c.
36
Exam No: _____
Mathematics
Relax. This is just a diagnostic
exam. But answer it like the
real thing.
Do not begin unless told to do
so.
Only pens are allowed on top
of the table. Scratch paper
shall be provided.
For each question, encircle the
letter of the best answer.
You have 40 minutes for this
part of the exam. Enjoy.
Paolo has a total of ninety P20,
P50, and P100-bills. She has
three and a half times as
many P50 as P20-bills,
and one-half as many P100 as
P20-bills. How much money
does he have?
a. P600
d. P4350
b. P1500
e. None of the above
c. P2250
2. What number comes next in
the following series? 4, 16,
36, 64,
a. 94
d. 100
b. 81
e. None of the above
c. 64
3. The larger of two numbers is
six more than six times the
smaller number. The larger
number is also 122 more
than two times the smaller
number. What is the smaller
number?
a. 180
d. 29
b. 116
e. None of the above
4. The measures of two angles
in a trapezoid are in the ratio
of 2:4. The measure of the
larger angle is twentyfour
degrees less than three times
the smaller angle. What is the
measure of the larger angle?
a. 24 degrees
d. 108 degrees
b. 48 degrees
e. None of the above
c. 72 degrees
5. Two airline buses leave an
airport at the same time in
opposite directions. The first
plane is traveling at 325
kph and the other at 275 kph.
How long will it take for the
planes to be 2,700 kilometers
apart?
a. 4 hours
d. 4.5 minutes
b. 270 minutes e. None of the
above
c. 5 hours
6. Jaypee calculated the total
revenue for the night to be
P54,540. A total of 540 tickets
and souvenirs were
sold. If a ticket cost P112 each
and a souvenir costs P68,
how many tickets were sold?
a. 420
d. 120
b. 405
e. None of the above
c. 135
7. Trinidad has a total of sixty
P100, P200 and P500-bills.
She has a total of P16,800.
She has eight more P500
than P100-bills and eight fewer
P500 than P200-bills. How
many of P200-bill does she
have?
a. 12
d. 60
b. 20
e. None of the above
c. 28
8. One angle in triangle
degrees. What is the
a. 31, 43, 106
d.
b. 31, 54, 95
e.
c. 31, 63, 8
ABC is 31 degrees. The
difference between the
measures of the other two
angles is 63
measure of each angle in
triangle ABC?
31, 74, 75
None of the above
9. The ratio of adult tickets to
student tickets for the play
was 4:5. If the sum of the
adult tickets and one half
of the students tickets is 260,
how many adult tickets were
sold?
a. 80
d. 200
b. 100
e. None of the above
c. 160
10. Factor: a3 27
a. (a 3)3
b. (a + 3)(a 3)
c. (a2 9)(a + 3)
d. (a 3)(a2 + 3a + 9)
e. None of the above
11. The sum of the digits of a
three-digit number is 12. The
tens digit is two more than
the ones digit. The
hundreds digit is five less than
three times the ones digit.
What is the number?
a. 642
d. 660
b. 453
e. None of the above
c. 831
12. If Cyril were three times as
old as he was five years ago,
he will be sixty less than six
times his current age.
How old is Cyril?
a. 60
d. 15
b. 30
e. None of the above
c. 25
13. The Daily Bugle offers
advertisement space at P98 a
page printed in colored. How
many pages would P2,450
buy?
a. 35
d. 20
b. 30
e. None of the above
c. 25
14. How much water should be
added to one liter of pure
alcohol to make a mixture of
50% alcohol?
a. 1 liter
d. 0.5 liters
b. 2 liter
e. None of the above
c. 1.5 liters
15. What are two consecutive
integers, such that seven
times the larger minus three
times the smaller is 95?
a. 21 and 22
d. 23 and 24
b. 24 and 25
e. None of the above
c. 22 and 23
16. Sixty-three more than four-
fifths of a number equals 111.
What is the number?
a. 60
d. 32
b. 48
e. None of the above
c. 54
17. The ratio of votes for Raf to
votes for Jayson in an election
is 13:5. There were a total of
1,530 votes. How
many people voted for Jayson?
a. 1105
d. 85
b. 680
e. None of the above
c. 425
18. The sum of three positive
consecutive integers is less
than 346. What pair of
numbers has the greatest
sum?
a. 111, 112, 113
d. 115, 116, 117
b. 103, 104, 105 e. None of the
above
c. 114, 115, 116
19. Simon is nine years older
than Jairus. Simon is four
times as old as Joter was
three years ago. Joter is
eighteen years younger than
Marshall. How old is Jairus?
a. 10
d. 28
b. 12
e. None of the above
c. 19
20. Emarlu played a few
games of bowling. In the third
game he scored 80 more than
in the second game. In the
first game he scored 110 less
than in the third game. His
total score for the first two
games was 208. If he
wants an average score of
146, what must he score in
the fourth game?
a. 89
d. 199
b. 119
e. None of the above
c. 177
21. Evaluate: 1 + 16 2 8
10
a. 8
d. 0
b. 8
e. None of the above
c. 53
22. Which of the following
fractions has the greatest
value?
a. 3 / 7
d. 4 / 9
b. 8 / 13
e. None of the above
c. 6 / 11
23. There are three
consecutive even integers.
Half the sum of the second
and third numbers is 35.
What are the
integers?
a. 69, 71, 73
d. 32, 34, 36
b. 38, 70, 72
e. None of the above
c. 33, 35, 37
24. If 27 is added to a two-digit
number, the original number
will be reversed. The number
is three less than four
times the sum of its digits.
What is the number?
a. 25
d. 63
b. 36
e. None of the above
c. 52
25. Tank drove to Alex's house
at 45 kph. Neil's house is 28
kilometers away. Leia arrived
at Neil's house at 4:27
PM. What time did she leave?
a. 4:02 PM
d. 3:52 PM
b. 4:52 PM
e. None of the above
c. 5:02 PM
26. A rectangle, whose
perimeter is 144 feet, has a
 length that is 6 feet longer
than its width. What is the
area of
the rectangle?
a. 4,752 ft2
d. 5,175 ft2
2 third house?
b. 5,616 ft
e. None of the above
2 b. P2,100
c. 5,184 ft
27. A rectangle and a square
have the same area. The
length of the rectangle is 48
inches more than two times
its
width. The length of a side of
the square is 48 inches. The
side of the square is 72
inches less than five times
the width of the rectangle.
What is the area of the
rectangle and the square?
a. 24 in2
d. 2304 in2
b. 48 in2
e. None of the above
2 Grammatical Reasoning
c. 576 in
28. Evaluate: 22 + 90.5 + 21
+ 2250
a. 22
d. 358
b. 15
e. None of the above
c. 10
29. Arnold owns three houses
and makes money by renting
them out. He charges three
times as much per month
for the second house than for
the first. The monthly rent for
the third house is P2,610 less
than the sum of
the monthly rents for the first
two houses. The first house
was vacant for six months,
but otherwise rents
were received every month
from the tenants of the three
houses. Arnold had total rent
receipts of P186,390
for the year. How much, per
month, was the rent for the
a. P2,071
d. P6,300
e. None of the above
c. P5,790
30. Evaluate: | 4 5 | | 3 5 |
|34|
a. 2
d. 0
b. 1
e. None of the above
c. 1
Do not go to the next page
until told to do so.
If you still have time to review
your
answers, then sh*t, youre
really
damn smart.
1. In case you didnt know,
barokness is a no no in law
school.
2. Do not begin unless told to
do so.
3. Only pens are allowed on
top of the table.
4. For each question, encircle
the letter of the best answer.
5. Only 20 minutes for this part
of the exam boys and girls.
GRAMMAR
1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The Lobo Corporation _____ its
losses over the past seven Neither Cyril nor the other
years. (2) janitors filed _____ income tax
had been doubling returns. (4)
has doubling ours
has doubled theirs
had doubled their
None of the above her
None of the above

I _____ to Ilocos and seen the

exhibits at Marcos museum. _____ winning in spite of the
(10) odds inspired us all. (1)
will go Your
had been Him
have been You
went He
None of the above None of the above

3. If Marshall had locked his 7.

car properly, it _____ stolen. a.
(3) b.
a. c.
b. d.
c. e.
d.
e. Almost all middle-born children
place great importance on
was not _____ peer group. (5)
would not have been you
would not be his
will not be their
None of the above our
None of the above

_____ get tired of driving on the 8.

same route everyday?
Had you ever In my company, only officials
Have you ever are allowed _____ share
Are you ever option schemes. (6)
Do you ever to
None of the above of
with
5. for
a. None of the above
b.
c.
d.
e.
The question of _____ we dwellers who are not
should condemn must be registered to
decided by next week. (8) a
who b
whom c
which d
that vote. None of the above
None of the above e
14. Over the past few decades,
10. the mining industry had
a. grown into a multi-billion
b. peso
c. a
d. b
e. industry that employs tens of
thousands of laborers. None
The majority of construction of the above
workers _____ college c
graduates. (9) d
was e
is 15. Most of his subjects agree
are that it is reasonable for the
has been representative
None of the above a
b
IDENTIFYING ERRORS to not acquiesce to the
11. He is not sure if he should demands of the transit
buy the new car now or wait authority. None of the above
until he receives his c
a d
b e
c 16. One cannot perform
d multiple tasks simultaneously
next bonus. None of the above if he is easily distracted by
e a
12. The Medical experts did b
not conclude that the c
negative side affects of the ones sorroundings. None of
drug the above
a d
b e
offset the drugs positive 17. As he held open the door
benefits. None of the above for her, she could not ignore
c the look on his eyes, a look
d that
e a
13. Despite rising voter drive, aggravated her self-
there are still many city- consciousness as they
 proceeded along the alley. a. It is highly desirable that
None of the above you should furnish evidence
b of your expenses
c b. It is highly desirable that
d you furnish evidence of your
e expenses
18. Reading widely in her field, c. You must furnish evidence of
making her self available to your expenses
students for consultation, and d. It is highly to be desired that
a you furnish evidences of your
b expenses
her sophisticated research e. None of the above
paid off for Professor Lobo; 22. The best way to promote
she was awarded tenure innovative thinking is not to
c promise financial rewards for
d ideas, but to ensure that
last year. None of the above the person making the
e suggestion receives
recognition for his
19. Debating the anti- contribution.
contraceptive bill was the a.
first order of business for the b.
House; to set c.
a d.
b e.
c
the calendar for the upcoming but to ensure that the person
session who makes the suggestion
was to follow. None of the will be receiving recognition
above for his contribution
d but to ensure that the person
e making the suggestion
20. Youth, as the Egyptians receives recognition for his
and other early civilizations contribution
knew, are best spent but rather ensure that
a suggestion-maker receives
b recognition for his
c contribution
as a time of learning and of but rather by ensuring that the
recreation. None of the above person making the
d suggestion receives
e recognition for his
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT contribution
21. It is highly desirable that None of the above
you furnish evidence of your
expenses before you submit 23. Only two out of every
your ending accounts. 150,000 chemical compounds
proves useful in the field of
pharmaceuticals, thus many
research scientists spend their
entire careers to investigate
drugs that will never receive
FDA approval.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
many research scientists
spend their entire career in
the investigation of drugs
many research scientists
spend their entire careers to
investigate drugs
many research scientists
investigate drugs in their
entire careers
many a research scientist
spends his or her entire
career investigating drugs
None of the above
24. Among the many reasons
for his loss in the election was
his arrogant assumption that
his constituents were
incapable of understanding
economic conditions, and his
unjustifiable attack on his
main rival.
a.
b.
c b.
d.
e.
were his arrogant assumption
that his constituents would be
incapable of understanding
economics
was his arrogant assumption
that his constituents were
incapable of understanding
economic conditions
were his arrogant assumptions
that his constituents were
incapable of understanding
economical conditions
were his arrogant assumption
that his constituents were
incapable of understanding
economic conditions
None of the above
25. The government requires
that these forms should be
submitted before the end of
the fiscal year.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
that these forms be submitted
these forms submission
that these forms should be
submitted
for these forms to be
submitted
None of the above
26. In the early stages of
learning a new language we
learn more through listening
and attempting to copy
speech
patterns and not through
reading grammar books.
a.
c.
d.
e.
and attempts to copy speech
patterns than through reading
grammar books
and attempting to copy speech
patterns and not through
reading grammar books
and attempts at copying
speech patterns than through
reading grammar books
and attempting to copy speech
patterns than through reading
grammar books
None of the above
27. In the fine print at the end
of the paper lies the clauses
that make us liable for any
expenses that result from
civil unrest.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
lies the clause that make us
liable for any expenses that
lies the clauses that make us
liable for any expenses that
lies the clauses that make us
liable for any expenses which
lie the clauses that makes us
liable for any expenses which
None of the above
28. Rembrandts early work
has often been interpreted as
being in sharp contrast with
his later work, despite
there is an essential continuity
between the two.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
with is later work, but
with his later work, despite the
fact that
with his later work, despite
with is later work,
notwithstanding
None of the above
29. Trying to keep his balance
on the icy surface, the last
competitor's ski-tip caught
the pole and somersaulted
into the soft snow.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the last competitor caught the
pole with the tip of her ski,
and somersaulted into the
soft snow
the last competitor's ski-tip
caught the pole and
somersaulted into the soft
snow
the last competitor caught the
pole with her ski-tip, which
made her somersault into the
soft snow
the ski-tip of the last
competitor caught the pole
and somersaulted in the soft
snow
None of the above
30. If the gardener would sow
the seeds in the greenhouse
rather than the garden, he
might come up with a better
display of leaves.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
If the gardener were to sow
the seeds in the greenhouse
rather than in the garden
If the gardener would sow the
seeds in the greenhouse
rather than the garden
If the gardener would sow the
seeds in the greenhouse
instead of the garden
If the gardener would sow the b. decree
seeds in the greenhouse c. warrant
rather than the garden d. proclamation
None of the above e. None of the above

8. concept of gemeinschaft
Grammatical Reasoning a. apportionment
b. individual
More barokness test for you. c. community
Do not begin unless told to do d. pleasure
so. e. None of the above
You only need pens.
For each question, encircle the 4. recommending a nostrum
letter of the best answer. a. adjournment
You have 30 minutes for this b. remedy
one c. explanation
d. stalemate
SYNONYMS e. None of the above

slanderous 9. pith of her argument

profitable a. abyss
constructive b. bottom
criticism c. quintessence
None of the above d. benevolence
e. None of the above
6. occlude the path
a. obstruct 5. contretemps in the plan
b. presume a. antagonists
c. pursue b. derision
d. discover c. hindrance
e. None of the above d. enticement
e. None of the above
2. scan the gestalt
a. appearance 10. lack of compunction
b. summary a. remorse
c. pretense b. determination
d. modification c. trepidation
e. None of the above d. poise
e. None of the above
7. vitiate the reputation
a. debase 1.
b. promote
c. suspect vituperative comments
d. foster
e. None of the above ANTONYMS
11. opprobrious decision
3. place a malediction on the a. excoriating
evildoers b. favorable
a. blight c. reckless
d. ignominous c. hardened
e. None of the above d. acquiescent
e. None of the above
16. rescind the contract
a. annul 15. prolix manuscript
b. appraise a. succinct
c. sanction b. abundant
d. interpret c. scarce
e. None of the above d. occasional
e. None of the above
12. avoid being profligate
a. multiply 20. specious accusations
b. languid a. capacious
c. parsimonious b. spurious
d. beget c. misleading
e. None of the above d. valid
e. None of the above
17. factious leadership
a. unified ANALOGY (SINGLE)
b. fabricated 21. malinger : ail :: flatter :
c. truthful a. malice
d. subjective b. resentment
e. None of the above c. appreciate
d. humanity
13. inimitable qualities e. None of the above
a. exclusive
b. estimable 26. disease : pathologist ::
c. vile tenet :
d. conventional a. student
e. None of the above b. theologian
c. teacher
18. a saturnine expression on d. university
her face e. None of the above
a. dejected
b. jovial 22. quaff : sip :: stride :
c. closed a. run
d. disconcerted b. mince
e. None of the above c. walk
d. leg
14. inchoate actions e. None of the above
a. undeveloped
b. countless 27. period : stop :: caret :
c. unacceptable a. abbreviate
d. complete b. emphasize
e. None of the above c. insert
d. seperate
19. obdurate criminals e. None of the above
a. confused
b. repentant
23. proselytize : convert : 36. limerick : poem ::
digress :: a. monologue : chorus
a. reveal b. book : novel
b. disclose c. waltz : tango
c. condone d. aria : song
d. deviate e. None of the above
e. None of the above
24. excerpt : novel :: swatch : 32. rust : corrosion ::
a. paper a. vapor : flammability
b. cloth b. dew : condensation
c. sample c. solution : precipitation
d. watch d. mold : disinfection
e. None of the above e. None of the above
25. tyrant : just :: fraud :
a. deception 37. color : spectrum ::
b. scrupulous a. sound : waves
c. hoaxer b. dimension : space
d. pretense c. cell : organism
e. None of the above d. tone : scale
e. None of the above
28. sanctuary : refuge ::
coffer : 33. paltry : significance ::
a. wood a. opulent : wealth
b. protection b. banal : originality
c. valuables c. obique : familiarity
d. safety d. redundant : discussion
e. None of the above e. None of the above
29. siren : lure :: sphinx :
a. perplex 38. misanthrope : people ::
b. astound a. xenophobe : strangers
c. anger b. miscreant : dogma
d. annoy c. patriot : country
e. None of the above d. rebel : government
30. anesthetic : numbness :: e. None of the above
sedative :
a. pain 34. cogent : convince ::
b. migraine a. irrational : disturb
c. drowsiness b. dangerous : avoid
d. anxiety c. generous : appreciate
e. None of the above d. repugnant : repel
e. None of the above
ANALOGY (PAIRED)
31. perspicacious : insight :: 39. prattle : speak ::
a. rapacious : magnanimity a. lane : stroll
b. warm : temperature b. promenade : walk
c. wealth : scarcity c. amble : scurry
d. churlish : enmity d. orate : listen
e. None of the above e. None of the above
35. disguise : recognition ::
a. infidelity : matrimony
b. prevarication : statement
c. espionage : diplomacy
d. padding : damage
e. None of the above
40. stygian : dark ::
a. furtuitous : accidental
b. reckless : threatening
c. cataclysmic : doomed
d. abysmal : low
e. None of the above
SENTENCE COMPLETION
41. Pyridine is a colorless _____
liquid with a sharp choking
odor, and therefore requires
to be _____ stored in
tightly-stoppered glass bottles
to prevent the fumes from
escaping.
a. viscous occasionally
b. corrosive instantly
c. volatile prudently
d. viscid unwittingly
e. None of the above
42. Business forecasts usually
prove reasonably accurate
when the assumption that the
future will be much like the
past is _____; in times of major
_____ in the business
environment, however,
forecasts can be dangerously
wrong.
a. satisfied shifts
b. questioned surges
c. specified discontinuities
d. contradicted
improvements
e. None of the above
43. The actual _____ of Louis
position was always _____ by
his refusal to compromise
after having initially agreed
to negotiate a resolution
a. logic enhanced
b. uncertainty alleviated
c. rigidity betrayed
d. outcome foreshadowed
e. None of the above
44. Politeness is not a _____
attribute of human behavior,
but rather a central virtue,
one whose very existence is
increasingly being _____ by the
faddish requirement to
speak ones mind.
a. precious repudiated
b. superficial threatened
c. trivial affected
d. pervasive undercut
e. None of the above
45. That many of the
important laws of science
were discovered during
experiments designed to
_____ other
phenomena suggests that
experimental results are the
_____ of inevitable natural
forces rather than of
planning.
a. alter adjuncts
b. illuminate.. consequences
c. analyze foundations
d. disprove predecessors
e. None of the above
46. Early _____ of hearing loss
is _____ by the fact that the
other senses are able to
compensate for moderate
amounts of loss, so that people
frequently do not know that
their hearing is imperfect.
a. detection complicated
b. discovery indicated
c. development prevented
d. treatment facilitated.
e. None of the above
47. Non-violent
demonstrations often create
such tensions that a
community that has
constantly refused to _____
its injustices is forced to ___(52)___ free of leukemia
correct them: the injustices were given equal doses of
can no longer be _____. radiation. Half of the mice
a. address eliminated were then allowed to eat their
b. explain discussed usual foods without
c. acknowledge ignored ___(53)___, while the other
d. decrease verified half
e. None of the above were given adequate but
48. The functions of the hands, limited amounts of the same
eyes, and brain are so _____ foods. Of the first group, fifty-
that using the hands during five ___(54)___ leukemia; of
early childhood helps the the second, only three.
childs entire _____ 51. a.
development. b.
a. enigmatic psychological c.
b. regulated adolescent d.
c. intertwined perceptual e.
d. unalterable intellectual
e. None of the above account
49. While it is assumed that experiment
the mechanization of work analysis
has had a _____ effect on the attempt
lives of workers, there is None of the above
evidence available to suggest
that, on the contrary, 53. a.
mechanization has served to b.
_____ some of the traditional c.
roles of women. d.
a. revolutionary reinforce e.
b. benign revise
c. dramatic undermine restraint
d. debilitating weaken condition
e. None of the above trepidation
50. Although he was very strict hydration
with the students in the None of the above
classroom, his envious
colleagues were under the 52. a.
impression that the students b.
_____ him because of his c.
_____. d.
a. deplored ingenuity e.
b. derided indolence
c. extolled insolence usually
d. revered leniency normally
e. None of the above very
conceptually
PARAGRAPH COMPLETION None of the above
In an ___(51)___, two hundred
mice of a strain that is 54. a.
b. strained
c. objectified
d. admired
e. prejudiced
None of the above
acknowledged
infected 56. a.
established b.
developed c.
None of the above d.
e.
A ___(55)___ critic has to
___(56)___ the particular comprehend
content, unique structure, esteem
and special meaning of a question
work admire
of art. And here she faces a None of the above
___(57)___. The critic must
recognize the artistic element 59. a.
of uniqueness that b.
requires subjective reaction; c.
yet she must not be unduly d.
___(58)___ by such reactions. e.
Her likes and dislikes are
less ___(59)___ than what the biased
work itself communicates, attuned
and her preferences may dictated
___(60)___ her of certain important
qualities of the work and None of the above
thereby prevent an adequate
understanding of it. 57. a.
55. a. b.
b. c.
c. d.
d. e.
e.
dilemma
serious retribution
critical gratefulness
novice realization
laconic None of the above
None of the above
60. a.
58. a. b.
b. c.
c. d.
d. e.
e.
blind
prevent
relieve
aid
None of the above

Logical Reasoning
A test of common sense.
Do not begin unless told to do
so.
Only pens are allowed on top
of the table.
For each question, encircle the
letter of the best answer.
You have 55 minutes for this
part of the exam.
PREMISES/ASSUMPTIONS
1. Given:
1 out of 5 children catches
colds everyday. I am going to
teach a class of 40 children
today.
Statement:
I have eight children sick with
colds today.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
2. Given:
The Senator has admitted to
having an illicit affair and
lying to his wife about it.
Although the affair ended
a few years ago, and the
Senator and his wife are now
reconciled, this fact
disqualifies him from seeking
higher
public office. How could world
leaders be expected to
negotiate with a President
who has admitted lying to his
spouse?
Statement:
A person who could be
dishonest in a personal
situation is likely to tell a lie
in public.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
3. Given:
The best mentors never tell
their apprentices what to
write. They just try instead to
establish an
environment that is conducive
to thorough and creative
research, because training an
apprentice through
indoctrination is never as
effective as encouraging him
to develop his skills
independently. Truly
impressive
scholarly work can be
produced only by a student
who feels that he is breaking
new ground, or at least
treating
familiar ground in a new and
original manner.
Statement:
An apprentice cannot create
impressive scholarly work if
he has been encouraged to
create his own ideas.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
4. Given:
In the prior year, Pics yielded a
relatively high income from
exactly two sources: his real
estate brokerage
company and his mutual funds
market investments.
Although Pics earns far more
from his business than from
his fund investments, the
money he earns from the
funds market is an important
part of his income. Because
of
series of drops in the funds
market, Pics will not earn as
much from his investments
this year. It follows then
that Pics will make
substantially less money this
year than he did in the prior
year.
Statement:
Increased net profits from Pics
real estate brokerage
business will not offset any
loss in funds market
income.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
5. Given:
I will graduate in September.
Statement:
I will still be alive in
September.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
6. Given:
I think some of our universities
should be less rigid than they
are and professors should not
oppress their
students in an undemocratic
spirit as some of them do.
Yet, it is essential for
professors to make clear what
they expect of students. This is
like giving a vine a pole on
which to grow.
Statement:
All teachers are undemocratic
in class.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
7. Given:
What is the most evil envy,
hatred or malice?
Statement:
It is wrong to hate anybody.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
8. Given:
The provinces new ordinance
limiting the types of garbage
that can be disposed of in
trash fires violates
our right as citizens. The fact
that local environmental
damage results from the
burning of certain inorganic
materials is not the primary
issue. The real concern is the
governments flagrant
disregard for the right of the
individual to establish what is
acceptable on his or her own
property.
Statement:
Personal rights on ones own
property supersede any right
or responsibility the
government may have to
protect a community from
harm.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
9. Given:
Im all for women having
equal rights, said Boxing
Association president Manny
Pacquiao. But I repeat,
women shouldnt box because
a boxer is and should be a
man.
Statement:
Men are born to be boxers.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
10. Given:
Suppose that Cyril tells me
that he has had a tooth
extracted without an
anesthetic, and I express my
sympathy, and suppose that I
am then asked, How do you
know that not having
anesthetic hurt me? I might
reasonably reply, Well, I know
that it would have hurt me. I
have been to the dentist and
know how painful it is
to have a toothy filled let alone
taken out, without an
anesthetic.
Statement:
The speaker and Cyril have the
same sort of nervous system
and that under these
conditions, the speaker
would have felt considerable
pain, just as Cyril had.
a. The statement is an
assumption.
b. The statement is not an
assumption.
DRAWING CONCLUSIONS
11. If Joter comes to the party,
Cyril leaves the party. If Cyril
leaves the party, either Raf or
Louis asks Jen to
dance. If Jen is asked to dance
by either Raf or Louis and
Cyril leaves the party, Jen
accepts. If Jen is asked
to dance by either Raf or Louis
and Cyril does not leave the
party, Jen does not accept. If
Cyril does not leave
the party,
a. Louis asks Jen to dance.
b. Raf asks Jen to dance.
c. Joter does not come to the
party.
d. Jen refuses to dance with
either Raf or Louis.
e. None of the above
12. Empathetic acts make this
world a better place.
Condoling with the bereaved
is a empathetic act.
a. Therefore, giving sympathy
makes people happier.
b. Therefore, in times of
sorrow, there is happiness.
c. Therefore, condoling with
the bereaved makes this
world a better place.
d. Therefore, we should be
happy and make this world a
better place.
e. None of the above
13. The keys to economic
stability are low interest rates
and a high number of
investments. There cannot be
a high
number of investments
without low interest rates.
Therefore,
a. If there are low interest
rates, then there are
investments.
b. A high number of
investments is adequate to
guarantee low interest rates.
c. Sluggish economies with low
interest rates have few
investments.
d. Sluggish economies with
high interest rates have few
investments.
e. None of the above
14. If taxes and customs are
reduced then inflation will
rise, but if the budget is
balanced then unemployment
will
increase. If the president keeps
his election promises, then
either taxes and customs are
reduced or budget is
balanced. Therefore,
a. If inflation rises, then the
president should balance the
budget.
b. If unemployment increases
and inflation rises, then the
president will not keep his
election promises.
c. If the president keeps his
election promises, then either
inflation will rise or
unemployment will increase.
d. The president should not
keep his election promises.
e. None of the above
15. Antifreeze lowers the
melting point of any liquid to
which it is added so that the
liquid will not freeze in very
cold weather. It is commonly
used to maintain the cooling
system in car radiators. Of
course, the weather may
become so cold that even
antifreeze is not effective, but
such a severe climatic
condition rarely occurs in
welltraveled places.
a. Severe climatic conditions
rarely occur.
b. Antifreeze raises the melting
point of some liquids.
c. Antifreeze does not lower
the melting point of certain
liquids in extreme conditions.
d. It is not often that many
travelers who use antifreeze
have their cooling systems
freeze.
e. None of the above
16. If God were willing to
prevent evil, but unable to do
so, He would be impotent. If
He were able to prevent evil,
but unwilling to do so, He
would be malevolent. Evil can
exist only if God is either
unwilling or unable to prevent
it. There is evil. If God exists,
He is neither impotent nor
malevolent. Therefore,
a. God is omnipotent.
b. God does not exist.
c. God is unwilling to prevent
evil.
d. God is all-powerful.
e. None of the above
17. During the year,
researchers have reported
the following:
- Heavy coffee consumption
can increase the risk of heart
attack.
- Drinking a cup of coffee in
the morning increases
feelings of well being and
alertness.
- Boiled coffee increases blood
cholesterol levels.
- Coffee may protect against
cancer of the colon.
If
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
all these statements are true,
which one of the following
conclusions can be drawn
from this information?
Reducing coffee consumption
will make people healthier.
Reducing coffee consumption
will make people feel better.
People at risk of heart attack
should limit their coffee
drinking.
People at risk of cancer should
reduce their coffee
consumption.
None of the above
18. Goats make milk out of
grass. Farmers take care of
the goats that produce milk.
Cheese is made of milk and
milk is made of grass.
a. Therefore, cheese is made
by farmers.
b. Therefore, goats are made
of grass.
c. Therefore, cheese and milk
are made of grass.
d. Conclusion cannot be
drawn.
e. None of the above
19. A recent study of cigarette
smokers has shown that 50
percent of cancer patients
who are heavy smokers of
unfiltered cigarettes will die of
the disease. For cancer
patients who are light
smokers of filter cigarettes,
the
percentage is 20 percent.
Which one of the following
conclusions can be drawn
from the information above?
a. There are more heavy
smokers of unfiltered
cigarettes than light smokers
of filter cigarettes.
b. More heavy smokers of
unfiltered cigarettes die of
cancer than light smokers of
filter cigarettes.
c. A heavy smoker of unfiltered
cigarettes who has cancer is
more likely to die than a light
smoker of
unfiltered cigarettes.
d. A heavy smoker of unfiltered
cigarettes who has cancer is
more likely to die of the
disease than a light
smoker of filtered cigarettes
who has cancer.
e. None of the above
20. If it will either snow
tomorrow or not, then
weather predicting is an
exact science. It will snow
tomorrow.
Therefore,
a. It will not snow tomorrow.
b. Weather predicting is an
exact science.
c. Weather cannot be
predicted exactly.
d. If it snows today, it will not
snow tomorrow.
e. None of the above
INTERPRETATION
A museum is presenting a
series of exhibits of five
artists: A, B, C, D, and E.
- Only B and C will be featured
in the first exhibit.
- E and three others will be
featured in the second
exhibit.
- Only A will be featured in the
third exhibit.
- More people will perform in
the fourth exhibit than in the
fifth exhibit.
22. Which of the following
must surely be true?
a. A, D, and E will be featured
in the fifth exhibit.
b. A and D will be featured in
the second exhibit.
c. All five artists will be
featured in the fourth exhibit.
d. Four artists will appear in
the fifth exhibit.
e. None of the above
 c. The digit 2 appears in some
23. For which of the following position before the digit 3.
pairs of artists is it true that if d. The digit 3 appears in some
one appears in an exhibit, the position before the digit 0.
other must also e. The digit 4 appears in some
appear? position before the digit 3.
a. E and B 26. If
b. E and C a.
c. E and D b.
d. B and C c.
e. None of the above d.
A company employee e.
generates a series of five-
digit product codes in the third digit of an acceptable
accordance with the following product code is not 0, which
rules: one of the following must be
- The codes use the digits 0, 1, true?
2, 3, and 4, and no others. The second digit of the product
- Each digit occurs exactly code is 2.
once in any code. The third digit of the product
- The second digit has a value code is 3.
exactly twice that of the first The fourth digit of the product
digit. code is 0.
- The value of the third digit is The fifth digit of the product
less than the value of the fifth code is 3.
digit. The fifth digit of the product
24. If code is 1.
a. 27. Any of the following pairs
b. could be the third and fourth
c. digits, respectively, of an
d. acceptable product code,
e. EXCEPT:
a. 0, 1
the last digit of an acceptable b. 0, 3
product code is 1, it must be c. 1, 0
true that the d. 3, 0
first digit is 2 e. 3, 4
second digit is 0 28. Which one of the following
third digit is 3 must be true about any
fourth digit is 4 acceptable product code?
fourth digit is 0 a. There is exactly one digit
between the digit 0 and the
25. Which one of the following digit 1.
must be true about any b. There is exactly one digit
acceptable product code? between the digit 1 and the
a. The digit 1 appears in some digit 2.
position before the digit 2. c. There are at most two digits
b. The digit 1 appears in some between the digit 1 and the
position before the digit 3. digit 3.
d. There are at most two digits
between the digit 2 and the
digit 3.
e. There are at most two digits
between the digit 2 and the
digit 4.
Exactly three filmsGreed,
Harvest, and Limelightare
shown during a film clubs
festival held on Thursday,
Friday, and Saturday. Each film
is shown at least once during
the festival but never more
than once on a given day.
On each day at least one film
is shown. Films are shown
one at a time. The following
conditions apply:
- On Thursday Harvest is
shown, and no film is shown
after it on that day.
- On Friday either Greed or
Limelight, but not both, is
shown, and no film is shown
after it on that day.
- On Saturday either Greed or
Harvest, but not both, is
shown, and no film is shown
after it on that day.
29. Which one of the following
could be a complete and
accurate description of the
order in which the films are
shown at the festival?
a. Thursday: Limelight, then
Harvest; Friday: Limelight;
Saturday: Harvest
b. Thursday: Harvest; Friday:
Greed, then Limelight;
Saturday: Limelight, then
Greed
c. Thursday: Harvest; Friday:
Limelight; Saturday:
Limelight, then Greed
d. Thursday: Greed, then
Harvest, then Limelight;
Friday: Limelight; Saturday:
Greed
e. Thursday: Greed, then
Harvest; Friday: Limelight,
then Harvest; Saturday:
Harvest
30. Which one of the following
CANNOT be true?
a. Harvest is the last film
shown on each day of the
festival.
b. Limelight is shown on each
day of the festival.
c. Greed is shown second on
each day of the festival.
d. A different film is shown first
on each day of the festival.
e. A different film is shown last
on each day of the festival.
31. If Limelight is never shown
again during the festival once
Greed is shown, then which
one of the following is the
maximum number of film
showings that could occur
during the festival?
a. three
b. four
c. five
d. six
e. seven
32. If Greed is shown exactly
three times, Harvest is shown
exactly twice, and Limelight
is shown exactly once,
then which one of the
following must be true?
a. All three films are shown on
Thursday.
b. Exactly two films are shown
on Saturday.
c. Limelight and Harvest are
both shown on Thursday.
d. Greed is the only film shown
on Saturday.
e. Harvest and Greed are both
shown on Friday.
33. If Limelight is shown
exactly three times, Harvest
 is shown exactly twice, and
Greed is shown exactly once,
then which one of the
following is a complete and
accurate list of the films that
could be the first film shown
on Thursday?
a. Harvest
b. Limelight
c. Greed, Harvest
d. Greed, Limelight
e. Greed, Harvest, Limelight
INFERENCES
34. Premises:
Rochelle prefers Feature
Writing to Editorial Writing.
She likes Feature Writing,
however, less than she
likes Photography. She actually
finds Photography preferable
to any other college course,
and she dislikes
Physical Education more than
she dislikes Differential
Calculus.
Statement:
Rochelle likes Feature Writing
better than she likes
Differential Calculus.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
35. Premises:
Lawyers are always free to
consult law books. Physicians
often look up cases in
medical texts. Everyone
should be allowed a similar
freedom or reference.
Statement:
Therefore, students should be
permitted to use their
textbooks during
examinations.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
36. Premises:
Nothing is perfect. Everything
is imperfect.
Statement:
If nothing is not something,
then given any individual
thing whatever, it is not
perfect.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
37. Premises:
There are at least three spies
at a diplomatic reception. At
least one spy knows the true
identity of every
other spy at the reception. At
most, two spies know each
others true identities.
Statement:
If a spy knows the true identity
of another spy, that second
spy in turn knows the true
identity of the
first.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
38. Premises:
If the Board approves the new
proposal, the office will move
to a new location
immediately. If the office
moves, five new supervisors
will be appointed
immediately. The Board
approved the new proposal.
Statement:
No new supervisors were
appointed.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
39. Premises:
In Marshall and Joters class,
everyone likes Constitutional
Law or Persons or both. But
Ces does not like
Science.
Statement:
Anyone in class who does not
like Persons likes
Constitutional Law.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
40. Premises:
If the victim had money in his
pockets, then robbery wasnt
the motive for the crime. But
either robber or
vengeance was the motive for
the crime. The victim has
money in his pockets.
Statement:
Therefore, vengeance must
have been the motive for the
crime.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
41. Premises:
Jen is dining at a Japanese
restaurant. She will order
either combination platter #5
or combination platter
#8, but not both. If she orders
combination platter #5, she
will eat tekka maki. If she
orders combination
platter #8, she will eat ebi
sushi.
Statement:
Jenny will eat either tekka
maki or ebi sushi, but not
both.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
42. Premises:
All women who have friends
are happy. All women either
have friends or are happy.
Statement:
Some women who have friends
are not happy.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
43. Premises:
A few mascots are sad. All
mascots are always funny.
Adults cannot be sad and
funny at the same time.
Statement:
No sad mascots are adult.
a. The statement follows the
given premises.
b. The statement does not
follow the given premises.
ARGUMENTS
44. An airline representative
announced the introduction
of a new pricing system that
uses sophisticated computer
technology. Based on up-to-
the-minute information on
sales, the system identifies
and continually updates peak
times of high demand and off-
peak times of low demand,
keeping prices high when
demand is high and lowering
prices to attract customers
when demand is low. As a
result, the airline anticipates
that a large number of
customers will choose to travel
off-peak in order to
experience savings, while
those who wish to travel at
peak
times will enjoy greater
availability due to higher
prices. The airline therefore
anticipates that the majority
of
customers will experience
significant benefits as a result
of the new system.
Which one of the following
indicates an error in the
reasoning on the part of the
airline?
a. The airline displays nave
trust in the possibilities of
technology.
b. The airlines conclusion
rests on a result that would
necessarily cancel out the
anticipated benefit.
c. The airline fails to factor in
the cost of implementing the
new system.
d. The airline fails to establish
the percentage of customers
who would benefit from the
change.
e. None of the above
45. Ethicist: On average,
animals raised on grain must
be fed sixteen pounds of
grain to produce one pound
of meat.
A pound of meat is more
nutritious for humans than a
pound of grain, but sixteen
pounds of grain could feed
many more people than could
a pound of meat. With grain
yields leveling off, large areas
of farmland going out
of production each year, and
the population rapidly
expanding, we must accept
the fact that consumption of
meat will soon be morally
unacceptable. Which one of
the following, if true, would
most weaken the ethicists
argument?
a. Even though it has been
established that a vegetarian
diet can be healthy, many
people prefer to eat meat and
are willing to pay for it.
b. Often, cattle or sheep can
be raised to maturity on grass
from pastureland that is
unsuitable for any other
kind of farming.
c. If a grain diet is
supplemented with protein
derived from non-animal
sources, it can have
nutritional value
equivalent to that of a diet
containing meat.
d. Although prime farmland
near metropolitan areas is
being lost rapidly to suburban
development, we could
reverse this trend by choosing
to live in areas that are
already urban.
e. Nutritionists agree that a
diet composed solely of grain
products is not adequate for
human health.
46. Self-confidence is a big
factor in success. The person
who thinks he can, will
master most of the things he
attempts. The person who
thinks he cant, may not try.
The author of these
statements would agree that:
a. No task is too large.
b. Success relies on effort.
c. Trying is half the battle.
d. Self-confidence is of most
importance.
e. None of the above
47. Yuka said, All children I
have met are friendly.
Therefore, all children are
friendly.
Which one of the following
most closely parallels the
logic of the above statement?
a. I have eaten spinach three
times and I got sick each
time. Therefore, if I eat
spinach again, I will get sick.
b. Every professor I had in
college was mean. Therefore,
all professors are mean.
c. All mansions are big. This
house is small. Therefore, it is
not a mansion.
d. My height has increased
each year for the past two
years. Therefore, I will grow
taller this year.
e. None of the above
48. No one cheats on all the
exams he takes. Some people
cheat on most of the exams
they take. Most cheat on
some of the exams they take.
Everyone has cheated on at
least one exam he has taken.
Cheating is wrong.
Which one of the following is
inconsistent with the
preceding facts?
a. There are more people who
cheat on all their exams than
those who never cheat at all.
b. There are more people who
cheat on some of their exams
than those who cheat on
most of their exams.
c. The punishment of expulsion
does not discourage people
from cheating.
d. Marie has never been
caught cheating.
e. None of the above
49. There is something
irrational about our system of
laws. Criminal law punishes a
person more severely for
having
successfully committed a
crime than it does a person
who fails in an attempt to
commit the same crime
even
though the same evil intention
is presented in both cases.
But under civil law a person
who attempts to defraud
a potential victim but is
unsuccessful is not required
to pay damages.
Which of the following, if true,
would most weaken the
authors argument?
a. There are more criminal
laws on the books than there
are civil laws on the books.
b. The goal of criminal law is to
punish the criminal, but the
goal of civil law is to
compensate the victim.
c. Most persons who are
imprisoned for crimes will
commit another crime if they
are ever released from
prison.
d. A person is morally culpable
for evil thoughts as well as for
evil deed.
e. None of the above
50. Which of the following, if
true, offers the strongest
support of Mr. Dougs
statement?
a. All the members of the
hiring committee have
agreed that intelligence,
trustworthiness,
determination, and
forcefulness are important
qualifications for the job.
b. Mr. Doug holds exclusive
responsibility for hiring new
employees.
c. Mr. Doug has known Ms.
Wilson longer than he has
known any of the other
applicants.
d. Ms. Tracey is a member of
Mr. Dimples family.
e. None of the above
51. Choose the most sound
argument from each of the
 following sets of statements
below.
a.
Knowledge is power and the
use of power in a community
should always be controlled
and regulated.
Therefore, knowledge belongs
to that special ethical
category of things which
require special treatment
and should be controlled with
special rigor, and various
sorts of knowledge should
simply be just off limits
altogether.
b. It is never appropriate to
restrict or regulate knowledge
or information. For this is
something sacred and
sacrosanct. Like life or liberty,
it is the subject of a
fundamental and indefeasible
right.
c. Knowledge is not a special
case of some sort. It is simply
one good among others---
which is subject to the
same general sorts of socially
motivated constrains to which
we subject other goods and
goals.
d. Certain sorts of inquiries
result in products whose use
for evil purposes is so readily
possible and so likely
that it is best not to embark in
this direction at all. Whatever
benefit for knowledge might
result in the
way of abstract understanding
is overshadowed by the
predictable prospect of
reprehensible applications.
e. None of the above
Mr. Doug: Ms. Traceys
qualifications are ideal for the
position. She is intelligent,
forceful, determined and
trustworthy. I suggest we hire
her immediately.
52. You can use a bottle
opener to open the new beer
bottles. You do not need to
use a bottle opener to open
the
new beer bottles.
Which of the following most
closely parallels the logic of
these statements?
a. I can move the sofa with my
sisters help. If my sister is
not available, Ill get a friend
to help me.
b. If you do not study you will
fail the test. If you do study,
you may fail the test.
c. You must turn on the switch
to light the lamp. If you turn
on the switch, the lamp may
not light.
d. Every candidate I voted for
in the election lost his race. I
must learn to vote better.
e. None of the above
53. Which one of the following,
if true, would most weaken
Mr. Doug statement?
a. Ms. Tracey is not interested
in being hired.
b. There are two other
applicants whose
qualifications are identical to
Ms. Traceys.
c. Ms. Tracey is currently
working for a rival company.
d. Mr. Doug is not speaking
directly to the hiring
committee.
e. Non
Paul, a chemist, rides the train
to work every day. On this
day, he brought with him a
package of several
unstable chemicals contained
in separate vials, which he
double-checked to ensure
they were tightly sealed to
prevent contamination.
The security guard checking
the contents of passenger
belongings allowed Paul into
the train platform with his
package without thoroughly
asking him as to the nature of
the packages contents. The
management of this local
metro rail transit, meanwhile,
had conspicuously posted
warnings at strategic places
of the terminal, prohibiting
any
passenger from bringing
explosives or any other
inflammable materials into
the station. Should they have
any, they
should submit these to the
trains personnel so they
could be kept in a safe place
aboard the train and be given
back at the passengers exit
point.
As everyone else went of to
work, the platform was
packed with passengers
waiting for the train. When it
finally arrived, people began
pushing noisily at each other
to get inside the oncoming
train. Paul, with the package
in
his hands, got jostled about.
When the train stopped and
its doors opened, a guy
pushed Paul forcefully from
behind to get in, causing Paul
to drop the package.
There was a loud explosion as
the chemicals mixed with
each other and pandemonium
broke loose. A woman who
was carrying an antique vase,
surprised by the loud bang,
dropped her age-old
possession. Shards of the
glass vial,
which scattered upon the
explosion, entered the eyes
of a man who stood near Paul
so that the man needed
medical
attention.
54. Not knowing the results of
his action, the guy should not
be made to answer for any
liability.
a. The proposition is legally
sound and may have basis in
law.
b. The proposition has no basis
in law.
55. The management of the
train station has a valid case
against Paul for damages
resulting from the explosion
of
the package he brought with
him which he failed to
surrender to train personnel
as required given the
unstable,
unpredictable nature of the
chemicals.
a. The proposition is legally
sound and may have basis in
law.
b. The proposition has no basis
in law.
56. The woman cannot petition
for relief in the value of the
antique vase she lost against
Roger.
a. The proposition is legally
sound and may have basis in
law.
b. The proposition has no basis
in law.
57. If all complaints were filed
against the management,
 they can refuse to pay for
damages and counsel all
claimants to seek relief from
the security guard.
a. The proposition is legally
sound and may have basis in
law.
b. The proposition has no basis
in law.
58. Paul should have no
liability at all.
a. The proposition is legally
sound and may have basis in
law.
b. The proposition has no basis
in law.
Do not go to the next page
until told to do so.
Review your answers before
proceeding to the next test.
READING Comprehension
A tip: Read everything before
answering anything,
Do not begin unless told to do
so.
Only pens are allowed on top
of the table.
For each question, encircle the
letter of the best answer.
You have 40 minutes for this
part of the exam.
Passage 1
(5)
(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
(30)
For decades, there has been a
deep rift between
poetry academic settings;
graduate writing programs in
universities, for example, train
students as poets or as
writers and fiction in the
United States, especially in
of fiction, but almost never as
both. Both poets
and writers of fiction have
tended to support this
separation, in large part
because the current
conventional wisdom holds
that poetry should be
elliptical and lyrical, reflecting
inner states and
processes of thought or
feeling, whereas character
and
narrative events are the stock-
in-trade of fiction.
Certainly it is true that poetry
and fiction are
distinct genres, but why have
specialized education
and literary territoriality
resulted from this distinction?
The answer lies perhaps in a
widespread attitude in
U.S. culture, which often casts
a suspicious eye on the
generalist. Those with
knowledge and expertise in
multiple areas risk charges of
dilettantism, as if ability
in one field is diluted or
compromised by
accomplishment in another.
Fortunately, there are signs
that the bias against
writers who cross generic
boundaries is diminishing;
several recent writers are
known and respected for
their work in both genres. One
important example of
this trend is Rita Dove, an
African American writer
highly acclaimed for both her
poetry and her fiction. A
few years ago, speaking at a
conference entitled Poets
Who Write Fiction, Dove
expressed gentle
incredulity about the habit of
segregating the genres.
She had grown up reading and
loving both fiction and
poetry, she said, unaware of
any purported danger
lurking in attempts to mix the
two. She also studied for
some time in Germany, where,
she observes, Poets
write plays, novelists compose
libretti, playwrights
(35)
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(45)
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(55)
1.
write novelsthey would not
understand our
restrictiveness.
It makes little sense, Dove
believes, to persist in
the restrictive approach to
poetry and fiction prevalent
in the U.S., because each
genre shares in the nature of
the other. Indeed, her poetry
offers example after
example of what can only be
properly regarded as
lyric narrative. Her use of
language in these poems is
undeniably lyricalthat is, it
evokes emotion and
inner states without requiring
the reader to organize
ideas or events in a particular
linear structure. Yet this
lyric expression simultaneously
presents the elements
of a plot in such a way that the
reader is led repeatedly
to take account of clusters of
narrative details within
the lyric flow. Thus while the
language is lyrical, it
often comes to constitute,
cumulatively, a work of
narrative fiction. Similarly,
many passages in her
fiction, though undeniably
prose, achieve the status of
lyric narrative through the use
of poetic rhythms and
elliptical expression. In short,
Dove bridges the gap
between poetry and fiction not
only by writing in both
genres, but also by fusing the
two genres within
individual works.
Which one of the following
most accurately expresses
the main point of the
passage?
a. Rita Doves work has been
widely acclaimed primarily
because of the lyrical
elements she has introduced
into her fiction.
b. Rita Doves lyric narratives
present clusters of narrative
detail in order to create a
cumulative narrative
without requiring the reader to
interpret it in a linear manner.
c. Working against a bias that
has long been dominant in
the U.S., recent writers like
Rita Dove have shown
that the lyrical use of language
can effectively enhance
narrative fiction.
d. Unlike many of her U.S.
contemporaries, Rita Dove
writes without relying on the
traditional techniques
associated with poetry and
fiction.
e. Rita Doves successful
blending of poetry and fiction
exemplifies the recent trend
away from the rigid
separation of the two genres
that has long been prevalent
in the U.S.

2. Which one of the following is
most analogous to the
literary achievements that
the author attributes to
Dove?
a. A chef combines
nontraditional cooking
methods and traditional
ingredients from disparate
world cuisines
to devise new recipes.
b. A professor of film studies
becomes a film director and
succeeds, partly due to a
wealth of theoretical
knowledge of filmmaking.
c. An actor who is also a
theatrical director teams up
with a public health agency to
use street theater to
inform the public about health
matters.
d. A choreographer defies
convention and choreographs
dances that combine
elements of both ballet and
jazz
dance.
e. A rock musician records
several songs from previous
decades but introduces
extended guitar solos into
each one.
3. According to the passage, in
the U.S. there is a widely held
view that
a. poetry should not involve
characters or narratives
b. unlike the writing of poetry,
the writing of fiction is rarely
an academically serious
endeavor
c. graduate writing programs
focus on poetry to the
exclusion of fiction
d. fiction is most aesthetically
effective when it incorporates
lyrical elements
e. European literary cultures
are suspicious of generalists
4. The authors attitude toward
the deep rift between poetry
and fiction in the U.S. can be
most accurately
described as one of
a. perplexity as to what could
have led to the development
of such a rift
b. astonishment that
academics have overlooked
the existence of the rift
c. ambivalence toward the
effect the rift has had on U.S.
literature
d. pessimism regarding the
possibility that the rift can be
overcome
e. disapproval of attitudes and
presuppositions underlying
the rift
5. In the passage the author
conjectures that a cause of
the deep rift between fiction
and poetry in the United
States may be that
a. poets and fiction writers
each tend to see their craft as
superior to the others craft
b. the methods used in
training graduate students in
poetry are different from
those used in training
graduate students in other
literary fields
c. publishers often pressure
writers to concentrate on
what they do best
d. a suspicion of generalism
deters writers from dividing
their energies between the
two genres
e. fiction is more widely read
and respected than poetry
6. In the context of the
passage, the authors primary
 purpose in mentioning Doves
experience in Germany (lines
3236) is to
a. suggest that the habit of
treating poetry and fiction as
nonoverlapping domains is
characteristic of
English-speaking societies but
not others
b. point to an experience that
reinforced Doves conviction
that poetry and fiction should
not be rigidly
separated
c. indicate that Doves
strengths as a writer derive in
large part from the
international character of her
academic background
d. present an illuminating
biographical detail about
Dove in an effort to enhance
the human interest appeal of
the passage
e. indicate what Dove believes
to be the origin of her
opposition to the separation
of fiction and poetry in the
U.S.
7. It can be inferred from the
passage that the author
would be most likely to
believe which one of the
following?
a. Each of Doves works can be
classified as either primarily
poetry or primarily fiction,
even though it may
contain elements of both.
b. The aesthetic value of lyric
narrative resides in its
representation of a sequence
of events, rather than in
its ability to evoke inner
states.
c. The way in which Dove
blends genres in her writing is
without precedent in U.S.
writing.
d. Narrative that uses lyrical
language is generally
aesthetically superior to pure
lyric poetry.
e. Writers who successfully
cross the generic boundary
between poetry and fiction
often try their hand at
genres such as drama as well.
8. If this passage had been
excerpted from a longer text,
which one of the following
predictions about the near
future of U.S. literature would
be most likely to appear in
that text?
a. The number of writers who
write both poetry and fiction
will probably continue to
grow.
b. Because of the increased
interest in mixed genres, the
small market for pure lyric
poetry will likely shrink
even further.
c. Narrative poetry will
probably come to be
regarded as a sub-genre of
fiction.
d. There will probably be a rise
in specialization among
writers in university writing
programs.
e. Writers who continue to
work exclusively in poetry or
fiction will likely lose their
audiences.
Passage 2
The two passages discuss
recent scientific research on
music. They are adapted from
two different papers
presented at a scholarly
conference.
Passage A
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(10)
(15)
(20)
(25)
Did music and human
language originate
separately or together? Both
systems use intonation
and rhythm to communicate
emotions. Both can be
produced vocally or with tools,
and people can produce
both music and language
silently to themselves.
Brain imaging studies suggest
that music and
language are part of one large,
vastly complicated,
neurological system for
processing sound. In fact,
fewer differences than
similarities exist between the
neurological processing of the
two. One could think of
the two activities as different
radio programs that can
be broadcast over the same
hardware. One noteworthy
difference, though, is that,
generally speaking, people
are better at language than
music. In music, anyone
can listen easily enough, but
most people do not
perform well, and in many
cultures composition is left
to specialists. In language, by
contrast, nearly
everyone actively performs
and composes.
Given their shared neurological
basis, it appears
that music and language
evolved together as brain
size
increased over the course of
hominid evolution. But
the primacy of language over
music that we can
observe today suggests that
language, not music, was
the primary function natural
selection operated on.
Music, it would seem, had little
adaptive value of its
own, and most likely
developed on the coattails of
language.
Passage B
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(40)
(45)
(50)
(55)
(60)
Darwin claimed that since
neither the enjoyment
nor the capacity of producing
musical notes are
faculties of the least [practical]
use to manthey must
be ranked amongst the most
mysterious with which he
is endowed. I suggest that the
enjoyment of and the
capacity to produce musical
notes are faculties
of indispensable use to
mothers and their infants and
that it is in the emotional
bonds created by the
interaction of mother and child
that we can discover
the evolutionary origins of
human music.
Even excluding lullabies, which
parents sing to
infants, human mothers and
infants under six months
of age engage in ritualized,
sequential behaviors,
involving vocal, facial, and
bodily interactions. Using
face-to-face mother-infant
interactions filmed at 24
frames per second,
researchers have shown that
mothers and infants jointly
construct mutually
improvised interactions in
which each partner tracks
the actions of the other. Such
episodes last from
one-half second to three
seconds and are composed of
musical elementsvariations
in pitch, rhythm, timbre,
volume, and tempo.
What evolutionary advantage
would such
behavior have? In the course
of hominid evolution,
brain size increased rapidly.
Contemporaneously, the
increase in bipedality caused
the birth canal to narrow.
This resulted in hominid
infants being born ever-more
prematurely, leaving them
much more helpless at birth.
This helplessness necessitated
longer, better maternal
care. Under such conditions,
the emotional bonds
created in the premusical
mother-infant interactions we
observe in Homo sapiens
todaybehavior whose
neurological basis essentially
constitutes the capacity
to make and enjoy music
would have conferred
considerable evolutionary
advantage.
9. Both passages were written
primarily in order to answer
which one of the following
questions?
a. What evolutionary
advantage did larger brain
size confer on early
hominids?
b. Why do human mothers and
infants engage in bonding
behavior that is composed of
musical elements?
c. What are the evolutionary
origins of the human ability to
make music?
d. Do the human abilities to
make music and to use
language depend on the
same neurological systems?
e. Why are most people more
adept at using language than
they are at making music?
10. Each of the two passages
mentions the relation of
music to
a. bonding between humans
b. human emotion
c. neurological research
d. the increasing helplessness
of hominid infants
e. the use of tools to produce
sounds
11. It
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
can be inferred that the
authors of the two passages
would be most likely to
disagree over whether
the increase in hominid brain
size necessitated earlier
births
fewer differences than
similarities exist between the
neurological processing of
music and human language
brain size increased rapidly
over the course of human
evolution
the capacity to produce music
has great adaptive value to
humans
mother-infant bonding involves
temporally patterned vocal
interactions
12. The authors would be most
likely to agree on the answer
to which one of the following
questions regarding
musical capacity in humans?
a. Does it manifest itself in
some form in early infancy?
b. Does it affect the strength of
mother-infant bonds?
c. Is it at least partly a result of
evolutionary increases in
brain size?
d. Did its evolution spur the
development of new
neurological systems?
e. Why does it vary so greatly
among different individuals?
13. Which one of the following
principles underlies the
arguments in both passages?
a. Investigations of the
evolutionary origins of human
behaviors must take into
account the behavior of
nonhuman animals.
b. All human capacities can be
explained in terms of the
evolutionary advantages they
offer.
c. The fact that a single
neurological system underlies
two different capacities is
evidence that those
capacities evolved
concurrently.
d. The discovery of the
neurological basis of a human
behavior constitutes the
discovery of the essence of
that behavior.
e. The behavior of modern-day
humans can provide
legitimate evidence
concerning the evolutionary
origins of
human abilities.
14. Which one of the following
most accurately characterizes
a relationship between the
two passages?
a. Passage A and passage B
use different evidence to
draw divergent conclusions.
b. Passage A poses the
question that passage B
attempts to answer.
c. Passage A proposes a
hypothesis that passage B
attempts to substantiate with
new evidence.
d. Passage A expresses a
stronger commitment to its
hypothesis than does
passage B.
e. Passage A and passage B
use different evidence to
support the same conclusion.
Passage 3
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(20)
(25)
(30)
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(40)
The World Wide Web, a
network of electronically
produced and interconnected
(or linked) sites, called
pages, that are accessible via
personal computer, raises
legal issues about the rights of
owners of intellectual
property, notably those who
create documents for
inclusion on Web pages. Some
of these owners of
intellectual property claim that
unless copyright law is
strengthened, intellectual
property on the Web will not
be protected from copyright
infringement. Web users,
however, claim that if their
ability to access
information on Web pages is
reduced, the Web cannot
live up to its potential as an
open, interactive medium
of communication.
The debate arises from the
Webs ability to link
one document to another.
Links between sites are
analogous to the inclusion in a
printed text of
references to other works, but
with one difference: the
cited document is instantly
retrievable by a user who
activates the link. This
immediate accessibility
creates
a problem, since current
copyright laws give owners of
intellectual property the right
to sue a distributor of
unauthorized copies of their
material even if that
distributor did not personally
make the copies. If
person A, the author of a
document, puts the
document
on a Web page, and person B,
the creator of another
Web page, creates a link to As
document, is B
committing copyright
infringement?
To answer this question, it
must first be
determined who controls
distribution of a document on
the Web. When A places a
document on a Web page,
this is comparable to recording
an outgoing message
on ones telephone answering
machine for others to
hear. When B creates a link to
As document, this is
akin to Bs giving out As
telephone number, thereby
allowing third parties to hear
the outgoing message for
themselves. Anyone who calls
can listen to the
message; that is its purpose.
While Bs link may
indeed facilitate access to As
document, the crucial
point is that A, simply by
placing that document on the
Web, is thereby offering it for
distribution. Therefore,
even if B leads others to the
document, it is A who
actually controls access to it.
Hence creating a link to a
document is not the same as
making or distributing a
copy of that document.
Moreover, techniques are
(45)

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(55)
already available by which A
can restrict access to a
document. For example, A may
require a password to
gain entry to As Web page,
just as a telephone owner
can request an unlisted
number and disclose it only
to
selected parties. Such a
solution would compromise
the openness of the Web
somewhat, but not as much
as
the threat of copyright
infringement litigation.
Changing copyright law to
benefit owners of
intellectual property is thus ill-
advised because it
would impede the
development of the Web as a
public
forum dedicated to the free
exchange of ideas.
15. Which one of the following
most accurately expresses
the main point of the
passage?
a. Since distribution of a
document placed on a Web
page is controlled by the
author of that page rather
than
by the person who creates a
link to the page, creating
such a link should not be
considered copyright
infringement.
b. Changes in copyright law in
response to the development
of Web pages and links are ill-
advised unless such
changes amplify rather than
restrict the free exchange of
ideas necessary in a
democracy.
c. People who are concerned
about the access others may
have to the Web documents
they create can easily
prevent such access without
inhibiting the rights of others
to exchange ideas freely.
d. Problems concerning
intellectual property rights
created by new forms of
electronic media are not
insuperably difficult to resolve
if one applies basic
commonsense principles to
these problems.
e. Maintaining a free exchange
of ideas on the Web offers
benefits that far outweigh
those that might be
gained by a small number of
individuals if a radical
alteration of copyright laws
aimed at restricting the
Webs growth were allowed.
16. Which one of the following
is closest in meaning to the
term strengthened as that
term is used in line 8 of
the passage?
a. made more restrictive
b. made uniform worldwide
c. made to impose harsher
penalties
d. dutifully enforced
e. more fully recognized as
legitimate
17. With which one of the
following claims about
documents placed on Web
pages would the author be
most likely
to agree?
a. Such documents cannot
receive adequate protection
 unless current copyright laws
are strengthened.
b. Such documents cannot be
protected from unauthorized
distribution without
significantly diminishing the
potential of the Web to be a
widely used form of
communication.
c. The nearly instantaneous
access afforded by the Web
makes it impossible in
practice to limit access to
such documents.
d. Such documents can be
protected from copyright
infringement with the least
damage to the public interest
only by altering existing legal
codes.
e. Such documents cannot
fully contribute to the Webs
free exchange of ideas unless
their authors allow
them to be freely accessed by
those who wish to do so.
18. Based on the passage, the
relationship between
strengthening current
copyright laws and relying on
passwords
to restrict access to a Web
document is most analogous
to the relationship between
a. allowing everyone use of a
public facility and restricting
its use to members of the
community
b. outlawing the use of a drug
and outlawing its sale
c. prohibiting a sport and
relying on participants to
employ proper safety gear
d. passing a new law and
enforcing that law
e. allowing unrestricted entry
to a building and restricting
entry to those who have been
issued a badge
19. The passage most strongly
implies which one of the
following?
a. There are no creators of
links to Web pages who are
also owners of intellectual
property on Web pages.
b. The person who controls
access to a Web page
document should be
considered the distributor of
that
document.
c. Rights of privacy should not
be extended to owners of
intellectual property placed
on the Web.
d. Those who create links to
Web pages have primary
control over who reads the
documents on those pages.
e. A document on a Web page
must be converted to a
physical document via
printing before copyright
infringement takes place.
20. According to the passage,
which one of the following
features of outgoing
messages left on telephone
answering machines is most
relevant to the debate
concerning copyright
infringement?
a. Such messages are carried
by an electronic medium of
communication.
b. Such messages are not
legally protected against
unauthorized distribution.
c. Transmission of such
messages is virtually
instantaneous.
d. People do not usually care
whether or not others might
record such messages.
e. Such messages have
purposely been made
available to anyone who calls
that telephone number.
21. The authors discussion of
telephone answering
machines serves primarily to
a. compare and contrast the
legal problems created by
two different sorts of
electronic media
b. provide an analogy to
illustrate the positions taken
by each of the two sides in
the copyright debate
c. show that the legal
problems produced by new
communication technology
are not themselves new
d. illustrate the basic principle
the author believes should
help determine the outcome
of the copyright
debate
e. show that telephone use
also raises concerns about
copyright infringement
22. According to the passage,
present copyright laws
a. allow completely
unrestricted use of any
document placed by its
author on a Web page
b. allow those who establish
links to a document on a Web
page to control its distribution
to others
c. prohibit anyone but the
author of a document from
making a profit from the
documents distribution
d. allow the author of a
document to sue anyone who
distributes the document
without permission
e. should be altered to allow
more complete freedom in
the exchange of ideaS
Passage 4
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(40)
In tracing the changing face of
the Irish
landscape, scholars have
traditionally relied primarily
on evidence from historical
documents. However, such
documentary sources provide
a fragmentary record at
best. Reliable accounts are
very scarce for many parts
of Ireland prior to the
seventeenth century, and
many
of the relevant documents
from the sixteenth and
seventeenth centuries focus
selectively on matters
relating to military or
commercial interests.
Studies of fossilized pollen
grains preserved in
peats and lake muds provide
an additional means of
investigating vegetative
landscape change. Details of
changes in vegetation
resulting from both human
activities and natural events
are reflected in the kinds
and quantities of minute pollen
grains that become
trapped in sediments. Analysis
of samples can identify
which kinds of plants produced
the preserved pollen
grains and when they were
deposited, and in many
cases the findings can serve to
supplement or correct
the documentary record.
For example, analyses of
samples from Long
Lough in County Down have
revealed significant
patterns of cereal-grain pollen
beginning by about 400
A.D. The substantial clay
content of the soil in this part
of Down makes cultivation by
primitive tools difficult.
Historians thought that such
soils were not tilled to
any significant extent until the
introduction of the
moldboard plough to Ireland in
the seventh century
A.D. Because cereal cultivation
would have required
tilling of the soil, the pollen
evidence indicates that
these soils must indeed have
been successfully tilled
before the introduction of the
new plough.
Another example concerns flax
cultivation in
County Down, one of the great
linen-producing areas
of Ireland during the
eighteenth century. Some
aspects
of linen production in Down are
well documented, but
the documentary record tells
little about the cultivation
of flax, the plant from which
linen is made, in that
area. The record of eighteenth-
century linen
production in Down, together
with the knowledge that
flax cultiation had been
established in Ireland
centuries before that time, led
some historians to
surmise that this plant was
being cultivated in Down
before the eighteenth century.
But pollen analyses
(45)
(50)
(55)
indicate that this is not the
case; flax pollen was found
only in deposits laid down
since the eighteenth
century.
It must be stressed, though,
that there are limits to
the ability of the pollen record
to reflect the vegetative
history of the landscape. For
example, pollen analyses
cannot identify the species,
but only the genus or
family, of some plants. Among
these is madder, a
cultivated dye plant of
historical importance in
Ireland.
Madder belongs to a plant
family that also comprises
various native weeds,
including goosegrass. If
madder
pollen were present in a
deposit it would be
indistinguishable from that of
uncultivated native
species.
23. Which one of the following
most accurately expresses
 the main point of the
passage?
a. Analysis of fossilized pollen
is a useful means of
supplementing and in some
cases correcting other
sources
of information regarding
changes in the Irish
landscape.
b. Analyses of historical
documents, together with
pollen evidence, have led to
the revision of some
previously
accepted hypotheses
regarding changes in the Irish
landscape.
c. Analysis of fossilized pollen
has proven to be a valuable
tool in the identification of
ancient plant species.
d. Analysis of fossilized pollen
has provided new evidence
that the cultivation of such
crops as cereal grains,
flax, and madder had a
significant impact on the
landscape of Ireland.
e. While pollen evidence can
sometimes supplement other
sources of historical
information, its applicability is
severely limited, since it
cannot be used to identify
plant species.
24. The passage indicates that
pollen analyses have
provided evidence against
which one of the following
views?
a. The moldboard plough was
introduced into Ireland in the
seventh century.
b. In certain parts of County
Down, cereal grains were not
cultivated to any significant
extent before the
seventh century.
c. In certain parts of Ireland,
cereal grains have been
cultivated continuously since
the introduction of the
moldboard plough.
d. Cereal grain cultivation
requires successful tilling of
the soil.
e. Cereal grain cultivation
began in County Down
around 400 A.D.
25. The phrase documentary
record (lines 20 and 37)
primarily refers to
a. documented results of
analyses of fossilized pollen
b. the kinds and quantities of
fossilized pollen grains
preserved in peats and lake
muds
c. written and pictorial
descriptions by current
historians of the events and
landscapes of past centuries
d. government and commercial
records, maps, and similar
documents produced in the
past that recorded
conditions and events of that
time
e. articles, books, and other
documents by current
historians listing and
analyzing all the available
evidence
regarding a particular
historical period
26. The passage indicates that
prior to the use of pollen
analysis in the study of the
history of the Irish landscape,
at least some historians
believed which one of the
following?
a. The Irish landscape had
experienced significant
 flooding during the
seventeenth century.
b. Cereal grain was not
cultivated anywhere in
Ireland until at least the
seventh century.
c. The history of the Irish
landscape during the
sixteenth and seventeenth
centuries was well
documented.
d. Madder was not used as a
dye plant in Ireland until after
the eighteenth century.
e. The beginning of flax
cultivation in County Down
may well have occurred
before the eighteenth
century.
27. Which one of the following
most accurately describes the
relationship between the
second paragraph and the
final paragraph?
a. The second paragraph
proposes a hypothesis for
which the final paragraph
offers a supporting example.
b. The final paragraph
describes a problem that
must be solved before the
method advocated in the
second
paragraph can be considered
viable.
c. The final paragraph qualifies
the claim made in the second
paragraph.
d. The second paragraph
describes a view against
which the author intends to
argue, and the final
paragraph
states the authors argument
against that view.
e. The final paragraph offers
procedures to supplement the
method described in the
second paragrapH