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Chapter 1 : Chemical Reactions and Equations

Questions:
Q1) Why should a Magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
Soln: When left unused, the outer layer of Magnesium metal reacts with the
atmospheric oxygen and forms Magnesium Oxide (MgO) layer which is a very stable
compound thus preventing further reactions with Oxygen. It is therefore necessary to
clean the ribbon by brushing it to remove the layer of MgO so that the reaction
becomes feasible with the atmospheric oxygen.

Q2) Write a balanced equations for the following chemical reactions.


i) Hydrogen + Chloride -> Hydrogen chloride
ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium Sulphate -> Barium sulphate + Aluminum
chloride
iii) Sodium + Water -> Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Soln:

i) H2+Cl22HCl
ii) 3BaCl2+Al2(SO4)32AlCl3+3BaSO4
iii) 2Na+2H2O2NaOH+H2

Q3) Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following
reactions
i) Solutions of Barium chloride and Sodium sulfate in water react to give
insoluble Barium sulfate and solution of Sodium chloride.
ii) Sodium hydroxide solution in water reacts with hydrochloric acid solution
to produce Sodium chloride solution and water.
Soln:

i) BaCl2+Na2SO4BaSO4+2NaCl
ii) NaOH+HClNaCl+H2O

Q4) A solution of a substance X is used for whitewashing.


i) Name the substance X and write its formula.
ii) Write the reaction of the substance X named in (i) above with water.
Soln:
i)The substance X which is used in whitewashing is quick lime or Calcium Oxide and
its formula is CaO.

ii) CaO+H2OCa(OH)2
Q5) Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron
nail is dipped in it?
Soln:
When an iron nail dipped in the copper sulphate solution, the iron displaces copper
from the copper sulphate because iron is more reactive than copper. Therefore the
colour of the copper sulphate solution changes. The reaction is :

Fe+CuSO4>FeSO4+Cu

Q6) Identify the substances that are oxidized and that are reduced in the
following equation.

i) 4Na(s)+O2(g)2Na2O(s)
ii) CuO(s)+H2(g)Cu(s)+H2O(l)
Soln:
The Sodium (Na) in the first equation is getting oxidized with the addition of Oxygen
(O2) and the Copper (Cu) in the second equation is reduced since the addition of
Hydrogen (H2).

Exercise:
Q1) Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?

2PbO(s)+C(s)2Pb(s)+CO2(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced
(b) Carbon Dioxide is getting oxidised
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all
Soln:
(i) (a) and (b)
Explanation: (a) because Oxygen is being removed and (b) because the removed
oxygen from Lead is added to the elemental Carbon.

Q2) Fe2O3+2AlAl2O3+2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a
1. Combination reaction.
2. Double displacement reaction.
3. Decomposition reaction.
4. Displacement reaction.
Soln:
4. Displacement reaction.
Explanation: The Oxygen from the Ferrous oxide is getting displaced to the Aluminium
metal to form Aluminium Oxide.

Q3) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron fillings?
Tick the correct answer.
1. Hydrogen gas and Iron chloride are produced.
2. Chlorine gas and Iron hydroxide are produced.
3. No reaction takes place.
4. Iron salt and water are produced.
Soln:
1. Hydrogen gas and Iron chloride are produced.
Explanation: The Chlorine from the Hydrogen chloride is displaced to the Iron fillings
undergoing the following reaction.

2HCl+FeFeCl2+H2

Q4) What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should a chemical equation


be balanced?
Soln:
A balanced chemical equation is the one in which the number of different atoms on
both the sides of the chemical equation that is on the reactant side and the product
side of a reaction are equal. The chemical equation needs to be balanced so that it
obeys the Law Of Conservation of Mass. Balancing of chemical equation has no
defined method and is purely a trial and error attempt.

Q5) Translate the following statements into chemical equations and balance
them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give Aluminium
chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and
Hydrogen gas.
Soln:

(a) Unbalanced: H2+N2NH3


Balanced: 3H2+N22NH3
(b) Unbalanced: H2S+O2H2O+SO2
Balanced: 2H2S+3O22H2O+2SO2
(c) Unbalanced: BaCl2+Al2(SO4)3AlCl3+BaSO4
Balanced: 3BaCl2+Al2(SO4)32AlCl3+3BaSO4
(d) Unbalanced:K+H2OKOH+H2

Balanced: 2K+2H2O2KOH+H2
Q6) Balance the following chemical equations.

1. HNO3+Ca(OH)2Ca(NO3)2+H2O
2. NaOH+H2SO4Na2SO4+H2O
3. NaCl+AgNO3AgCl+NaNO3
4. BaCl2+H2SO4BaSO4+HCl
Soln:

1. 2HNO3+2Ca(OH)22Ca(NO3)2+2H2O
2. 6NaOH+3H2SO4H2SO4+6H2O
3. NaCl+AgNO3AgCl+NaNO3
4. BaCl2+H2SO4BaSO4+2HCl

Q7) Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reactions.
1. Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide -> Calcium carbonate + Water
2. Zinc + Silver nitrate -> Zinc nitrate + Silver
3. Aluminium + Copper chloride -> Aluminium chloride + Copper
4. Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate -> Barium sulphate +
Potassium chloride
Soln:

1. 2Ca(OH)2+2CO22CaCO3+2H2O
2. Zn+2AgNO3Zn(NO3)2+2Ag
3. 2Al+3CuCl32AlCl3+3Cu
4. BaCl2+K2SO4BaSO4+2KCl
Q8) Write a balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the
type of reaction of each case

1. KBr+BaI2KI+BaBr2
2. ZnCO3ZnO+CO2
3. H2+ClHCl
4. Mg+HClMgCl2+H2
Soln:

1. 2KBr+BaI22KI+BaBr2 (Double Displacement Reaction)


2. ZnCO3ZnO+CO2 (Decomposition Reaction)
3. H2+Cl2HCl (Combination Reaction)
4. Mg+2HClMgCl2+H2 (Displacement Reaction)

Q9) What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give


examples.
Soln:
An endothermic reaction occurs when energy is absorbed from the surroundings in
the form of heat.(Example: Photosynthesis, melting of ice,evaporation). Conversely,
an exothermic reaction is one in which energy is released from the system into the
surroundings.(Example: Explosions, concrete setting, nuclear fission and fusion).

Q10) Why is respiration considered to be an exothermic reaction?


Soln:
For the survival of life we require energy.We obtain this energy from the food we eat.
The food molecules, through the process of digestion is broken down into simpler
molecule like glucose. These substances come in contact with the Oxygen present in
our body cells to form Carbon dioxide and water along with a certain amount of
energy(Respiration process). Since the energy is in the form of heat(that maintains
our body temperature) the respiration is considered to be an exothermic reaction.The
reaction taking place is:

C6H12O6+6O26CO2+6H2O+Energy

Q11) Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of Combination


reactions? Write equations for decomposition reactions.
Soln:
Combination reaction is said to be the reaction between two or more molecules to
form a larger molecule whereas the decomposition reaction is defined as the splitting
of a larger molecules into two or more smaller molecules. That essentially explains
that the decomposition reaction is the opposite of the combination reaction.
In most of the cases the decomposition reaction is endothermic since heat from the
surrounding or induced heat is used to break the bonds of the larger molecule. Few
examples of decomposition reactions are:

ZnCO3ZnO+CO2
CaCO3+EnergyCaO+CO2
2HgO2Hg+O2

Q12) Write one equation each for decomposition reactions in which energy
is supplied in the form of heat, light or electricity.
Soln:
(a) Thermal decomposition reaction (Thermolysis)
Decomposition of potassium chlorate: When heated strongly, potassium chlorate
decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen. This reaction is used for the
preparation of oxygen.
2KClO3+Heat2KCl+3O2

(b) Electrolytic decomposition reaction (Electrolysis)


Decomposition of sodium chloride: On passing electricity through molten sodium
chloride, it decomposes into sodium and chlorine.
2NaClelectricity2Na+Cl2

(c) Photodecomposition reaction (Photolysis)


Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide: In the presence of light, hydrogen peroxide
decomposes into water and oxygen
2H2O2light2H2O+O2

Q13) What is the difference between displacement and double displacement


reactions? Write relevant equations for the above.
Soln:
A displacement reaction is the one when a more reactive substance displaces a
less reactive one from its salt solution whereas a double displacement reaction is
the one where a mutual exchange of ions happens between two compounds.
In a displacement reaction only a single displacement takes place whereas in
the double displacement reaction, as the name suggests two displacement takes
place between the molecules.
Example:
Displacement reaction
Mg+2HClMgCl2+H2
Double displacement reaction
2KBr+BaI22KI+BaBr2

Q14) In the refining of Silver, the recovery of silver from Silver nitrate
solution involves displacement reaction by Copper metal. Write down the
reaction involved.
Soln:

Cu(s)+2AgNO3(aq)Cu(NO3)2(aq)+2Ag(s)

Q15) What do you mean by precipitation reaction? Explain by giving


examples.
Soln:
When two solutions containing soluble salts are combined, a double displacement
reaction takes place in which the ions are exchanged between the compounds. When
one of such compound formed is in solid form (that is insoluble in aqua) then it settles
down at the bottom of the container. This solid is known as the precipitate and the
respective reaction is termed as the precipitation reaction. Few examples of
precipitation reactions are:

CdSO4(aq)+K2S(aq)CdS(s)+K2SO4(aq)
2NaOH(aq)+MgCl2(aq)2NaCl(aq)+Mg(OH)2(s)

Q16) Explain the following in terms of gain of oxygen with two examples
each.
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
Soln:
(a) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is added to the element to form its
respective oxide it is the element being oxidised. Example:

4Na(s)+O2(g)2Na2O(s) H2S+O2H2O+SO2

(b) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is being removed from the compound
then it is said to be reduced. Example:

CuO(s)+H2(g)Cu(s)+H2O(l) 2HgO2Hg+O2

Q17) A shiny brown coloured element X on heating in air becomes black in


colour. Name the element X and the black coloured compound formed.
Soln:
The shiny brown coloured element is the Copper metal(Cu). When the metal is heated
in air, it reacts with the atmospheric oxygen to form copper oxide. Hence the black
coloured compound is the copper oxide.

2Cu(s)+O2(g)2CuO(s)

Q18) Why do we apply paint on iron articles?


Soln:
Iron articles are painted to prevent them from rusting. When left unpainted, the metal
surface comes in contact with the atmospheric oxygen and in the presence of
moisture it from Iron(III) oxide. But if painted the surface does not come in contact
with moisture and air thus preventing Rusting.

Q19) Oil and Fat containing food items are flushed with Nitrogen. Why?
Soln:
The main purpose of flushing Nitrogen into food packets that contain oil and fat items
is to prevent Rancidity which occurs when the oil or fat reacts with the oxygen letting
out an unpleasant smell and taste. Therefore by flushing Nitrogen, an unreactive
surrounding is created thus preventing rancidity.

Q20) Explain the following terms with one example each.


(a) Corrosion
(b) Rancidity
Soln:
(a) Corrosion is a process where a refined metal is oxidised by the atmospheric oxygen
to form a more stable compound such as oxides. The metal gradually degrades during
the corrosion process. Rusting of iron is an good example of corrosion where the iron
is converted to Iron oxide. Millions of dollars are spent annually to in preventing
rusting from bridges and other monuments.
(b) The condition produced by the aerial oxidation of the oil and fat present in the food
material that produces an unpleasant taste and smell. The rancidity is retarded when
the food is kept inside the refrigerator since the low temperature does not promote
the oxidation reaction.
Chapter-2: Acids, bases and salts.

Question 1:
Consider this situation:
You are given three test tubes. The three test tubes contain distilled water, acidic
solution and basic solution respectively. There is only red litmus paper available in
order to identify what is there in each test tube. How will you find out what is in each
of the test tubes?
Solution:
Using the red litmus paper, we can identify the content in each of the test tube. This
can be done by noticing the color change of the red litmus paper.
If the red litmus paper changes to blue color it means that, the solution is a
basic solution.
If we put the changed litmus paper into another solution to see if it changes to
red again. If it does change that means that solution will be an acidic solution.
The solution that has no change in any of the litmus paper will be the neutral
solution therefore that will be the distilled water.
Question 2:
What is the reason behind curd or any other sour substance not to be kept in copper
or brass vessels?
Solution:
Curd and sour food substances contain acids; these acidic substances have a
possibility of reacting with the metal. If this reaction takes place then it can cause
food poisoning and damage peoples health.
Question 3:
When acids react with metal, which gas is liberated?
Solution:
If an acid reacts with any metal, a salt and hydrogen gas will be formed.
Metal + Acid -> Salt + Hydrogen gas
Question 4:
The reaction of metal A and dilute hydrochloric acid produces a fizz. This gas that is a
product of the reaction can extinguish candles. Explain the reaction.
Solution:
The gas that can extinguish a burning candle is carbon dioxide is formed by the
reaction of dilute hydrochloric acid reaction with metal carbonate. When a metal
compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, it produces some fizz or
effervescence. The compounds formed in this reaction is calcium chloride and it shows
that the metal is calcium carbonate. By this, we can state that the compound A is
calcium carbonate. Calcium carbonate reacts with the dilute hydrochloric acid to form
calcium + carbon dioxide + water. Therefore this product that is formed can
extinguish a burning candle.
Question 5:
HCl, HNO3 are compounds that show acidic character in aqueous solutions and on the
other hand compounds such as alcohol/glucose dont show any acidic character. Why
is that?
Solution:
Acids are substances that can dissociate on the dissolving of water, which results in
production of hydrogen ions. Some acids show acidic character as they dissociate in
the aqueous solution which results in the production of hydrogen ions (acids like HCl,
HNO3).
Compounds similar to glucose or alcohol also do contain hydrogen element but they
do not show signs of acidic nature. This is due to the fact that the hydrogen in them
will not separate as like the hydrogen in the acids. They will not separate to become
hydrogen ions, on dissolving in the water.
Question 6:
What is the reason to an acid aqueous solution conducting electricity?
Solution:
Due to charged particles, there is electricity that is conducted in aqueous solutions.
The charged particles are called ions and they help conduct electricity.
Question 7:
Why does dry litmus paper not change color in presence of dry HCl?
Solution:
Because, HCl does not have hydrogen ions present. Therefore does not show any
acidic behavior.
Question 8:
When diluting acid, why is it important to add acid in the water and not water in the
acid?
Solution:
Diluting is a process that involves adding concentrated acid to the water. The
concentrated water will be added gradually by stirring.
There is heat that is evolved slowly and gradually so that concentrated acid is
added because diluting acid easily absorbs large quantity of water.
If it happens in the other way by adding water to diluted acid the amount of
heat evolved is all dont at once and not gradually. This may cause a splash and
could end up in acid burn.
Question 9:
When an acid is diluted, how does it affect the concentration of the hydronium ions
H3O+?
Solution:
When dilution happens and the concentrated solution is mixed with water, it results in
the decrease of hydronium ions per unit volume.
Question 10:
How does excess base dissolved in the water affect the concentration of the hydroxide
ions?
Solution:
The solution of base is diluted when mixed with more water, therefore the
concentration of hydroxide ions will decrease per unit volume.
Question 11:
You are given two solutions called E, J their pH is 6 and 8 respectively.
Answer the following:
1. Which of the two solutions have more hydrogen ion concentration?
2. Which is acidic and which is basic?
Solution:
In order to find the hydrogen ion concentration we can use the rule that states, The
pH of any solution is inversely proportional to the hydrogen ion concentration.
Therefore, it means that the solution that has lower pH number will have the higher
hydrogen ion concentration. So it means solution E will have the higher hydrogen ion
concentration. In addition, solution J will be basic and E will be acidic.
Question 12:
What is the effect of concentration of the hydrogen ions have on the nature of a
solution?
Solution:
When acids are added to water, they produce hydrogen ions in water therefore the
concentration of the hydrogen ions will increase in water. Since the solution will have
more hydrogen ions, it will definitely be acidic in nature.
Question 13:
Does basic solutions have hydrogen ions? If they do then why are they basic in
nature?
Solution:
Basic solutions do not have hydrogen ions. Since the solution has excess of hydroxide
ions, the basic solution does not have hydrogen ions.
Question 14:
In what condition does a farmer need to treat the soil on his field with quick lime or
slaked lime or chalk?
Solution:
If the soil that is on the field were too acidic then he would have to treat the soil with
quicklime. If the soil is, too acidic it means that it will be having a low ph. Therefor the
farmer would need to add lime or even slaked lime so that his soil is not too acidic.
Question 15:
Write down the common name for the compound CaOCl2:
Solution:
It is called bleaching powder.
Question 16:
Give names of substances after the treatment with chlorine will give bleaching
powder:
Solution:
Calcium hydroxide
Question 17:
What is the name of the sodium compound that is used to softening hard water?
Solution:
Sodium carbonate
Question 18:
Write the reaction for the heating of sodium hydro carbonate
Solution:
2NaHCO3 - heat> Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
Question 20:
Why rainwater conducts electricity and distilled water doesnt?
Solution:
Distilled water does not contain any ionic compounds in it.
Whereas rainwater has a lot, more compounds.
Rainwater has dissolved acidic gas such as carbon dioxide from the air and that
forms carbonic acid. This means that it has hydrogen ions and carbonate ions.
Therefore, with the presence of acids, rainwater can conduct electricity.

Question 21:
Why is that acids dont have their acidic behavior in the absence of water?
Solution:
The acidic behavior from acids are because of the presence of hydrogen ions.
Hydrogen ions can only be produced in the presence of water and therefore water is
definitely needed if acids are to show their acidic behavior.
Question 22:
Find out which solution is which with respect to their pH and arrange them in an
increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration:

Solution pH

Neutral A 7

Strongly alkaline B 11

Strongly acidic C 1

Weekly acidic D 4

Weekly alkaline E 9
Solution:
In increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration:
pH 11(B) -> pH 9(E) -> pH 7(A) -> pH 4(D) -> pH 1 (B)
Question 23:
There are two test tubes A and B. In test tube, A HCl is added and in test tube, B is
added. In both the test tubes, magnesium ribbons are kept in both the test tubes. So,
find out and explain in which test tube there will be more fizzing give reasons.
Solution:
HCl is a strong acid where acetic is a weaker acid. The reason why fizzing occurs is
because of the evolution of the hydrogen gas by reacting with the acid on the
magnesium ribbon. Since HCl is a very strong acid there is a lot of liberation of
hydrogen gas from test tube A. therefore, more fizzing take place in test tube A.
Question 24:
Fresh milk from cows have pH of 6. So how does the pH change when this milk is
turned to curd?
Solution:
The formation of lactic acid is what turns the milk to curd therefore it will result in the
pH changing below 6.
Question 25:
Why should plaster of paris be stored in moisture proof container?
Solution:
Moisture can affect it by slowing the setting of the plaster because of hydration.
Which will end up making it useless.
Question 26:
What is meaning of neutralization reaction? Give examples:
Solution:
The reaction of acid + base gives a product of salt + water, which is considered a
neutralization reaction.
Examples:
NaOH + HCL -> NaCl + H2O
Mg(OH)2 + H2CO3 -> MgCO3 + 2H2O
Question 27:
What are two important purposes of washing soda and baking soda?
Solution:

Washing soda Baking soda

1. It can be used to test the garden soil for


1. It is used as an electrolyte acidity. If bubbles are developed then the soil Is
too acidic

2. If used on washing car then it will remove


2. It can be used domestically as water
dead bug bodies without damaging the color or
softener for laundry.
the paint on the car.

Chapter-6: Life Process

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION


Q1: Do you agree, The plants at night give out carbon dioxide and oxygen
during day? Give reason.
Solution:
Yes, it is true that plants gives out carbon dioxide at nights and oxygen during days
because photosynthesis process takes place only during daytime. The respiration take
place both during days and nights, and because the rate of respiration is less than the
rate of photosynthesis, the net result is giving out oxygen during day time and carbon
dioxide during nights.

Q2: How opening and closing of stomatal pores is regulated by guard cell?
Solution:
Due to absorption of water, the guard cell swells, resulting in the opening of stomatal
pores whereas shrinking causes the guard cells to close the pores. Opening and
closing of stomata in guard cells is regulated by turgor changes. When guard cells are
turgid, stomatal aperture closes.

Q3: Why is it so that fishes die when taken out of water?


Solution:
Fishes breathe with the help of gills, which me Solution they can only take in oxygen
dissolved in water. Thus, when they are taken out of water they die because they
cannot take in oxygen directly from the atmosphere.

Q4: Is nutrition a necessity for an organism? Discuss.


Solution:
Food is vital for the following purposes:
(i) It is the source of energy for all the metabolic processes in our body.
(ii)It is vital for the repair and replacement of worn out cells, and for the growth of new
cells.
(iii) It is used to strengthen the immune system.

Q5: What would happen if all the green plants died out?
Solution:
Green plants are the sources of energy for all organism. So if all the green plants died
out herbivores would die from starvation followed by the omnivore and carnivore.
Thus, almost all of life would go extinct except for a few microbes.
Q6: What adaptations has a leaf undergone to carry out photosynthesis?
Solution:
(i) Leaves provide large surface area for maximum light absorption.
(ii) Leaves are arranged at right angles to the light source in a way that causes
overlapping.
(iii) The extensive network of veins enables quick transport of substance to and from
the mesophyll cells.
(iv) Presence of numerous stomata for gaseous exchange.
(v) The chloroplast are more i number on the upper surface of leaves to absorb more
light energy.

Q7: Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?


Solution:
Digestion of cellulose takes a longer time. Hence, herbivores eating grass need a
longer small intestine to allow complete digestion of cellulose. Carnivores animal
cannot digest cellulose; hence, they have a shorter intestine.

Q8: What will happen if the gastric glands do not secrete mucus?
Solution:
Gastric glands in stomach release hydrochloric acid, enzyme pepsin and mucus.
Mucus protects the inner lining of stomach from the action of stomach from the action
of hydrochloric acid and enzyme pepsin. If mucus is not released, it will lead to erosion
of inner lining of stomach, leading to acidity and ulcers.

Q9: What is the significance of emulsification of fats?


Solution:
Fats are present in food in the form of large globules, which makes it difficult for
enzymes to act on them. Bile salts present in bile break them down mechanically into
smaller into smaller globules, which increases the efficiency of fat digestion enzymes
lipase.

Q10: Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small
intestine?
Solution:
Maximum absorption occurs in small intestine because:
(a) Digestion is completed in small intestine.
(b) Inner lining of small intestine is provided with villi which increases the surface area
for absorption.
(c) Wall of intestine is richly supplied with blood vessels (which take the absorbed food
to each cell of the body).

Q11: What is the advantage of having four-chambered heart?


Solution:
In four-chambered heart, left half is completely separated from right held by septa.
This prevents oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing. This allows a highly
efficient supply of oxygenated blood to all parts of the body. This is useful in animals
that have high-energy needs, such as birds and mammals and maintain body
temperature.

Q12: Mention the major events during photosynthesis.


Solution:
The major events during photosynthesis are:
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy by chlorophyll.

H2OintoH2,O2
(iii) Splitting of
(iv) Reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates.

Q13: Name the energy currency in the living organism. When and where is it
produced?
Solution:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) produced during respiration in living organism and
during photosynthesis in plants.

Q14: What is common for cuscuta, ticks and leeches?


Solution:
All the parasites, they derive nutrition from the plants or animals without killing them.

Q15: Explain the role of mouth in digestion of food.


Solution:
(i) Food is crushed into small pieces by the teeth.
(ii) Tongue helps in thorough mixing of food with saliva and the enzymes amylase
(found in saliva) breaks down starch into sugar.
Q16: What are the function of gastric glands present in the wall of the
stomach?
Solution:
(i) Production of pepsin enzyme that digest proteins.
(ii) Secretion of mucus for protection of inner lining of stomach.

Q17: Name the correct substrates for the following enzymes


(a) Trypsin
(b) Amylase
(c) Pepsin
(d) Lipase
Solution:
(a) Protein
(b) Starch
(c) Protein
(d) Fats

Q18: What will happen if platelets were absent in the blood?


Solution:
In the absence of platelets, the process of clotting will be affected. When cut, the
blood will not stop oozing out.

Q19: Plants have low energy needs as compared to animals. Explain.


Solution:
Plants do not move. In a large plant body there are many dead cells like sclerenchyma
as a result it requires less energy as compared to animals. Animals need more energy,
as they have to move in search of food, shelter and mates.

Q20: Why and how does water enter continuously into root xylem?
Solution:
Cells of root are in close contact with soil and so actively take up ions. The ion-
concentration, increases inside the root and hence osmotic pressure increases the
movement of water from the soil into the root, which occurs continuously.
Transpiration also plays a big role in causing, osmotic pressure.

Q21: Why is transpiration important for plants?


Solution:
Transpiration is important because:
(i) it helps in absorption and upward movement of water and minerals from roots to
leaves.
(ii) It prevents the plant parts from heating up.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

Q1: Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.


Solution:
The mode of nutrition in amoeba is Holozoic, and the process of obtaining food by
amoeba is called phagocytosis. The different processes involved in the nutrition of
amoeba are:

(i) Ingestion: Ingestion is the process of taking food in the body. Amoeba is a
unicellular animal, so it does not have a mouth for ingestion of food. Amoeba ingest
the food by encircling it by forming pseudopodia. When the food is completely
encircled, the food is engulfed in the form of a bag called food vacuole.
(ii) Digestion: Digestion is the process of breaking the large and insoluble molecules
in small and water soluble molecules. In amoeba, several digestive enzymes react on
the food present in the food vacuoles and break it down into simple and soluble
molecules.
(iii) Absorption: The food digested by digestive enzymes is then absorbed in the
cytoplasm by the process of diffusion. While the undigested food remains in the food
vacuole. If amoeba absorbs a large amount of food, the excess food is stored in the
cytoplasm in the form of glycogen and lipids.
(iv) Assimilation: During the step the food is absorbed by the cytoplasm is used to
obtain energy, growth and repair. This process of utilizing absorbed food for obtaining
energy, repair and growth is called assimilation.
(v) Egestion: When sufficient amount of undigested food gets collected in the food
vacuole, it is thrown out of the body by rupturing cell membrane. The process of
removal of undigested food from the body is called egestion.
Q2: Describe the alimentary canal of man.
Solution:

(i) Mouth: Food is ingested (taking of food or liquid into the body), chewed and
swallowed. Chemicals in saliva (spit) soften it. When you swallow, food travels down
the esophagus into the stomach. The food that leaves the mouth is called bolus.
(ii) Stomach: The stomach is a bag with a muscular wall. It mashes food into a pulp,
helped by chemicals called gastric juices. When empty it is about 0.5 L in size, but
when it is full after a meal, it can stretch to 4L in size. Food that leaves the stomach is
called chime. It passes into the small intestine after about 4 hours of eating.
(iii) Small intestine: where chime is further broken down a 6-meter long tube.
Carbohydrates and fat are broken down and absorbed through the intestine walls into
the blood.
(iv) Large intestine: Food that cannot be digested passes into the large intestines. It
is then pushed towards the anus where it is excreted as faces.

Q3: Explain the importance of soil for growth of plant.


Solution:
Materials required for plant growth are obtained from soil, eg. Nitrogen, phosphorus,
other minerals and water. They have to be transported to long distances depending
upon the size of the plants. Xylem moves water and minerals from soil to aerial parts.
Soil also helps in anchoring plant, availability of oxygen for respiration of root cells
and symbiotic associated with microbes.
Extra Questions:
1) How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this take place?
Solution:
The small intestine is the place for complete digestion of carbohydrates, fats
and proteins. It receives the secretions of the liver and pancreas for this purpose.
The food coming from the stomach is usually acidic in nature and it has to be
made alkaline so that pancreatic enzymes can act on it. Bile juice, which is
produced in the liver, accomplish this process.
Fats are usually present in the intestine in the form of larger globules, which
makes it difficult for enzymes to act on them. The bile salts helps in breaking down
larger globules into smaller globules. The pancreas helps in secreting pancreatic
juice, which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins and lipase for
breaking down emulsified fats.
The walls of the small intestine contains glands, which secretes intestinal juice.
The enzymes present in it finally converts the proteins to amino acids, complex
carbohydrates into glucose and finally fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

2) What is the main role of saliva in the digestion of food?


Solution:
When we usually eat something, our mouth waters. This is actually not only
water, but also a fluid named saliva secreted by the salivary glands.
The other main aspect of the food we ingest is its complex nature, if it is to be
absorbed from the alimentary canal then it has to be broken into smaller
molecules.
Therefore, this process is mainly done with the help of biological catalysts called
enzymes. The saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down
starch, which is a complex molecule to give sugar.
The food is mixed thoroughly with saliva and moved around the mouth while
chewing the muscular tongue.

3) What are the essential conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are
its by-products?
Solution:
The energy and carbon requirements of the autotrophic organism takes place by
the process of photosynthesis.
It is defined as the process by which autotrophs take in substances from the
outside surroundings and convert them into stored forms of energy.
This substance is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and water, which is
converted into carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
The main purpose of carbohydrates is, providing energy to the plant. The
carbohydrates are not utilized immediately for the process; they are stored in the
form of starch, which serves as an internal energy reserve.
The stored energy can be used as and when required by the plant.

4) What are the main differences between aerobic and anaerobic


respiration? Name few organisms that use the anaerobic mode of
respiration.
Solution:
Aerobic respiration
The process takes place in the presence of free oxygen
The products of aerobic respiration are CO2,water and energy.
The first step of aerobic respiration(glycolysis) takes place in cytoplasm while
the next step takes place in mitochondria.
The process of aerobic respiration takes place in all higher organisms.
In this process complete oxidation of glucose takes place.
Anaerobic respiration
The process takes place in the absence of the free oxygen.
The products of anaerobic respiration are ethyl alcohol, CO2 and a little energy.
Even in anaerobic respiration, the first step takes place in cytoplasm while the
next step takes place in mitochondria.
The process of anaerobic respiration takes place in lower organism like yeast,
some species of bacteria and parasites like tapeworm.
In this process the glucose molecules is incompletely broken down.
5) How are alveoli designed to maximize the exchange of gases?
Solution:
The lungs is an important part of the body. The passage inside the lungs divides
into smaller and smaller tubes, which finally terminate in balloon-like structures,
called as alveoli.
The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The
walls of the alveoli usually contains an extensive network of blood vessels. We
know that, when we breathe in, we lift our ribs, flatten our diaphragm and chest
cavity becomes larger.
Because of this action, air is sucked into the lungs and fills the expanded alveoli.
The blood brings the essential carbon dioxide from rest of the body and supply it
to alveoli; the oxygen in the alveolar air is taken up by the blood in the alveolar
blood vessels to be transported to the all other cells of the body. During the normal
breathing cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a
residual volume of air so that there is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and
carbon dioxide to be released.

6) Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it needed?


Solution:
Double circulation means, in a single cycle blood goes twice in the heart. The process
helps in separating oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to maintain a constant body
temperature.
The double circulatory system of blood includes
Pulmonary circulation
Systemic circulation.
Pulmonary circulation:
The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the lungs where it is oxygenated.
The oxygenated blood is brought back to the left atrium, from there it is pumped into
the left ventricle and finally blood goes into the aorta for systemic circulation.
Systemic circulation:
The oxygenated blood is pumped to various parts of the body from the left ventricle.
The deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body passes through vena cava to
reach right atrium. The right atrium transfers the blood into right ventricle.
Chapter 4: Carbon and its Compounds

Question 1:
Provide the electron dot structure for CO2:
Solution

Question 2:
Provide electron dot structure for a molecule of Sulphur containing eight atoms:
Solution:

Question 3:
Provide the structural isomers for pentane.
Solution:
Question 4:
Describe two properties of carbon and give reasons to why there are large number of
carbon compounds are around us.
Solution:
Carbon has six valence electrons which is actually a high number of valency.
Covalent bonding happens easy with carbon atoms and numerous others such
as oxygen, chlorine, nitrogen, Sulphur, hydrogen and etc.
Due to these two properties, carbon has a higher number of organic compounds
around us.

Question 5:
Provide the electron dot structure and formula for Cyclopentane:
Solution:
Question 6:
Provide the structures for the compounds provided below:
1. Butanone
2. Ethanoic Acid
3. Hexanal
4. Bromopentane
Solution:
Question 7:
Name the following compounds:
Solution:
1. Hexane
2. Formaldehyde
3. Bromoethane

Question 8:
Give reason to why the reaction of ethanol to ethanoic acid is an oxidation reaction.
Solution:

As shown in the reaction: since oxygen is added in this reaction, the change from
ethanol to ethanoic acid is known to be an oxidation reaction.

Question 9:
Why is the burnt mixture of oxygen and ethyne used for welding rather than that of
ethyne and air?
Solution:
The production of heat is very important for welding metals. When oxygen and ethyne
is burnt, it burns completely and produces a higher temperature than air and ethyne.
Oxygen and ethyne produce very hot blue flame but the mixture of air and ethyne
gives out a sooty flame which means that there are unburnt particles resulting in
lesser heat.

Question 10:
What are oxidizing agents?

Solution:
When a substance gains electrons from a redox reaction whilst the oxidation number
also reduces, it is known as an oxidizing agent.

Question 11:
Using bond formation of Methyl Chloride (CH3Cl), explain the basis of covalent
bonding.
Solution:

Methyl chloride consists of:


One carbon atom
Three hydrogen atoms
One chlorine atom
Carbon atom, hydrogen atom, chlorine atom has four, one and seven valence
electrons respectively where carbon shares four of its valence electrons with the
three-hydrogen atoms and one chlorine atom. Therefore, it forms methyl chloride as
shown in the chemical equation above.
In the dot structure, it can be seen that there are four shared electrons between
carbon and the other atoms. In the reaction, each of the shared pairs are considered
as one single covalent bond. Hence, methyl chloride is known to have four single
covalent bonds.

Question 12:
Draw the electron dot structure for the following:
1. Ethanoic acid
2. H2S
3. Propanone
4. F2
Solution:
Question 13:
Write down the meaning and explanation of homologous series.
Solution:
It is a series of compounds, which has the same functional group. This also contains
similar general formula and chemical properties. Since there is change in the physical
properties, we can say that there would be an increase in the molecular size and
mass.

Question 14:
Using their physical and chemical properties, differentiate ethanol from ethanoic acid.
Solution:

Ethanol Ethanoic

Does not react with sodium hydrogencarbonate Bubbles and fizzes with hydrogencarbonate

A good smell Smells like vinegar

No action in litmus paper Blue litmus paper to red

Burning taste Sour taste

Question 15:
State the reason as to why there is micelle formation when soap is added to water.
Solution:
The reason for the micelle formation is because of the dirt particles in water and clean
water. There are two mediums that are involved: one is pure water and the other
being dirt (also called as impurities). The soap also has two mediums: (i) organic tail
and (ii) ionic head. So the organic tail mixes and dissolves with the dirt whereas the oil
or grease and ionic head dissolves and mixes with the water. Therefore, when the
material to be cleaned is removed from the water, the dirt is taken off by the soap
molecules in the water. Hence, the soap cleans by forming closed structures by
mutual repulsion of the micelles (positively charged heads).

Question 16:
Explain why carbons and its compounds are used as fuels.
Solution:
Because, carbon and its compounds burn in air and also give out a lot of energy.

Question 17:
Why is scrum produced when hard water is treated with soap?
Solution:
Scrum is produced from hard water reacting with soap because a soap is wasted from
reacting with calcium and the magnesium ions from the hard water. This wasted
reaction then forms an insoluble precipitate that sticks as a white layer.

Question 18:
What will be the color change when soap is tested with red litmus paper?
Solution:
Soap is a base and it will turn red litmus paper to blue.

Question 19:
Define hydrogenation and write about its industrial application.
Solution:
Hydrogenation is a process or a chemical reaction between hydrogen and other
compounds. It is usually done in presence of catalysts: for example nickel, palladium
or platinum. Hydrogenation is used mainly to reduce or saturate organic compounds.

Question 20:
Provide a chemical test that could be used to differentiate between cooking oil and
butter. Explain the steps to carry out the test.
Solution:
The test that could be used is bromine water test.
Steps:
Add little bromine water to cooking oil
In a different test tube, add bromine water to butter
If decolorizing happens, then it is considered an unsaturated compound and therefore,
it is cooking oil. In addition, the test tube that does not decolorize is considered to be
the saturated compound which is the butter.

Question 21:
Can you check if the water is hard using a detergent?
Solution:
That is not possible because of the formation of lather when detergent is mixed with
water.

Question 22:
Why is beating or agitation necessary in order to get clean clothes?
Solution:
Clothes need to be beaten or agitated so that the soap micelles can trap the oil,
grease or any other impurities that have to be removed. When they are being beaten
or agitated, the particles are removed from the clothes surfaces and go into the
water, thus cleaning the clothes.

Question 23:
Explain the process of cleansing action of a soap.
Solution:
There are so many impurities and dirt mixed in water, and most of all those dirt do not
dissolve in the water. Soap molecules is a combination of salts such as sodium or
potassium. The molecules are of long chain of carboxylic acids. So, when the carbon
chain has dissolved in oil and ionic end has dissolved in the water, the soap starts
cleansing and trapping the dirt. When this happens, the soap molecules forms
structures that are called as micelles. One end of the micelle is used for capturing the
oil droplets and then the other end being the ionic faces. This will then form an
emulsion in water and help in dissolving the dirt or impurities when the clothes are
washed.
The soap molecules have different properties at different ends. The first end being the
hydrophilic end which dissolves in the water and is attracted towards the water and
the second one being the hydrophobic end which is dissolved in the hydrocarbons and
is repulsive to water. The hydrophobic tail aligns itself along the surface of water
because it is not soluble in the water.
Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

1) Dobereiners triads do not exist in Newlands Octaves. Is the above


statement true? If true,Justify.
Ans.
False. Dobereiners triads do exist in Newlands Octaves. For example, the elements
Lithium(Li), Potassium(K) and Sodium(Na) constitute a Dobereiners Triad but are also
found in the second column of Newlands Octaves.

2) What were the anomalies of Dobereiners classification?


Ans.
i. They were not applicable for very low mass or very high mass elements.
ii. All the elements couldnt fit into Dobereiners triads.
iii. As the methods to calculate atomic mass improved, Dobereiners triads validity
began to decrease. For example, in the triad of F, Cl and Br, the arithmetic mean of
atomic masses of F and Br is not equal to the atomic mass of CI.

3) Why did Newlands Law of Octaves fail to completely answer all the
questions of atomic
mysteries?
Ans.
(i) Elements discovered later like the noble gases couldnt fit into his table.
(ii) The law was not valid for atomic masses higher than Ca.

4) Predict the formulae for the oxides of the following elements: Si, K, Ba,
Al, Ca using Mendeleevs periodic table.
Ans.
Si- SiO2
K K2O
Ba-BaO
Al-Al2O3
Ca CaO
5) Which are the other elements other than Gallium that Mendeleev left in
his periodic table,
Ans.
since the time they were discovered?
Germanium and Scandium

6) What were the characteristics of the atoms that Mendeleev concentrated


upon while creating his periodic table?
Ans.
He concentrated on the various compounds formed by the elements with Hydrogen
and
Oxygen. Among physical properties, he observed the relationship between the atomic
masses
of various elements.

7) Justify the placement of noble gases in a separate group.


Ans.
They had to be placed in a separate group due to their inert nature and low
concentration in our atmosphere so that they dont disturb the existing order.

8) What were the limitations of Mendeleevs table and how did the modern
periodic table solve them?
Ans.
The various anomalies of Mendeleev include the position of hydrogen, anomalous pair
of isotopes, position of lanthanides and actinides etc. These limitations were
overcome in the modern periodic table by adopting Atomic number as the main
criteria instead of atomic mass.

9) Suggest two elements whose reactions are similar to that of Magnesium.


What is the basis of your choice?
Ans.
Calcium and Beryllium
This is because all the three elements belong to the same group and have 2 valence
electrons in their outer shell.

10) Mention:
a) Two elements that have filled outermost shells
b) Two elements with a single electron in their outermost shells
c) Two elements with two electrons in the outermost shell
Ans.
a) Helium, Neon
b) Sodium, lithium
c) Magnesium, Calcium

11) a) What is the similarity in the manner in which Lithium, Sodium and
Potassium react with water to liberate Hydrogen gas?
Ans.
Theyve one valence electron in their outermost shells and as a result of this, they are
very unstable. So, they readily react with water to liberate hydrogen. They are also
called alkali metals.
b) What is that common characteristic of Helium and Neon that is
responsible for them having almost zero reactivity?
Ans.
Their outermost shells are full leading to high stability. They react only in extreme
circumstances and hence are called as noble gases.

12) In the first ten elements, which are those that are metals?
Ans.
Lithium and Beryllium

13) Which of the following elements exhibits the maximum metallic


character?
Al,Si,P,S,Cl
Ans.
Cl(chlorine) shows the maximum metallic character

14) Which of the following statements that show the trends while moving
from left to right in a periodic table are wrong?
Ans.
(a) The acidity of oxides increase
(b) No of valence electrons in the outermost shell increases
(c) Metallic character of elements decrease
(d) Atoms lose their electrons readily
The incorrect statement is (d).

15) An element A forms a chloride which has formula ACl2 .ACl2 is a solid
having a high melting point. Which of the following elements A most likely
represents?
Mg , Na, Si, Al
Ans.
A most likely represents Mg.

16) Name the element which has


a) Two completely filled shells
b) Three shells and four electrons in its outermost(valence) shell
c) Twice the number of electrons in its second shell than it has in the first
shell
d) Two shells and three electrons in its outermost(valence) shell
e) An electronic configuration of 2,8,2
Ans.
a) Neon
b) Silicon
c) Carbon
d) Boron
e) Magnesium
17) What is the common characteristic that all the elements in the column
where fluoride is,exhibit?
Ans.
They all have seven electrons in their outermost shell or the valence shell and they
mostly form salts in combination with the alkali metals.

18) Name the element which has an electronic configuration of 2,8,7.


Ans.
Chlorine

19) Which of the following duo- Nitrogen and Phosphorous is more


electronegative? Why?
Ans.
Nitrogen will be more electronegative since its atom has a smaller size and thus has a
larger attractive force from the nucleus towards the incoming electron.

20) How does an atoms electronic configuration affect its position in the
periodic table?
Ans.
The number of valence electrons decides an atoms position in the periodic table while
the electronic configuration decides the number of valence electrons.

21) Why do you think Hydrogen should be placed with the alkali metals?
Ans.
Hydrogen should be placed above alkali metals because its electronic configuration
resembles that of alkali metals.

22) Calcium with atomic number 20 is surrounded by elements in the


modern periodic table with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of
these elements resemble calcium?
Ans.
Calcium has an atomic number of 20, and thus has an electronic configuration of 2, 8,
8, 2. Thus, calcium has 2 valence electrons. The electronic configuration of the
element having atomic number 12 is 2, 8.2. Thus, this element with 2 valence
electrons will resemble calcium the most.
Chapter-6: Life Process

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION


Q1: Do you agree, The plants at night give out carbon dioxide and oxygen
during day? Give reason.
Solution:
Yes, it is true that plants gives out carbon dioxide at nights and oxygen during days
because photosynthesis process takes place only during daytime. The respiration take
place both during days and nights, and because the rate of respiration is less than the
rate of photosynthesis, the net result is giving out oxygen during day time and carbon
dioxide during nights.
Q2: How opening and closing of stomatal pores is regulated by guard cell?
Solution:
Due to absorption of water, the guard cell swells, resulting in the opening of stomatal
pores whereas shrinking causes the guard cells to close the pores. Opening and
closing of stomata in guard cells is regulated by turgor changes. When guard cells are
turgid, stomatal aperture closes.

Q3: Why is it so that fishes die when taken out of water?


Solution:
Fishes breathe with the help of gills, which me Solution they can only take in oxygen
dissolved in water. Thus, when they are taken out of water they die because they
cannot take in oxygen directly from the atmosphere.

Q4: Is nutrition a necessity for an organism? Discuss.


Solution:
Food is vital for the following purposes:
(i) It is the source of energy for all the metabolic processes in our body.
(ii)It is vital for the repair and replacement of worn out cells, and for the growth of new
cells.
(iii) It is used to strengthen the immune system.

Q5: What would happen if all the green plants died out?
Solution:
Green plants are the sources of energy for all organism. So if all the green plants died
out herbivores would die from starvation followed by the omnivore and carnivore.
Thus, almost all of life would go extinct except for a few microbes.
Q6: What adaptations has a leaf undergone to carry out photosynthesis?
Solution:
(i) Leaves provide large surface area for maximum light absorption.
(ii) Leaves are arranged at right angles to the light source in a way that causes
overlapping.
(iii) The extensive network of veins enables quick transport of substance to and from
the mesophyll cells.
(iv) Presence of numerous stomata for gaseous exchange.
(v) The chloroplast are more i number on the upper surface of leaves to absorb more
light energy.

Q7: Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?


Solution:
Digestion of cellulose takes a longer time. Hence, herbivores eating grass need a
longer small intestine to allow complete digestion of cellulose. Carnivores animal
cannot digest cellulose; hence, they have a shorter intestine.

Q8: What will happen if the gastric glands do not secrete mucus?
Solution:
Gastric glands in stomach release hydrochloric acid, enzyme pepsin and mucus.
Mucus protects the inner lining of stomach from the action of stomach from the action
of hydrochloric acid and enzyme pepsin. If mucus is not released, it will lead to erosion
of inner lining of stomach, leading to acidity and ulcers.

Q9: What is the significance of emulsification of fats?


Solution:
Fats are present in food in the form of large globules, which makes it difficult for
enzymes to act on them. Bile salts present in bile break them down mechanically into
smaller into smaller globules, which increases the efficiency of fat digestion enzymes
lipase.

Q10: Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small
intestine?
Solution:
Maximum absorption occurs in small intestine because:
(a) Digestion is completed in small intestine.
(b) Inner lining of small intestine is provided with villi which increases the surface area
for absorption.
(c) Wall of intestine is richly supplied with blood vessels (which take the absorbed food
to each cell of the body).

Q11: What is the advantage of having four-chambered heart?


Solution:
In four-chambered heart, left half is completely separated from right held by septa.
This prevents oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing. This allows a highly
efficient supply of oxygenated blood to all parts of the body. This is useful in animals
that have high-energy needs, such as birds and mammals and maintain body
temperature.

Q12: Mention the major events during photosynthesis.


Solution:
The major events during photosynthesis are:
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy by chlorophyll.

H2OintoH2,O2
(iii) Splitting of
(iv) Reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates.

Q13: Name the energy currency in the living organism. When and where is it
produced?
Solution:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) produced during respiration in living organism and
during photosynthesis in plants.

Q14: What is common for cuscuta, ticks and leeches?


Solution:
All the parasites, they derive nutrition from the plants or animals without killing them.

Q15: Explain the role of mouth in digestion of food.


Solution:
(i) Food is crushed into small pieces by the teeth.
(ii) Tongue helps in thorough mixing of food with saliva and the enzymes amylase
(found in saliva) breaks down starch into sugar.

Q16: What are the function of gastric glands present in the wall of the
stomach?
Solution:
(i) Production of pepsin enzyme that digest proteins.
(ii) Secretion of mucus for protection of inner lining of stomach.

Q17: Name the correct substrates for the following enzymes


(a) Trypsin
(b) Amylase
(c) Pepsin
(d) Lipase
Solution:
(a) Protein
(b) Starch
(c) Protein
(d) Fats
Q18: What will happen if platelets were absent in the blood?
Solution:
In the absence of platelets, the process of clotting will be affected. When cut, the
blood will not stop oozing out.

Q19: Plants have low energy needs as compared to animals. Explain.


Solution:
Plants do not move. In a large plant body there are many dead cells like sclerenchyma
as a result it requires less energy as compared to animals. Animals need more energy,
as they have to move in search of food, shelter and mates.

Q20: Why and how does water enter continuously into root xylem?
Solution:
Cells of root are in close contact with soil and so actively take up ions. The ion-
concentration, increases inside the root and hence osmotic pressure increases the
movement of water from the soil into the root, which occurs continuously.
Transpiration also plays a big role in causing, osmotic pressure.

Q21: Why is transpiration important for plants?


Solution:
Transpiration is important because:
(i) it helps in absorption and upward movement of water and minerals from roots to
leaves.
(ii) It prevents the plant parts from heating up.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

Q1: Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.


Solution:
The mode of nutrition in amoeba is Holozoic, and the process of obtaining food by
amoeba is called phagocytosis. The different processes involved in the nutrition of
amoeba are:
(i) Ingestion: Ingestion is the process of taking food in the body. Amoeba is a
unicellular animal, so it does not have a mouth for ingestion of food. Amoeba ingest
the food by encircling it by forming pseudopodia. When the food is completely
encircled, the food is engulfed in the form of a bag called food vacuole.
(ii) Digestion: Digestion is the process of breaking the large and insoluble molecules
in small and water soluble molecules. In amoeba, several digestive enzymes react on
the food present in the food vacuoles and break it down into simple and soluble
molecules.
(iii) Absorption: The food digested by digestive enzymes is then absorbed in the
cytoplasm by the process of diffusion. While the undigested food remains in the food
vacuole. If amoeba absorbs a large amount of food, the excess food is stored in the
cytoplasm in the form of glycogen and lipids.
(iv) Assimilation: During the step the food is absorbed by the cytoplasm is used to
obtain energy, growth and repair. This process of utilizing absorbed food for obtaining
energy, repair and growth is called assimilation.
(v) Egestion: When sufficient amount of undigested food gets collected in the food
vacuole, it is thrown out of the body by rupturing cell membrane. The process of
removal of undigested food from the body is called egestion.

Q2: Describe the alimentary canal of man.


Solution:
(i) Mouth: Food is ingested (taking of food or liquid into the body), chewed and
swallowed. Chemicals in saliva (spit) soften it. When you swallow, food travels down
the esophagus into the stomach. The food that leaves the mouth is called bolus.
(ii) Stomach: The stomach is a bag with a muscular wall. It mashes food into a pulp,
helped by chemicals called gastric juices. When empty it is about 0.5 L in size, but
when it is full after a meal, it can stretch to 4L in size. Food that leaves the stomach is
called chime. It passes into the small intestine after about 4 hours of eating.
(iii) Small intestine: where chime is further broken down a 6-meter long tube.
Carbohydrates and fat are broken down and absorbed through the intestine walls into
the blood.
(iv) Large intestine: Food that cannot be digested passes into the large intestines. It
is then pushed towards the anus where it is excreted as faces.

Q3: Explain the importance of soil for growth of plant.


Solution:
Materials required for plant growth are obtained from soil, eg. Nitrogen, phosphorus,
other minerals and water. They have to be transported to long distances depending
upon the size of the plants. Xylem moves water and minerals from soil to aerial parts.
Soil also helps in anchoring plant, availability of oxygen for respiration of root cells
and symbiotic associated with microbes.

Extra Questions:
1) How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this take place?
Solution:
The small intestine is the place for complete digestion of carbohydrates, fats
and proteins. It receives the secretions of the liver and pancreas for this purpose.
The food coming from the stomach is usually acidic in nature and it has to be
made alkaline so that pancreatic enzymes can act on it. Bile juice, which is
produced in the liver, accomplish this process.
Fats are usually present in the intestine in the form of larger globules, which
makes it difficult for enzymes to act on them. The bile salts helps in breaking down
larger globules into smaller globules. The pancreas helps in secreting pancreatic
juice, which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting proteins and lipase for
breaking down emulsified fats.
The walls of the small intestine contains glands, which secretes intestinal juice.
The enzymes present in it finally converts the proteins to amino acids, complex
carbohydrates into glucose and finally fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

2) What is the main role of saliva in the digestion of food?


Solution:
When we usually eat something, our mouth waters. This is actually not only
water, but also a fluid named saliva secreted by the salivary glands.
The other main aspect of the food we ingest is its complex nature, if it is to be
absorbed from the alimentary canal then it has to be broken into smaller
molecules.
Therefore, this process is mainly done with the help of biological catalysts called
enzymes. The saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down
starch, which is a complex molecule to give sugar.
The food is mixed thoroughly with saliva and moved around the mouth while
chewing the muscular tongue.

3) What are the essential conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are
its by-products?
Solution:
The energy and carbon requirements of the autotrophic organism takes place by
the process of photosynthesis.
It is defined as the process by which autotrophs take in substances from the
outside surroundings and convert them into stored forms of energy.
This substance is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and water, which is
converted into carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll.
The main purpose of carbohydrates is, providing energy to the plant. The
carbohydrates are not utilized immediately for the process; they are stored in the
form of starch, which serves as an internal energy reserve.
The stored energy can be used as and when required by the plant.

4) What are the main differences between aerobic and anaerobic


respiration? Name few organisms that use the anaerobic mode of
respiration.
Solution:
Aerobic respiration
The process takes place in the presence of free oxygen
The products of aerobic respiration are CO2,water and energy.
The first step of aerobic respiration(glycolysis) takes place in cytoplasm while
the next step takes place in mitochondria.
The process of aerobic respiration takes place in all higher organisms.
In this process complete oxidation of glucose takes place.
Anaerobic respiration
The process takes place in the absence of the free oxygen.
The products of anaerobic respiration are ethyl alcohol, CO2 and a little energy.
Even in anaerobic respiration, the first step takes place in cytoplasm while the
next step takes place in mitochondria.
The process of anaerobic respiration takes place in lower organism like yeast,
some species of bacteria and parasites like tapeworm.
In this process the glucose molecules is incompletely broken down.
5) How are alveoli designed to maximize the exchange of gases?
Solution:
The lungs is an important part of the body. The passage inside the lungs divides
into smaller and smaller tubes, which finally terminate in balloon-like structures,
called as alveoli.
The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take place. The
walls of the alveoli usually contains an extensive network of blood vessels. We
know that, when we breathe in, we lift our ribs, flatten our diaphragm and chest
cavity becomes larger.
Because of this action, air is sucked into the lungs and fills the expanded alveoli.
The blood brings the essential carbon dioxide from rest of the body and supply it
to alveoli; the oxygen in the alveolar air is taken up by the blood in the alveolar
blood vessels to be transported to the all other cells of the body. During the normal
breathing cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the lungs always contain a
residual volume of air so that there is sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and
carbon dioxide to be released.

6) Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it needed?


Solution:
Double circulation means, in a single cycle blood goes twice in the heart. The process
helps in separating oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to maintain a constant body
temperature.
The double circulatory system of blood includes
Pulmonary circulation
Systemic circulation.
Pulmonary circulation:
The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the lungs where it is oxygenated.
The oxygenated blood is brought back to the left atrium, from there it is pumped into
the left ventricle and finally blood goes into the aorta for systemic circulation.
Systemic circulation:
The oxygenated blood is pumped to various parts of the body from the left ventricle.
The deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body passes through vena cava to
reach right atrium. The right atrium transfers the blood into right ventricle

CHAPTER-7: CONTROL AND COORDINATION


Q1: Name the parts (i),(ii),(iii),(iv),(v)and (vi) as shown in the figure .

Ans:

(i) Receptors in skin

(ii) Sensory neurons

(iii) Effector

(iv) Motor neurons

(v) Relay neuron

(vi) Spinal cord

Q2: Name the hormones in the plant which causes the following:

(a) Growth of stem.

(b) Falling of senescent leaves

(c) Elongation of cells.

(d) Cell division.

Ans:

(a) Gibberellin

(b) Abscisic acid

(c) Auxin

(d) Cytokinin
Q3:List the Endocrine gland from the figure given below.

Ans:

(i) Thymus

(ii) Thyroid gland

(iii)Pituitary gland

(iv)Pineal gland

Q4: Explain Tropic movements.Support it by giving example.

Ans:

The Tropic movements is defined as the growth movement of the plant, is because of
the external stimuli. It can either be towards or away from the stimulus.

Example:Haptotropism is the Growth movements by plants due to contact with a


solid object.

Q5: If the consumption of Iodine is low in the diet, what is the effect in our
body.

Ans:
If the intake of iodine is low, the release of thyroxine from the thyroid gland will be
decreased due to which fat,carbohydrate and protein metabolism will be affected.

Thus a person may have goitre problem in case if the intake of iodine is lowered.

Q6: Answer in one word:

(i) The changes in females during the time of puberty is due to which
hormone?

(ii)Which hormone is responsible for deficiency of Dwarfism?

(iii)Which hormone is rise in sugar level?

(iv)Which hormone is responsible for the synthesis of Iodine?

Ans:

(i) Oestrogen

(ii) Growth hormone

(iii) Insulin

(iv) Thyroxine

Q7: Answer in one word

(i) Which endocrine gland is related with brain?

(ii) Name the gland that produces digestive hormones and enzymes?

(iii) Which endocrine is related with kidneys?

(iv) The endocrine gland, which is, absent in females and is found in males?

Ans:

(i) Pituitary gland

(ii) Pancreas

(iii) Adrenal

(iv) Testes.

LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS


Q8: List the main parts of human brain and write the function of those
parts?

Ans:

Forebrain: Composed of cerebrum.

Midbrain: Composed of hypothalamus.

Hindbrain: Composed of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and pons.

The main parts in our brain are:

(i) Cerebrum: It is the most important and one of the largest part of the our brain
which is further divided into two hemispheres, called cerebral hemisphere.

Functions: The Cerebrum

(a) Controls voluntary action of body.

(b) Helps in sensory perception.

(c) is responsible for memorizing things.

(ii) Hypothalamus:

(a) lies below the cerebrum.


(b) Controls the sleep and the wake-up cycle.

(c) Controls the urge for drinking and eating .

(iii) Cerebellum:

(a) Lies below to the cerebrum, at the back side of the whole structure.

(b) Controls the motor functioning,such as when riding a cycle cerebellum brings the
perfect combination of steering and pedaling.

(iv) Medulla:

(a) Forms the brain stem along with pons.

(b) Lies at the base of brain and goes up to the spinal cord.

(c) The most important function is that it controls the involuntary functions, such as
heart-beat, respiration etc.

Q9: State the important functioning of these hormones:

(i) Thyroxine

(ii) Insulin

(iii) Adrenaline

(iv) Growth hormone

(v) Testosterone

Ans:

(i) It regulates carbohydrate, fats, protein metabolism.

(ii) It regulates sugar level in blood.

(iii) It is responsible for blood flow to various organs.

(iv) It regulates growth and development.

(v) It changes the body features relating with puberty in males.


Q10: List various plant hormone, along with their physiological effect on the
growth and development of plants.

Sol:

The different plant hormone are

(a) Auxin

(b) Gibberellin

(c) Cytokinin

(d) Abscisic acid

The Physiological effects on growth and development in plants are:

(a) Auxin is responsible for cell elongation, root formation, inhibition of abscission,
cell division and fruit growth.

(b) Gibberellin helps in growth in stems and leaves, higher fruit yield and
overcoming dormancy.

(c) Cytokinin supports cell division, prevention of senescence, differentiation and


overcoming apical dominance.

(d) Abscisic acid influence dormancy, senescence, abscission, checking excessive


activity of growth hormone and closure of stomata under water stress.

Q11: Why the signal flow in a synapse only from the axonal end of one
neuron to the dendritic end of another neuron but the reverse is not
possible?

Sol:

A chemical substance is released when the electrical signal reaches the axonal end of
a neuron and this chemical diffuses to the dendrite end of another neuron, which
generates electrical signal. Thus, at the axonal end, the electrical signal converts into
chemical signal and because at the dendrite end of neuron these chemicals are not
present thus reverse, action is not possible.

Chapter-8: How do Organisms Reproduce?

1-What is the primary importance of DNA copying in reproduction?


SOLUTION:
DNA copying in reproduction is important for maintenance of body designs and
features. It is also responsible for bringing variations in the long run which helps in the
survival of species.

2-Why is variation beneficial to species but not necessarily for the


individual?
SOLUTION:
Variations are beneficial for the survival of species. The population of a group of
organisms reside in well-defined places in the ecosystem, using their ability to
reproduce.
However, places can change because of reasons beyond the control of
organisms, example: climatic change and water level changes.
If the population of reproducing organisms are not suited to a particular place or
if the place is drastically altered due to environmental changes, the population can
be wiped out.

3-In what way is binary fission different from multiple fission?


SOLUTION:
When two new daughter cells are formed as a result of fission, it is termed
as binary fission, example: Amoeba. When many daughter cells are formed as a result
of fission, this is called multiple fission, example: Malarial parasite

4-How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores?


SOLUTION:
o Spore formation takes place through asexual mode of reproduction.
Spores are usually covered with thick walls that protect them from adverse
conditions.
o In case of a favorable condition, the thick resistant wall breaks down and a
new organism grows from it.
o Spores are usually light weight and they get easily dispersed through
winds giving them more variation and thus better chances of survival.

5-Why do you think more complex organisms cannot give rise to


new individuals through regeneration?
SOLUTION:
The term regeneration means the process of getting back a full organism from
its body part.
In a complex multicellular organism, specialized cells make up tissue and tissues
make up an organ. Organs make up an organ system and finally organ systems
make up an organism.
Since it is such a complex process it is not easy to develop organism through
regeneration.

6-Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of plants?


SOLUTION:
Vegetative propagation is mainly practiced for the
Plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
Plants whose parent plant characters are preserved
Plants biotype can be retained and multiplied in deficiency without any change or
variation.The examples are banana and seedless grapes.

7-Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?


SOLUTION:
DNA copying is very important to produce organisms which are similar to their
parents.
In the process of reproduction, there must be a transfer of the blueprint of the
body design from parent to their off springs.
As copying of DNA brings some variations each time, the cells are similar to
parent cell in many aspects.

8-What is the difference between pollination and fertilization?


SOLUTION:
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a
flower
Fertilization is the fusion of male gamete with female gamete.

9-What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland?
SOLUTION:
The secretions of seminal vesicles and prostate gland provide nutrition to the sperms
and also make their further transport easier.

10- What are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty?
SOLUTION:
The major changes in girls at the time of puberty are
Breast size begins to increase
Girls begin to menstruate
Growth of pubic hair
Skin becomes oily

11-How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mothers body?
SOLUTION:
The embryo grows inside the mothers womb and gets nourishment from its
mothers blood through the placenta.
Through placenta, glucose and oxygen pass from mother to the embryo.
Moreover, waste substances of embryo are removed through placenta into the
mothers blood.

12- Will copper-T help a woman from sexually transmitted diseases?


SOLUTION:
No, copper-T will not protect her from sexually transmitted disease. It is only to
prevent the implantation of embryo in the uterus.

13-In which of the following organisms, does asexual reproduction


take place through budding?
I-Leishmania
II-Plasmodium
III-Amoeba
IV-Yeast
SOLUTION: IV- Yeast

EXTRA QUESTION AND ANSWERS


1-Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in
human beings?
I-Ovary
II-Vas deferens
III-Uterus
IV-Fallopian tube
SOLUTION: II- Vas deferens

2-The anther contains


I-Pollen grains
II-Ovules
III-Carpel
IV-Sepals
SOLUTION: I-Pollen Grains

2-What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over


asexual reproduction?
SOLUTION:
Sexual reproduction plays an important role in the origin of new species having
different characteristics, which is not possible in the case of asexual reproduction.
Sexual reproduction produces genetic variations, which produces diversity of
characters whereas it is not possible in asexual reproduction.

3-What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings?


SOLUTION:
Functions of testis are
It helps in the production of a hormone called testosterone.
It produces sperms.

4- Why does menstruation occur?


SOLUTION: If the egg is not fertilized and uterus does not get zygote, the developed
lining of the uterus is shed during menstrual period.

5- What are the different methods of contraception?


SOLUTION:
There are three main methods of contraception
Barrier method
Surgical method
Chemical method
Barrier methods:
Physical devices like condom, diaphragm and cervical caps are used. They prevent the
entry of sperms in the female genital tract during copulation.
Chemical methods:
Specific drugs are used by females in this method. There are two types of drugs
namely Oral pills and Vaginal pills
Surgical methods:
A small portion of vas deferens in the male and fallopian tube in the female are
surgically removed. It is called vasectomy in males and tubectomy in females.
Apart from these three methods
Intrauterine contraceptive devices are used to prevent pregnancies.
Copper-T is placed safely inside the uterus by a skilled nurse or doctor.

6-What are the modes of reproduction in unicellular and


multicellular organisms?
SOLUTION:
Unicellular organism reproduce asexually
ex- binary fission, budding
Multicellular organism use both sexual and asexual reproduction.
ex- cows ,dogs

7-How does reproduction help in providing stability to the population of a


species?
SOLUTION:
Every species has to constantly struggle for its survival. The rate of birth and death in
a given population determines its stability. Birth rate and death rate should be
approximately equal. Reproduction is a way to replenish the lost section of the
population.

8-What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?


SOLUTION:
The main reasons are
Preventing sexually transmitted diseases
Immaturity in women
Avoiding frequent and unwanted pregnancies
Chapter-9: Heredity And Evolution
Q1. If a trait X exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing
species and trait Y exists in 60% of the same population, which trait would
have come earlier?
Ans. As the species is asexually reproducing, only minor differences will be generated
due to minute inaccuracies during DNA copying. Thus, trait Y would have arisen
earlier than trait X because trait Y is in 60% of the population and trait X is in 10% of
the population.

Q2. How does the creation of variation in species enhance survival?


Ans. Natural selection selects the individuals with the aptest variations for their
survival in the prevailing environmental conditions. Variant individuals that can adapt
to the prevailing environmental conditions better have greater chances of surviving
and producing offsprings.

Q3. How was Mendels experiment successful in showing that traits could be
dominant or recessive?
Ans. In his experiment, Mendel took tall and short pea plants. On cross-pollination, he
got all tall plants for the F1 generation. Showing when tall and short genes combine,
the tall always expresses itself (i.e. tall is dominant). Then he self-pollinated the F1
generation, from which he got tall and short plants in the ratio of 3:1, showing that
the short gene is only expressed when short genes combine. Thus, he concluded that
tall traits were dominant while the short traits were recessive.

Q4. How do Mendels experiments show that traits are inherited


independently?
Ans. A dihybrid cross was done by Mendel, from where he observed that when two
pairs of traits were crossed, each trait expressed itself independently of the other.
Thus, allowing Mendel to show that traits were independently inherited.

Q5. A blood group O woman and a blood group A man produce a child with
blood group O. Can u tell from this information alone, which of the blood
group, A or O is dominant?
Ans. This information alone is not sufficient to tell us which of the blood group is
dominant.This is because we do not know of all the progency and blood group A can
be genotypically AA or AO.

Q6.How is the sex of a human child determined during fertilization?


Ans. A female carries two X chromosomes and produces gametes (eggs) with the
same type of chromosomes (22+ X). Males have X and Y chromosomes, half of their
sperms carry X chromosomes(22+X) and half of their sperm carry Y chromosomes
(22+Y). Now, if a sperm with Y chromosome fertilizes an egg, the zygote develops into
male(XY condition). Or, if a sperm with X chromosome fertilizes an egg, the zygote
develops into a female (XX condition).

Q7.Name the various ways in which individuals with particular trait grow in
a population.
Ans. Natural selection, genetic drift(isolation) and natural selection.

Q8.Why are acquired traits not inherited?


Ans. Since acquired traits cannot change the genes of the gametes, they cannot be
passed on to the next generation.

Q9. Why is the dwindling number of tiger population a reason to worry,


sheerly from a genetics perspective?
Ans.
(i) Smaller numbers lead to lesser recombination and thus, lesser variation. They are
both very important for better survival chances of a species.
(ii)If a calamity kills off the existing tigers, their genes will be lost forever.

Q10. What factors could lead to the rise of a new species?


Ans. Factors responsible for the rise of a new species are:
(i) Genetic variation
(ii) Natural selection
(iii) Genetic drift.
(iv)Geographical isolation

Q11. Is geographical isolation a major factor in the speciation of self-


pollinating plant species?
Ans. No it will not be an issue as pollination occurs in the same plant.

Q12.With the help of an example show how characteristics can be used to


determine the closeness of two species in terms of evolution.
Ans. Vestigial organs, homologous organs and analogous organs can be used to
determine the evolutionary closeness of species between species.

Q13. Could we consider the wings of a bat and a butterfly as homologous


organs?
Ans. No, we cannot consider the wings of these two different organisms as
homologous organs because they possess different basic structures.

Q14.What are fossils? What can we learn from them about the process of
evolution?
Ans. Fossils are the remains or impressions of a prehistoric plant or animal embedded
in rock and preserved in petrified form. Through fossils, we can understand the
evolutionary relationships between different They provide a picture into the past and
show us the different evolutionary stages of an animal or a plant.

Q15.Why are humans who look so different (physically) from each other
said to belong to the same species?
Ans. Our different physical appearances is a result of our bodies adapting to different
habitats, however, we all have the same number of chromosomes and we can breed
among ourselves. Thus, we belong to the same species.

Q16. From an evolutionary point of view which of the following have the
best body design?
A bacteria, spider, fish, monkey and dog.
Ans.All of them have bodies evolved to suit their habitats, thus we cannot pick one of
them and say that this one has the best body design.

Q17. In a Mendelian experiment, tall pea plants bearing violet flowers were
breed with short pea plants with white flowers. The next generation of
flowers bore all white flowers but almost half of them were white. From here
we can deduce its genetic makeup to be as:
(a)WWTT (b)Wwtt (c)TtWw (d)TtWW
Ans. (c)TtWW

Q18.Among the following, Homologous organs would be:


1. Our hands and mouses fore-leg
2. Our teeth and wolves fangs
3. A monkeys tail and a cats ears
4. All of the above
Ans. (d)Both the organs in the above examples have basic structural designs but
different functions and appearances.

Q19. In terms of evolution, we are most similar to:


1. A chimp
2. A wolf
3. A monkey
4. An ant
Ans. A chimp.

Q20.According to a study, children with light colored eyes were likely to


have parents with light colored eyes. From this observation can we say
anything about light colored eye trait?
Ans. We can say that the light colored trait of the eye is a dominant trait, as only
dominant traits are expressed in the first generation.

Q21.How is the study of evolution and classification interlinked?


Ans.Classification is the most important term to explain evolution since it is based on
the similarities and differences between organisms. More the similarity, closer is the
evolution of the concerned organisms and higher are the chances of them being
classified together. Thus, classification of species is an overall picture of their
evolutionary relationships.

Q22. Explain the term analogous and homologous organs with examples.
Ans.Analogous organs are those that perform the similar functions and possess
similar appearances but have different basic structural designs. E.g. A bats wings and
a flys wings.
Homologous organs are those that have the same basic structural designs but have
different functions. E.g. Human teeth and an elephants tusk.

Q23. Construct an experiment to find out the dominant coat colors in dogs.
Ans. A homozygous black female dog is bred with a homozygous white male dog and
an F1 generation is produced. If white is the dominant color, 3 out of every 4 dogs will
have a white coat. If black is the dominant color 3 out of every 4 dogs will have a
black coat.
Q24. What evidence do we have to show that life originated from inanimate
matter?
Ans. Two scientists, Stanley Miller and Harold C. set up an atmosphere similar to that
which existed on early earth. Their atmosphere had methane, ammonia, hydrogen
sulphide and water. The concoction was maintained just below 100C and electric
sparks were passed through it. At the end of a week, the compounds had formed into
simple amino acids, the ones responsible for building protein. Thus, illustrating how
life arose from inanimate

Q25.Describe how sexual reproduction gives rise to more variant off springs
as compared to asexual reproduction. How does this affect the evolution of
those species that reproduce sexually?
Ans. Errors during DNA recombination and mutations is the only way, variations arise
in asexually reproducing organisms. Thus the scope of variant off springs through
asexual reproduction is really However in terms of sexual reproduction variation
occurs through:
1) Separation of homologous chromosomes during gamete formation.
2)Recombination of chromosomes.
3) Fertilization of gametes to form zygotes.
Evolution is more in sexually reproducing organisms as they have greater variations in
each succeeding generations and thus they can adapt themselves better to changing
conditions.

Q26. How is the equal genetic contribution of female and male parents
ensured in the progeny?
Ans. The genetic structure of such a progeny consists of pairs of chromosomes
(diploid). One from the mother and one from the father. The zygote produced by the
fusion of sperms and ovum have two sets of chromosomes with each set contributed
by each parent. In diploids, a character is controlled by two genes. Both the father and
the mother have equal contributions in terms of genetic material of the child.

Q27. Do you agree with this statement: Only variations that confer an
advantage to an individual organism will survive in a population.
Ans. No this is not necessarily true, there are numerous variations that have no
function but yet persist in a For example, male nipples, free earlobes etc.

Chapter-10: Light- Reflection and Refraction

Q1. What do you mean by principal focus?

Ans: All incident light rays which are passing parallel to the principal axis of the
concave mirror meet at a specific point after reflecting from the concave mirror. That
specific point is known as the principal focus of a concave mirror.
Q2. What is the focal length of a spherical mirror if the radius of curvature is
30cm?

Ans: Radius (R) of curvature = 30cm

We know that, Radius (R) of curvature = 2 x Focal length (F)

Therefore, Focal Length = Radius of curvature (R)/2

F = 30/2,

F = 15cm

Hence, focal length of given spherical mirror is 15cm.

Q3. Which mirror can give an enlarged and erect image of an object?

Ans: The image will be virtual, erect and enlarged in a concave mirror if the object is
placed between the principal focus and pole of the concave mirror.

Q4. Why do we use convex mirrors as rearview mirrors in all vehicles?

Ans: Convex mirrors are used as rearview mirrors because they produce virtual,
diminished and erect image of objects. They also provide a wide angle view so that
the driver could get a view of the traffic behind him/her.

Q5. If the radius of curvature of the convex mirror is 30cm, find the focal
length.

Ans: Radius (R) of curvature = 30 cm

Radius (R) of curvature = 2 x (f) Focal length

R = 2f

f = R/2 = 30/2 = 15cm

Hence, the focal length (f) of the given convex mirror is 15 cm.

Q6. A real image is produced which is 3 times enlarged by concave mirror


when placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of it. What will the position of
the image produced?

Ans: Given, u = -20 cm


Since image is real and inverted,

m = -3

m = -v / u

-3 = -v/ -20

v= -60 cm

Negative sign indicates that the image is real and image is formed at 60 cm in front of
the mirror.

Q7. A light ray traveling in air enters into water obliquely. Does the light ray
bend towards the normal or away from the normal? Why?

Ans: The light rays bend towards the normal because when rays of light travel to an
optically denser medium from an optically rarer medium, it will bend towards the
normal. We know that, water is optically denser than air, so the light rays traveling
from air into the water bends towards the normal.

Q8. Light enters from air to glass having a refractive index of 2.0. What is
the speed of light in the glass? The speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 m/s.

Ans: Refractive index of a medium nm is given by,

nm=Speed of light in vacuumSpeed of light in the medium=cv

Speed of light in vacuum, c = 3108 m/s.

Refractive index of a glass, ng=2.0

Speed of light in glass

v=cng=31082=1.5108m/s

Q9. Find the medium which has the most high optical density and the most
low optical density

Material Medium Refractive Index Material Medium Refractive Index

Diamond 2.42 Crown Glass 1.52

Sapphire 1.77 Benzene 1.5


Ruby 1.71 Turpentine Oil 1.47

Dense flint glass 1.65 Fused Quartz 1.46

Carbon Disulphide 1.63 Kerosene 1.44

Alcohol 1.36

Rock salt 1.54 Water 1.33

Ice 1.31

Canada balsam 1.53 Air 1.003

Ans:

Medium with highest optical density = diamond

Medium with lowest optical density = Air

The optical density of any medium is directly proportional to the refractive index of
that medium. So, the medium with the highest refractive index will obviously have the
highest optical density. From the above table, it is known that Diamond has the
highest refractive Index. Therefore, it will have the highest optical density too.
Likewise, Air has the lowest refractive Index. Therefore, it will have the lowest optical
density.

Q10. Among kerosene, water and turpentine, which allows light to travel
faster?

Material Medium Refractive Index Material Medium Refractive Index

Diamond 2.42 Crown Glass 1.52

Sapphire 1.77 Benzene 1.5

Ruby 1.71 Turpentine Oil 1.47

Dense flint glass 1.65 Fused Quartz 1.46

Carbon Disulphide 1.63 Kerosene 1.44

Alcohol 1.36

Rock salt 1.54 Water 1.33

Ice 1.31
Canada balsam 1.53 Air 1.003

Ans: Light can travel faster through the medium with lesser optical density. The
medium with the least refractive index will have the least optical density. So, from the
above table, Water has the least optical density where the light can travel faster.

Q11. What do you mean by this statement Diamonds refractive index is


2.4?

Ans: The refractive index nm of a medium is given by the relation,

nm=speed of light in airspeed of light in the medium=cv

Where, c is the lights speed in vacuum/air.

Diamonds refractive index is 2.4. It means that the speed of light in diamond is
reduced by a factor 2.4 compared to its speed in air.

Q12. Define one dioptre.

Ans: One dioptre is the measurement of the power of lens with focal length 1m.
The reciprocal of focal length of a lens is defined as the power of lens.

If P is the power of a lens of focal length F in meters,

Then P =1/ f (in meters)

Dioptre is the SI unit of power of lens. It is denoted by D.

So, 1D=1m-1

Q13. An inverted and real image of a needle is formed with a convex lens at
a distance of 40 cm from the lens. What would be the position of the needle
placed in front of the lens if the image is equal to the size of the object?
What is the power of the lens.

Ans: v = 40 cm

Since the image is real and of same size, the position of image should be double the
focal length. Hence, the object should be at 2f.

V = 2f = 40, f = 20 cm.
Power = 1/f = 100/20 = 5D

Q14. The focal length of a concave lens is 4m. Find the power of the lens.

Ans: Given that, Focal length (f) = -4m.

We Know That, Power of lens, P=1f

Therefore, P=14m

P = -0.25 D

Q15. Choose one of the below materials which cant be used to manufacture
a lens?

(a) Plastic

(b) Water

(c) Glass

(d) Clay

Ans: (d) Clay

Q16. A concave mirror produces an erect, virtual image bigger than the
object. What would be the objects position?

(a) At the centre of curvature

(b) Between its principal focus and the centre of Curvature

(c) Between its principal focus and pole of the mirror.

(d) Beyond the centre of curvature

Ans: (c) Between its principal focus and pole of the mirror.

Q17. To get a real image of the same size as the object, where should the
object be placed in front of a convex lens?

(a) At twice the (f) focal length


(b) Between the principal focus and optic centre of the lens

(c) At infinity

(d) At the principal focus of the lens

Ans: (a) At twice the focal length

Q18. A thin spherical lens and a spherical mirror have a focal length of 15
cm each. The lens and mirror are likely to be:

(a) Both convex

(b) Both concave

(c) The lens is concave, but the mirror is convex

(d) The lens is convex, but the mirror is concave

Ans: (b) Both concave.

Q19. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your Image appears erect.
The mirror is likely to be

(a) Convex

(b) Plane

(c) Concave

(d) Either plane or convex

Ans: (d) Either plane or convex.

Q20. Which one of the below lenses would you use while reading small
letters in a dictionary?

(a) A concave lens of focal length 50cm

(b) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm

(c) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.

(d)A convex lens of focal length 50cm

Ans: (b) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.


Q21. What would be the nature of the image and range of the object to
obtain erect image using a concave mirror of focal length 20cm? Is the
obtained image smaller or larger than the object?

Ans: Given that, focal length of concave mirror (f) = -20cm

The object should be at a distance lesser than the focal length to get an erect image
in the concave mirror. The image formed will be erect, enlarged and virtual.

Q22. What is the type of mirror used in the following situations? Support
your answer with reason.

(a) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle

(b) Solar furnace.

(c)Headlights of a car

Ans: (a) Convex mirror because it always gives an erect image and enables the
driver to view much larger area.

(b) Concave or parabolic mirror because it can concentrate sunlight at the focus to
produce heat in the solar furnace.

(c) Concave mirror, to get powerful and parallel beams of light.

Q23. A black paper is covered over half of the convex lens. Will the lens
produce the image of the object completely? Verify your answer
experimentally. Explain your observations.

Ans: Yes, even when one half of the lens is covered with a black paper, the
complete image of the object will be formed. Take a convex lens and focus the light
from a distant object onto a screen. As expected, an image (sharp) is formed at a
distance equal to the focal length Cover the lower or the upper half of the lens and
focus the light from the same object onto the same screen. You will be able to get a
sharp image again; however, the brightness of the image will be less in the second
case. The same effect will be seen even if the lens is half covered with black strips.

Q24. An object 6cm in length is held 20cm away from a converging lens of
focal length 15 cm. Draw a ray diagram and find the position, size and the
nature of the image formed.

Ans:

Using the lens formula,

1f=1v1u

115=1v1(20)

115120=1v

5300=1v

v=3005=60

=60cm
m=vu=hh

6020=h6

h=36020=18cm

Therefore, the image formed on the other side of the lens is inverted, real and bigger
than the size of the object.

Q25. The focal length of a concave mirror is 20cm and it forms an image
15cm away from the lens. How far is the object situated from the lens? Draw
the ray diagram.

Ans: Given that,

f=20cm

v=15cm

Using the lens formula,

1f=1v1u

1u=1v1f

1u=115120
1u=5300

u=3005=60cm

Therefore, the object is at 60cm away from the lens. The ray diagram is given as
follows:

Q26. An object is 5 cm away from the convex mirror of focal length 10 cm.
Find the nature and position of the image.

Ans: Given that,

f=+10cm

u=5cm

For mirror, we have

1f=1u+1v

1v=1f1u
11015

1v=(5+10)50=1550

v=5015=3.33cm

The image must be erect, virtual in nature.

Q27. What does it mean when the magnification of the object produced by a
plane mirror is +1?

Ans: This means that the size of the image is equal to the size of the object.

Q28. An object 2.0 cm high is placed at a distance of 10 cm in front of a


convex mirror having a radius of curvature 20 cm. What will be the position,
nature and size of the image?

Ans: ho = +5.0 cm,

u = -20 cm,

We Know that,

f=R2=+10cm

Using mirror formula,

1f=1u+1v

We get,

1v=1f1u=110110
=210

v=102=5cm

Using m=h1h0=vu , We get

h1=5510=2.5

Since v is +ve, The image is virtual.

Since h1 = 2.5cm > 2 cm, the image is enlarged.

Q29. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror


of focal length 18 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be
placed so that a sharp focused image can be obtained? Find the size and the
nature of the image.

Ans: Given,

h0 = 6 cm

u = -28 cm

f = -20 cm

Using 1f=1u+1v , we get

1v=1f1u=120128

=120+128=(7+5)140=2140
v=70cm

Using m=h1h0=vu , we get

h1=h0vu=67028=15cm

Since h1 is greater than h0, the image is enlarged. As the value of h1 is ve, the image
is inverted. Since v is ve, the image is real.

Q30. Find the focal length of a lens of power -2.5D. What type of lens is it?

Ans: We know that,

f=1pm

f=12.5m

=1002.5 cm=40 cm

Focal length of a lens is ve, which means it is a concave lens.

Q31. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power +2 D. What is the


focal length of the lens? Is the prescribed lens diverging or converging?

Ans: Given,

P = +2 D
f=100p cm=1002.0=100020

= +50 cm = 0.5 m

The focal length is +ve, so it is a convex lens. Hence, it a converging lens.

Chapter-11: Human Eye and Colorful World

Short Question

(Question 1) what advice will a doctor give to a student sitting at the back
of the classroom who cannot read clearly the letters written on the
blackboard draw ray diagram for the correction of this defect

Ans. The doctor will advise the student to wear a concave lens having a suitable
power for correcting the vision. Since the student is suffering from short-sightedness.

(Question 2) How we are able to see nearby as well as the distance object
clearly?

Ans. Due to accommodation we are able to see the nearby as well as the distance
object clearly accommodation is the ability of the ciliary muscles to adjust the
curvature and thereby the focal length to get Clear View of the objects. There is
always a limit upto which ciliary muscles can increase or decrease the focal length of
the eye lens this change enable us to see near and far objects clearly.

(Question 3) If a person needs power of -4.5 D in the lens for correction of


her vision.
a) what is the focal length of the corrective lens?
b) What kind of vision defect she is suffering from?
c) what is the nature of corrective lens?

Ans.
a) The defect is myopia (short-sightedness)
b) Focal length =1Power=1004.5=22.2cm
c) The lens is a concave lens.

(Question 4) Use two identical prism in such a way that a narrow beam of
white light incident on one prism emerges out of the second prism as white
light? Draw the figure.

Ans. Consider a Prism A. It splits into 7 constituent colors when white light Falls on it.
The red colour deviates the least and the violet colour deviates most as shown in the
figure.

If another prism B is placed such that they are shown below the light that emerges out
of A will be made to merge together to come out as white light.

(Question 5) is the stars position seen by us is its true position. Describe


your answer.
Ans. Due to change in the refractive index of different layers of atmosphere light
bends when it passes through it and appears as if it comes from a higher level then
they are actually. So the stars appears slightly higher than they are actually.

Long Question

(Question 1) Explain the function and structure of human eye how we can
see the nearby as well as the distant object.

Ans. Human eye- The natural optical device through which one could see objects
around him. If forms and inverted and real image on a light sensitive surface called
the retina.
Parts of human eye are:
(i)Iris: It is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil.

(ii)Pupil : The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens. Since light
does not get reflected from it so its appearance is dark.

(iii)Aqueous Humour and Cornea: Acting as lens, they provide the refraction for light
rays entering the eye. Cornea is a thin membrane covering the surface of eyeball,
through which light enters. Aqueous humour is a transparent gelatinous fluid filled
between cornea and eye lens.

(iv)Retina: The light sensitive surface of eye on which image is formed. It is equivalent
of the photographic film in a camera. It contains rods and cones.

(v)Ciliary Muscles: These muscles hold the eye lens in vertical position and change the
focal length of eye lens to form the sharp image of objects located at different
distances on the retina.

(vi) Rods and cones: The cells in retina, which are light and colour sensitive. Rods
respond to the intensity of light. Cones respond to the colour. There are around 125
million rods and cones. The cells generate signals which are transmitted to the brain
through optical nerves. The brain process the information via these electric signals
and give the impression of erect image to us.

To see objects that are nearby as well as at distant, the curvature of eye lens is
modified by the ciliary muscles. In this way there is a variation in the focal length.
When the muscles are relaxed, the focal length of the lens has its maximum value,
equal to the distance from the retina. So, parallel rays coming into eye get focused on
the ratina. When the eye looks at nearby objects, the ciliary muscles are strained and
focal length decreases. So, the sharp image again forms on the retina.

(Question 2)When can we categorize a person to be myopic or


hypermetropic? Explain using diagrams how the defects associated with
myopic and hypermetropic eye can be corrected?

Ans. When a person is able to see nearby objects clearly but he is unable see distant
objects distinctly, then the person can be treated as myopic. This defect of eye is
called myopia.
When a person is unable to see nearby objects clearly but able to see distant objects
clearly, then the person can be treated as hypermetropic. The eye defect is
called hypermetropia.

Chapter-12: Electricity
Q1.Three 3 resistors, X, Y and Z are connected as shown in the figure. The
maximum power each of them can withstand is 27 W. Find the maximum
current that can flow through the three resistors.

Ans. Given , Power = 27W


Resistance of each resistor = 3 .
Now, we know;
P = I2R where I = current
Resistance X will have the maximum value of current flowing through it as it is in
Series. Therefore:
IX2 = 27/3 = 9
Therefore, I X= 3A.
Let IY and IZ be the current flowing through Y and Z respectively. Now since they are in
parallel and have the same resistance values, the voltage drop across them will be the
same. Thus;
IY RY= IZ RZ
Or, IY / IZ = RZ / RY
= 3/3 = 1
IY= IZ
But, IY+ IZ = I = 3A
Therefore, 2Iy = 3
IY = 3/2 = 1.5A
IZ = 1.5A

Q2. Should an ammeter have a high or low resistance? Justify your answer.
Ans. An ammeter should have a low resistance so that it does not disrupt the current
flowing through the circuit when it is connected in series to the circuit.

Q3.How does a fuse wire protect an electrical equipment?


Ans. A fuse wire is connected in series with the electrical equipment and it is made to
melt/ break when the current flowing through it exceeds a certain value(rated value).
So during some faulty conditions when a high value of current is coming in, the fuse
wire breaks thus effectively protecting the equipment from the high fault current.
Q4. Explain electrical resistivity. In an electrical circuit a current of 5A is
flowing. However, the current flowing through the wire decreases by half
when the length of the wire is doubled. Explain.
Ans. Electrical resistivity is the resistance offered by a conducting wire of unit cross
sectional area and unit length.
We know,
R = (L/A) , where = electrical resistivity.
L= length of the wire.
A= unit cross sectional area.
Or, R L.
Therefore by doubling the length the resistance gets doubled and the current drops by
half.

Q5. A bulb is connected in series to a 20V battery, the circuit resistance is


5 and a current of 2A flows through the circuit. Calculate the resistance of
the bulb. Now, a resistance of 10 is added in parallel to the existing
circuit. What is the change (if any) in the current flowing through the
original 5 circuit ?
Ans. Given,
I = 2A, RB= ? , RC=5, V= 20V
Using Ohms Law:
V=IR
V=I(RB + RC)
20= 2 x (5 + RB)
Therefore, resistance of the bulb is =5
Now, the circuit can be redrawn as below with the changed conditions;

Here, the new parallel resistance RN =10.


So, the net resistance, 1/REQ = 1/RN +1/(RB + RC)
= 1/10 + 1/10
=1/5
Therefore the total net resistance, RN= 5 .
Now, the current drawn from the battery =V/RN
= 10/5 =2A
Since it is in parallel the potential difference across the connection remains the same.
Thus,
I1RN = I2( RB + RC) Where, I1= current in the parallel circuit
I2 = current in the original circuit.
I1/I2 = 10/10 = 1
I2 = I1
This means current is divided equally in both arms, So
I1 = I2 = 1A.
Hence, there is a change in the current. With the addition of the 10 in parallel, only
1A current will flow through the 5 circuit.

Q6. Why do electricians incorporate parallel connection of wires in domestic


wiring?
Ans. Parallel connection is incorporated in domestic wring because:
Voltage does not drop from one electrical appliance to another.
It is safer for the equipments, as in case of a fault in one branch, it can be easily
identified and stopped.
Switching of one appliance does not cutoff the supply for other appliances.
Q7. L1, L2 and L3 are three identical light bulbs connected to a 16V source
as shown in the diagram. A current of 6A is observed in the ammeter when
all three light bulbs are glowing.
If L1 gets fused, what happens to the glow of L2 and L3?
If L2 gets fused, what do the ammeters A1, A2, A3 and A read?
When all three bulbs are glowing, how much power is dissipated in the
circuit?
Ans.
(i) Since all the three lamps are in parallel, they have equal potential differences
across them. Thus, even if L1 gets fused the other two glows with the same intensity.

(ii) The total resistance when all the bulbs are glowing:
1/RT = 1/R + 1/R +1/R
= 3/R
RT = R /3
Given, ammeter A reads 6 A.
So, V=IRT
16= 6 x (R / 3)
R = 8.
So resistance of each bulb is 8 .
Now when L2 gets fused the equivalent resistance of the parallel circuit for L1 and L3
is :
RP = (8 x 8)/(8 + 8)
= 4 .
Therefore ammeter A now reads , I = V/RP
I = 16/4
=4A.
Since the resistance of each arm is the same and the potential difference across each
arm is also the same, the 4A current will divide equally between the two arms.
Thus, ammeter A1 and A3 will read 2A, ammeter A2 read zero and ammeter A will
read 4A.
(iii)In parallel connection total power used, Peq= P + P + P
= 3P = 3 x V x I
= 3 x 16 x 2= 96 W
(Current through each bulb is 2A)

Q8. Three bulbs are connected in series and in another circuit three bulbs
are
connected in parallel to the same source.
(a)Will the bulbs in the two circuits glow with same intensity?
(b)If a bulb gets fused in both the circuits, will the other bulbs still glow?
Ans.
(a) Resistance for three identical bulbs in series, RS= 3R
Resistance for three identical bulbs in parallel, RP=R/3
The current in series, IS = V/RS = V/3R
The current in parallel, Ip= 3V/R
So, IP > IS.
Thus, the bulbs glow with different intensities in the two circuits.

(b)As one bulb fuses, the series circuit will be an open circuit so current stops flowing
Hence the bulbs stop glowing. In the parallel circuit, however the two bulbs continue
to
Glow because the flow of the current to the bulbs isnt disrupted.

Q9.Calulate the following circuit parameters:

Equivalent resistance of two 5 resistors in combination.


Current flowing through 2 resistor.
Potential difference across the 2 resistor.
Power consumed by the 2 resistor.
Will there be any difference in ammeter A1 and A2 readings?
Ans.
(a)Equivalent resistance , REQ = (5 x 5)/(5+5)
=2.5
(B) RTOTAL = 2 + REQ
= 2 + 2.5 = 4.5
So current through 2 = I = V/R = 8 / 4.5
= 1.77A
(c)Potential difference across the 2 resistor = V = IR = 1.77 x 2
=3.54V
(d)Power consumed = I2R = 1.772 x 2 =6.26 W
(e) Both ammeters will read the same value as they are in series.

Chapter 13: Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 1:
What is the reason behind the compass needle being deflected when it is brought
close to the bar magnet?
Answer:
Compass needles works as a small bar magnet; when they are brought near to
another bar magnet the like poles will end up repelling, as the needle will be
deflected.

Question 2:
Around the bar magnet draw its magnetic fields.
Answer:

Question 3:
Write down properties of the magnetic lines of force.
Answer:
The lines of force are parallel to one another in the uniform magnetic field.
Magnetic lines of force do not cross each other.
Magnetic lines of force are always closed curves.
Magnetic lines are always directed from the North Pole towards South Pole.
Magnetic fields get more crowded near the poles other than any region of the
field.

Question 4:
Why two magnetic lines of force never cross each other?
Answer:
None of the field lines cross each other. This is because if they did, the compass
needle will point in two directions, which is not possible in any case.

Question 5:
If a circular loop of wire is lying in the plane of the table and the current is being
passed through the loop in a clockwise manner, find out the magnetic field inside and
outside the loop by applying the right-hand thumb rule.
Answer:
The concentric circles representing the magnetic fields around every point of current
carrying loop will become larger and larger as we move away from the wire. The arc of
these big circles will appear as straight lines when we reach the center of the circular
loop.

Question 6:
Draw a diagram to represent a magnetic field given region is uniform.
Answer:

Question 7:
The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current
1. Is high
2. Decreases when moving toward center.
3. Is the same at all points
4. All of the above.
Answer:
3. Is the same at all points.
Question 8:
A proton moves freely in a magnetic field. Which of the following property of a proton
changes?
1. Gravity
2. Velocity
3. Momentum
4. Weight
Answer:
2. Velocity
3. Momentum

Question 9:
What happens to the displacement of rod when
1. Current in rod AB is increased.
2. A stronger horseshoe magnet is used.
3. Length of the rod AB is increased.
Answer:
1. The displacement of rod will not be affected.
2. Force is exerted and hence the displacement increases.
3. There is no change in the displacement of the rod AB.

Question 10:
What happens to the direction of the magnetic field when a positively-charged particle
projected toward west is deflected toward north by a magnetic field?
1. Towards center
2. Towards east
3. Towards north
4. Towards south
Answer:
2. Towards east

Question 11:
Explain Flemings left hand rule.
Answer:
Flemings left-hand rule:-
It states that if we stretch the thumb, fore finger and the middle finger such that they
are mutually perpendicular (of the left hand) and if the fore finger and the middle
finger points in the direction of magnetic field and direction of current respectively,
then the thumb will be in the direction of motion or the force acting on the conductor.

Question 12:
Explain the principle of an electric motor.
Answer:
Mechanical effect of an electric current is responsible for the working of the electric
motor. Mechanical force is experienced when a conductor carrying a current is placed
in a magnetic field. The coil rotates continuously when a current is passed through a
rectangular coil of wire placed in a magnetic field (in a motor).

Question 13:
Explain the role of split ring in an electric motor.
Answer:
A split ring acts just like a commutator in the electric motor. A commutator is a device
that reverses the direction of flow of current through a circuit. The reversing of this
current also reverses the direction of force acting on the two arms.

Question 14:
What are the different ways to induce current in a coil? Explain it.
Answer:
Either by moving the coil in a magnetic field or by changing the magnetic field around
it, current can be induced in a coil. When the direction of motion of the coil is at the
right angles to the magnetic field, the induced current is found to be the highest.
The process of changing the magnetic field in a conductor which induces a current in
another conductor is known as electromagnetic induction.

Question 15:
Explain the principle of an electric generator.
Answer:
A generator, also known as a dynamo, is a device used to convert mechanical energy
into electrical energy. To produce electricity, the mechanical energy is used to rotate
the conductor in a magnetic field. It is an application of electromagnetic induction. An
A.C generator generates an alternating current. A D.C generator is used to deliver a
current, which flows in the same direction.

Question 16:
What are the sources of direct current?
Answer:
Split-ring type commutator is a source of direct current. In a split-ring type
commutator, two brushes are there where first one is always in contact with the arm
moving up in the field, while the other one is in contact with the arm moving down.
Because of this process, a unidirectional current is produced.

Question 17:
What are the sources to produce alternating current (A.C.)?
Answer:
The sources which produce A.C. is a permanent magnet called the field magnet,
armature, slip ring and carbon brushes. The polarity of the current in the respective
arms changes after every half rotation. This type of current which changes direction
after equal intervals of time is called an alternating current (A.C.).

Question 18:
In a magnetic field, a rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated. The direction of the
induced current changes once in each:
1. Two revolutions
2. One revolution
3. Half revolution
4. One-fourth revolution
Answer:
2. One revolution.

Question 19:
Name any safety measure used in electric circuits and appliances.
Answer:
To prevent electric circuits and appliance from possible damage, by passing the flow
of unduly high electric current, we use an electric fuse. In the fuse, Joule heating takes
place which melts it to break the electric circuit.

Question 20:
An electric oven of 4 KW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220V)
that has a current rating of 5A. What result do you expect? Explain.
Answer:
V=220 V, I = 5A
Power, P = VI
P = 220 x 5
P = 1100W
Therefore, power P = 1100W = 1.1KW
Therefore, an electric oven of 4 KW power rating cannot be operated in a domestic
electric circuit (220V) that has a current rating of 5A because electric oven has higher
power than the power of the electric circuit.

Question 21:
To avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits, what precautions should be
taken?
Answer:
To avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits, fuse should be used. It is the
most important safety device.
Too many appliances should not be connected to a single socket.

Question 22:
Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?
1. The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
2. The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
3. The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
4. The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
Answer:
1. The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.

Question 23:
The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
1. producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet
and the coil.
2. the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
3. the process of charging a body.
4. the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor
Answer:
1. producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and
the coil.

Question 24:
The device used for producing electric current is called a
1. Galvanometer.
2. Generator.
3. Motor.
4. Ammeter .
Answer:
2. Generator.
Question 25:
The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that:
1. DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
2. AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
3. AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator has permanent
magnet.
4. AC generator will generate a higher voltage.

Answer:
2. AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
Question 26:
At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit
1. does not change.
2. reduces substantially.
3. vary continuously.
4. increases heavily.
Answer:
4. increases heavily.

Question 27:
State whether the following statements are true or false.
1. An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
2. An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
3. A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an electric supply.
4. The field at the center of a long circular coil carrying current will be parallel
straight lines.
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True

Question 28:
List three sources of magnetic fields.
Answer:
1. Magnetic field due to a current in a solenoid.
2. Magnetic field due to a current through a circular loop.
3. Magnetic field due to a current through a straight conductor.

Question 29:
How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Determine the north and the south poles
of a current-carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet. Explain.
Answer:
Solenoid is known as a coil of several circular turns of insulated copper wire which is
wrapped closely in the shape of a cylinder. In this figure, the pattern of the magnetic
field lines is shown. Two ends of the solenoid behave as a magnetic north pole and
south pole respectively. The form of the field lines inside the solenoid are parallel
straight lines. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is same at all points, i.e. , the
field is uniform inside the solenoid. If we place a piece of magnetic material, like soft
iron, inside the coil we can use the strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid
to magnetise it. The piece of magnetic material will now be known as electromagnet.

Question 30:
Force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is largest
in which condition?
Answer:
When the direction of the current is at right angles to the direction of the magnetic
field, the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
is largest.

Question 31:
You are sitting in a chamber with your back lying on one wall. An electron beam is
deflected by a strong magnetic field to your right side which is moving horizontally
from back wall towards the front wall. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
Answer:
The direction of the magnetic field is towards west.

Question 32:
Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor and explain its principle and working.
What is the function of a split ring in an electric motor?
Answer:

A device that converts the electrical energy into mechanical energy is known as a
motor.
Principle:
An electric motor works on the fact that the conductor experiences a force, given by
Flemings Left Hand Rule, when a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic
field. For example, when a rectangular coil is placed in the magnetic field and current
is passed through it, a torque acts on the coil, which rotates it continuously. When the
coil rotates, the shaft attached to it also rotates and thus the electrical energy
supplied to the motor is converted into the mechanical energy of rotation.
An electrical motor consists of a rectangular coil ABCD of insulated copper wire which
is wounded around on a soft iron core called armature. The coil rotates between the
poles N and S as the coil is mounted between the poles of a magnet. The two ends of
the coil are joined to the end of a commutator. Its main function is to reverse the
direction of the current flowing through the coil every time the coil passes the vertical
position during revolution.
Working:
Initially, the coil ABCD is at a horizontal position. The current enters the coil through
the carbon brushes and the half ring A of the commutator when the switch is in ON
position.
The current flows in the direction DCBA and leaves via the half ring B. In the side PQ
of the coil, the direction is from Q to P towards the south and the direction of the
magnetic field is from the N to S pole towards the east. By applying Flemings left
hand rule, we find that it will experience a force in upward direction and the side SR of
the coil will experience a downward force. Now we have two parallel wires
experiencing forces in opposite direction. They form a couple tending to rotate the coil
in the anticlockwise direction.
The two commutator half rings automatically change contact from one brush to the
other when the coil goes beyond the vertical position. Because of this, the direction of
the current through the coil reverses which, in turn, reverses the direction of forces
acting on the two sides of the coil. The sides of the coil rotate in the same
anticlockwise direction and they are interchanged. As long as the current is passing,
this process is repeated again and again and the coil continues to rotate.

Question 33:
Which are the devices where electric motors are used?
Answer:
Electric motors are used in:-
1. Electric fans.
2. Mixers.
3. Computers.
4. Refrigerators.
5. MP3 players etc.

Question 34:
A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a
bar magnet is
1. Pushed into the coil,
2. Withdrawn from inside the coil,
3. Held stationary inside the coil?
Answer:
1. A deflection is observed in the galvanometer due to the induced current
because of the increase in magnetic flux through the turns of the coil connected to
the galvanometer.
2. A deflection is observed in the galvanometer, as when it is pulled out, the flux
linked with the coil due to the bar magnet decreases. Therefore, a current flows in
the coil to reduce the change in flux. The deflection can be observed in the
opposite direction (if compared with the previous case).
3. No deflection is observed in the galvanometer. The flux linked with the coil due
to the magnetic field is at a constant. Hence no current is induced due to the bar
magnet.

Question 35:
Two circular coils P and Q are placed closed to each other. If the current in the coil P is
changed, will some current be induced in the coil Q? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes, some current will be induced in the coil Q, if the current in coil P is changed, due
to the change in the magnetic field effect around the coils.

Question 36:
State the rule to determine the direction of a:
1. Magnetic field produced around a straight conductor-carrying current
2. Force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a magnetic
field which is perpendicular to it.
3. Current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field.
Answer:
1. Right-hand thumb rule:
We are holding a current carrying straight conductor in the right hand such that the
thumb points towards the direction of current. Our fingers will wrap around the
conductor in the direction of the field lines of the magnetic field. This is known as
Right hand thumb rule.
2. Flemings left-hand rule:
Flemings left hand rule states that, when we stretch the thumb, fore finger and
middle finger of the left hand such that they are mutually perpendicular and if the fore
finger and middle finger points in the direction of the magnetic field and the direction
of current respectively, then the thumb will point in the direction of motion or the
force acting on the conductor.
3. Flemings Right hand rule:
If the thumb and the first two fingers of right hand are held at right angles to each
other, with the forefinger held in the direction of the field, and the thumb in the
direction of motion, the induced current I flows in the direction of the middle finger.

Question 37:
Draw a labeled diagram of an electric generator and explain its principle and working.
What is the function of brushes?
Answer:
AC generators:
A.C. is an abbreviation for Alternating Current. An A.C. generator produces alternating
current and alternates in polarity continuously.
Construction of an A.C. generator:
A simple A.C. generator consists of a rectangular coil ABCD that can be rotated rapidly
between the poled N and S of a strong horseshoe type magnet M. The coil is made of
a large number of turns of insulated copper wire. The ends A and D of the rectangular
coil are connected to two circular pieces of copper metal called slip rings R 1 and R2. As
the slip rings R1 and R2 rotate with the coil, the two pieces of carbon called brushes;
B1 and B2 keep contact with them. The current produced in the rotating coil can be
tapped out through slip rings into the carbon brushes. From the carbon brushes B1 and
B2 we take the current into various electrical appliances like TV, bulbs, etc. In this
figure, we have shown only a galvanometer G connected the two carbon brushes.
Working of an AC generator:
Initially, the generator coil ABCD is in the horizontal position. The coil ABCD is being
rotated in the anticlockwise direction between the poles N and S of a horseshoe type
magnet.
i) As the coil rotates in the anticlockwise direction, the side AB and side CD of the coil
moves down cutting the magnetic lines of force near the N-Pole of the magnet and
moves up cutting the line of force near S-pole of the magnet respectively. Due to this,
induced current is produced in the sides AB and DC of the coil. On applying Flemings
right hand rule to the side AB and DC of the coil, we find that the currents are in the
direction B to A and D to C respectively. The induced currents in the two sides of the
coil are in the same direction, and we get an effective induced current in the direction
BADC.
ii) After half revolution, the side AB will come on the right hand side and DC will come
on the left side. So, after half revolution, side AB starts moving up and side DC starts
coming down. As a result of this, the direction of induced current in each side of the
coil is reversed after half a revolution. Since the direction of induced current in the coil
is reversed after half revolution so the polarity (positively and negative) of the two
ends of the coil also changes after half revolution. The end of the coil which was
positive in the first half of rotation becomes negative in the second half and vice
versa. Thus, in one revolution of the coil, the current changes its direction 2 times.
The alternating current produced in India has a frequency of 50 Hz, i.e., the coil is
rotated at the rate of 50 revolutions per second. Since in one revolution of coil, the
current changes its direction 2 times, so in 50 revolutions of coil, the current changes
its direction 2 x 50 = 100 times. Thus, the A.C. supply in India changes its direction
100 times in 1 second. Another way of saying this is that the alternating current
produced in India changes its direction every 1/100 second, i.e., each terminal of the
coil is positive (+) for 1/100 seconds and negative (-) for the next 1/100 of a second.
This process is repeated again and again with the result that there is actually no
positive and negative in an AC generator. We will now describe why the direction of
induced current in the coil of an AC generator changes after every half revolution of
the coil.
After every half revolution, each side of the generator coil starts moving in the
opposite direction in the magnetic field. The side of the coil which was initially moving
downwards in a magnetic field, after half revolution, it starts moving in opposite
direction upwards. Similarly the side of the coil which was initially moving upwards,
after half revolution, it starts downwards. Due to the change in the direction of the
motion of the two sides of the coil in the magnetic field after every half revolution, the
direction of current produced in them also changes after every half revolution.

D.C. generator:
D.C. generator refers to the direct current generator which produces direct current.
Construction of a DC generator:
A simple DC generator consists of a rectangular coil ABCD which can be rotated
rapidly between the poled N and S of a strong horseshoe type magnet M. The
generator coil is made of a large number of turns of insulated copper wire. The two
ends of the coil are connected to the two copper half rings or also known as split rings
R1 and R2 of a commutator. There are two carbon brushes B1 and B2, we can take the
current into the various electrical appliances like radio, TV, electric iron, bulbs, etc. but
in this figure, we have shown only a galvanometer G connected between the two
carbon brushes. The galvanometer is a current detecting and current measuring
instrument.
Working of a DC Generator:
Suppose that the generator coil ABCD is initially in the horizontal position. Again
suppose that the coil ABCD is being rotated in the anticlockwise direction between the
poles N and S of a horseshoe type magnet.
1. As the coil rotates in the anticlockwise direction, the side AB of the coil moves
down cutting the magnetic lines of force near the N-pole of the magnet, and side
DC moves up, cutting the lines of force near the S-pole of the magnet. Due to this
the induced current is produced in the sides AB and DC of the coil. On applying
Flemings right hand rule to the side AB and DC of the coil we find that the currents
in them are in the direction B to A and D to C respectively. Thus, the induced
currents in the two sides of the coil are in the same direction, and we get an
effective induced current in the direction BADC. Due to this the brush B1 becomes a
positive (+) pole and brush B2 becomes negative (-) pole of the generator.
2. After half revolution, the sides AB and DC of the coil will interchange their
positions. The side AB will come in the right hand side and start moving up
whereas side DC will come on then the two commutator half rings R1 and
R2 automatically change their contacts from one carbon brush to the other. Dues to
this change, the current keeps flowing in the same direction in the other circuits.
The brush B1 always remaining positive terminal and brush B2 always remaining
negative terminal of the generator. Thus, a DC generator supplies a current in one
direction by the use of a commutator consisting of two, half rings of copper. In the
above discussion we have used the word DC generator everywhere. Please note
that we can also write DC dynamo in place of DC generator.

Question 38:
When does an electric short circuit occur?
When the live wire and neutral wire touch each other as they get torn, the direct
touching is known as short circuiting. The current passing through the circuit formed
by these wires is very large and consequently a high heating effect is created which
may lead to fire.

Question 39:
Explain the function of an earth wire. Why is it necessary to earth metallic appliances?
To avoid electric shocks, the metal body of an electrical device is earthed. To connect
the metal body of the electrical device to the earth, an earth wire is used, which is at
zero potential. In household circuits, there are three wires, the live wire, the neutral
wire and the earth wire. One end of the earth wire is connected to the device and the
other end of the wire is connected to the earth. We now say that the device is
grounded or earthed. Usually the three wires are connected to a three pin plug. The
neutral wire or the earth connection carries the high current to the earth from the
device and prevents an electric shock.
Chapter 14: Sources of Energy
Question 1
What is a good source of energy?
A good source of energy would be one,
1. Which would do a large amount of work per unit volume or per unit mass
2. Which would be easily accessible.
3. Which would be easy to store and transport, and
4. Perhaps most importantly, be economical.
Question 2:
What is a good fuel?
A good fuel would be one that,
1. Is easily available
2. should not produce too much of smoke.
3. On burning should release more amount of heat.
Question 3:
If you could use any source of energy for heating your food, which one
would you use and why?
Solar energy can be used for heating food because it is easily available, it will not
produce smoke and it will not release any amount of heat.
Question 4:
What are the disadvantages of fossil fuels?
Fossil fuels are nonrenewable. Burning of coal or petroleum products cause the air
pollution. The oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur that are released on burning
fossil fuels are acid oxides. These lead to acid rain, which affects water and soil
resources.
Question 5:
Why are we looking at alternate source of energy?
The fossil fuels are nonrenewable sources of energy. So we need to conserve them. If
we were to continue consuming these sources at such alarming rates, we would soon
run out of energy. In order to avoid this, alternate sources of energy are being
explored.
Question 6:
How had the traditional use of wind and water energy been modified for our
convenience?
The wind possesses kinetic energy. This energy was harnessed by windmills in the
past to do mechanical work. Today, wind energy is also used to generate electricity.
Another traditional source of energy was the kinetic energy of flowing water or the
potential energy of water at a height. Hydropower plants convert the potential energy
of falling water into electricity.
Question 7:
What kind of mirror ~~ concave, convex or plane ~~ would be best suited
for use in a solar cooker? Why?
Plane mirror would be best suited for use in a solar cooker. A plane mirror is used as a
reflector. The reflector is used to increase the area over which the solar energy is
collected so that more and more heat rays of the sun may enter the solar cooker.
Question 8:
What are the limitations of the energy that can be obtained from the
oceans?
The energy from the oceans can be obtained mainly in three forms,
1. Tidal energy
2. Ocean waves energy
3. Ocean thermal energy
The energy potential from the sea is quite large, but efficient commercial exploitation
is difficult.
Question 9:
What is geothermal energy?
Geo means Earth and thermal means heat. Thus the geothermal energy is the
heat energy from the hot rock present inside the earth. This heat can be used as a
source of energy to produce electricity.
Question 10:
What are the advantages of nuclear energy?
The advantages of nuclear energy is as follows,
1. It generates electricity.
2. Diseases like cancer can be treated.
3. It helps in the improvement of agriculture and industry.
Question 11:
Can any source of energy be pollution-free? Why or why not?
Yes, Solar energy does not cause any pollution. Solar cells make use of the
everlasting solar energy and their use does not produce any environmental pollution.
Question 12:
Hydrogen has been used as a rocket fuel. Do you consider it as a cleaner
fuel than CNG? Why or why not?
Yes, hydrogen is a cleaner fuel than CNG because it doesnt produce any waste.
Hydrogen is an extremely good fuel because of its high calorific value.
Question 13:
Name two energy sources that you would consider to be renewable. Give
reasons for your choices.
Hydro Energy and Solar Energy
Hydro energy or water energy is a renewable source of electric energy, which will
never get exhausted since water is available in plenty.
Solar energy is also known as light energy, which is obtained from the sun and it will
never get exhausted.
Question 14:
Give the names of two energy sources that you would consider to be
exhaustible. Give reasons for your choices.
Coal and petroleum are the two energy sources that are considered to be exhaustible.
They are nonrenewable sources of energy and are present in a limited amount in the
earth. Once exhausted, they will not be available to us again.
Question 15:
A solar water heater can be used to get hot water on
1. A snowy day
2. A rainy day
3. A sunny day
Answer:
(3) a sunny day.
Question 16:
Which of the following is not an example of a biomass energy source?
1. Steel
2. Wood
3. Gobar-gas
4. Nuclear energy
Answer:
(4) Nuclear energy
Question 17:
Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy.
Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the Suns energy?
1. Gobar- gas
2. Nuclear energy
3. Geothermal energy
4. Wind energy
Answer:
(2) Nuclear Energy
Question 18:
Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the Sun as direct sources of energy.
Fossil fuels are nonrenewable sources of energy. These nonrenewable sources of
energy (like coal,petroleum, natural gas) are present in a limited amount in the earth.
Once exhausted, they will not be available to us again.
The sun is the source of all energy. The sun is a renewable source of energy. It
provides us heat and light energy free of cost. The energy obtained from the sun is
called solar energy. The energy coming from the sun contains heat rays, visible light,
ultraviolet (UV) rays and some gamma rays.
Question 19:
Compare and contrast biomass and hydroelectricity as sources of energy.
The waste material of living things and the dead parts of living things is called
biomass. Biomass contains carbon compounds and it is the oldest source of heat
energy for domestic purposes. The important examples of biomass being used as a
fuel are wood, cattle, dung, and agricultural wastes like bagasse.
Hydro power plants convert the potential energy of falling water into electricity. Water
energy is a renewable source of electric energy, which will never get exhausted. The
construction of dams on rivers helps in controlling floods and in irrigation.
Question 20:
What are the limitations of extracting energy from
1. The winds?
2. The waves?
3. And the Tides?
1. There are many limitations in harnessing wind energy. Wind energy farms can
be established only at those places where wind blows for the greater part of a year.
The wind speed should also be higher than 15 kmph to maintain the required
speed of the turbine. There should be some back-up facilities to take care of the
energy needs during a period when there is no wind.
2. The waves are generated by strong winds blowing across the sea. Wave energy
would be a viable proposition only where waves are very strong.
3. Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam across a narrow opening, the
location where such dams can be built are limited.
Question 21:
On what basis would you classify energy sources as
1. Renewable and nonrenewable?
2. Exhaustible and inexhaustible?
Are the options in (1) and (2) the same?
Answer:
The options given in (1) and (2) are the same.
Those sources of energy, which are being, produced continuously in nature are
inexhaustible and are called renewable sources of energy.
Those sources of energy which get accumulated in nature over a very, very long time
and cannot be quickly replaced when exhausted are called nonrenewable sources of
energy.
Question 22:
What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy?
The important qualities of an ideal source of energy is,
1. It should be a renewable source of energy.
2. It should be pollution free.
3. It should be economical.
4. It should be easily accessible.
Question 23:
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a solar cooker? Are
there places where solar cookers would have limited utility?
The advantages of a solar cooker
1. Usage of solar cooker for cooking food saves fuel.
2. The use of solar cooker does not produce smoke due to which the environment
also does not get polluted.
3. When food is cooked in a solar cooker, its nutrients do not get destroyed. This is
because, in a solar cooker, food is cooked at a comparatively lower temperature.
4. In a solar cooker, up to four food items can be cooked at the same time.
The Disadvantages of a Solar cooker are:
1. The box-type solar cooker cannot make chapatis.
2. The box-type cooker cannot be used for frying
The limited utility of a solar cooker is:
1. The Solar cooker cannot be used to cook the food during night hours.
2. If the day-sky is covered with clouds, even then the solar cooker cannot be used
to cook food.
3. The direction of the reflector of a solar cooker has to be changed from time to
time to keep facing the sun.
Question 24:
What are the environmental consequences of the increasing demand for
energy? What steps would you suggest to reduce energy consumption?
Exploiting any source of energy disturbs the environment in some way or the other.
The source we would choose depends on factors such as the case of extracting energy
from that source, the economics of extracting energy from the source, the efficiency
of technology available and the environmental damage that will be caused by using
that source.
We cannot depend on the fossil fuels for much longer. If we manage biomass by
replacing the trees we cut down for firewood, we can be assured of a constant supply
of energy at a particular rate. Renewable energy is available in our natural
environment, in the form of some continuing or repetitive current of energy, or is
stored in such large underground reservoirs that the rate of depletion of reservoirs
because of extraction of usable energy is practically negligible.

Chapter-15: Our Environment

Short Question

Q.1. Why is the disposal of improper waste a curse to the environment?

Ans. Improper wastes pollute the air, soil, water and the environment. It also causes
harmful effects on the living organisms.

For example, Eutrophication is caused due to the passage of waste into the water
body killing all the aquatic life in it.

Q.2.Show the common food chain of a pond ecosystem.

Ans. Aquatic plants and phytoplanktons -> Small aquatic animals and larvae and
zooplanktons, insects, etc. ->Fish-> Bird

Q.3.Write down the advantages of using cloth bags instead of using plastic
bags during shopping.

Ans. The advantages of using cloth bags instead of using plastic bags are:

(i)They are washable.

(ii)They are strong and more durable than plastic bags.

(iii)They are made of biodegradable material.

(iv)They do not pollute the environment.

(v)They can be recycled and reused.

(vi)They are capable of carrying more things.

Q.4.Write down, why the crop fields are known as artificial ecosystems.

Ans. Crop fields are man-made. Abiotic and some biotic components are nourished,
maintained and reaped by human beings.

Q.5.An aquarium needs to be cleaned, but we do not clean ponds or lakes.


Explain the reason for it.
Ans. An aquarium is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem compared to ponds or
lakes, which are self-sustaining, natural and make a complete ecosystem where there
is a perfect recycling of materials. Therefore, it needs to be cleaned.

Long Questions

Q.1.Write down four daily life activities that are eco-friendly.

Ans. (i) Gardening

(ii)Usage of compost

(iii)Use of cloth bags instead of plastic bags

(iv) Harvesting of rainwater and preventing wastage of resources.

Q.2.Show the flow of energy in an ecosystem. State why it is unidirectional.

Ans. The energy flow in an ecosystem is as follows:

Sun Producers Herbivores Carnivores

Since flow is progressively from one trophic level to another and does not revert, it is
said to be unidirectional, i.e. from sun to plants, plants to animals, animals to other
animals and organic remains to decomposers. Thus, the available energy decreases in
the higher trophic levels making impossible for energy flow in the reverse direction.

Q.3.Name the wastes which are generated in your house daily. What
measures would you take for their disposal?

Ans. The wastage generated daily are kitchen wastes, paper wastes like newspapers,
bags, envelopes, plastic bags, vegetable and fruit peels, dust and empty cartons etc.
Measures for the proper disposal are:

(i)Safe disposal of plastic bags.

(ii)Paper waste can be given for recycling.

(iii)Separation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable recyclable and non-recyclable


wastes.

(iv)Preparation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable recyclable and non-recyclable


wastes.

Q.4.Explain some harmful effects of agricultural practices on the


environment.

Ans. Some harmful effects of agricultural practices on the environment are as follows:
(i)Natural ecosystems and habitats have been damaged during the clearing of land for
agriculture.

(ii)Extensive cropping causes loss of soil fertility.

(iii)Use of fertilizers change the chemistry of soil and kills useful microbes.

(iv) Use of non-biodegradable pesticides leads to bio-magnification.

(v)Use of ground water for agriculture has resulted in lowering water table.

Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

1.What changes can you make in your habits to become more environment-
friendly?
The concept of Three Rs Should be followed in our home if we are want to be
environment friendly.
The three Rs
Reduce
Reuse
Recycle
Reduce: To minimise the usage of various resources and hence reducing their
wastage.
Reuse: To reuse the materials which are fit for such purposes and applications.
Recycle: To recycle the waste which can be recycled, by segregating them from the
bulk of the waste content
2.What would be the advantages of exploiting resources with short-term
aims?
Exploiting resources for short term aims is of no major advantage. It may appear as a
promising option initially, but it will not satisfy the long-term need. If we opt to exploit
the resources for the short-term aim then we are just damaging our environment
gradually.
3.How would these advantages differ from the advantages of using a long-
term perspective in managing our resources?
In order to meet the daily requirements of the present generation, it may seem
advantageous to exploit the natural resources for such short term aims. If we utilize
these resources considering a long-term perspective then we can satisfy the needs of
future generations.
4.Why do you think there should be equitable distribution of resources?
What force would be working against an equitable distribution of our
resources?
The benefits of the natural resources should be available for all the citizens as
everybody has equal rights over them. In order to make sure that everybody gets
their due, equitable distribution of resources is essential. There are factors which
oppose the equitable distribution. Geography and Economy are some of the most
powerful factors which do not allow equitable distribution of natural resources.
5.Why should we conserve forest and wildlife?
Nature has an subtle ecological balance which keep the lives of various species in
check.So, for preserving our environment, wildlife and forests should be protected and
conserved.This supports our Social and economic growth and to meet our material
aspirations.

6.suggest some approaches towards the conservation of forests.


By following the principle of Rs, we can effectively conserve forests.
The thoughts and beliefs of natives, local people and forest dwellers should be
acknowledged while organising any conservation programme.
The stakeholders should be made a part of every conservation programmes.