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DIAGNOSTIC TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST

Subtest 1: Verbal Analogies 5. Excited is to thrilled as angered is to


Directions: The Verbal Analogies subtest measures a. amused
your ability to reason and to see relationships be- b. enraged
tween words. You are to choose the answer that best c. disinterested
completes the analogy developed at the beginning of d. sleepy
each question. The best way to approach this type of e. delayed
test is to look for patterns or comparisons between
the first phrase and the choices available to you. You 6. String is to guitar as key is to
have eight (8) minutes to complete this subtest. a. score
b. organ
Questions: 25 c. orchestra
Time: 8 minutes d. song
e. drum
For sample Verbal Analogies questions, see page 195.
7. Thesaurus is to synonyms as dictionary is to
1. School is to principal as office is to a. words
a. manager b. reference
b. secretary c. book
c. computer d. volume
d. teacher e. definitions
e. building
8. Pedestal is to bust as tripod is to
2. Paint is to brush as clay is to a. film
a. dough b. figure
b. mold c. leg
c. sculpture d. adjust
d. artist e. camera
e. rock
9. Beautician is to salon as
3. Knife is to slice as spoon is to a. follicle is to hair
a. fork b. musician is to concert hall
b. stab c. scissors is to blow dryer
c. stir d. cinematographer is to movie
d. cereal e. cosmetologist is to makeup
e. handle
10. Stall is to engine as
4. Proud is to brag as despairing is to a. drive is to motor
a. sing b. race is to heart
b. exult c. block is to progress
c. sad d. freeze is to computer
d. depress e. mechanical is to functional
e. weep

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11. Leave is to bolt as 17. Carelessness is to mistake as


a. dance is to shuffle a. destruction is to damage
b. toss is to hurl b. meticulous is to perfection
c. drive is to race c. process is to result
d. play is to frolic d. watchfulness is to sight
e. shine is to glisten e. reflective is to intelligence

12. Disseminate is to gather as 18. Cautious is to heedless as


a. puncture is to prod a. oblivious is to negligent
b. resist is to tempt b. wary is to trusting
c. distinct is to dissimilar c. alert is to cagey
d. rip is to mend d. shameful is to abhorrent
e. adjoined is to conjoined e. scorn is to react

13. Enjoy is to adore as 19. Surprised is to jump as


a. love is to desire a. relaxed is to seated
b. spend is to waste b. amused is to chuckle
c. burn is to sear c. stunned is to disturbed
d. care is to concern d. energy is to sprint
e. dislike is to loathe e. perplexed is to wonder

14. Gaggle is to goose as 20. Brace is to bolster as


a. leap is to kangaroo a. revert is to rectitude
b. stripe is to tiger b. covert is to manifest
c. barracuda is to fish c. accelerate is to hasten
d. mane is to lion d. fulcrum is to level
e. flock is to sheep e. halt is to increase

15. Science fiction is to novel as 21. Spider is to arachnid as


a. tale is to story a. lobster is to crustacean
b. horror is to frightening b. arthropod is to insect
c. country is to western c. ant is to cricket
d. rhythm and blues is to album d. octopus is to squid
e. style is to book e. porpoise is to fish

16. Carpenter is to constructive as 22. Psychology is to mind as


a. farmer is to crops a. think is to cerebral cortex
b. conservationist is to environment b. physiology is to science
c. employee is to duty c. methodology is to study
d. critic is to judgmental d. anatomy is to body
e. instructor is to lesson e. cognizant is to perceptive

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23. Cardiologist is to heart as 1. It costs $0.85 to make a single color copy at a


a. surgeon is to general practitioner copy center. At this price, how many copies can
b. neurologist is to brain be purchased with $68.00?
c. epidermis is to endocrine system a. 9
d. orthodontist is to braces b. 45
e. dermatologist is to podiatrist c. 68
d. 72
24. Bushel is to peas as e. 80
a. core is to apple
b. bunch is to bananas 2. An aquarium has a base length of 12 inches
c. skin is to grape and a width of 5 inches. If the aquarium is
d. juice is to orange 10 inches tall, what is the total volume?
e. stem is to carrot a. 480 cubic inches
b. 540 cubic inches
25. Apathy is to disinterest as c. 600 cubic inches
a. tenacity is to resolve d. 720 cubic inches
b. insincerity is to candor e. 920 cubic inches
c. sobriety is to indulgence
d. affection is to relationship 3. A man turns a womans handbag in to the Lost
e. believability is to reality and Found Department of a large downtown
store. The man informs the clerk in charge that
Subtest 2: Arithmetic Reasoning he found the handbag on the floor beside an
Directions: The Arithmetic Reasoning subtest mea- entranceway. The clerk estimates that the
sures mathematical reasoning and problem solving. handbag is worth approximately $150. Inside,
Each problem is followed by five possible answers. the clerk finds the following items: one leather
Decide which one of the five answers is most nearly makeup case valued at $65, one vial of
correct. A method for attacking each of these ques- perfume, unopened, valued at $75, one pair of
tions is given in the answer block at the end of this earrings valued at $150, and $178 in cash.
chapter. You have twenty-nine (29) minutes to com-
The clerk is writing a report to be submitted
plete this subtest.
along with the found property. What should he
write as the total value of the found cash and
Questions: 25
property?
Time: 29 minutes
a. $468
For sample Arithmetic Reasoning questions, see page b. $608
196. c. $618
d. $658
e. $718

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Use the following information to answer questions 6. Using the passage, how can you find the
4 through 6. difference in price between a movie theater
ticket for an adult and a movie theater ticket
The cost of movie theater tickets is $7.50 for for a child under the age of 12 if the tickets are
adults and $5 for children ages 12 and under. for a show at 3:00 P.M. on a Saturday afternoon?
On Saturday and Sunday afternoons until a. Subtract $3 from $5.50.
4:00 P.M., there is a matinee price: $5.50 for b. Subtract $5 from $7.50.
adults and $3 for children ages 12 and under. c. Subtract $7.50 from $5.50.
Special group discounts are available for d. Add $5.50 and $3 and divide by 2.
groups of 30 or more people. e. Add $7.50 and $5.50 and divide by 2.

4. Which of these can be determined from the 7. It takes a typist 0.50 seconds to type one word.
information given in the above passage? At this rate, how many words can be typed in
a. how much it will cost a family of four to 60 seconds?
buy movie theater tickets on Saturday a. 2.25
afternoon b. 50
b. the difference between the cost of two c. 90
movie theater tickets on Tuesday night and d. 120
the cost of one ticket on Sunday at 3:00 P.M. e. 220
c. how much movie theater tickets will cost
each person if he or she is part of a group 8. If the average cadet burns 8.2 calories per
of 40 people minute while riding a bicycle, how many
d. the difference between the cost of a movie calories will the cadet burn if he or she rides
theater ticket for an adult on Friday night for 35 minutes?
and a movie theater ticket for a 13-year-old a. 286
on Saturday afternoon at 1:00 P.M. b. 287
e. none of the above c. 387
d. 980
5. Based on the passage, how much will movie e. 1,080
theater tickets cost for two adults, one 15-year-
old child, and one 10-year-old child at 7:00 P.M. 9. Dr. Drake charges $36 for an office visit, which
on a Sunday night? is 34 of what Dr. Jean charges. How much does
a. $17.00 Dr. Jean charge?
b. $19.50 a. $27
c. $25.00 b. $38
d. $27.50 c. $48
e. $37.50 d. $57
e. $68

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10. Thirty percent of the cadets at the Air Force 13. Out of every 200 shoppers polled, 60 said they
Academy are involved in athletics. If 15% of buy fresh vegetables every week. How many
the athletes play lacrosse, what percentage of shoppers out of 40,000 could be expected to
the whole academy plays lacrosse? buy fresh vegetables every week?
a. 4.5% a. 3,600
b. 9.0% b. 9,000
c. 15% c. 12,000
d. 30% d. 24,000
e. 40% e. 36,000

Use the following information to answer questions Use the following pie chart to answer questions 14
11 and 12. and 15.

Basic cable television service, which includes


16 channels, costs $15 a month. The initial
labor fee to install the service is $25. A $65
deposit is required but will be refunded within
Country
two years if the customers bills are paid in full. 27.5%
Other cable services may be added to the basic
Rock
service: the movie channel service is $9.40 a 45.5%
month; the news channels are $7.50 a month; 4.5%
the arts channels are $5 a month; the sports Classical
channels are $4.80 a month. Rap
15% Jazz
7.5%
11. A customers cable television bill totaled $20 a
month. Using the preceding passage, what
portion of the bill was for basic cable service?
Songs Downloaded
a. 25%
b. 33%
14. If 400 total songs were downloaded, how many
c. 50%
downloads were country music?
d. 75%
a. 11
e. 85%
b. 28
c. 55
12. A customers first bill after having cable
d. 110
television installed totaled $112.50. This
e. 270
customer chose basic cable and one additional
cable service. Which additional service was
chosen?
a. the news channels
b. the movie channels
c. the arts channels
d. the sports channels
e. none of the above
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15. Based on the pie chart, which types of music 19. A piece of wire 3 feet 4 inches long was divided
represent exactly half of the songs downloaded? into 5 equal parts. How long was each part?
a. rock and jazz a. 6 inches
b. classical and rock b. 7.5 inches
c. rap, classical, and country c. 8 inches
d. jazz, classical, and rap d. 10 inches
e. jazz and rap e. 1 foot 2 inches

16. Last year, 220 people bought cars from a 20. A middle school cafeteria has three different
certain dealer. Of those, 60 percent reported options for lunch. For $2, a student can get
that they were completely satisfied with their either a sandwich or two cookies. For $3, a
new cars. How many people reported being student can get a sandwich and one cookie. For
unsatisfied with their new car? $4, a student can get either two sandwiches or a
a. 36 sandwich and two cookies. If Jimae has $6 to
b. 55 pay for lunch for her and her brother, which of
c. 88 the following is NOT a possible combination?
d. 132 a. three sandwiches and one cookie
e. 155 b. two sandwiches and two cookies
c. one sandwich and four cookies
17. Of 1,125 OTS candidates, 135 speak fluent d. three sandwiches and no cookies
Spanish. What percentage of the candidates e. three sandwiches and two cookies
speaks fluent Spanish?
a. 7.3% 21. A bed is 4 feet wide and 6 feet long. What is the
b. 8.3% area of the bed?
c. 12% a. 10 square feet
d. 14% b. 20 square feet
e. 16% c. 24 square feet
d. 30 square feet
18. The perimeter of a rectangle is 268 feet. Its two e. 36 square feet
longest sides add up to 156 feet. What is the
length of each of its two shortest sides? 22. Airman Beards temperature is 98 degrees
a. 43 feet Fahrenheit. Using the formula C = 59(F 32),
b. 56 feet what is his temperature in degrees Celsius?
c. 72 feet a. 35.8
d. 80 feet b. 36.7
e. 112 feet c. 37.6
d. 41.1
e. 59.6

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23. All of the rooms on the main floor of a For sample Word Knowledge questions, see page 200.
barracks are rectangular, with 8-foot high
ceilings. Captain Keiras office is 9 feet wide by 1. Preside
11 feet long. What is the combined surface area a. challenge
of the four walls of her office, including any b. alter
windows and doors? c. confuse
a. 99 square feet d. preview
b. 160 square feet e. lead
c. 320 square feet
d. 792 square feet 2. Liability
e. 640 square feet a. burden
b. support
24. A recipe serves four people and calls for 112 c. effort
cups of broth. If you want to serve six people, d. ability
how much broth do you need? e. link
a. 2 cups
b. 214 cups 3. Diligent
c. 213 cups a. angry
d. 212 cups b. hardworking
e. 234 cups c. hearty
d. surprised
25. Fort Greenville is 120 miles west and 90 miles e. dainty
north of Fort Johnson. How long is a direct
straight line route from Fort Greenville to 4. Agility
Fort Johnson City? a. leadership
a. 100 miles b. difficulty
b. 125 miles c. slim
c. 150 miles d. fierce
d. 180 miles e. quickness
e. 195 miles
5. Elicit
Subtest 3: Word Knowledge a. impair
Directions: The Word Knowledge subtest measures b. extract
your vocabulary comprehension. For each question c. illegal
you are to choose the answer that most closely means d. sketch
the same as the italicized word. If you are somewhat e. crave
familiar with the italicized word, you can quickly
eliminate the options that you know are incorrect. 6. Proclamation
You have five (5) minutes to complete this subtest. a. performance
b. study
Questions: 25 c. contract
Time: 5 minutes d. announcement
e. fad
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7. Pragmatic 13. Refute


a. forward a. agree
b. tremendous b. contest
c. sensible c. respond
d. clumsy d. fuse
e. fearless e. shock

8. Quandary 14. Vulnerable


a. question a. creative
b. stone b. old
c. problem c. upset
d. jumble d. weak
e. discovery e. feisty

9. Opulent 15. Systematic


a. wealthy a. orderly
b. overweight b. institution
c. sickly c. mechanism
d. inexpensive d. computerized
e. fair e. symbolically

10. Eloquent 16. Sagacity


a. elegant a. wisdom
b. beautiful b. age
c. well spoken c. size
d. tidy d. darkness
e. sharp e. humor

11. Fidelity 17. Motley


a. falsity a. ugly
b. love b. tough
c. clarity c. multicolor
d. loudness d. dangerous
e. loyalty e. inspire

12. Limpid 18. Jaunt


a. bright a. joke
b. long b. trip
c. true c. bend
d. slight d. exercise
e. strange e. story

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19. Myriad 25. Gusto


a. watery a. hunger
b. strong b. clarity
c. ethical c. pride
d. absurd d. enthusiasm
e. many e. sleepiness

20. Unison Subtest 4: Math Knowledge


a. single Directions: The Math Knowledge subtest measures
b. under your ability to use learned mathematical relationships.
c. mystery Each problem is followed by five possible answers. You
d. harmony must decide which one of the five answers is correct.
e. truth The best method for attacking each of these questions
is given in the answer block at the end of this chapter.
21. Valor When you take the actual test, scratch paper will be
a. smoothness provided for working out the problems. You have
b. swiftness twenty-two (22) minutes to finish this subtest.
c. popularity
d. smarts Questions: 25
e. courage Time: 22 minutes

22. Blatant For sample Math Knowledge questions, see page 201.
a. secretive
b. terrible P R
c. obvious
d. humble O
e. dignified
S Q
23. Construe
a. interpret 1. In this figure, angle POS measures 90. What is
b. make the measure of angle ROQ?
c. deceive a. 45
d. suspect b. 90
e. order c. 180
d. 270
24. Heinous e. 360
a. delightful
b. monstrous 2. 415 + 125 + 310
3

c. hairy 9
a. 8 10
d. tiny 1
b. 9 10
e. depressing 4
c. 8 5
6
d. 8 15
5
e. 9 10
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3
3. 4 is equal to
a. 0.25 -5 0
b. 0.30
8. What are the missing integers on this number
c. 0.34
line?
d. 0.50
a. 4 and 1
e. 0.75
b. 6 and 1
c. 6 and 1
4. 7612 + 1156 =
d. 4 and 9
a. 8712
e. 5 and 8
b. 8813
c. 8823
9. 112 is equal to
d. 8856
a. 0.50
e. 89
b. 1.25
c. 2.50
5. What is the decimal equivalent of 16 rounded to
d. 1.50
the nearest thousandth?
e. .150
a. 0.165
b. 0.666 x
10. If 54 = 29 , then x is
c. 0.123
a. 12
d. 0.167
b. 14
e. 0.176
c. 18
1 d. 108
6. 6 + 127 + 23 =
e. 118
a. 10
24
b. 216
11. Which of the following is divisible by both 7
c. 156
5 and by 8?
d. 112
5 a. 63
e. 2 6
b. 106
c. 114
7. Which of the following is equivalent to
d. 112
202,436?
e. 78
a. 20,000 + 2,000 + 400 + 30 + 6
b. 2,000 + 40 + 300 + 6
12. What is 38 equal to?
c. 200,000 + 2,000 + 400 + 30 + 6
a. 0.25
d. 200,000 + 2,000 + 4,000 + 300 + 6
b. 0.333
e. 200,000 + 12,000 + 4,000 + 300 + 6
c. 0.60
d. 0.375
e. 3.80

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13. What is another way to write 4 4 4? 18. How many inches are there in 331 yards?
a. 3 4 a. 126
b. 8 4 b. 120
c. 43 c. 160
d. 34 d. 168
e. 83 e. 313

14. Which of the following choices completes this 19. 35 =


number sentence? 5_____ = (10 2) + (5 3) a. 0.60
a. (5 + 2) b. 0.20
b. + (5 + 2) c. 0.50
c. (5 2) d. 0.80
d. + (5 2) e. 0.90
e. + (5 3)
20. 0.97 is equal to
15. Which of these is equivalent to 20C? a. 97%
(F = 59 C + 32) b. 9.7%
a. 68F c. 0.97%
b. 95F d. 0.097%
c. 45F e. 0.0097%
d. 19F
e. 70F 21. In a triangle, angle A is 70 degrees and angle B
is 30 degrees. What is the measure of angle C?
16. What is the volume of a pyramid that has a a. 90 degrees
rectangular base 5 feet by 3 feet and a height of b. 70 degrees
8 feet? (V = 31 lwh) c. 80 degrees
a. 16 feet3 d. 100 degrees
b. 30 feet3 e. 120 degrees
c. 40 feet3
d. 120 feet3 22. Which value of x will make the number
e. 220 feet3 sentence x + 32 14 true?
a. 16
17. What is another way to write 7.25 103? b. 21
a. 72.5 c. 12
b. 725 d. 38
c. 7,250 e. none of the above
d. 72,500
e. 720,500

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23. What is the length of a rectangle if its width is


6 feet and its area is 108 square feet?
a. 1.8 feet
b. 10.5 feet
c. 18 feet
d. 16 feet
e. 68 feet
ARTIFICIAL ARTIFICIAL ARTIFICIAL
HORIZON HORIZON HORIZON
Dial 1 Dial 2 Dial 3
24. 37.5 percent is equal to
a. 83 If the aircraft is climbing, the fuselage silhouette
b. 85 is seen between the horizon line and the pointer. The
c. 434 greater the amount of climb, the greater the distance
d. 634 between the horizon line and the fuselage silhouette.
e. 375 If the aircraft is banked to the pilots right, the pointer
will point to the left of zero (Dial 2).
25. 0.15 is equal to If the aircraft is diving, the horizon line is be-
a. 25 tween the fuselage silhouette and the pointer. The
3
b. 20 greater the amount of dive, the greater the distance
2
c. 10 between the horizon line and the fuselage silhouette.
1
d. 20 If the aircraft is banked to the pilots left, the pointer
e. 1.5
20 will point to the right of zero (Dial 3).
The horizon line tilts as the aircraft is banked. It
Subtest 5: Instrument is always at a right angle to the pointer.
Comprehension In each test item, the right-hand dial is the com-
Directions: The Instrument Comprehension subtest pass. This dial shows the direction in which the air-
measures your ability to determine the position of an craft is headed. Dial 4 shows north, Dial 5 is west, and
aircraft in flight by reading instruments showing its Dial 6 is northwest.
compass heading, its amount of climb or dive, and
its degree of bank to right or left. In each test item, N N N

the left-hand dial is labeled artificial horizon. The


small aircraft silhouette remains stationary in the
W W W
center of this dial, while the positions of the heavy
black line and the black pointer vary with the changes
in the position of the aircraft in which the instru- S S S
COMPASS COMPASS COMPASS
ment is located. Dial 4 Dial 5 Dial 6
The heavy black line represents the horizon line
and the black pointer shows the degree of bank to Each item in this test consists of two dials and
right or left. If the aircraft is neither climbing nor div- four silhouettes of aircraft in flight. Your task is to de-
ing, the horizon line is directly on the silhouettes termine which of the four aircraft is closest to the po-
fuselage. If the aircraft has no bank, the black pointer sition indicated by the two dials. Remember, you are
will point to zero (Dial 1). always looking north at the same altitude as each
plane. East is always to the right as you look at the

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page. (Note: B in Question 2 is the rear view of the 4.


N
aircraft, and B in Question 4 is the front view.) You
have nine (9) minutes to complete this subtest. W E

S
Questions: 20 ARTIFICIAL
HORIZON
COMPASS

Time: 9 minutes

For sample Instrument Comprehension questions, A B C D

see page 205.


5.
N
1.
N

W E

W E

S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON
S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

A B C D

6.
N
2.
N

W E

W E
S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON
S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

A B C D

7.
N
3.
N

W E

W E
S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON
S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON

A B C D

A B C D

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8. 12.
N N

W E W E

S S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON HORIZON

A B C D A B C D

9. 13.
N N

W E W E

S S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON HORIZON

A B C D A B C D

10. 14.
N N

W E W E

S S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON HORIZON

A B C D A B C D

11. 15.
N N

W E W E

S S
ARTIFICIAL COMPASS ARTIFICIAL COMPASS
HORIZON HORIZON

A B C D A B C D

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16. 20.

17. Subtest 6: Block Counting


Directions: The Block Counting subtest measures
your ability to see into a three-dimensional stack of
blocks to determine how many pieces are touched by
the numbered blocks. It is also a test of your abilities
to observe and deduce what you cannot specifically
see. Closely study the way in which the blocks are
stacked. You may find it helpful to remember that all
of the blocks in a pile are the same size and shape.
Each stack of blocks is followed by five questions per-
taining only to that stack. You have three (3) minutes
18.
to complete this subtest.

Questions: 20
Time: 3 minutes

For sample Block Counting questions, see page 210.

19.

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Use the following figure to answer questions 1 5. Block 5 is touched by ______ other blocks.
through 5. a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
1 e. 6

Use the following figure to answer questions 6


4
through 10.
2
5
3

1
1. Block 1 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 1 5
b. 2 2
c. 3 4
d. 4
3
e. 5

2. Block 2 is touched by ______ other blocks.


6. Block 1 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 2
a. 3
b. 3
b. 4
c. 4
c. 5
d. 5
d. 6
e. 6
e. 7

3. Block 3 is touched by ______ other blocks.


7. Block 2 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 2
a. 1
b. 3
b. 2
c. 4
c. 3
d. 5
d. 4
e. 6
e. 5

4. Block 4 is touched by ______ other blocks.


8. Block 3 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 1
a. 1
b. 2
b. 2
c. 3
c. 3
d. 4
d. 4
e. 5
e. 5

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9. Block 4 is touched by ______ other blocks. 13. Block 3 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 3 a. 4
b. 4 b. 5
c. 5 c. 6
d. 6 d. 7
e. 7 e. 8

10. Block 5 is touched by ______ other blocks. 14. Block 4 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 4 a. 2
b. 5 b. 3
c. 6 c. 4
d. 7 d. 5
e. 8 e. 6

Use the following figure to answer questions 11 15. Block 5 is touched by ______ other blocks.
through 15. a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
5
d. 5
e. 6

Use the following figure to answer questions 16


1
through 20.
2
3
4

2
11. Block 1 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 4
b. 5 1 3
4
c. 6
d. 7 5
e. 8

12. Block 2 is touched by ______ other blocks. 16. Block 1 is touched by ______ other blocks.
a. 1 a. 2
b. 2 b. 3
c. 3 c. 4
d. 4 d. 5
e. 5 e. 6

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17. Block 2 is touched by ______ other blocks. Questions: 40


a. 2 Time: 7 minutes
b. 3
c. 4 For sample Table Reading questions, see page 212.
d. 5
e. 6 Use the following table to determine the correct
value for the X and Y values given in questions 1
18. Block 3 is touched by ______ other blocks. through 5.
a. 3
b. 4 X VALUE
c. 5
3 2 1 0 1 2 3
d. 6
e. 7 Y 3 76 47 65 88 93 20 22
Y
2 57 43 74 77 37 57 46
19. Block 4 is touched by ______ other blocks. V
V
a. 3 A 1 43 85 94 22 13 11 35
LA
b. 4 UL 0 48 30 68 67 48 58 56
c. 5 E
U
d. 6 1 98 42 76 84 10 84 57
E
e. 7
2 76 35 10 62 93 37 43

20. Block 5 is touched by ______ other blocks. 3 56 86 40 41 95 99 68


a. 2
b. 3 1. 3,0
c. 4 a. 85
d. 5 b. 48
e. 6 c. 76
d. 40
Subtest 7: Table Reading e. 56
Directions: The Table Reading subtest measures your
ability to read tables quickly and accurately. Notice 2. 1,1
that the X values in each table are shown horizontally a. 42
across the top of the table and the Y values are shown b. 99
vertically along the left edge of the table. In this test, c. 35
you are to find the entry that occurs at the intersec- d. 88
tion of the row and the column corresponding to the e. 76
values given. On your answer sheet, fill in the letter
that corresponds with the number at the intersection 3. 2,0
of the X and Y values. You have seven (7) minutes to a. 58
complete this subtest. b. 35
c. 20
d. 37
e. 10
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4. 1,2 7. 2,1
a. 10 a. 27
b. 62 b. 74
c. 37 c. 64
d. 93 d. 18
e. 95 e. 13

5. 2,2 8. 1,1
a. 98 a. 48
b. 42 b. 49
c. 35 c. 20
d. 86 d. 29
e. 40 e. 68

Use the following table to determine the correct 9. 0,3


value for the X and Y values given in questions 6 a. 58
through 10. b. 47
c. 69
X VALUE d. 13
e. 60
3 2 1 0 1 2 3

Y 3 23 34 35 36 49 74 58 10. 2, 0
Y a. 36
2 91 45 47 24 20 34 43
b. 67
VV
A 1 82 36 56 35 29 55 23 c. 39
LA d. 54
UL 0 73 27 65 36 39 67 54
E e. 48
U
1 74 18 64 47 48 88 65
E
2 65 20 52 58 50 79 74

3 12 39 13 69 68 60 37

6. 3,0
a. 82
b. 73
c. 74
d. 27
e. 36

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Use the following table to determine the correct 14. 0,0


value for the X and Y values given in questions 11 a. 88
through 15. b. 99
c. 77
X VALUE d. 66
e. 55
3 2 1 0 1 2 3

Y 3 43 35 19 21 24 90 83 15. 0,3
Y a. 50
2 46 46 59 10 35 98 49
V
b. 87
V
A 1 57 54 48 99 43 78 30 c. 76
LA
U
d. 55
L 0 68 76 37 88 45 67 36
E e. 74
U
1 79 58 24 77 65 87 38
E
Use the following table to determine the correct
2 10 49 11 66 67 56 48
value for the X and Y values given in questions 16
3 34 22 50 55 87 76 74 through 20.

11. 1,2 X VALUE


a. 37
b. 24 3 2 1 0 1 2 3

c. 87 Y 3 84 21 22 79 24 70 99
d. 50 Y
2 58 25 34 86 35 60 87
e. 11
VV
A 1 95 34 35 58 46 56 67
12. 3,1 LA
UL 0 60 64 36 46 57 77 57
a. 83 E
U
b. 49 1 70 56 47 58 54 43 46
E
c. 30
2 74 45 54 69 32 55 43
d. 57
e. 50 3 83 37 38 70 12 78 22

13. 2,3 16. 1,3


a. 22 a. 12
b. 10 b. 78
c. 29 c. 32
d. 11 d. 24
e. 49 e. 70

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17. 2,3 X VALUE


a. 32
b. 78 3 2 1 0 1 2 3

c. 22 Y 3 38 33 87 34 13 54 54
d. 77 Y
2 94 21 68 35 14 75 36
e. 56
VV
A 1 58 31 69 64 25 86 47
18. 2,2 LA
UL 0 66 41 80 58 36 93 85
a. 55 E
U
b. 60 1 77 54 88 61 47 20 77
E
c. 45
2 58 36 65 91 58 41 65
d. 25
e. 38 3 45 47 43 92 66 55 45

19. 1,0 21. 0,2


a. 79 a. 93
b. 95 b. 91
c. 57 c. 61
d. 87 d. 92
e. 36 e. 66

20. 0,2 22. 1,1


a. 25 a. 47
b. 69 b. 69
c. 77 c. 33
d. 86 d. 77
e. 54 e. 58

Use the following table to determine the correct 23. 1,1


value for the X and Y values given in questions 21 a. 36
through 25. b. 65
c. 54
d. 68
e. 69

24. 3,2
a. 54
b. 55
c. 20
d. 47
e. 65

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25. 3,3 28. 2,0


a. 45 a. 17
b. 54 b. 80
c. 36 c. 94
d. 38 d. 58
e. 93 e. 75

Use the following table to determine the correct 29. 3,0


value for the X and Y values given in questions 26 a. 46
through 30. b. 85
c. 35
X VALUE d. 32
e. 75
3 2 1 0 1 2 3

Y 3 92 57 37 83 33 48 50 30. 3,1
Y a. 39
2 84 65 55 94 20 59 33
b. 37
VV
A 1 84 68 68 85 82 60 42 c. 46
LA d. 29
UL 0 10 69 77 86 92 17 35
E e. 69
U
1 29 40 99 62 74 63 46
E
Use the following table to determine the correct
2 39 42 80 73 85 48 47
value for the X and Y values given in questions 31
3 44 36 75 32 55 94 58 through 35.

26. 3,3 X VALUE


a. 58
b. 50 3 2 1 0 1 2 3

c. 92 Y 3 66 24 97 11 12 91 21
d. 84 Y
2 77 43 67 22 31 82 23
e. 44 V
V
A 1 88 44 68 33 23 73 34
LA
27. 0,1 UL 0 99 56 56 55 41 64 53
a. 86 E
U
b. 62 1 10 67 47 65 62 55 64
E
c. 77
2 12 69 33 76 63 45 75
d. 92
e. 74 3 13 87 42 89 47 36 83

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31. 2,2 Use the following table to determine the correct


a. 82 value for the X and Y values given in questions 36
b. 45 through 40.
c. 12
d. 43 X VALUE
e. 24
3 2 1 0 1 2 3

32. 2,3 Y 3 44 13 83 35 45 99 33
a. 91
2 65 24 25 46 65 89 44
b. 36
V
c. 87 1 76 32 47 57 43 70 56
A
d. 24
L 0 83 53 65 68 27 67 57
e. 69
U
1 46 28 43 97 56 60 69
E
33. 0,3
2 57 91 78 66 33 61 80
a. 22
b. 67 3 45 28 97 54 43 23 43
c. 76
d. 65 36. 3,0
e. 11 a. 13
b. 35
34. 1,3 c. 83
a. 12 d. 25
b. 47 e. 24
c. 97
d. 13 37. 0,2
e. 21 a. 67
b. 66
35. 1,1 c. 53
a. 55 d. 91
b. 52 e. 78
c. 33
d. 99
e. 23

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38. 2,1 For sample Aviation Information questions, see page


a. 70 212.
b. 32
c. 60 1. An example of a high lift device would be
d. 28 a. flaps.
e. 53 b. slats.
c. leading edge extensions.
39. 0,1 d. all the above.
a. 57 e. none of the above.
b. 46
c. 27 2. Aircraft performance increases in cold weather
d. 66 because
e. 43 a. cold air improves fuel flow.
b. cold air is more dense.
40. 1,3 c. cold air is less dense.
a. 43 d. the engine exhaust is hotter than the
b. 69 surrounding air.
c. 56 e. none of the above.
d. 76
e. 46 3. If you wanted to roll the aircraft about its
longitudinal axis, what flight control move-
Subtest 8: Aviation Information ment would accomplish this?
Directions: The Aviation Information subtest a. aft stick movement
measures your knowledge of aviation. This subtest is b. trim tabs
common to all three service selection tests, although c. aileron deflection
the number of questions varies from one service to d. vertical stabilizer movement
another. Each of the questions or incomplete state- e. forward stick movement
ments is followed by five choices. You must decide
which one of the choices best completes the state- 4. The standard altimeter setting used in Class A
ment or answers the question. Eliminating any obvi- airspace would be
ously incorrect choices first will increase your a. obtained from the nearest airfield.
chances of selecting the correct answer. You have b. 30.00 in Hg.
eight (8) minutes to complete this subtest. c. 29.92 in Hg.
d. calculated from an air computer.
Questions: 20 e. none of the above.
Time: 8 minutes

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5. During the execution of an aerobatic loop, 10. The very thin layer of air flowing over the
what sort of energy will an aircraft have at the surface of an aircraft wing, an airfoil, or over
top of a loop? the entire fuselage is called
a. kinetic a. free-stream velocity air.
b. potential b. the boundary layer.
c. forced c. the slipstream.
d. assumed d. wake turbulence.
e. none of the above e. wing drop.

6. Airfield runways are numbered in accordance 11. If your cockpit turn and bank indicator shows
with a perfectly centered ball,
a. their compass headings. a. the aircraft is in aerodynamically balanced
b. FAA directives. flight.
c. airfield altitude. b. the aircraft weight and balance criteria have
d. average relative wind. been met.
e. runway length. c. the aircraft thrust-to-weight ratio is equal.
d. the aircraft is pointed directly ahead.
7. In which of the following takeoff or landing e. none of the above.
situations would you be most concerned about
aircraft performance? 12. What effect do wing spoilers have when they
a. low altitude airport on a hot day are employed?
b. low altitude airport on a cold day a. true air speed is increased
c. high altitude airport on a hot day b. they aid in the production of lift by
d. high altitude airport on a cold day increasing effective wing area
e. low altitude airport located next to water c. they disrupt the boundary layer airflow,
increasing lift and reducing drag
8. Lights that outline an airport taxiway are d. they disrupt the boundary layer airflow,
_______ in color. reducing lift and increasing drag
a. red e. they augment boundary layer air to increase
b. blue lift
c. green
d. white 13. The aircraft instrument that transmits signals
e. alternating red and white that identify various aircraft parameters to air
traffic control and flight monitoring organiza-
9. Extending wing flaps produces an increase in tions is the
both lift and a. altimeter.
a. thrust. b. attitude indicator.
b. angle of attack. c. transponder.
c. pressure. d. tachometer.
d. drag. e. UHF radio.
e. energy.

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14. How would taking off into a headwind affect 19. The two main types of drag an aircraft
your aircraft? experiences in flight are
a. Your takeoff distance would be unchanged. a. parasite and induced.
b. Your takeoff distance would be longer with b. controlled and unlimited.
little to no increase in climb angle. c. supersonic and transonic.
c. Your takeoff distance would be shorter with d. kinetic and potential.
an increased climb angle. e. uncontrolled and limited.
d. Your takeoff distance would be shorter and
your available engine power would be 20. Bernoullis Principle states that
unchanged. a. a body that is at rest will stay at rest unless
e. None of the above. acted upon by an outside force.
b. when there is an increase in pressure, there
15. The acronym VSI stands for must be a decrease in temperature.
a. variable situational index. c. when there is an increase in velocity there
b. velocity and speed instrument. must be a decrease in pressure.
c. vertical speed indicator. d. force times mass equals acceleration.
d. vertical stability index. e. air will circulate counterclockwise in the
e. variable speed instrument. northern hemisphere.

16. The VSI instrument indicates Subtest 9: General Science


a. rate of climb. Directions: The General Science subtest measures
b. rate of descent. your knowledge in the area of science. Each of the
c. level flight. questions or incomplete statements is followed by
d. all of the above. five choices. You must decide which one of the choices
e. none of the above. best answers the question or completes the statement.
Again, if you are unsure of an answer, use the process
17. If one end of a runway is numbered 33, what of elimination. Remember, there are no penalties for
would the other end be numbered? guessing. You have ten (10) minutes to complete this
a. 15 subtest.
b. 33
c. 24 Questions: 20
d. 66 Time: 10 minutes
e. There is not enough information provided.
For sample General Science questions, see page 215.
18. Ground speed can be affected by which of the
following? 1. An elements location on the periodic table is
a. pressure determined by its number of
b. altitude a. electrons.
c. wind b. neutrons.
d. heat c. protons.
e. rain d. nuclei.
e. radons.

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2. What are atoms of the same element that have 7. Which of the following represents a chemical
different numbers of neutrons called? change?
a. alloys a. tearing a piece of paper
b. isotopes b. melting an ice cube
c. alkali metals c. cooking a hamburger
d. ions d. dissolving sugar in water
e. neurons e. the wind blowing

3. Marine biology is most closely associated with 8. Carbohydrates are much better foods for quick
which field of science? energy than fats because they
a. geography a. are digested more easily and absorbed more
b. botany quickly.
c. oceanography b. supply essential amino acids, which provide
d. geology energy.
e. seismology c. are high in both protein and iron.
d. carry oxygen to the blood.
4. Which of the following symbols represents a e. all of the above.
molecule of carbon dioxide?
a. C 9. Which of the following atmospheric levels is
b. O closest to the Earths surface?
c. CO a. mesosphere
d. CO2 b. stratosphere
e. C2O c. thermosphere
d. troposphere
5. The driver of a car you are riding in loses e. necrosphere
control in a snowstorm. The car spins 360
degrees and you are thrown against the car 10. All of the following are characteristics of
door. Which of the following is the best reptiles except
description of what you are experiencing? a. cold blood.
a. fundamental forces b. lungs.
b. center of mass c. land-dwelling adults.
c. centrifugal force d. scaly skin.
d. Coriolis effect e. internal development of eggs.
e. center of gravity
11. Which of the following is a vertebrate?
6. If particles of food coloring are dropped into a a. a sponge
glass of hot water, they will spread rapidly. This b. a starfish
is an example of c. an octopus
a. osmosis. d. a snake
b. respiration e. an oyster
c. evaporation.
d. active transport.
e. diffusion.
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12. The process by which an organism adapts 17. Absolute zero is equal to which of the
physiologically to the rigors of a new following?
environment is known as a. 0 Fahrenheit
a. natural selection. b. 30 Fahrenheit
b. acclimatization. c. 30 Kelvin
c. evolution. d. 30 Kelvin
d. mutation. e. 273 Celsius
e. gestation.
18. Our solar system is made up of the Sun and
13. Which of the following is the best description how many planets?
of what an omnivore eats? a. eight
a. animal matter only b. nine
b. vegetable matter only c. ten
c. detritus only d. eleven
d. decomposing matter only e. twelve
e. both animal and vegetable matter
19. A cell containing chloroplasts would most
14. Which of the following has the shortest likely belong to which organism?
wavelength? a. rabbit
a. ultraviolet b. fern
b. x-rays c. roach
c. microwave d. lizard
d. infrared e. shark
e. visible
20. In animal cells, what organelle contains the
15. The fundamental force that is the natural force DNA?
of attraction acting between objects with mass a. nucleus
is which of the following? b. cytoplasm
a. electromagnetism c. Golgi apparatus
b. strong nuclear force d. ribosomes
c. weak nuclear force e. endoplasmic reticulum
d. gravity
e. radiomagnetism

16. Where is most of the mass of our solar system?


a. Sun
b. Earth
c. Venus
d. Jupiter
e. Mercury

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Subtest 10: Rotated Blocks


Directions: The Rotated Blocks subtest measures your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. For
each question in this test, you will be shown a picture of a block. You must find a second block that is identical
to the first. You have thirteen (13) minutes to complete this subtest.

Questions: 15
Time: 13 minutes

For sample Rotated Block questions, see page 202.

1. a. b. c. d. e.

2. a. b. c. d. e.

3. a. b. c. d. e.

4. a. b. c. d. e.

5. a. b. c. d. e.

6. a. b. c. d. e.

7. a. b. c. d. e.

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DIAGNOSTIC TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST

8. a. b. c. d. e.

9. a. b. c. d. e.

10. a. b. c. d. e.

11. a. b. c. d. e.

12. a. b. c. d. e.

13. a. b. c. d. e.

14. a. b. c. d. e.

15. a. b. c. d. e.

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DIAGNOSTIC TEST FOR THE AIR FORCE OFFICER QUALIFYING TEST

Subtest 11: Hidden Figures 2. The hidden figure in block 2 is ______.


Directions: The Hidden Figures subtest measures a. A
your ability to see a simple figure in a complex draw- b. B
ing. Above each group of questions are five figures, c. C
lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below this set of figures are d. D
several numbered drawings. You are to determine e. E
which lettered figure is contained in each of the
numbered drawings. Each numbered drawing con- 3. The hidden figure in block 3 is ______.
tains only one of the lettered figures. The correct fig- a. A
ure in each drawing will always be of the same size b. B
and in the same position as it appears in the top set c. C
of figures. Look at each numbered drawing and de- d. D
cide which one of the five lettered figures is con- e. E
tained in it. You have eight (8) minutes to complete
4. The hidden figure in block 4 is ______.
this subtest.
a. A
b. B
Questions: 15
c. C
Time: 8 minutes
d. D
e. E
For sample Hidden Figures questions, see page 217.
5. The hidden figure in block 5 is ______.
Use the following figure to answer questions 1 a. A
through 5. b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
A B C D E
Use the following figure to answer questions 6
through 10.

1 2 3 4 5

A B C D E

1. The hidden figure in block 1 is ______.


a. A
b. B
c. C
6 7 8 9 10
d. D
e. E 6. The hidden figure in block 6 is ______.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
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7. The hidden figure in block 7 is ______. 11. The hidden figure in block 11 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

8. The hidden figure in block 8 is ______. 12. The hidden figure in block 12 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

9. The hidden figure in block 9 is ______. 13. The hidden figure in block 13 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

10. The hidden figure in block 10 is ______. 14. The hidden figure in block 14 is ______.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E

Use the following figure to answer questions 11 15. The hidden figure in block 15 is ______.
through 15. a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
A B C D E e. E

11 12 13 14 15

88

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