OCTAVE ADMISSIONS TEST (OAT)

Instructions

1) The test consists of the following sections

a. Quantitative Ability (10 Qns)
b. Data Interpretation (10 Qns)
c. Verbal Ability (10 Qns)
d. Reading Comprehension (10 Qns)
2) The paper consists of 40 Qns, consisting 10 Qns from each section
3) Each question carries one mark.
4) There are no negative marks for wrong answers.
5) Total duration of the test is 75 Minutes. There is no break in between the exam.
6) Use of any electronic gadget for calculations is not allowed.
7) Candidates are requested to switch off their cell phones during the screening tests
8) A separate blank sheet will be provided for any rough work.
9) A separate answer sheet will be provided for marking the answers.
10) Candidates have to return the question paper along with the answer sheet after
completion of the test.
 SECTION 1: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (QA)

Q1. Triangles ABC and PQR are similar. If their areas are 36 cm2 and 144 cm2 respectively and if
AB is 6 cm, find the value of PQ. (Assuming AB and PQ are the corresponding sides in the
similar triangles.)

A. 1 / 6 cm
B. 1 / 12 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 10 cm
E. None of these

Q2. In ∆ABC, DE | | BC. If AD = x cm, BD = 1 cm, AE = 2 cm and CE = 2 cm, find the value of x.

A. 3 cm
B. 1.5 cm
C. 2 cm
D. 1 cm
E. None of these

Q3. The probability that ‘Neo’ will pass the examination is 1 / 6, and the probability that
‘Morpheus’ will pass the examination is 2 / 3. What is the probability that both will fail in the
examination?

A. 1 / 3
B. 5 / 18
C. 5 / 9
D. 17 / 18
E. 16 / 19

Q4. In a class of 100 boys, there are 45 boys who play Football and 60 boys play Golf. Find how
many boys play both the games (assuming that every boy play either football or golf or both)?

A. 20
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 6
Q5. $112,500 are divided among three bands Eagles, Doors and UB40 such that Eagles receives
half as much as Doors and UB40 together received, and Doors receives 1/ 4 th of what Eagles
and UB40 receive together. The share of Eagles is more than that of Doors by

A. $15,000
B. $30,000
C. $32,000
D. $15,500
E. $20,000

Q6. A lady is four years younger than her husband and he is four times as old as his daughter
who was 10 years old three years back. What is the present age of the lady?

A. 48
B. 50
C. 52
D. 54
E. None of these

Q7. A book was sold for a certain sum and there was a loss of 20%. Had it been sold for Rs. 3
more, then there would have been a profit of 30%. If it was sold for Rs. 6.60, then the
profit/loss percentage would have been

A. Profit of 10%
B. Profit of 8.33%
C. Loss of 8.33%
D. Loss of 10%
E. Data insufficient

Q8. A can do a piece of work four hours faster than B. They worked together for two hours and
then the remaining part of the work was done by A in an hour. How many hours would B take
to complete the job if he were to work alone?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3
E. 2

Q9. The ratio of the prices of two houses A and B was 4 : 5 last year. This year the price of A
increased by 25% and that of B by Rs 50,000. If the prices are now in the ratio 9 : 10, the price
of A last year was

A. Rs. 3,60,000
B. Rs. 4,50,000
C. Rs. 4,80,000
D. Rs. 5,00,000
E. None of these
Q10. v is inversely proportional to the square of m and m is inversely proportional to the
square of t. What is the relationship between v and t?

A. v α t4
B. v α t2
C. v α t
D. v α t-2
D. None of these
 SECTION 2: DATA INTERPRETATION (DI)

DIRECTION for question: Answer the question based on the data presented in the table below.

Following is the table with details about four trains namely, Trains A, Train B, Train C and Train
D with their arrival and departure time at 12 different cities. All these cities are assumed to be
in a straight line.

Q1. How long does a train from Mumbai take to get from Pimpri to Pune at 48 kmph?

A. 10 min
B. 20 min
C. 30 min
D. 25 min
E. None of these

Q2. Trains departing before 7 a.m. have ‘Snoozy Hour’ ticket concessions. How many such
trains exist?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
E. 5

Q3. The longest delay between arrival and departure is

A. 1 min
B. 11 min
C. 12 min
D. 15 min
E. 10 min

Q4. What is the maximum time can one spend in Khandala using the combination of trains B
and D?

A. 16 hr 16 min
B. 7 hr 46 min
C. 7 hr 36 min
D. 10 hr 19 min
E. 12 hr 20 min

Q5. A train takes 4 hours from Shivaji Nagar to Mumbai. Find its speed.

A. 13 m/s
B. 12.87 m/s
C. 13.125 m/s
D. 13.108 m/s
E. 15.5 m/s

Direction for question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The following is a student’s report card of a two hours management entrance test. For every
correct answer she gets 3 marks, but for every wrong answer she loses 1 mark.

Q6. What percentage of the total maximum score did the candidate score?

A. 48.9
B. 53.1
C. 58.9
D. 50
E. 40

Q7. Assuming that the candidate was given an extra half an hour due to the absent-
mindedness of the supervisor and that she completed all 190 questions. What should her
accuracy rate have been in the non-attempted questions to fetch her at least 70% of the total
score after negative marking?

A. 86.66 %
B. 93.33 %
C. 90%
D. 96.66 %
E. 80%

Q8. What is the ratio of the accuracy rate of the candidate in RC, VA, PS and DI respectively?

A. 70 : 71 : 81 : 72
B. 60 : 61 : 64 : 66
C. 50 : 73 : 82 : 92
D. 83 : 72 : 56 : 25
E. 60 : 64 : 62 : 61

Q9. Strength indicator = [Attempted questions / Total questions] x [Correctly-marked

questions / Attempted questions]. Using this formula, which section has the greatest strength
indicator?

A. RC
B. PS
C. VA
D. DI
E. Both (A) and (B)

Q10. What were the least marks scored by the candidate in a section?

A. 71
B. 77
C. 70
D. 60
E. 50
 SECTION 3: VERBAL ABILITY (VA)

Direction for question: The sentences given in the question below, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical
order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

Q1.
A. Four days later, Oracle announced its own bid for PeopleSoft, and invited the firm’s board to
a discussion.
B. Furious that his own plans had been endangered, PeopleSoft’s boss, Craig Conway, called
Oracle’s offer “diabolical”, and its boss, Larry Ellison, a “sociopath”.
C. In early June, PeopleSoft said that it would buy J.D. Edwards, a smaller rival.
D. Moreover, said Mr. Conway, he “could imagine no price nor combination of price and other
conditions to recommend accepting the offer.”
E. On June 12th, PeopleSoft turned Oracle down.

A. CABDE
B. CADBE
C. CEDAB
D. CAEBD
E. CADEB

Q2.
A. Buddhism is a path of practice and spiritual development leading to Insight into the true
nature of life.
B. The experience developed within the Buddhist tradition over thousands of years has created
an incomparable resource for all those who wish to follow a path — a path which ultimately
culminates in Enlightenment or Buddhahood.
C. Buddhist practices such as meditation are means of changing oneself in order to develop the
qualities of awareness, kindness, and wisdom.
D. Because Buddhism does not include the idea of worshipping a creator god, some people do
not see it as a religion in the normal, Western sense.
E. The basic tenets of Buddhist teaching are straightforward and practical: nothing is fixed or
permanent; actions have consequences; change is possible. to realise and utilise its teachings
in order to transform their experience, to be fully responsible for their lives and to develop the
qualities of Wisdom and Compassion.

A. BCDE
B. CBED
C. CBDE
D. BEDC
E. ECDB
Direction for question: The following question consist of two words each that have a certain
relationship with each other followed by alternatives. Select the alternative that has the same
relationship as depicted in the original pair of words.

Q3. PAINT: BRUSH

A. Novel: new
B. Drama: shoot
C. Book: read
D. Letter: thoughts
E. Sketch: charcoal

Direction for question: Fill up the blank, numbered [14] in the passage below with the most
appropriate word from the options given for the blank.

Q4. Environmental Psychology deals with behavior in relation to the environment. Concepts
regarding the environment and [11] ____________ preferences are studied and represented in
behavioral maps. Environment influences behavior at different levels. Immediate behavior is a
function of the setting in which it occurs. The personality make-up of people of a country is
shaped by the nature and type of environment in which they live. In [12]_________ or caged
conditions animals show ‘behavior starvation’ and their behavior breaks down. Population
stress and the artificial character of urban conditions are supposed to be the reasons for the
increased rates of crime and [13] _________-of mental disorders of people living in urban
areas. Applied Environmental Psychology attempts to provide [14]__________ for better
management of the environment for better life and personality development. It studies
effective ways of promoting [15] __________ of the natural environment and better ways of
designing buildings, towns and cities, taking into consideration the behavioral needs and
responses of people.

A. Relief
B. Succour
C. Norms
D. Goals
E. Data

Direction for question: From the given statements, choose the one where the word given at
the beginning of the question is used inappropriately.

Q5. Run
A. Rahul has run into a huge amount of debt.
B. Being a workaholic he is always run out.
C. He kept running for some time so as to get way from the robbers.
D. Marwin has run through his inheritance left to him by his father.
E. She runs a playschool in the heart of the town.
Direction for question: Read the argument given below and answer the question that follows.

Q6. Agricultural goods - known in market-speak as “softs” - are the latest to join a commodity
boom that has already pushed up prices of oil, copper and nickel, buttressed by demand from
emerging tigers such as China.

Find out that which one of the following will support the given statement?

A. Tigers like China are self sufficient as far as agriculture is concerned.

B. The service sector of countries like China takes care of its requirement.
C. “Softs” are in demand because of the requirements of countries like China which have
a huge population and booming economy.
D. India is another tiger as far as the booming economy is concerned.
E. Both (d) and (c)

Q7. A great defect of our civilization is that it does not know what to do with its knowledge.
Science has given us powers fit for the gods, yet we use them like small children. For example
we do not know how to manage our machines. Machines were made to be man's servants; yet
we have grown to be so dependent on them that they are in a clear process of becoming our
masters.

Which amongst the following seriously fortifies the above argument?

A. Man made computers and even computer engineers don't have 10% knowledge about
computer.
B. Small children can use the powers provided by science in a way.
C. Ankit Fadia and many others like him made ethical hacking possible and thus won over
computers.
D. Man has become the master of many trades.
E. Already most men spend most of their lives looking after and waiting upon machines

Direction for question: In the following question, the underlined part has an error. From the
options choose the grammatically correct option to replace the underlined part in the
question.

Q8. Had the minister’s party not been seen as a Communist party, he would have easily won
the elections.

A. Had the minister’s party not been seen as a Communist party, all of those would have
easily won the elections
B. Had the minister’s party not been seen as a Communist party, they would have easily
won the elections.
C. Had the minister’s party not been seen as a Communist party, he could easily have won
the elections.
 D. Had the minister’s party not been seen as a Communist party, the minister could easily
have won the elections
E. Had the minister’s party not been seen as a Communist party, the minister could have
easily won the elections.

Q9. The increase in the number of crimes in Gurgaon indicate the poor law and order situation
there and therefore that the citizens need to be vigilant.

A. indicate the poor law and order situation there and therefore that
B. indicate the poor law and order situation there and therefore
C. that indicate the poor law and order situation there and therefore
D. indicates the poor law and order situation there and therefore
E. indicates the poor law and order situation there and therefore that

Direction for question: From the given statements, choose the one where the word given at
the beginning of the question is used inappropriately.

Q10. Give

A. Satish gave away a lot of old clothes which he had bought when he was a teenager.
B. Rita’s work is to counsel students in colleges and give out leaflets.
C. Dieting does not mean that you give everything that you like eating.
D. Most philosophies advise us to ‘Give and Forgive’.
E. India and Sri Lanka have a give and take relationship.
 SECTION 4: READING COMPREHENSION (RC)

Direction for question: The passage given below is followed by a question. Choose the best
answer to the question.

PASSAGE 1

Ilian Mihov, Professor of Economics at INSEAD, holds forth on the lessons of the collapse of the
‘golden age’ of the late 1920s.

What is the biggest lesson from the Great Depression? In my view, it is that monetary policy
and the financial sector play a crucial role in economic development. Let me put it more
precisely: good monetary policy is unlikely to accelerate the speed of economic growth – after
all we have more income year after year because mankind comes up with new ideas, with new
products, with more efficient ways of producing output. However, bad monetary policy can
easily derail economic development. It is true for rich and poor countries alike.

Why are financial markets and the banking sector so important? Banks fulfill a very important
role in the economy by matching borrowers and lenders. When we deposit $100 in a bank, the
bank keeps, at most, two to three dollars in its vaults (in fact the money is often in the central
bank), the remaining $98 or so is lent to a borrower.

Most businesses require loans for their normal operations. When the banking sector does not
work properly, businesses cannot get loans and they have to curtail their production and lay
off workers. As they curtail production, they demand fewer products from their suppliers and
therefore their suppliers have to reduce their output and fire workers. If manufacturers cannot
sell their goods because the firm downstream does not need as many products as before, they
cannot generate enough revenue to repay their earlier loans. Businesses go bankrupt and
banks experience further problems as their balance sheet deteriorates due to non-performing
loans. At this point, banks want to lend even less because of the uncertainty generated from
bankruptcies. As they lend less, the vicious circle continues – with producers cutting
production and firing workers. On the top of this, depositors start worrying about their
deposits because the non-performing loans have made some banks go belly up – your bank
has lent out your money to borrowers who cannot return it. Depositors start withdrawing their
cash and banks have even fewer possibilities for lending as they have to hoard cash in case
there is a run on the bank. If the financial sector does not work, the real economy can go into a
deadly spiral and shrink by 30 per cent as during the Great Depression.

And one thought like Ilian that this would be obvious to all the policy makers. However all the
lessons from the Great Depression seem to have been lost within three-quarters of a century.
It seems, to paraphrase Marc Bard, that politics [especially of the petty and partisan variety]
eats policy for lunch seven days a week.

Q1. Bad monetary policy can

 A. Affect only poor countries
B. Affect only developing countries.
C. Affect only rich countries
D. Affect only countries with a depression.
E. None of the above

Q2. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. Banks are short of cash most of the time

B. Banks do not like to keep money with the central bank.
C. Banks do not like to keep large amounts of money in their vaults.
D. Banks usually keep some money with the central bank.
E. Banks actually fool the customers.

Q3. In the last paragraph, the tone of the author is

A. Adulating
B. Optimistic
C. Criticizing
D. Analytical
E. Indifferent

Q4. When the banking sector does not function properly

A. The economy can go into a depression.

B. Workers of manufacturing companies can be fired.
C. Businesses can find it difficult to get loans.
D. Banks may want to curb lending.
E. All of the above.

Q5. A suitable title to the passage is

A. Monetary Policy
B. Policy makers
C. Lessons from The Great Depression
D. The Great Depression
E. Banks in trouble.

PASSAGE 2

The Olympic Games is an international multi-sport event established for both summer and
winter games. There have been two generations of the Olympic Games; the first were the
Ancient Olympic Games held at Olympia, Greece. The second, known as the Modern Olympic
Games, were first revived with a modern international Olympic Games held in 1859 in Athens,
Greece. The first modern international was sponsored by the Greek philanthropist Evangelis
Zappas and pre-dates the foundation of the International Olympic Committee. The modern
Olympics feature the Summer Games and Winter Games. The Paralympic and Youth Olympic
Games are variations on the Modern Olympic Movement.

The International Olympic Committee (IOC) was founded in 1894 on the initiative of a French
nobleman, Pierre Frédy, Baron de Coubertin. His vision was to bring together amateur athletes
from around the world to compete in a variety of events. The IOC has become the governing
body of the “Olympic Movement,” a conglomeration of sporting federations that are
responsible for the organization of the Games. The evolution of the Olympic Movement has
forced the IOC to change Coubertin’s time–honored ideals. The original vision of the pure
amateur athlete had to change under the pressure of corporate sponsorships and political
regimes intent on the creation of sports “dynasties”.

Participation in the Games has increased to the point that nearly every nation on earth is
represented. This growth has created numerous challenges; including political boycotts, the
use of performance enhancing drugs, bribery of officials, and terrorism. While the Olympic
Movement is forced to address issues never before conceived by Coubertin, the Olympics
continue to grow in the face of these challenges. The Games encompass many rituals and
symbols that were established during their infancy in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
Most of these traditions are displayed in the opening and closing ceremonies, and the medal
presentations. Despite the complexity of the current modern Games, the focus remains on the
Olympic motto: Citius Altius Fortius - Faster, Higher, Stronger.

There are many myths surrounding the origin of the ancient Olympic Games; the most popular
of which identifies Heracles and his father Zeus as the progenitors of the Games. According to
the legend, Zeus held sporting events in honor of his defeat of Cronus, and succession to the
throne of heaven. Heracles, being his eldest son, defeated his brothers in a running race and
was crowned with a wreath of wild olive branches. It is Heracles who first called the games
Olympic, and established the custom of holding them every 4 years. The legend diverges at
this point. One popular story claims that after Heracles completed his 12 labors, he went on to
build the Olympic stadium and surrounding buildings as an honor to Zeus. After the stadium
was complete, he walked in a straight line for 200 strides and called this distance a “stadion”
(Latin: stadium, “stage”), which later also became a unit of distance.

Q6. “There have been two generations of the Olympic Games” means –

A. Only two generations of mankind played Olympic Games.

B. Only two decades people have been playing Olympic Games.
C. There have been two eras of the Olympic Games.
D. There have been two types of Olympic Games.
E. All of these.

Q7. The Olympic was first played in –

A. Athens
 B. Olympia
C. France
D. Olumpus
E. None of these

Q8. The word “Conglomeration” means –

A. Congress globalization
B. Related to Congo
C. A large group of different things all gathered together resulting in their union.
D. A sum total of many things
E. None of these

Q9. Synonym of “Philanthropist” is –

A. Philologist
B. Philatelist
C. Altricial
D. Altoona
E. Altruist

Q10. According to the passage which of the statements given below is false?

A. Zeus had many sons.

B. A stadion is 200strides in a straight line.
C. Evangelis Zappas was a Greek.
D. IOC means Indian Oil Company.
E. Pierre Frédy was a French noble man.

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