
Q.16 A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floor and the other one at the
first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the switches
irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb resembles
(A) an AND gate (B) an OR gate (C) an XOR gate (D) a NAND gate
Q.17 For a periodic signal v(t ) = 30 sin 100 t + 10 cos 300 t + 6 sin (500 t + / 4) , the fundamental
frequency in rad/s is
(A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500
Q.18 A band-limited signal with a maximum frequency of 5 kHz is to be sampled. According to the
sampling theorem, the sampling frequency in kHz which is not valid is
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20
Q.19 Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection as shown below. If all
elements of the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k > 0, the elements of the corresponding
star equivalent will be scaled by a factor of
Ra RC RB
Rb Rc
RA
(A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k
EE-A 5/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.20 The angle in the swing equation of a synchronous generator is the

(A) angle between stator voltage and current.
(B) angular displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator.
(C) angular displacement of the stator mmf with respect to a synchronously rotating axis.
(D) angular displacement of an axis fixed to the rotor with respect to a synchronously rotating axis.
Q.21 Leakage flux in an induction motor is
(A) flux that leaks through the machine
(B) flux that links both stator and rotor windings
(C) flux that links none of the windings
(D) flux that links the stator winding or the rotor winding but not both
Q.22 Three moving iron type voltmeters are connected as shown below. Voltmeter readings are
V , V1 and V2 , as indicated. The correct relation among the voltmeter readings is
V1 V2
(A) V = + (B) V = V1 + V2 (C) V = VV
1 2 (D) V = V2 V1
2 2
Q.23 Square roots of i , where i = 1 , are

(A) i, i
3 3
(B) cos( ) + i sin( ), cos( ) + i sin( )
4 4 4 4
3 3
(C) cos( ) + i sin( ), cos( ) + i sin( )
4 4 4 4
3 3 3 3
(D) cos( ) + i sin( ), cos( ) + i sin( )
4 4 4 4
Given a vector field F = y x a x yz a y x a z , the line integral F d l evaluated along a segment
2 2
Q.24
on the x-axis from x = 1 to x = 2 is
(A) 2.33 (B) 0 (C) 2.33 (D) 7
Q.25 2 2 x1 0
The equation = has
1 1 x2 0
(A) no solution
x 0
(B) only one solution 1 =
x2 0
(C) non-zero unique solution
(D) multiple solutions
EE-A 6/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 A strain gauge forms one arm of the bridge shown in the figure below and has a nominal resistance
without any load as Rs = 300 . Other bridge resistances are R1 = R2 = R3 = 300 . The maximum
permissible current through the strain gauge is 20 mA. During certain measurement when the
bridge is excited by maximum permissible voltage and the strain gauge resistance is increased by
1% over the nominal value, the output voltage V0 in mV is
Rs R1
V0

Vi
R3 R2
(A) 56.02 (B) 40.83 (C) 29.85 (D) 10.02
Q.27 In the circuit shown below, the knee current of the ideal Zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 V
across RL, the minimum value of RL in and the minimum power rating of the Zener diode in mW
respectively are
(A) 125 and 125 (B) 125 and 250 (C) 250 and 125 (D) 250 and 250
(s) 10
Q.28 The open-loop transfer function of a dc motor is given as = . When connected in
Va ( s) 1 + 10 s
feedback as shown below, the approximate value of K a that will reduce the time constant of the
closed loop system by one hundred times as compared to that of the open-loop system is
R(s) Va(s) 10 (s)

Ka
1+10s
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100

EE-A 7/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.29 In the circuit shown below, if the source voltage VS = 10053.13 V then the Thevenins equivalent
voltage in Volts as seen by the load resistance RL is
3 j4 j6 5
VL1
VS j40I2 10VL1 RL=10
I1 I2
(A) 10090 (B) 8000 (C) 80090 (D) 10060
Q.30 Three capacitors C1, C2, and C3, whose values are 10F, 5F, and 2F respectively, have
breakdown voltages of 10V, 5V, and 2V respectively. For the interconnection shown, the maximum
safe voltage in Volts that can be applied across the combination and the corresponding total charge
in C stored in the effective capacitance across the terminals are respectively
C2 C3
C1
(A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119
(C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80
Q.31 A voltage Volts is applied across YZ. Assuming ideal diodes, the voltage measured
across WX in Volts is
1k
W Y X
Z
+ 1k _
(A) (B) (sin t + sin t ) / 2

(C) (sin t sin t ) / 2 (D) 0 for all t
EE-A 8/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.32 The separately excited dc motor in the figure below has a rated armature current of 20 A and a rated
armature voltage of 150 V. An ideal chopper switching at 5 kHz is used to control the armature
voltage. If La= 0.1 mH, Ra= 1 , neglecting armature reaction, the duty ratio of the chopper to
obtain 50% of the rated torque at the rated speed and the rated field current is
200V La ,Ra
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.7
Q.33 For a power system network with n nodes, Z33 of its bus impedance matrix is j0.5 per unit. The
voltage at node 3 is 1.3 10 per unit. If a capacitor having reactance of j3.5 per unit is now
added to the network between node 3 and the reference node, the current drawn by the capacitor per
unit is
(A) 0.325 100 (B) 0.325 80 (C) 0.371 100 (D) 0.433 80
Q.34 A dielectric slab with 500 mm 500 mm cross-section is 0.4 m long. The slab is subjected to a uniform
electric field of E = 6 a x + 8 a y kV/mm. The relative permittivity of the dielectric material is equal to
2. The value of constant 0 is 8.85 1012 F/m. The energy stored in the dielectric in Joules is
(A) 8.85 1011 (B) 8.85 105 (C) 88.5 (D) 885
1 1
Q.35 A matrix has eigenvalues 1 and 2. The corresponding eigenvectors are and
1 2
respectively. The matrix is
1 1 1 2 1 0 0 1
(A)
2
(B)
4
(C) (D)
1 2 0 2 2 3
z2 4
Q.36
z2
+4
dz evaluated anticlockwise around the circle z i = 2 , where i = 1 , is
(A) 4 (B) 0 (C) 2 + (D) 2 + 2i
EE-A 9/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.37 The clock frequency applied to the digital circuit shown in the figure below is 1 kHz. If the initial
state of the output Q of the flip-flop is 0, then the frequency of the output waveform Q in kHz is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2
Q.38 In the circuit shown below, Q1 has negligible collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and the diode
drops negligible voltage across it under forward bias. If Vcc is +5 V, X and Y are digital signals
with 0 V as logic 0 and Vcc as logic 1, then the Boolean expression for Z is
(A) X Y (B) (C) X Y (D) XY
Q.39 In the circuit shown below the op-amps are ideal. Then Vout in Volts is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
EE-A 10/20
careers 360
Academy
Y (s)
Q.40 The signal flow graph for a system is given below. The transfer function for this system is
U ( s)
s +1 s +1
(A) (B)
5s2 + 6s + 2 s2 + 6 s + 2
s +1 1
(C) (D)
s2 + 4 s + 2 5s2 + 6s + 2
Q.41 The impulse response of a continuous time system is given by h(t ) = (t 1) + (t 3) . The value
of the step response at t = 2 is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.42 Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils have Q factors q1 and q2 at the chosen operating
frequency. Their respective resistances are R1 and R2. When connected in series, their effective
Q factor at the same operating frequency is
(A) q1 R1 + q2 R2 (B) q1 / R1 + q2 / R2
(C) (q1R1 + q2 R2 ) / ( R1 + R2 ) (D) q1R2 + q2 R1
Q.43 The following arrangement consists of an ideal transformer and an attenuator which attenuates
by a factor of 0.8. An ac voltage VWX 1 = 100V is applied across WX to get an open circuit voltage
VYZ 1 across YZ. Next, an ac voltage VYZ 2 = 100V is applied across YZ to get an open circuit
voltage VWX 2 across WX. Then, VYZ 1 / VWX 1 , VWX 2 / VYZ 2 are respectively,
W
1:1.25
Y
X Z
(A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100

(C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100
EE-A 11/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.44 Thyristor T in the figure below is initially off and is triggered with a single pulse of width 10 s. It
is given that L = (100
) H and C = (100 ) F. Assuming latching and holding currents of the
thyristor are both zero and the initial charge on C is zero, T conducts for
L
T
15V C

(A) 10 s (B) 50 s (C) 100 s (D) 200 s
Q.45 A 4-pole induction motor, supplied by a slightly unbalanced three-phase 50 Hz source, is rotating at
1440 rpm. The electrical frequency in Hz of the induced negative sequence current in the rotor is
(A) 100 (B) 98 (C) 52 (D) 48
Q.46 A function y = 5 x 2 + 10 x is defined over an open interval x = (1, 2) . At least at one point in this
dy
interval, is exactly
dx
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35
When the Newton-Raphson method is applied to solve the equation f ( x ) = x + 2 x 1 = 0, the

3
Q.47
solution at the end of the first iteration with the initial guess value as x0 = 1.2 is
(A) 0.82 (B) 0.49 (C) 0.705 (D) 1.69
Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
In the figure shown below, the chopper feeds a resistive load from a battery source. MOSFET Q is
switched at 250 kHz, with a duty ratio of 0.4. All elements of the circuit are assumed to be ideal.
100H
12V 470F
Q 20
Q.48 The average source current in Amps in steady-state is
(A) 3/2 (B) 5/3 (C) 5/2 (D) 15/4
Q.49 The PEAK-TO-PEAK source current ripple in Amps is
(A) 0.96 (B) 0.144 (C) 0.192 (D) 0.288

EE-A 12/20
careers 360
Academy
Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:
The state variable formulation of a system is given as

x1 2 0 x1 1 x1
x = 0 1 x + 1 u , x1 (0) = 0, x 2 (0) = 0 and y = [1 0] x
2 2 2
Q.50 The system is
(A) controllable but not observable
(B) not controllable but observable
(C) both controllable and observable
(D) both not controllable and not observable
Q.51 The response y (t ) to a unit step input is
1 1 2 t 1 2 t 1 t
(A) e (B) 1 e e
2 2 2 2
(C) e 2 t e t (D) 1 e t
Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
In the following network, the voltage magnitudes at all buses are equal to 1 p.u., the voltage phase angles
are very small, and the line resistances are negligible. All the line reactances are equal to j1 .
1 1 2
201
1 1

02
Q.52 The voltage phase angles in rad at buses 2 and 3 are

(A) 2 = 0.1, 3 = 0.2
(B) 2 = 0, 3 = 0.1
(C) 2 = 0.1, 3 = 0.1
(D) 2 = 0.1, 3 = 0.2
Q.53 If the base impedance and the line-to-line base voltage are 100 and 100 kV, respectively, then the
real power in MW delivered by the generator connected at the slack bus is
(A) 10 (B) 0 (C) 10 (D) 20
EE-A 13/20
careers 360
Academy
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

The Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) shown in the figure below is switched to provide a 50 Hz, square-wave
ac output voltage (vo) across an R-L load. Reference polarity of vo and reference direction of the output
current io are indicated in the figure. It is given that R = 3 , L = 9.55 mH .
Q1 Q3
D1 D3 L
V dc vo io R
Q4 Q2
D4 D2
Q.54 In the interval when v 0 < 0 and i0 > 0 the pair of devices which conducts the load current is
(A) Q1, Q2 (B) Q3, Q4 (C) D1, D2 (D) D3, D4
Q.55 Appropriate transition i.e., Zero Voltage Switching (ZVS)/Zero Current Switching (ZCS) of the
IGBTs during turn-on/turn-off is
(A) ZVS during turn-off (B) ZVS during turn-on
(C) ZCS during turn-off (D) ZCS during turn-on
EE-A 14/20
careers 360
Academy
General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q.56 to Q.60 carry one mark each.
Q.56 They were requested not to quarrel with others.
Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word quarrel?
(A) make out (B) call out (C) dig out (D) fall out
Q.57 In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41C
and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43C. If the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than that of
Monday, then the temperature in C on Thursday was
(A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49
Q.58 Complete the sentence:

Dare _______________ mistakes.
(A) commit (B) to commit (C) committed (D) committing
Q.59 Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:

(A) Two and two add four.
(B) Two and two become four.
(C) Two and two are four.
(D) Two and two make four.
Q.60 Statement: You can always give me a ring whenever you need.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) Because I have a nice caller tune.
(B) Because I have a better telephone facility.
(C) Because a friend in need is a friend indeed.
(D) Because you need not pay towards the telephone bills when you give me a ring.
Q.61 to Q.65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will contain 53 Saturdays?
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7
Q.62 Statement: There were different streams of freedom movements in colonial India carried out by the
moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists, and so on.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) The emergence of nationalism in colonial India led to our Independence.
(B) Nationalism in India emerged in the context of colonialism.
(C) Nationalism in India is homogeneous.
(D) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous.
Q.63 The set of values of p for which the roots of the equation 3x2+2x+p(p1) = 0 are of opposite sign is
(A) (, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ) (D) (0, )
EE-A 15/20
careers 360
Academy
Q.64 A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third
quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is
(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24
Q.65 Find the sum to n terms of the series 10+84+ 734 + .....
(A)
(
9 9n + 1 ) +1
10
(B)
(
9 9n 1) +1
8
(C)
(
9 9n 1 )+n
8
(D)
(
9 9n 1 )+ n 2
EE-A 16/20
careers 360
Academy
Space for Rough Work
EE-A 17/20
careers 360
Academy
EE-A 18/20
careers 360
Academy
EE-A 19/20
careers 360
Academy
EE-A 20/20
careers 360
Academy
GATE 2013 : Answer keys for EE - Electrical Engineering
ORS code A ORS code B ORS Code C ORS Code D

Paper Q.No
Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s)
EE 1 B A D B
EE 2 D A A D
EE 3 B B A B
EE 4 C C C D
EE 5 C A B D
EE 6 C A C D
EE 7 C B C B
EE 8 B D C A
EE 9 C D C A
EE 10 A D B C
EE 11 A B D B
EE 12 D D B A
EE 13 A B D A
EE 14 A B B D
EE 15 B D B A
EE 16 C B D A
EE 17 A C D C
EE 18 A C D B
EE 19 B C B C
EE 20 D C A C
EE 21 D B A C
EE 22 D C C C
EE 23 B A B B
EE 24 B A A D
EE 25 D D A B
EE 26 C B D C
EE 27 B B A B
EE 28 C C C B
EE 29 C A D C
EE 30 C B D B
EE 31 D C D C
EE 32 D B C B
EE 33 D C C A
EE 34 C B C C
EE 35 D B B B
Page 1 of 2
careers 360
Academy
GATE 2013 : Answer keys for EE - Electrical Engineering
ORS code A ORS code B ORS Code C ORS Code D

Paper Q.No
Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s) Key(s)/Value(s)
EE 36 A C C B
EE 37 B C C A
EE 38 B B B D
EE 39 C C B C
EE 40 A C C D
EE 41 B C B D
EE 42 C D C D
EE 43 B D B C
EE 44 C D A C
EE 45 B C C C
EE 46 B D B B
EE 47 C A B C
EE 48 B A C A
EE 49 C A B A
EE 50 A B A C
EE 51 A C A B
EE 52 Marks to All D D Marks to All
EE 53 Marks to All Marks to All Marks to All Marks to All
EE 54 D Marks to All Marks to All D
EE 55 Marks to All Marks to All Marks to All Marks to All
EE 56 D A C D
EE 57 C D A C
EE 58 A C D C
EE 59 D C D A
EE 60 C D C D
EE 61 A B D C
EE 62 D A B D
EE 63 B D C D
EE 64 C D A B
EE 65 D C D A
Page 2 of 2

GATE Electrical Engineering Question &amp; Answer Key

Diunggah oleh

Informasi Dokumen

Hak Cipta

Format Tersedia

Bagikan dokumen Ini

Bagikan atau Tanam Dokumen

Opsi Berbagi

Apakah menurut Anda dokumen ini bermanfaat?

Apakah konten ini tidak pantas?

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

GATE Electrical Engineering Question &amp; Answer Key

Diunggah oleh

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

GATE

Question Paper Name: EE: ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 7th Feb Shift1

Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 2 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 3 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 4 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 5 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 6 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 7 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 9 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 10 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 11 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 12 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 13 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 14 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 15 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 16 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 17 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 18 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 19 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 20 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 21 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 22 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 23 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 24 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 25 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 26 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 27 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 28 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 29 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 30 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 31 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 32 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 33 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 34 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 36 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 37 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 38 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 39 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 40 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 41 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 42 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 44 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 45 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 47 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 48 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 50 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 51 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 52 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 53 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 54 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 55 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 56 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 57 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 58 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 59 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 60 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 61 Question Type : NAT

Question Number : 62 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 64 Question Type : MCQ

Question Number : 65 Question Type : MCQ

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

7. To answer a question, do the following:

GATE Electrical Engineering Question & Answer Key

GATE Electrical Engineering Question & Answer Key