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POWER AND INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING

INSTRUCTION: FAMILIARIZE THE FOLLOWING

This is a type of reaction turbine usually with typical spiral casing where
water enters the runner radially at its outer periphery and changes
direction (imparting energy to the runner) while flowing along the complex-
shaped profiles to discharge axially. It is the most widely used type of
hydraulic turbine for modern power generation purposes.
a. Pelton Turbine c. Turgo Turbine
b. Francis Turbine d. Kaplan Turbine

ANSWER: (B)Francis Turbine

It is an expanding tube connecting the outlet passage of a turbine with the


tail water.
a. Draft Tube c. Penstock
b. Forebay d. Surge Chamber

ANSWER: (A)Draft Tube

It is a hydroelectric plant in which excess water is pumped to an elevated


space during off-peak period and the stored water will be used to drive
hydraulic turbines during the peak period to meet the peak demand.
a. Run-of-River Plant c. Pumped Storage Plant
b. Storage Plant d. None of the above

ANSWER: (c) Pumped Storage Plant

It is a channel that conducts water away from the turbine.


a. Headrace Pipe c. Penstock
b. Forebay d. Tailrace

ANSWER: (D) Tailrace

This is a grid or screen composed of parallel bars to catch floating


debris. It prevents leaves, branches, and other water contaminants from
entering the penstock.
a. Surge tank c. Butterfly valve
b. Trash Rack d. Weir

ANSWER: (B) Trash Rack

It is the term used that refers to water in the reservoir.


a. Headwater c. Tailwater
b. Discharge d. Stored water

ANSWER: (A) Headwater

This is a propeller- type reaction turbine with both adjustable guide vanes
and runner blades.
a. Kaplan Turbine c. Turgo Turbine
b. Pelton Turbine d. Cross-flow

ANSWER: (A) Kaplan Turbine


It is basically hydroelectric power utilizing the difference in elevation
between high and low tide to produce energy.
a. Water power c. Fluid Power
b. Tidal Power d. Wave Power

ANSWER: (B) Tidal Power

The power output of this plant depends on the water flow in the river; at
low river flows the output decreases accordingly.
a. Pumped Storage Plant c. Storage Plant
b. Run-of-River Plant d. All of the above

ANSWER: (B) Run-of-River Plant

The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam.


a. Forebay c. Penstock
b. Draft tube d. Tailrace

ANSWER: (C) Penstock

A kind of fluid flow where in the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent
layers and the paths of individual particles do not cross or intersect.
a. Turbulent flow c. Critical flow
b. Laminar flow d. Steady flow

ANSWER: (B) Laminar Flow

It conducts the water around the turbine.


a. Spiral casing ` c. Wicket gate
b. Draft tube d. Governor

ANSWER: (A) Spiral Casing

These are movable vertical vanes that are actuated by the governor to
control the flow of water and therefore the energy supplied to the runner.
a. Spillway c. Headrace pipe
b. Runner d. Wicket gate

ANSWER: (D) Wicket gate

The speed of a hypothetical model turbine having the same configuration as


the actual turbine, when the model would be of the proper size to develop 1
hp at a head of 1 ft.
a. Synchronous speed c. Runaway speed
b. Specific speed d. Turbine speed

ANSWER: (B) Specific speed

The difference in elevation between the headwater and the tailwater or


tailrace.
a. Dynamic head c. Gross head
b. Net head d. Effective head

ANSWER: (C) Gross Head


The ratio of the effective head to the gross head.

a. Mechanical efficiency c. Hydraulic efficiency


b. Penstock efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency

ANSWER: (B) Penstock Efficiency

The ratio of the head utilized to the effective head.


a. Mechanical efficiency c. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Penstock efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency

ANSWER: (C) Hydraulic effenciency

Heads between 70 and 800 ft generally indicate this type of turbine.


a. Impulse turbine c. Reaction turbine
b. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine

ANSWER: (C) Reaction Turbine

Heads below about 70 ft call for this type of turbine.


a. Impulse turbine c. Reaction turbine
b. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine

ANSWER: (B) Propeller turbine

The functions of this hydraulic turbine part are: (1) It enables the
turbine to be set above the tailwater level without losing any head
thereby. and (2) It reduces the head loss at submerged discharge to
increase the net head available to the turbine runner.
a. Spiral casing c. Wicket gate
b. Draft tube d. Butterfly valve

ANSWER: (B) Draft Tube

It is a tank with free surface provided at the transition from the low-
pressure headrace or tunnel to the penstock. It protects the headrace pipe
or tunnel from excessive changes in pressure and supplying or storing water
as required.
a. Surge tank c. Butterfly valve
b. Draft tube d. Spillway

ANSWER: (A)Surge tank

The rotating part of the turbine where the water imparts its energy onto
the turbine shaft.
a. Runner c. Impeller
b. Flywheel d. Lobe

ANSWER: (A) Runner

The formation and collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when the pump inlet
suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the liquid is
called
a. Priming c. Foaming
b. Cavitation d. Net positive suction head

ANSWER: (B) Cavitation


A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of the oil and
will help determine how long oil will flow at a given temperature is known
as ________________.
a. Pour point c. Relative density
b. Flash Point d. Viscosity

ANSWER: (D) Viscosity

A flow at low Reynolds number with smooth steam lines and shear and
conduction effects owing entirely to the fluids molecular viscosity and
conductivity.
a. Turbulent c. Critical
b. Laminar d. Non-viscous

ANSWER: (B) Laminar

The fact that the buoyant force on a floating object is equal to the weight
of displaced liquid is known as
a. Bernoullis theorem c. Archimedes principle
b. Continuity equation d. Law of Conservation of mass

ANSWER: (C) Archimedes principle

The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to


a. add energy to the flow c. add mass to the flow
b. extract energy from the flow d. none of the above

ANSWER: (B) extract energy from the flow


It connects the turbine outlet to the tailwater so that the turbine can be
set above the tailwater level.
a. draft tube c surge chamber
b. penstock d. spillway

ANSWER: (A) draft tube

It provides an efficient and safe means of releasing flow water that


exceeds the design capacity of the dam.
a. draft tube c. surge chamber
b. penstock d. spillway

ANSWER: (d) spillway

The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given


head with no losses in the pump is called:
a. brake power c. indicated power
b. hydraulic power d. none of the above

ANSWER: (B)hydraulic Power

The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and maximum at the center because
of the
a. velocity effect c. viscous effect
b. temperature effect d. none of the above

ANSWER: (C) Viscous effect


The work termed for pumps, compressors, fans and blowers is negative since
work
a. done by the fluid c. done on the fluid
b. rejected by the fluid d. none of the above

ANSWER: (C) done ON the fluid (-)

This is a type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the
blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water the turbine will start
moving.
a. Steam turbine c. Reaction turbine
b. Francis turbine d. Pelton wheel turbine

ANSWER: (D) Pelton wheel turbine

A device used to prevent water hammer in turbine.


a. Governor c. guard
b. Surge tank d. wicket gate

ANSWER: (B) Surge Tank

This is a vent or hole in the earths surface usually in volcanic region,


from which steam, gaseous vapors, or hot gases issue.
a. Magma c. Fumarole
b. Geyser d. Fault

ANSWER: (C) Fumarole

The typical depth of a geothermal production well in meters.


a. 1000 c. 1500
b. 3000 d. 4000

ANSWER: (B) 3000

A wind energy system transforms the ______________________ of the wind into


mechanical or electrical energy that can be harnessed for practical use.
a. Potential Energy c. Internal Energy
b. Heat Energy d. Kinetic Energy

ANSWER: (D) Kinetic Energy

It is the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean waters.


a. Tide range c. Wave
b. Tide d. Water current

ANSWER: (B) Tide

The power available in the wind is proportional to the ________________ of


its speed.
a. Cube c. Square
b. Fourth Power d. All of the above

ANSWER: (A) Cube


It is the maximum tidal range.
a. Neap tides c. Spring tide
b. Ebb tide d. Tidal wave

ANSWER: (C) Spring Tide

Natural gas is considered _______________ when it is almost pure methane.


a. Dry c. Wet
b. Saturated d. Superheated

ANSWER: (A) Dry

In this type of reactor, the water is heated by the nuclear fuel and boils
to steam directly into the reactor vessel. It is then piped directly to the
turbine. The turbine spins, driving the electrical generator, producing
electricity.
a. Heavy Water Reactor c. Boiling Water Reactor
b. Pressurized Water Reactor d. All of the above

ANSWER: (C) Boiling Water Reactor

It is an air pollution control device that works by electrically charging


the particles of fly ash in the flue gas and collecting them by attraction
to charged metal plates.
a. Wet scrubber c. Electrostatic Precipitator

b. Bag houses d. Cyclone Separator

ANSWER: (C) Electrostatic Precipitator

This nuclear reactor component, which is made up of carbon and beryllium,


slows down the fast neutrons that are born during the fission process.
a. Control Rods c. Moderator
b. Coolant d. Reflector

ANSWER: (C) Moderator

These boron coated steel rods are used to regulate the rate of fission
chain reaction. They are withdrawn from the core to start the chain
reaction and inserted all the way into the core to stop it.
a. Control Rods c. Moderator
b. Coolant d. Reflector

ANSWER: (A) Control Rods

In general usage, the term combined cycle power plant describes the
combination of a gas turbine generator(s) (____________________ cycle) with
turbine exhaust waste boiler(s) and steam turbine generator(s) (Rankine
cycle) for the production of electrical power.
a. Diesel Cycle c. Otto Cycle
b. Reheat Cycle d. Brayton Cycle

ANSWER: (D) Brayton Cycle


Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed when layers of buried plants and
animals are exposed to intense heat and pressure. It has been dubbed as the
fuel of the future or green fuel and comprises mainly of
_________________.
a. Propane c. Butane
b. Ethane d. Methane

ANSWER: (D) Methane

It is the coal ash that exits a combustion chamber in the flue gas and is
captured by air pollution control equipment such as electrostatic
precipitators, baghouses, and wet scrubbers.
a. Ash c. Bottoming Ash
b. Fly Ash d. Refuse

ANSWER: (B) Fly Ash

Also known as brown coal, it is the lowest-rank solid coal with a calorific
value of less than 8,300 Btu/lb on a moist mineral-matter free basis.
a. Bituminous coal c. Peat
b. Lignite d. Anthracite

ANSWER: (B) Lignite

It means using the same energy source for more than one purpose, such as
using the waste heat from an engine for space heating.
a. Superposing c. Topping
b. Cogeneration d. Combined Cycle Plant

ANSWER: (B) Cogeneration

The minimum amount of air required for the complete combustion of fuel.
a. Stoichiometric Air c. Excess Air
b. Actual Air d. Percentage excess air

ANSWER: (A) Stoichiometric Air

The device or instrument used for measuring the calorific value of a unit
mass of fuel is called:
a. calorimeter c. salinometer
b. pyrometer d. thermometer

ANSWER: (A) Calorimeter

When water (H2O) in the products of combustion is in the vapor or gaseous


form, the heating value is known as:
a. Higher heating value (HHV) c. Lower heating value (LHV)
b. Heating value (HV) d. Gross calorific value (GCV)

ANSWER: (C) Lower heating Value (LHV)


The percent excess air is the difference between the air actually supplied
and the theoretical air required divided by:
a. the theoretically air supplied
b. the deficiency air supplied
c. total air supplied
d. none of the above

ANSWER: (A) the theoretically air supplied

During a combustion process, the components which exist before the reaction
are called ______
a. reactants c. products
b. flue gases d. none of the above

ANSWER: (A) reactants

The minimum amount of air needed for the complete combustion of fuel is
called ________
a. excess air c. theoretical air
b. combustion air d. none of the above

ANSWER: (C)Theoretical air

A gas which will not be found in the flue gases produced from the complete
combustion of fuel oil is
a. carbon dioxide c. hydrogen
b. oxygen d. nitrogen

ANSWER: (C) hydrogen

The higher heating value is determined when the water in the products of
combustion is in
a. solid form c. vapor form
b liquid form d. gas form

ANSWER: (B) Liquid Form

The amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit weight or


volume of fuel is known as:
a. heating value c. latent heat
b. sensible heat d. work of compression

ANSWER: (A) Heating Value

An attemporator is another name for


a. Dry pipe c. Reheater
b. Superheater d. Desuperheater

ANSWER: (D) Desuperheater


What is the fundamental indicator of good combustion?
a. Colorless smoke.
b. Releasing maximum nitrogen content of the combustion with
minimum oxygen, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide content.
c. Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil
combustibles in the flue gas.
d. Saturated clean smoke.

ANSWER: (C) Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil
combustibles in the flue gas.

It is a solidified mass of fused ash.


a. Sludge c. Solidified ash
b. Carbon residues d. Clinker

ANSWER: (D) Clinker

Why does older types of economizers were constructed invariably of cast


iron?
a. Because cast iron resists corrosion better than mild steel and
the pressures were comparatively low.
b. Because it is cheap.
c. Because cast iron is more abundant than any other type of steel.
d. Because its thermal conductivity is very small and it gives
greater efficiency to the system.

ANSWER: (A)

It is an accessory often installed on modern boilers to preheat air for


combustion before it enters the boiler furnace.
a. economizer c. air preheater
b. reheater d. forced-draft fan

ANSWER: (C) air preheater

What components are included in the proximate analysis in solid fuel?


a. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and excess oxygen
b. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, ash and moisture
c. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, nitrogen and ash
d. Fixed carbon, volatile matter, ash and moisture

ANSWER: (D)

Which element of fuel is not combustible?


a. Carbon c. Hydrogen
b Sulfur d. Oxygen

ANSWER: (D) Oxygen

A device or an instrument used to record the cylinder pressure of an engine


and piston travel in an X-Y graph, where pressure forms the vertical axis
and piston travel forms the horizontal axis.
a. Engine Indicator c. Planimeter
b. Pyrometer d. Dynamometer

ANSWER: (A) Engine Indicator


This diagram is used by the operating engineer to detect or determine leaky
piston packing, sticking piston, incorrect valve timing, loose bearings,
restricted and or outlet piping, etc.
a. Timing diagram c. T-s diagram
b. P-h diagram d. Indicator diagram

ANSWER: (D) Indicator Diagram

The effective weight of the brake arm when the brake band is loose.
a. Tare Weight c. Gross Load
b. Net Load d. Net Tension

ANSWER: (A) Tare Weight

The power output of the generator.


a. Ideal Power c. Indicated Power
b. Brake Power d. Electrical Power

ANSWER: (D) Electrical Power

The amount of fuel needed to perform a unit of power.


a. Specific fuel consumption c. Steam rate
b. Heat Rate d. Mass flow rate

ANSWER: (A) Specific Fuel Consumption

The ratio of heat converted to useful power to the heat supplied.


a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency
b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency

ANSWER: (C) Thermal Efficiency

The ratio of the actual power of the engine to its ideal power.
a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency
b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency

ANSWER: (D) Engine efficiency

The ratio of the cylinder volumes after and before the combustion process.
a. Compression ratio c. Expansion ratio
b. Cutoff ratio d. All of the above

ANSWER: (B) Cut-off ratio

The position of the piston when it forms the smallest volume in the
cylinder.
a. Crank End Dead Center Position c. Bottom Dead Center Position
b. Head End Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume

ANSWER: (B) Head End Center Position

The position of the piston when it forms the largest volume in the
cylinder.
a. Crank End Dead Center Position c.Top Dead Center Position
b. Head End Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume

ANSWER: (A) Crank End Dead Center Position


When four events take place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an engine,
the engine is called:
a. rotary engine c. steam engine
b. 2-stroke cycle engine d. 4-stroke cycle engine

ANSWER: (B) 2-stroke cycle engine

What is the model cycle for spark ignition engine?


a. Diesel cycle c. Brayton cycle
b. Otto cycle d. Carnot cycle

ANSWER: (B) Otto cycle

Diesel engine fuel is rated in terms of:


a. Cetane number c. Octane rating
b. Power output d. Net Calorific Value

ANSWER: (A) Cetane

The distance that the piston can travel in one direction.


a. Bore ` c. Stroke
b. Clearance d. Displacement

ANSWER: (C) Stroke

The minimum volume formed in the cylinder when the piston is at the top
dead center.
a. Displacement volume c. Clearance volume
b. Cylinder Volume d. None of the above

ANSWER: (C) Clearance volume

It is a fictitious pressure which, if it acted on the piston during the


entire power stroke, would produce the same amount of net work as that
produced during the actual cycle.
a. Average pressure c. Maximum pressure
b. Mean effective pressure d. Minimum pressure

ANSWER: (B) Mean effective pressure

The ratio of constant pressure specific heat to the constant volume


specific heat.
a. Compression ratio c. Expansion ratio
b. Cutoff ratio d. Specific heat ratio

ANSWER: (D)Specific heat ratio

The ideal cycle for the compression-ignition reciprocating engines.


a. Diesel cycle c. Otto cycle
b. Dual cycle d. Carnot cycle

ANSWER: (A) Diesel Cycle


The power developed in the engine cylinder as obtained from the pressure in
the cylinder.
a. Ideal power c. Indicated power
b. Brake power d. Electrical power

ANSWER: (C) Indicated Power

The pressure and torque spent in overcoming friction of reciprocating and


revolving parts of the engine and automobile before it reached the drive
shaft.
a. Electrical losses c. Indicated power
b. Brake power d. Friction power

ANSWER: (D) Friction Power

It is an instrument for determining brake power, usually by the independent


measurement of force, time and distance through which the force is moved.
a. Planimeter c. Dynamometer
b. Anemometer d. Barometer

ANSWER: (C) Dynamometer

It is the indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of


gasoline.
a. Octane Number c. Cetane Number
b. Compression Ratio d. Viscosity

ANSWER: (A) Octane Number

Draws fuel from tank through the primary fuel filter. This provides flow
throughout the low portion of the fuel system.
a. Fuel injection pump c. Fuel transfer pump
b. Valve lifter d. Oil pan

ANSWER: (C) Fuel transfer pump

Acts as a balancer and provide momentum during dead stroke in a cycle.


a. Flywheel c. Crankshaft
b. Oil cooler d. After cooler

ANSWER: (A) flywheel

Are steel tubes with seat at both ends and bridges the motion from camshaft
to rocker arm.
a. Push rod c. Valve lifter
b. Suction bell d. Flywheel

ANSWER: (A) Push rod

Passage of coolant from the engine block to the cylinder head.


a. Water jacket c. Oil cooler
b. Fuel transfer pump d. Turbo charger

ANSWER: (A) Water jacket


Are used to cool incoming air so that the volume of air available is
increased.
a. After cooler c. Radiator
b. Waste gates d. Muffler

ANSWER: (A) After cooler

The difference between the maximum and minimum volume.


a. Displacement Volume c. Clearance Volume
b. Top Dead Center d. Differential Volume

ANSWER: (A) Displacement Volume

These are used to seal the gasses within the cylinder and to keep oil out.
a. Piston Rings c. Combustion Chamber
b. Cylinder Liner d. Piston Plug

ANSWER: (A) Piston Rings

Process where the heat is added in the Otto cycle.


a. constant temperature c. constant volume
b. constant entropy d. constant pressure

ANSWER: (C) constant volume

Process where the heat is added in the Diesel cycle.


a. constant temperature c. constant volume
b. constant entropy d. constant pressure

ANSWER: (D) constant pressure

It is used to reduce the friction of bearings and sliding surfaces in


machines and thus diminish the wear, heat and possibility of seizure of the
parts
a. Lubricant c. Gasoline
b. Wax d. Benzene

ANSWER: (A) Lubricant

In a heat engine, the ratio of brake power to the indicated power is


called:
a. thermal efficiency c. mechanical efficiency
b. generator efficiency d. engine efficiency

ANSWER: (C) mechanical efficiency

The efficiency of Otto cycle depends upon the


a. pressure ratio c. specific heat rati
b. compression ratio d. cut-off ratio
ANSWER: (B) compression ratio

The maximum temperature of Diesel cycle will occur


a. after isentropic compression
b. at the end of isobaric heating
c. after isentropic expansion
d. at the beginning of adiabatic compression
ANSWER: (B) at the end of isobaric heating
The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period of
time.
a. Demand Factor c. Capacity Factor
b. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor

ANSWER: (B) Load Factor

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the
overall maximum demand of the whole system.
a. Demand Factor c. Capacity Factor
b. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor

ANSWER: (D) Diversity Factor

The sum of the continuous ratings of all the equipment and outlets on the
customers circuit.
a. Reserve load c. Maximum demand
b. Peak load d. Connected load

ANSWER: (D) Connected load

The ratio of the duration of the actual service of a machine or equipment


to the total duration of the period of time considered.
a. Operation factor c. Utilization factor
b. Demand factor d. Capacity factor

ANSWER: (A) Operation factor

The ratio of the brake mean effective pressure to the indicated mean
effective pressure.
a. Mechanical efficiency c. Brake engine efficiency
b. Indicated engine efficiency d. Brake thermal
efficiency

ANSWER: (A) Mechanical efficiency

The ratio of the combined engine efficiency to the brake engine efficiency.
a. Combined engine efficiency c. Generator efficiency
b. Combined thermal efficiency d. Brake engine efficiency

ANSWER: (C) Generator efficiency

The ratio of the average load to that of the peak load of a plant is
called:
a. output factor c. demand factor
b. load factor d. capacity factor

ANSWER: (B) load factor

The ratio of the peak load to the connected load is known as:
a. output factor c. demand factor
b. load factor d. capacity factor

ANSWER: (C) demand factor


The difference between the power plant installed capacity and the peak load
is called:
a. average load c. connected load
b. reserve over peak d. none of the above

ANSWER: (B) reserve over peak

A series of processes during which the initial state point and the final
state point are the same.
a. Process c. Change of state
b. Cycle d. All of the above

ANSWER: (B) Cycle

The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is equal to ______________.


a. 1.00 c. 1.40
b. 0.90 d. 1.30

ANSWER: (A) 1.00

The relation pV=C represents a process or change of state, which is known


as _________.
a. Isometric process c. Isobaric process
b. Isothermal process d. Isentropic process

ANSWER: (B) Isothermal process

In the relation pVn= C, if the value of n= 0 the process is said to be


___________.
a. Isometric process c. Isobaric process
b. Isothermal process d. Polytropic process

ANSWER: (C) Isobaric process

In a Carnot cycle, the heat rejection in the ____________________ process.


a. Isentropic expansion c. Isentropic compression
b. Isothermal expansion d. Isothermal compression

ANSWER: (D) Isothermal compression

A system in which the mass inflow and outflow are not equal or vary with
time and in which the mass within the system changes with time.

a. Steady flow system


b. Unsteady state, unsteady flow system
c. Steady state system
d. Steady flow, steady state system

ANSWER: (B) Unsteady state, unsteady flow system

A form of energy that is a sole function of temperature for perfect gases


and a strong function of temperature and weak function of pressure for non-
perfect gases, vapors, and liquids.
a. Internal energy c. Enthalpy
b. Flow work d. Pressure energy

ANSWER: (A) Internal energy


It is that portion of the universe, an atom, a certain quantity of matter,
or a certain volume in space that one wishes to study.
a. Heat c. Work
b. System d. Efficiency

ANSWER: (B) System

It is the force of gravity per unit volume of a substance.


a. Density c. Specific weight
b. Specific volume d. Specific gravity

ANSWER: (C) Specific weight

It is a kind of thermodynamic system whose mass does not cross its


boundaries.
a. Open system c. Steady flow system
b. Closed system d. Transient flow

ANSWER: (B) Closed system

Which law states that the acceleration of a particular body is directly


proportional to the resultant force acting on it and inversely proportional
to its mass?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second law of Thermodynamics
d. Newtons Second Law of Motion

ANSWER: (D) Newtons Second Law of Motion

A substance that receives, transports and transfers energy.


a. Reservoir c. Working substance
b. Engine d. Heat sink

ANSWER: (C) Working Substance

A system where energy and mass cross its boundaries.


a. Open system c. Isolated System
b. Closed system d. Transient flow system

ANSWER: (C) Isolated System

The law of thermodynamics that deals with the law of conservation of


energy, which states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second law of Thermodynamics
d. Third Law of Thermodynamics

ANSWER: (B) First Law of Thermodynamics


It states that in any mechanical mixture of gases and vapors (those that do
not combine chemically) the total pressure of the gaseous mixture such as
moist air is equal to the sum of the partial pressure exerted by the
individual gases or vapors.
a. Joules Law c. Daltons Law
b. Amagats Law d. Charles Law

ANSWER: (C) Daltons Law

It is a substance existing in the gaseous phase but relatively near its


saturation temperature.
a. Gas c. Air
b. Vapor d. Oxygen

ANSWER: (B) Vapor

The point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are
identical.
a. Critical point c. Triple point
b. Saturated liquid-vapor point d. Saturation Point

ANSWER: (A) Critical point

The point at which heat transfer stops.


a. Steady-flow c. Thermodynamic equilibrium
b. Thermal equilibrium d. Steady-state

ANSWER: (B) Thermal equilibrium

It is an instrument used for determining the specific gravity of a


solution.
a. Barometer c. Hydrometer
b. Calorimeter d. Manometer

ANSWER: (C) Hydrometer

It refers to the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases according


to the kinetic theory of heat.
a. 0 oK c. 0 oR
b. -273 C
o
d. All of the above

ANSWER: (D) All of the above

The area under the curve on a pressure-volume diagram represents


_____________.
a. Steady Flow Work c. Nonflow Work
b. Net Work d. Cycle Work

ANSWER: (C) Nonflow work

A boiler steam pressure gage should have a range of at least _______ times
the maximum allowable working pressure.
a. 1.0 c. 1.25
b. 1.50 d. 1.75

ANSWER: (B) 1.50


It is a valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction
only.
a. Gate valve c. Globe valve
b. Quick-return valve d. Check valve

ANSWER: (D) Check valve

An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is equal to


_________.
a. Zero c. Positive
b. Negative d. None of the above

ANSWER: (A) Zero

The _________________ is constant in an adiabatic throttling process.


a. Pressure c. Volume
b. Internal energy d. Enthalpy

ANSWER: (D) Enthalpy

It is the ideal cycle for a gas turbine plant.


a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle
b. Diesel cycle d. Brayton cycle

ANSWER: (D)

It is the most thermal efficient cycle consisting of two (2) isentropic


processes and two (2) isothermal processes.
a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle
b. Otto cycle d. Diesel cycle

ANSWER: (A)

How can the average temperature during heat rejection process of a Rankine
cycle be decreased?
a. increase boiler pressure
b. increase inlet turbine pressure
c. increase condenser pressure
d. reduce turbine exit pressure

ANSWER: (D) reduce turbine exit

What is commonly done to a vapor power cycle when the turbine has excessive
moisture?
a. frosting c. diffusing
b. reheating d. dehumidifying

ANSWER: (B) reheating

A form of energy that is transferred between two systems by virtue of


temperature difference.
a. Heat c. Kinetic Energy
b. Potential Energy d. Electrical Energy

ANSWER: (A) Heat


A thermodynamic process with no heat transfer.
a. Isentropic Process c. Adiabatic Process
b. Throttling Process d. All of the above.

ANSWER: (D) All of the above

An energy interaction that is not caused by a temperature difference


between a system and its surrounding.
a. Work ` c. Conduction
b. Convection d. Heat

ANSWER: (A) Work

Changing of solid directly to vapor, without passing through the liquid


state, is called
a. Sublimation c. Condensation
b. Evaporation d. Vaporization

ANSWER: (A) Sublimation

A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work associated


with the container. From the first law of thermodynamics, the resulting
work is:
a. equal to the heat transfer
b. equal to the change in internal energy
c. equal to the volume times the change in pressure
d. equal to zero

ANSWER: (D) equal to zero

The net work output of a heat engine is always __________________________.


a. less than the amount of heat input
b. more than the amount of heat input
c. less than the amount of heat output
d. none of the above

ANSWER: (A) less the amount of hear input

The sum of all the energies of all the molecules in a system, energies that
appear in several complex forms.
a. Enthalpy c. Internal Energy
b. Kinetic Energy d. Potential Energy

ANSWER: (C) Internal Energy

It is a liquid whose temperature is below the saturation temperature


corresponding to its pressure.
a. Saturated liquid c. Superheated liquid
b. Subcooled liquid d. none of the above

ANSWER: (B) Subcooled liquid


A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a
a. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind
b. Perpetual motion machine of the third kind
c. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind
d. None of the above

ANSWER: (C) Perpetual motion machince of the first kind

The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same
two reservoirs ________.
a. differ c. are the same
b. are unequal d. none of the above

ANSWER: (C) are the same

A process with no heat transfer is known as


a. isobaric process c. isothermal process
b. adiabatic process d. isometric process

ANSWER: (B) adiabatic process

The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the


density of:
a. mercury c. oil
b. gas d. water

ANSWER: (D) water

This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right angles to each
other
a. Series flow c. Parallel flow
b. Cross flow d. Counter flow

ANSWER: (B) Cross flow

The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains constant is
called the principle of _______.
a. Conservation of Energy
b. Conservation of Mass
c. Second Law of Thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics

ANSWER: (A) Conservation of Energy

A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same
a. Isentropic c. Enthalpy Conservation
b. Throttling d. Steady State

ANSWER: (B) Throttling

The sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies that appear in
several complex forms.
a. Kinetic Energy c. Internal Energy
b. External Energy d. Flow Work

ANSWER: (C) Internal Energy


A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding. Neither mass nor
energy cross its boundaries.
a. Open system c. Closed system
b. Adiabatic system d. Isolated system

ANSWER: (C) Isolated System

A device used to measure small and moderate pressure difference.


a. Manometer c. Bourdon gage
b. Barometer d. Piezometer

ANSWER: (A) Manometer

A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature


corresponding to its pressure.
a. Superheated vapor c. Super saturated vapor
b. Saturated vapor d. Subcooled vapor

ANSWER: (A) Superheated Vapor

The energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a moving


body, by virtue of its momentum.
a. Internal energy c. Gravitational potential energy
b. Work d. Kinetic energy

ANSWER: (D) Kinetic Energy

The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is constant and the change in


internal energy is zero.
a. Isobaric process c. Isothermal process
b. Isometric process d. Polytropic process

ANSWER: (C) Isothermal process

The function of a pump or compressor is to


a. transfer heat from one fluid to another
b. increase the total energy content of the flow
c. extract energy from the flow
d. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow

ANSWER: (B)

This law states that all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cannot
be converted into mechanical work.
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
b. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
c. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
d. All of the above.

ANSWER: (B) 2nd Law of Thermodynamics

The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute zero is called:


a. Gage pressure c. Absolute pressure
b. Vacuum pressure d. Saturation pressure

ANSWER: (C) Absolute pressure


This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful horsepower
developed by an engine and available on its crankshaft to the heat during
the same time.
a. Brake engine efficiency
b. Indicated thermal efficiency
c. Combined thermal efficiency
d. Brake thermal efficiency

ANSWER: (D) Brake thermal efficiency

Flow work is equal to pressure times ____________.


a. temperature c. entropy
b. internal energy d. specific volume

ANSWER: (D) specific volume

This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of the body.


a. internal energy c. kinetic energy
b. potential energy d. work

ANSWER: (B) potential energy

Another term for constant volume process.


a. isometric c. isochoric
b. isovolumic d. all of the above

ANSWER: (D) all of the above

Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic expansion process in


the turbine.
a. Brake Work c. Actual Fluid Work
b. Ideal Work d. Combined Work

ANSWER: (B) Ideal Work

The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the


a. pressure c. entropy
b. volume d. temperature

ANSWER: (D) Temperature

It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process to completely


vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at a given temperature.
a. latent heat vaporization c. hfg
b. enthalpy of vaporization d. all of the above

ANSWER: (D) all of the above

It is a commonly used device for measuring temperature differences or high


temperatures.
a. Thermistor c. Thermocouple
b. Bimetallic Strip d. Mercury in glass

ANSWER: (C) Thermocouple


The science and technology concerned with precisely measuring energy and
enthalpy.
a. Thermodynamics c. Calorimetry
b. Chemistry d. None of the above

ANSWER: (C) Calorimetry

The rate of doing work per unit of time


a. Torque c. Power
b. Force d. Moment

ANSWER: (C) Power

In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressure. What is
the effect of superheating the steam to a higher temperature to the cycle
thermal efficiency?
a. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase
b. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease
c. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant
d. none of the above

ANSWER: (A) the cycle thermal efficiency will increase

A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature


corresponding to the existing pressure.
a. Superheated Vapor c. Wet vapor
b. Saturated Vapor d. None of the above

ANSWER: (A) Superheated Vapor

It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into or


out of a system.
a. Mechanical work c. Nonflow Work
b. Flow Work d. Electrical work

ANSWER: (B) Flow Work

A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation temperature


corresponding to the existing pressure.
a. Subcooled liquid c. Saturated liquid
b. Unsaturated liquid d. Water

ANSWER: (A) Subcooled liquid

In this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes while the flue
gases burn outside the tubes.
a. Water-tube boiler c. Fire-tube Boiler
b. Steam generator d. Electric Boiler

ANSWER: (A) Water-tube boiler

It shows the water level in the boiler drum.


a. Water column c. Try cocks
b. Gauge glass d. All of the above

ANSWER: (B) Gauge glass


It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low water.
a. Safety valve c. Fusible plug
b. Relief valve d. Try cocks

ANSWER: (C) Fusible plug

It has several functions. When necessary it empties the boiler for


cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud, scale, or sediment when
the boiler is in operation and prevents excessive concentration of soluble
impurities in the boiler.
a. Blow-down line c. Boiler feedwater pump
b. Steam valve d. None of the above

ANSWER: (A) Blow-down line

It is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue gases to preheat
the air needed for combustion.
a. Economizer c. Feedwater heater
b. Reheater d. Air preheater

ANSWER: (D) Air preheater

It is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device which utilizes


the heat of the flue gases.
a. Economizer c. Open heater
b. Closed heater d. Waterwalls

ANSWER: (A) Economizer

It is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the evaporative


capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the same time protect the furnace
walls from high temperature.
a. Reheater c. Waterwalls
b. Superheater d. Feedwater heater

ANSWER: (C) Waterwalls

It is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from water at 212 F


o

to steam at 212 oF and equivalent to 33, 500 Btu/hr.


a. One horsepower c. One kilowatt
b. One boiler horsepower d. None of the above

ANSWER: (B) One boiler horsepower/BHP

It prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain predetermined


pressure by opening to allow excess steam to escape into the atmosphere
when that point is reached, thus guarding against a possible explosion
through excessive pressure.
a. Relief valve c. Safety valve
b. Fusible plug d. Pressure switches

ANSWER: (C) Safety valve


In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass through _______________.
a. inside the tubes c. outside the tubes
b. inside the shell d. outside the shell

ANSWER: (A) inside the tubes

It is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at constant


pressure.
a. dry-bulb temperature c. wet-bulb temperature
b. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature

ANSWER: (B) dewpoint temperature

In a _________________ cooling tower, the air moves horizontally through


the fills as the water moves downward.
a. Crossflow c. Counterflow
b. Parallel flow d. Double-flow

ANSWER: (A) Crossflow

It is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air.


a. Psychrometer c. Psychrometry
b. Refrigeration d. Pneumatics

ANSWER: (C) Psychrometry

It is the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a certain volume of moist air
at a given temperature to the mass of water vapor in the same volume of
saturated air at the same temperature.
a. Humidity ratio c. Specific humidity
b. Humidity d. Relative Humidity

ANSWER: (D) relative humidity

Air whose condition is such that any decrease in temperature will result in
condensation of water vapor into liquid.
a. Saturated air c. Unsaturated air
b. Saturated vapor d. Moist air

ANSWER: (A) Saturated air

It is the warm water temperature minus the cold-water temperature leaving


the cooling tower.
a. Approach c. Terminal difference
b. Cooling Range d. LMTD

ANSWER: (B) Cooling Range

The temperature where the relative humidity becomes 100% and where the
water vapor starts to condense is known as ___________________.
a. dry-bulb temperature c. wet-bulb temperature
b. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature

ANSWER: (B) dewpoint temperature


The surrounding air ____________ temperature is the lowest temperature to
which water could possibly be cooled in a cooling tower.
a. Dry-bulb c. Wet-bulb
b. Dew-point d. Saturation temperature

ANSWER: (C) Wet-bulb

Which is not a major part of the vapor compression system?


a. compressor c. condenser
b. evaporator d. refrigerant

ANSWER: (D) refrigerant

This refers to the rate of heat transfer attributable only to a change in


dry-bulb temperature.
a. sensible heating or cooling
b. dehumidification
c. humidification
d. cooling and dehumidifying

ANSWER: (A) sensible heating or cooling

It is a binary mixture of dry-air and water- vapor.


a. Dry air c. Moist air
b. Saturated vapor d. Wet mixture

ANSWER: (C) Moist air

The temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer.


a. Wet-bulb temp. c. Dew-point temp.
b. Dry-bulb temp. d. Wet-bulb depression

ANSWER: (B) Dry-bulb temp.

The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air.


a. enthalpy c. humidity ratio
b. specific volume d. relative humidity

ANSWER: (C) humidity ratio

This system combines two vapor-compression units, with the condenser of the
low-temperature system discharging its heat to the evaporator of the high-
temperature system.
a. Cascade systems c. Binary system
b. Multi-stage system d. Multi-pressure system

ANSWER: (A) Cascade systems

A process of increasing the humidity ratio at constant dry-bulb


temperature.
a. Dehumidifying process c. Heating process
b. Cooling process d. Humidifying process

ANSWER: (D) Humidifying process


The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to the
saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature of the air.
a. Humidity Ratio c. Specific humidity
b. Relative Humidity d. Moisture content

ANSWER: (B)

It is an air conditioning process that involves heating without changing


the moisture content of air. The process is represented by a horizontal
line in the psychrometric chart, from left to right.
a. Sensible cooling process
b. Humidifying process
c. Sensible heating process
d. Heating and dehumidifying process

ANSWER: (C)

It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity ratio without


changing the dry-bulb temperature of air. The process is represented in the
psycrometric chart by a vertical line, from up to down.
a. Sensible cooling process
b. Humidifying process
c. Sensible heating process
d. Heating and dehumidifying process

ANSWER: (B)

The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist air begins to
condense when air is cooled at constant pressure
a. Dew Point Temperature c. Dry Bulb Temperature
b. Wet Bulb Temperature d. Condensing temperature

ANSWER: (A)

It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system which is a


dimensionless quantity.
a. Coefficient of Performance c. Energy Efficiency Ratio
b. Energy Ratio d. Performance Ratio

ANSWER: (A)

It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more cylinders in place


of a single cylinder compressor.
a. Intercooled Compression c. Efficient Compression
b. Multistage Compression d. High Power Compression

ANSWER: (B)

The transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance to


the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interactions between the
particles.
a. Heat transfer c. Conduction
b. Radiation d. Convection

ANSWER: (C) Conduction


What is the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, air movement,
and quantity of air in space?
a. Refrigeration c. Psychrometry
b. Air-conditioning d. Humidification

ANSWER: (B) Psychrometry

The non-condensing component of the moist air.


a. Hydrogen c. Water vapor
b. Nitrogen d. Dry air

ANSWER: (D) Dry air

The substance used for heat transfer in a vapor compression refrigerating


system. It picks up heat by evaporating at a low temperature and pressure
and gives up this heat by condensing at a higher temperature and pressure.
a. Water c. Ammonia
b. Air d. Gas

ANSWER: (C) Ammonia

What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the expansion valve and the
intake of the compressor in a multi pressure refrigeration system?
a. High-side pressure c. Condensing pressure
b. Discharge pressure d. Low-side pressure

ANSWER: (D) Low-side pressure

A refrigerating machine that is classified as a one-ton machine has the


capacity to produce a cooling effect of:
a. 3.517 kW c. 211 kJ/min
b. 12,000 Btu/hr d. All of the above
e.
f. ANSWER: (D) All of the above
g.
h. Axial fans are best suitable for application.
i. A. Large flow, low head
j. C. Low flow, high head
k. B. High head, large flow
l. D. Low flow, low head
m.
n. ANSWER: (A) Large flow, low head
o.
p. Which of the following axial fan types is most efficient?
q.
r. A. Propeller C. Tube axial
s. B. Vane axial D. Radial
t.
u. ANSWER: (B)
v.
w.
x.
y.
z.
aa.
ab. Constant rotative speed of the hydraulic turbine runner under
varying load is achieved by a ___________ that actuates a mechanism that
adjust the gate openings.
ac. A. Governor C. Wicket gates
ad. B. Runner D. Draft tube
ae.
af. ANSWER: (A) Governor
ag.
ah. A pipe or conduit used to carry water from reservoir intake to a
reaction turbine is known as:
ai. A. Guide Vane C. Draft Tube
aj. B. Wicket Gate D. Penstock
ak.
al. ANSWER: ( )
am.
an. The efficiency of forward curved centrifugal fans compared to
backward curved fans is_________
ao. A. Higher C. Lower
ap. B. Same D. None
aq.
ar. ANSWER: (C) Lower
as.
at. When selecting a pump for a given application, it is usually
desirable to use a pump that will operate near its BEP which stands for
_________.
au. A. Brake Effective Horsepower C. Best Effective Point
av. B. Best Efficiency Point D. Break Even Point
aw.
ax. ANSWER: (B) Best Efficiency Point
ay.
az. In order to prevent shock or water hammering in the penstock when
the governor quickly closes the gates, many turbines are provided with a
_______________.
ba.
bb. A. Surge Tank C. Draft Tube
bc. B. Intake Valve D. Flywheel
bd.
be. ANSWER: (A) Surge Tank
bf.
bg. Name the fan which is more suitable for high pressure application?
bh. A. Propeller type fan
bi. B. Backward curved centrifugal fan
bj. C. Tube-axial fans
bk. D. All of the above
bl.
bm. ANSWER: (B) Backward curved centrifugal fan
bn.
bo. A type of centrifugal pump impeller characterized by wide passages
for water and the ratio of outside impeller to impeller eye diameter is
about 1.5.
bp. A. Francis type C. Radial type
bq. B. Mixed Flow type D. Axial type
br.
bs. ANSWER: (A) Francis type
bt.
bu.
bv.
bw. The seal that allows the impeller shaft of centrifugal pump to pass
from outside of the pump to inside, while maintaining an air tight seal.
bx. A. Sleeve C. Wearing Ring
by. B. Mechanical Seal D. Packing
bz.
ca. ANSWER: (D) Packing
cb.
cc. Stationary guide vanes of a centrifugal pump surround the impeller
converts velocity energy to pressure head.
cd. A. Diffuser C. Volute Casing
ce. B. Impeller D. Impeller vanes
cf.
cg. ANSWER: (A) Diffuser
ch.
ci. If two identical centrifugal pumps are installed in parallel the
_______________ is doubled.
cj. A. Flow rate C. Power
ck. B. Head D. Efficiency
cl.
cm. ANSWER: (A) Flow rate
cn.
co. ____________ are used isolate as well as regulates the flow. They
have a high pressure drop even wide open.
cp. A. Check Valve C. Ball Valve
cq. B. Gate Valve D. Globe Valve
cr.
cs. ANSWER: (D) Globe valve
ct.
cu. Which pipe accessories do not belong to the group?
cv. A. Elbows C. Tees
cw. B. Unions D. Strainers
cx.
cy. ANSWER: (D) Strainers
cz.
da. ________________ pump are known as vortex and
periphery pumps.
db. A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pumps
dc. B. Vertical Turbine Pumps
dd. C. Diaphragm Pumps
de. D. Sliding Vane Pumps
df.
dg. ANSWER: (A) Turbine (regenerative) Pumps
dh.
di.
dj. Which types of pump does not belong to the group:
dk. A. Screw Rotary Pump
dl. B. Diaphragm Pump
dm. C. Direct Acting Steam Pump
dn. D. Centrifugal Pump
do.
dp. ANSWER: (D) Centrifugal Pump
dq.
dr.
ds.
dt.
du.
dv.
dw. _____________ impellers are generally preferred when handling
average waters, because it does no rust and machining it, making its
surface smooth are easy.
dx. A. Stainless Steel C. Cast-Steel
dy. B. Bronze D. Cast-iron
dz.
ea. ANSWER: (B) Bronze
eb.
ec. A valve used to prevent backflow in the fluid pipe is called:
ed. A. Check Valve C. Angle Valve
ee. B. Globe Valve D. Gate Valve
ef.
eg. ANSWER: (A) Check valve
eh.
ei. ______________ is a single-stage or multistage centrifugal pump with
pumping element suspended from discharge piping also known as deep well or
bore hole pumps.
ej. A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pump
ek. B. Vertical Turbine Pump
el. C. Screw Pump
em. D. Sliding Vane Pump
en.
eo. ANSWER: (B) Vertical Turbine Pump
ep.
eq. ___________________ pumps are intended for handling thick pulps,
sewage sludge, acid, or alkaline solutions, mixture of water and gritty
solids that wear out metal pumps.
er. A. Direct acting steam pumps
es. B. Vertical Turbine Pumps
et. C. Lobe pumps
eu. D. Diaphragm pumps
ev.
ew. ANSWER: (D) Diaphragm pumps
ex.
ey. ___________________ is that part of a rotary pump mounted on the
drive shaft; it is the principal pumping member.
ez. A. Idle Rotors C. Rotor
fa. B. Stator D. Driver
fb.
fc. ANSWER: ()
fd.
fe.
ff. What is the relationship of the capacity of centrifugal pump, Q to
impeller diameter, D, when there are two impeller diameters (one is
original the other cut down diameter) in the same pump?
fg.
fh. A. Q is directly proportional to the square of D.
fi. B. Q is directly proportional to D.
fj. C. Q is inversely proportional to D.
fk. D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of D.
fl.
fm. ANSWER: (B)
fn.
fo.
fp.
fq.
fr. What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal pump, P,
to the impeller speed, N, is pump is at two different rotative speeds?
fs.
ft. A. P is inversely proportional to the cube of N.
fu. B. P is inversely proportional to N.
fv. C. P is directly proportional to N.
fw. D. P is directly proportional to the cube of N.
fx.
fy. ANSWER: (D)
fz.
ga. Hydraulic turbine suitable for low head:
gb. A. Pelton wheel C. Kaplan turbine
gc. B. Francis turbine D. Turgo turbine
gd.
ge. ANSWER: (C) Kaplan turbine
gf.
gg. If two identical centrifugal pump are installed in series, the
system flow rate ____________________.
gh.
gi. A. is doubled C. remains the same
gj. B. is halved D. zero
gk.
gl. ANSWER: (C) remains the same
gm.
gn. The formation ad collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when pump
inlet suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the liquid
is called:
go. A. sublimation C. water hammering
gp. B. oxidation D. cavitation
gq.
gr.
gs. ANSWER: (D) cavitation
gt.
gu. The process done in centrifugal pump by filling-up the suction line
and pump casing with liquid to remove air or vapors from the waterways of
the pump is called:
gv. A. priming C. water hammering
gw. B. charging D. pumping
gx.
gy.
gz. ANSWER: (A) priming
ha.
hb. Which term does not belong to the group:
hc. A. gear pump C. vane pump
hd. B. screw pump D. diaphragm pump
he.
hf. ANSWER: (D) diaphragm pump
hg.
hh. A type of condenser combines the functions of a condenser and
cooling tower is called:
hi. A. air-cooled condenser C. ground-cooling condenser
hj. B. water-cooled condenser D. evaporative condenser
hk.
hl. ANSWER: (D) Evaporative condenser
hm.
hn.
ho. An expansion valve with a fluid-charged remote bulb that maintains a
constant degree of superheat in the evaporator is called:
hp. A. thermostatic expansion valve C. automatic expansion valve
hq. B. capillary tube D. float valve
hr.
hs. ANSWER: (A) Thermostatic expansion valve
ht.
hu. A refrigeration system ideally suited for use in air-craft because
it is light in weight and requires less space is called:
hv. A. mechanical vapor-compression C. air cycle
hw. B. steam-jet D. vapor absorption
hx.
hy. ANSWER: (C) air cycle
hz.
ia. Refrigerant with chemical formula CHClF2 is designated by:
ib. A. R134a C. R11
ic. B. R12 D. R22
id.
ie. ANSWER: (D) R-22
if.
ig. Refrigerant with chemical formula CF3CH2F is designated by:
ih. A. R134a C. R11
ii. B. R12 D. R22
ij.
ik. ANSWER: (A) R134a
il.
im. Which refrigerant does not belong to the group?
in. A. ammonia C. methane
io. B. propane D. Isobutane
ip.
iq. ANSWER: (A) ammonia
ir.
is. Carbon dioxide refrigerant is designated by:
it. A. R717 C. R600
iu. B. R744 D. R 718
iv.
iw. ANSWER: (B) R744
ix.
iy. Piping, fittings and valves materials found suitable for use in
ammonia refrigerant are manufactured from:
iz. A. Copper C. Iron and Steel
ja. B. Aluminum D. Brass
jb.
jc. ANSWER: (C) Iron and Steel
jd.
je. Which statement is correct with water-cooled shell and tube type of
condenser?
jf.
jg. A. Refrigerant condensing inside tubes and water flowing in the
shell.
jh. B.Water flowing through passes inside tubes and the refrigerant
condensing in the shell.
ji. C. Both refrigerant and water flowing through passes inside tubes
and refrigerant condensing.
jj. D. A, B, and C are correct
jk.
jl. ANSWER: (B)
jm.
jn. In a vapour-absorption refrigeration system utilizing ammonia as
refrigerant and the absorbent is:
jo. A. Water C. Lithium Bromide
jp. B. Carbon dioxide D. Air
jq.
jr. ANSWER: (A) Water
js.
jt. The most common secondary refrigerant medium used in indirect
refrigeration system such as in industrial ice plants and cold storages.
ju.
jv. A. Hydrocarbon C. Air
jw. B. Carbon dioxide D. Brine
jx.
jy. ANSWER: (D) Brine
jz.
ka. A constant restriction expansion device in refrigeration system
which is merely a long tube with narrow bore is called.
kb. A. Thermostatic expansion valve
kc. B. Automatic expansion valve
kd. C. Capillary tube
ke. D. Float valve
kf. .
kg. ANSWER: (C) Capillary tube
kh.
ki. Mixtures of refrigerants but which behave like pure substance are
called:
kj. A. isomers C. azeotropes
kk. B. hydrocarbons D. CFC
kl.
km. ANSWER: (C) azeotropes
kn.
ko. In refrigeration compressor that has an electric motor and a
compressor built into an integral housing is commonly called:
kp. A. hermetic compressor C. Open type compressor
kq. B. combined compressor D. packaged compressor
kr.
ks. ANSWER: (A) hermetic compressor
kt.
ku. Compounds with same chemical formula but different molecular
structure (such R134 & R134a) are called:
kv. A. brominated C. azeotropes
kw. B. hydrocarbons D. isomers
kx.
ky. ANSWER: (D) Isomers
kz.
la. Which of the following refrigerants does not belong to the group?
lb. A. Carbon dioxide C. Water
lc. B. Ammonia D. Isobutane
ld.
le. ANSWER: (D) Isobutane
lf.
lg. An expansion valve used for a flooded type of evaporator in a
refrigeration system is called:
lh.
li. A. thermostatic expansion valve C. automatic expansion valve
lj. B. capillary tube D. float valve
lk.
ll. ANSWER: (D) Float Valve
lm.
ln. An atom in the refrigerant molecule considered responsible for the
depletion ozone layer in upper atmosphere (stratosphere)
lo. A. Cl atom C. F-atom
lp. B. H atom/s D. C atom
lq.
lr. ANSWER: (A) CL atom
ls.
lt. A vapour compression system used for production of low temperatures
in which a series of refrigerants, with progressively lower boiling
points, are used in series of single-stage units is called:
lu.
lv. A. multipressure system C. cascade system
lw. B. single-stage system D. series system
lx.
ly. ANSWER: (C) Cascade system
lz.
ma.
mb. Which statement is correct on the effect of liquid subcooling in a
vapor compression system?
mc.
md. A. subcooling both increases flashing of the liquid during
expansion and the refrigerating effect.
me. B. subcooling increases flashing of the liquid during expansion and
increases the refrigerating effect.
mf. C. subcooling both decreases flashing of the liquid during
expansion and the refrigerating effect.
mg. D. subcooling decreases flashing of the liquid during expansion and
increases the refrigerating effect.
mh.
mi. ANSWER: (D)
mj.
mk. Which statement is correct on the effect of suction vapor
superheating in a vapor compression system?
ml.
mm. A. superheating both increases specific compressor work and the
refrigerating effect.
mn. B. superheating both decrease specific compressor work and the
refrigerating effect.
mo. C. superheating increases specific compressor work and decreases the
refrigerating effect.
mp. B. superheating decrease specific compressor work and increases the
refrigerating effect.
mq.
mr. ANSWER: (A)
ms.
mt. Which statement is correct on the effect of increasing condensing
pressure in a vapor compression system?
mu. A. increasing condensing pressure both increases specific
compressor
mv. work and the refrigerating effect.
mw. B. increasing condensing pressure both decrease specific compressor
work and the refrigerating effect.
mx. C. increasing condensing pressure increases specific compressor work
my. and decreases the refrigerating effect.
mz. D. increasing condensing pressure decrease specific compressor work
and increases the refrigerating effect.
na. ANSWER: (C)
nb.
nc. Freezing method utilizes the combined effects of low temperature and
high air velocity to produce a high rate of heat transfer from product is
called:
nd. A. indirect contact freezing
ne. B.immersion freezing
nf. C. blast freezing
ng. D. spray freezing
nh.
ni. ANSWER: (C) blast freezing
nj.
nk. A component installed a refrigeration system to ensure that no
liquid enters the compressor and subcooled the liquid from condenser to
prevent bubbles of vapor from impending the flow of refrigerant through
expansion valve is called:
nl. A. liquid-to-suction heat exchanger C. subcooler
nm. B. flash chamber D. drier
nn.
no. ANSWER: (A)
np.
nq. Refrigerant used in steam-jet refrigeration is:
nr. A. ammonia C. water
ns. B. carbon dioxide D. air
nt.
nu. ANSWER: (C) water
nv.
nw. Which refrigerant is completely miscible with oil:
nx. A. ammonia C. R12
ny. B. carbon dioxide D. R134a
nz.
oa. ANSWER: (C) R-12
ob.
oc. Ammonia is not used in domestic refrigeration and comfort air-
conditioning because:
od. A. ammonia is highly soluble in water.
oe. B. ammonia is the cheapest refrigerant.
of. C. ammonia is flammable and toxic.
og. D. ammonia is non ozone depletion potential
oh.
oi. ANSWER: (C) ammonia is flammable and toxic
oj.
ok. Refrigerants 22 (R22) which is an HCFC, has 1/20 th the ozone
depletion potential (ODP) of R11 and R12. Hence, it can be continue to be
used for quite sometime. However, all these have global warming-potential
(GWP). Because of this, R22 will have to be phased out by year:
A. 2010 AD C. 2020
B. 2030 AD D. 2040
ol.
om. ANSWER: (B) 2030 AD
on.
oo.
op.
oq.
or.
os.
ot.
ou. Which of the statements is incorrect regarding the functions of the
liquid receiver?
ov. A. stores unused refrigerant returning from condenser
ow. B. stores refrigerant to be evaporated by the expansion valve
ox. C. provides a place to store refrigerant when pumping out the
evaporator during maintenance operations.
oy. D. stores oil that is carried along with refrigerant.
oz.
pa. ANSWER: (D)
pb.
pc. A shutoff valve that is actuated by an electromagnetic coil is
called:
pd. A. solenoid valve C. float switch
pe. B. float valves D. holdback valve
pf.
pg. ANSWER: (A)Solenoid valve
ph.
pi. Which of the following statement is not false?
A. One ton of refrigeration is also known as one ton of refrigerant.
B. The low pressure part of the refrigeration system is composed of the
discharge line of the expansion valve to the suction of compressor.
C. A system operating in a cycle and producing a net quantity of work
from a supply system is known as refrigerator.
D. Multi staging of the compressor will increase the work.
pj.
pk. ANSWER: (B)
pl.
pm. Refrigeration system of 2 tons capacity. Which of the following
statements is correct?
pn. A. The system has a COP of 2.
po. B. The system has a refrigeration load of 400 Btu/min.
pp. C. The system uses 2 tons of refrigerants.
pq. D. None of these is correct.
pr.
ps. ANSWER: (B) The system has a refrigeration load of 400 Btu/min.
pt.
pu.
pv. It states that when two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a
third body. They are in thermal equilibrium with each other and hence are
at the same temperature.
A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
B. 2nd law of Thermodynamics
C. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
D. Boyles Law

pw. ANSWER: (C) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics


px.
py.
pz. It states that the change of internal energy of an ideal gas is a
function of only the temperature change
qa. A. Charles Law c. Joules Law
qb. B. Boyles Law d. Zeroth Law
qc.
qd. ANSWER: ()
qe.
qf.
qg.
qh. The energy or stored capacity for performing work
possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its momentum.
qi. A. Potential Energy C. Internal Energy
qj. B. Kinetic Energy D. Flow Work
qk.
ql. ANSWER: (B) Kinetic Energy
qm.
qn. The volume between the engine head and the piston when
the piston is at the top dead center
qo. A. Clearance volume C. Volume of gas drawn in
qp. B. Displacement volume D. Volume of exhaust gas
qq.
qr. ANSWER: (A) Clearance volume
qs.
qt. The process in which both the intake and exhaust valves
are closed, and the air-fuel mixture is processed by the upward
piston movement.
qu. A. Intake Stroke C. Power Stroke
qv. B. Compression Stroke D. Exhaust Stroke
qw.
qx. ANSWER: (B) Compression Stroke
qy.
qz. Is a term expressing the combination of internal
molecular energy, expansion work and flow work.
ra. A. Entropy C. Internal Energy
rb. B. Enthalpy D. Mechanical Work
rc.
rd. ANSWER: (B) Enthalpy
re.
rf. The combination of two refrigerants which cannot be
separated by distillation process.
rg. A. Hydrocarbon C. Azeotropes
rh. B. Isotopes D. Zeotropes
ri.
rj. ANSWER: (C) Azeotropes
rk.
rl. R-600 is what refrigerant?
rm. A. Methane C. Butane
rn. B. Nonane D. None of these
ro.
rp. ANSWER: (C) Butane
rq.
rr.
rs.
rt.
ru. -------------------End-------------------
rv.
rw.
rx. Note: Please keep this file CONFIDENTIAL