A
(APRA)
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2017
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue / black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses.
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the
same as that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to
the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet /
Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his / her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his / her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt
with as an unfair means case.
12. Use of Electronic / Manual Calculator is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.
1
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
f f Water
Sol. U = n1 1 RT n2 2 RT
2 2
5 3
= 2 RT 4 RT (1) 650 kg m3
2 2
= 5 RT + 6 RT (2) 425 kg m3
U = 11 RT (3) 800 kg m3
(4) 928 kg m3
3. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8' and
material 'B' has decay constant ''. Initially they have Answer (4)
same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of
Sol. hoil oil g = hwater water g
1
number of nuclei of material 'B' to that 'A' will be ? 140 oil = 130 water
e
13
1 1 oil = 1000 kg/m3
(1) (2) 14
7
oil = 928 kg m3
1 1
(3) (4)
8 9 5. A 250-Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and
width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A and
Answer (2)
subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T.
Sol. No option is correct Work done for rotating the coil by 180 against the
torque is
NA 1
If we take
NB e (1) 9.1 J (2) 4.55 J
Then (3) 2.3 J (4) 1.15 J
N A e 8 t Answer (1)
t
NB e Sol. W = MB (cos1 cos2)
2
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
When it is rotated by angle 180 then 8. Figure shows a circuit contains three identical
resistors with resistance R = 9.0 each, two
W = 2MB
identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each,
W = 2 (NIA)B and an ideal battery with emf = 18 V. The current
'i' through the battery just after the switch closed is
= 2 250 85 106[1.25 2.1 104] 85
R R
102 L
+
= 9.1 J R L C
6. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal
(1) 2 mA
equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T
(Kelvin) and mass m, is (2) 0.2 A
h h (3) 2 A
(1) (2)
mkT 3mkT (4) 0 ampere
2h 2h Answer (3*)
(3) (4)
3mkT mkT
R3
Answer (2) L1 R2
Sol +
Sol. de-Broglie wavelength
R1 L2 C
h
mv At t = 0, no current flows through R1 and R3
h i
=
2m(KE)
h +
3 R2
2m( kT )
2
h
3mkT
i
7. One end of string of length l is connected to a R2
particle of mass m and the other end is connected
to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the 18
=
particle moves in circle with speed v, the net force 9
on the particle (directed towards center) will be =2A
(T represents the tension in the string)
Note : Not correctly framed but the best option out
(1) T of given is (3).
3
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
H = H1 + H2
dx dy
= 5 4t = 10
dt dt K1A(T1 T2 ) K 2 A(T1 T2 )
=
d d
vx = 5 4t vy = 10
K EQ 2 A(T1 T2 ) A(T1 T2 )
dv dv
K1 K2
d d
x4 y 10
dt dt
K K2
K EQ 1
ax = 4 ay = 0 2
Acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is = 4 m/s2 12. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials.
20 V 40 V 20 V 40 V 10 V 30 V 40 V
10. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ
20 V
slightly. One of them is e, the other is (e + e). If
the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force
A B A B A B A B
between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance
d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero,
then e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen 10 V
30 V
10 V 30 V 10 V 30 V 20 V 40 V
mh = 1.67 1027 kg] (a) (b) (c) (d)
4
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
1 a = x2
l
R v a
4
b R A2 x 2 x 2
l 1 2
(3)2 (2)2 2
R T
b 4
4 5
l T
14. Youngs double slit experiment is first performed in 4
T
air and then in a medium other than air. It is found 5
that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th
16. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the
dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the
following diagram.
medium is nearly
(1) 1.25 P
(2) 1.59 IV
i f
(3) 1.69 I III
f
(4) 1.78 f II
700 K
f 500 K
Answer (4) 300 K
V
D
Sol. X1 = X5th dark = (2 5 1)
2d Match the following
D Column-1 Column-2
X2 = X8th bright = 8
d P. Process I a. Adiabatic
X1 = X2 Q. Process II b. Isobaric
R. Process III c. Isochoric
9 D D
8 S. Process IV d. Isothermal
2 d d
(1) P a, Q c, R d, S b
16
1.78 (2) P c, Q a, R d, S b
9
15. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion (3) P c, Q d, R b, S a
with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at (4) P d, Q b, R a, S c
2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its
Answer (2)
velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its
time period in seconds is Sol. Process I = Isochoric
II = Adiabatic
5
(1) III = Isothermal
IV = Isobaric
5
(2) 17. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is
2
removed and another identical uncharged capacitor
4 is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic
(3)
5 energy of resulting system
2 (1) Increases by a factor of 4
(4)
3
(2) Decreases by a factor of 2
Answer (3)
(3) Remains the same
2 2
Sol. v A x
(4) Increases by a factor of 2
5
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
e2
C can be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity
40
q1 q2 q0
Vc of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e
C1 C2 C C
is charge]
V 1
Vc
2 1 e2 2
(1) 2 G
Initial energy c 40
1 1
Ui CV 2 e2 2
2 (2) c 2 G
Final energy 40
1
2 2
1 V 1 V 1 e2 2
Uf C C (3) 2
2 2 2 2 c G 40
CV 2 1 e2
(4) G
4 c 40
Loss of energy = Ui Uf
Answer (1)
CV 2
e2
4 Sol. Let A ML3 T 2
40
i.e. decreases by a factor (2)
18. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is l = CxGy(A)z
3250 1010 m. The velocity of the electron ejected L = [LT1]x [M1L3T2]y [ML3T2]z
from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength
2536 1010 m is y + z = 0 y = z ...(i)
340 16.5 1
400
340 22
Sol. Spring constant length
fA = 448 Hz
1
21. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio k
signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The l
resistance of collector is 3 k. If current gain is 100 i.e, k1 = 6k
and the base resistance is 2 k, the voltage and
power gain of the amplifier is k2 = 3k
3V R 5V Sol. Y A B
(4)
7
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
Sol. Above earth surface Below earth surface (2) tan2 = tan21 + tan22
30. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space Answer (4)
after having lost contact with their spaceship. The p
two will: Sol. B
V
V
(1) Keep floating at the same distance between
them V p
(2) Move towards each other V B
r p
(3) Move away from each other 3
r B
(4) Will become stationary r p
r 3B
Answer (2)
33. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical
Sol. Both the astronauts are in the condition of microscope for two wavelengths 1 = 4000 and
weightness. Gravitational force between them pulls 2 = 6000 is
towards each other.
(1) 8 : 27
31. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean (2) 9 : 4
square value of the electric field is Erms = 6 V/m. The
peak value of the magnetic field is (3) 3 : 2
(4) 16 : 81
(1) 1.41 108 T
Answer (3)
(2) 2.83 108 T
1
(3) 0.70 108 T Sol. Resolving power
(4) 4.23 108 T R1 2
Answer (2) R2 1
Erms 6000
Sol. c
Brms 4000
3
Erms 2
Brms
c 34. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling
from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed
6
of 50 m/s. Take g constant with a value
3 108 10 m/s2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force
Brms = 2 108 and the (ii) resistive force of air is
B 1
p 103 10 103 + wa = 10 3 (50)2
(1)
B
(2)
3p 2
wa = 8.75 J i.e. work done due to air resistance and
3p p
(3) (4) work done due to gravity = 10 J
B 3B
9
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
r R 2T 4 kx 3mg kx
a=
3m
r1 R12T14
r2 R22T24
3m m
4mg 3mg
1 a= a = g
= 4 3m
16 mg
450 1 3mg
g
r2 4 a=
3
r2 = 1800 watt
37. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis
36. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is
respectively are connected by a massless and incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45
by a massless spring as shown in figure. The with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately through P2 is
after the string is cut, are respectively
I0
(1)
2
I0
(2)
4
3m I0
A (3)
8
B m I0
(4)
g g 16
(1) g, (2) ,g
3 3 Answer (3)
g g P1 P3 P2
(3) g, g (4) ,
3 3
I2
Answer (2) Sol.
I0 I1 I3
kx
90
45
Sol. 3m
T
I0
3mg I2 cos2 45
2
Before the string is cut
I0 1
kx = T + 3mg ...(1) 2 2
10
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
I0 Answer (2)
4
1 I1I2
Sol. KE (1 2 )2
I 2 I1 I2
I3 0 cos2 45
4
I0 1 I2
I3 (1 2 )2
8 2 (2I )
38. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 104 turns
per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100
1
turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis I (1 2 )2
4
coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the
solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A 40. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the
in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 102 , the escalator was not working. She walked up the
total charge flowing through the coil during this time stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she
is remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the
(1) 32C (2) 16 C escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by
her to walk up on the moving escalator will be
(3) 32 C (4) 16C
Answer (3) t1 t2 t1t2
(1) (2) t t
2 2 1
d
Sol. N
dt t1t2
(3) t t (4) t1 t2
N d 2 1
R R dt Answer (3)
N
dq d
R d
Sol. Velocity of girl w.r.t. elevator v ge
N ( ) t1
Q
R
total d
Q Velocity of elevator w.r.t. ground v eG then
R t2
n 2 260 13
n 220 11
F = 30 N
=I 11n + 22 = 13n
FR= MR2 n = 11
30 0.4 = 3 (0.4)2
v
12 = 3 0.16 So, 11 220
4l
400 = 16
v
= 25 rad/s2 20
4l
42. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally So fundamental frequency is 20 Hz.
on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from
44. A thin prism having refracting angle 10 is made of
the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on
glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined
a scale placed just above the source L. When the
with another thin prism of glass of refractive index
mirror is rotated through a small angle , the spot of
1.7. This combination produces dispersion without
the light is found to move through a distance y on
deviation. The refracting angle of second prism
the scale. The angle is given by
should be
y y
(1) (2) (1) 4 (2) 6
2x x
x x (3) 8 (4) 10
(3) (4)
2y y Answer (2)
Answer (1) Sol. ( 1)A ( 1)A 0
Sol. When mirror is rotated by angle reflected ray will
be rotated by 2. ( 1)A ( 1)A
46. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of 50. Which is the incorrect statement?
the following statements is true?
(1) FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency
(1) Bond angle remains same but bond length defect
changes
(2) Density decreases in case of crystals with
(2) Bond angle changes but bond length remains
Schottky's defect
same
(3) Both bond angle and bond length change (3) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor,
silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric
(4) Both bond angles and bond length remains crystal
same
(4) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic
Answer (4) compounds in which sizes of cation and anions
Sol. There is no change in bond angles and bond lengths are almost equal
in the conformations of ethane. There is only change
Answer (1 & 4)
in dihedral angle.
47. Which of the following pairs of compounds is Sol. Frenkel defect occurs in those ionic compounds in
isoelectronic and isostructural? which size of cation and anion is largely different.
(1) BeCl2, XeF2 (2) Tel2, XeF2 Non-stoichiometric ferrous oxide is Fe0.930.96O1.00
and it is due to metal deficiency defect.
(3) IBr2 , XeF2 (4) IF3, XeF2
51 Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution
Answer (3) of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 104 mol L1. Solubility product
Sol. IBr2, XeF2 of Ag2C2O4 is
Total number of valence electrons are equal in both (1) 2.42 108 (2) 2.66 1012
the species and both the species are linear also. (3) 4.5 1011 (4) 5.3 1012
48. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing Answer (4)
I ions the pair of species formed is
2
(1) HgI2 , I3 (2) HgI2 , I Sol. Ag2C2O4 (s) 2 Ag (aq) C2O4 (aq)
2s s
(3) HgI2
4 , I3
(4) Hg2I2 , I KSP = [Ag+]2 [C2O42]
Answer (3) [Ag+] = 2.2 104 M
Sol. In a solution containing HgCl2, I2 and I, both HgCl2
2.2 104
and I2 compete for I. [C2O24 ] M 1.1 104 M
2
Since formation constant of [HgI4]2 is 1.9 1030
which is very large as compared with I3 (Kf = 700) KSP = (2.2 104)2 (1.1 104)
13
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
(1) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising (4) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of
enzyme
(2) Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing
Answer (2)
(3) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing
(4) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising Sol. A catalyst decreases activation energies of both the
forward and backward reaction by same amount,
Answer (1) therefore, it speeds up both forward and backward
Sol. Inability of ns 2 electrons of the valence shell to reaction by same rate.
participate in bonding on moving down the group in Equilibrium constant is therefore not affected by
heavier p-block elements is called inert pair effect catalyst at a given temperature.
14
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
59. Which one is the wrong statement? (1) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate
ion, Z-hydrazine
h
(1) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by , (2) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid,
mv
where m = mass of the particle, v = group Z-Semicarbazide
velocity of the particle (3) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal,
h Z-Semicarbazone
(2) The uncertainty principle is E t
4 (4) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone,
(3) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater Z-Hydrazone
stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement Answer (3)
(4) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy Sol. Since 'A' gives positive silver mirror test therefore, it
of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms must be an aldehyde or -Hydroxyketone.
Answer (4) Reaction with semicarbazide indicates that A can be
Sol. Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of an aldehyde or ketone.
hydrogen like atoms is equal. Reaction with OH i.e., aldol condensation (by
60. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated assuming alkali to be dilute) indicates that A is
container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 aldehyde as aldol reaction of ketones is reversible
atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume and carried out in special apparatus.
of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy U of the
gas in joules will be These indicates option (3).
+
Cu [Ag(NH3)2] ,OH
(1) 1136.25 J CH3CH2OH CH3CHO CH3COOH
573 K
(X) (A)
(2) 500 J ethanal
O
(3) 505 J OH
H2N NH C NH2 OH
(4) +505 J CH3 CH CH2 CHO
O
3-Hydroxybutanal
Answer (3) CH3 CH = N NH C NH2
(Z)
Sol. U = q + w CH3 CH = CH CHO
(Y)
For adiabatic process, q = 0 But-2-enal
15
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
Answer (2)
NO2 CH3
Sol. XX Linear
65. In which pair of ions both the species contain
S S bond? XX3 Example : CIF3 T-shape
(1) S2O72, S2O32 (2) S4O62, S2O32 XX5 Example : BrF5 Square pyramidal
(3) S2O72, S2O82 (4) S4O62, S2O72 XX7 Example : IF7 Pentagonal bipyramidal
16
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
68. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in (3) Electrophiles are generally neutral species and
actinoids is attributed to can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
from a nucleophile
(1) The radioactive nature of actinoids
(4) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively
(2) Actinoid contraction charged species and can form a bond by
(3) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
(4) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies Answer (4)
Answer (3) Sol. Fact.
Sol. It is a fact. 71. Which of the following is a sink for CO?
69. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at (1) Haemoglobin
pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the
(2) Micro-organisms present in the soil
volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers
is now decreased by moving the movable piston (3) Oceans
fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the (4) Plants
container, when pressure of CO 2 attains its
maximum value, will be Answer (2)
Sol. Micro-organisms present in the soil is a sink for CO.
(Given that : SrCO3(s) SrO(s) + CO 2(g).
Kp = 1.6 atm) 72. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently.
It will belong to which of the following family group
(1) 5 litre (2) 10 litre and electronic configuration?
(3) 4 litre (4) 2 litre
(1) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5
Answer (1)
(2) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2
Sol. Max. pressure of CO2 = Pressure of CO2 at equilibrium
(3) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p4
For reaction,
(4) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p6
SrO(s) CO2
SrCO3 (s)
Answer (2)
Kp PCO2 1.6 atm = maximum pressure of CO2 Sol. Z = 114 belong to Group 14, carbon family
Volume of container at this stage, Electronic configuration = [Rn]5f146d107s27p2
17
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
74. Which of the following statements is not correct? Sol. Steam distillation is the most suitable method of
(1) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para
human body nitrophenols as there is intramolecular H-bonds in
ortho nitrophenol.
(2) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
79. Which one of the following pairs of species have the
(3) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are
same bond order?
involved in blood clotting
(1) CO, NO (2) O2, NO+
(4) Denaturation makes the proteins more active
Answer (4) (3) CN, CO (4) N2, O2
= 138.6 second 2 3
d sp
82. Name the gas that can readily decolourises acidified
85. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal
KMnO4 solution:
ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts
(1) CO2 (2) SO2 are put under an electric field?
(3) NO2 (4) P2O5 (1) Na (2) K
Answer (2) (3) Rb (4) Li
Sol. SO2 is readily decolourises acidified KMnO4. Answer (4)
83. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces. Sol. Li+ being smallest, has maximum charge density
(1) Ethyl chlorides Li+ is most heavily hydrated among all alkali metal
ions. Effective size of Li+ in aq solution is therefore,
(2) Iodobenzene
largest.
(3) Phenol
Moves slowest under electric field.
(4) Benzene
86. The equilibrium constants of the following are.
Answer (3)
N2 + 3H2
2NH3 K1
O CH3 OH
N2 + O2
2NO K2
HI 1
Sol. + CH3I H2 O2 H2O K3
2
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction:
84. Pick out the correct statement with respect
[Mn(CN)6]3 : 5 K
2NH3 O2 2NO 3H2O, will be
2
(1) It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
(1) K1K33 / K2 (2) K2K33 / K1
(2) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
(3) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral (3) K2K3 / K1 (4) K32K3 / K1
(4) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar Answer (2)
19
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
1 1
[NH3 ]2 [X]2
Sol. (I)
N2 3H2
2NH3 ; K1 k eq [X] k eq 2 [X2 ] 2 ...(2)
[N2 ] [H2 ]3 [X2 ]
Put (2) in (1)
2
[NO] 1 1
(II) N2 O2
2NO; K 2
[N2 ] [O2 ] Rate = kk eq 2 [X2 ] 2 [Y2 ]
1 3
1 [H2 O] Overall order = 1
(III) H2 O2 H2O; K 3 2 2
2 [H2 ] [O2 ]1/2
89. The IUPAC name of the compound
(II + 3 III II) will give
5 K
O O
2NH3
O2
2NO 3H2O;
2 C
H is ________.
K K2 K33 / K1
O
O O
Sol. CH3 C NH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH
C 2 3
CH3 NH2 + 2NaBr + Na2CO3 + 3H2O Sol. H 4
(ii) X + Y2
XY + Y (slow) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
90. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with
(iii) X + Y XY (fast)
CN ion. Silver is later recovered by
The overall order of the reaction will be
(1) Liquation (2) Distillation
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Zone refining (4) Displacement with Zn
(3) 0 (4) 1.5 Answer (4)
Answer (4) Sol. Zn being more reactive than Ag and Au, displaces
Sol. The solution of this question is given by assuming them.
step (i) to be reversible which is not given in question From Native ore,
Leaching
Overall rate = Rate of slowest step (ii) 4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2
20
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
Sol. Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions (1) Argentaffin cells (2) Paneth cells
because of branched lipid chain in cell membrane (3) Zymogen cells (4) Kupffer cells
which reduces fluidity of cell membrane. Answer (2)
Halophiles are exclusively found in saline habitats. Sol. Kupffer-cells are phagocytic cells of liver.
93. Select the mismatch : Zymogen cells are enzyme producing cells.
(1) Frankia Alnus Paneth cell secretes lysozyme which acts as
(2) Rhodospirillum Mycorrhiza anti-bacterial agent.
Argentaffin cells are hormone producing cells.
(3) Anabaena Nitrogen fixer
98. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the
(4) Rhizobium Alfalfa
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
Answer (2) explanation for this feature?
Sol. Rhodospirillum is anaerobic, free living nitrogen fixer. (a) They do not need to reproduce
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between fungi (b) They are somatic cells
and roots of higher plants.
(c) They do not metabolize
94. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
transport
(1) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
(1) Only (d) (2) Only (a)
(2) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
moves
Answer (1)
(3) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
Sol. In Human RBCs, nucleus degenerates during
(4) Negatively charged fragments do not move maturation which provide more space for oxygen
Answer (2) carrying pigment (Haemoglobin). It lacks most of the
cell organelles including mitochondria so respires
Sol. During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate
anaerobically.
(resolve) according to their size through sieving effect
provided by agarose gel. 99. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from
95. Attractants and rewards are required for (1) Heart
(1) Anemophily (2) Stomach
(2) Entomophily (3) Kidneys
(3) Hydrophily (4) Intestine
(4) Cleistogamy Answer (4)
21
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
Sol. In hepatic portal system, hepatic portal vein carries (v) Segregation also occurs during anaphase as
maximum amount of nutrients from intestine to liver. daughter chromosomes separate and move to
100. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came opposite poles.
from the experiments of (vi) Telophase leads to formation of two daughter
(1) Griffith nuclei.
(2) Hershey and Chase 103. Which one of the following statements is correct,
with reference to enzymes?
(3) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(1) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
(4) Hargobind Khorana
(2) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
Answer (2)
(3) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
Sol. Hershey and Chase gave unequivocal proof which
ended the debate between protein and DNA as (4) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor
genetic material. Answer (2)
101. Which among the following are the smallest living Sol. Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme in which protein
cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic part is apoenzyme while non-protein is cofactor.
to plants as well as animals and can survive without
Coenzyme are also organic compounds but their
oxygen?
association with apoenzyme is only transient and
(1) Bacillus (2) Pseudomonas serve as cofactors.
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Nostoc 104. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used
Answer (3) to elongate
Sol. Mycoplasmas are smallest, wall-less prokaryotes, (1) The leading strand towards replication fork
pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic on both
(2) The lagging strand towards replication fork
plants and animals.
(3) The leading strand away from replication fork
102. Which of the following options gives the correct
sequence of events during mitosis? (4) The lagging strand away from the replication fork
(1) Condensation nuclear membrane disassembly Answer (4)
crossing over segregation telophase
Sol. Two DNA polymerase molecules work simultaneous
(2) Condensation nuclear membrane disassembly at the DNA fork, one on the leading strand and the
arrangement at equator centromere other on the lagging strand.
division segregation telophase
Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by DNA
(3) Condensation crossing over nuclear
polymerase at lagging strand in 5 3 direction.
membrane disassembly segregation
New Okazaki fragments appear as the replication
telophase
fork opens further.
(4) Condensation arrangement at equator
As the first Okazaki fragment appears away from
centromere division segregation
the replication fork, the direction of elongation would
telophase
be away from replication fork.
Answer (2)
105. Which of the following are not polymeric?
Sol. The correct sequence of events during mitosis would
be as follows (1) Nucleic acids
(iv) Centromere division or splitting occurs during Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides
anaphase forming daughter chromosomes. Lipids are the esters of fatty acids and alcohol
22
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
Sol. Biosphere reserve is protected area with 110. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to
multipurpose activities. non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of
It has three zones immune-response is responsible for such rejections?
(a) Core zone without any human interference (1) Autoimmune response
(b) Buffer zone with limited human activity (2) Cell-mediated immune response
(c) Transition zone human settlement, grazing (3) Hormonal immune response
cultivation etc., are allowed.
(4) Physiological immune response
107. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
Answer (2)
(1) Autogamy and xenogamy
Sol. Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted
(2) Autogamy and geitonogamy
tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune
(3) Geitonogamy and xenogamy response.
(4) Cleistogamy and xenogamy 111. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
Answer (2)
(1) Plants (2) Fungi
Sol. When unisexual male and female flowers are present
(3) Animals (4) Bacteria
on different plants the condition is called dioecious
and it prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy. Answer (4)
108. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is Sol. Spliceosomes are used in removal of introns during
(1) Pineal gland (2) Corpus cardiacum post-transcriptional processing of hnRNA in
eukaryotes only as split genes are absent as
(3) Corpus luteum (4) Corpus allatum prokaryotes.
Answer (3)
112. An example of colonial alga is
Sol. Corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine structure
(1) Chlorella (2) Volvox
formed in the ovary after ovulation. It is responsible
for the release of the hormones like progesterone, (3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra
oestrogen etc. Answer (2)
109. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases Sol. Volvox is motile colonial fresh water alga with definite
(Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) number of vegetative cells.
and select the correct option.
113. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?
Column - I Column- II
(1) Equidae (2) Perissodactyla
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(3) Caballus (4) Ferus
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
Answer (2)
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma Sol. Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class
mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed
virus mammals.
Options :
114. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible
(a) (b) (c) (d) for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) ATP?
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Lysosome (2) Ribosome
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondrion
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Answer (4)
23
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
Sol. Mitochondria are the site of aerobic oxidation of 120. Plants which produce characterstic pneumatophores
carbohydrates to generate ATP. and show vivipary belong to
115. The process of separation and purification of (1) Mesophytes (2) Halophytes
expressed protein before marketing is called (3) Psammophytes (4) Hydrophytes
(1) Upstream processing Answer (2)
(2) Downstream processing Sol. Halophytes growing in saline soils show
(3) Bioprocessing (i) Vivipary which is in-situ seed germination
(4) Postproduction processing (ii) Pneumatophores for gaseous exchange
Answer (2) 121. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ
Sol. Biosynthetic stage for synthesis of product in conservation of threatened animals and plants?
recombinant DNA technology is called upstreaming (1) Wildlife Safari parks (2) Biodiversity hot spots
process while after completion of biosynthetic stage, (3) Amazon rainforest (4) Himalayan region
the product has to be subjected through a series of
processes which include separation and purification Answer (1)
are collectively referred to as downstreaming Sol. Ex-situ conservation is offsite strategy for
processing. conservation of animals and plants in zoological park
and botanical gardens respectively.
116. Mycorrhizae are the example of
122. Select the mismatch :
(1) Fungistasis (2) Amensalism
(1) Pinus Dioecious
(3) Antibiosis (4) Mutualism (2) Cycas Dioecious
Answer (4) (3) Salvinia Heterosporous
Sol. Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association of fungi with (4) Equisetum Homosporous
roots of higher plants. Answer (1)
117. Viroids differ from viruses in having : Sol. Pinus is monoecious plant having both male and
female cones on same plant.
(1) DNA molecules with protein coat
123. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal
(2) DNA molecules without protein coat aperture?
(3) RNA molecules with protein coat (1) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
(4) RNA molecules without protein coat (2) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
Answer (4) (3) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the
cell wall of guard cells
Sol. Viroids are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA
particles, without protein coat. (4) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in
the cell wall of guard cells
118. Root hairs develop from the region of
Answer (3)
(1) Maturation (2) Elongation
Sol. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially rather than
(3) Root cap (4) Meristematic activity longitudinally which makes easy for the stoma to
Answer (1) open.
Sol. In roots, the root hairs arise from zone of maturation. 124. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome
This zone is differentiated zone thus bearing root indicates:
hairs. (1) Transcription is occurring
119. Coconut fruit is a (2) DNA replication is occurring
(1) Drupe (2) Berry (3) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre
(4) The DNA double helix is exposed
(3) Nut (4) Capsule
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Sol. The association of H1 protein indicates the complete
Sol. Coconut fruit is a drupe. A drupe develops from formation of nucleosome.
monocarpellary superior ovary and are one seeded. Therefore the DNA is in condensed form.
24
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
125. DNA fragments are 130. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a
protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
(1) Positively charged
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the
(2) Negatively charged RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
altered?
(3) Neutral
(1) 1 (2) 11
(4) Either positively or negatively charged depending
(3) 33 (4) 333
on their size
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. If deletion occurs at 901st position the remaining 98
Sol. DNA fragments are negatively charged because of bases specifying for 33 codons of amino acids will
phosphate group. be altered.
126. Capacitation occurs in 131. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of
(1) Rete testis (1) Fibrous joint (2) Cartilaginous joint
(2) Epididymis (3) Synovial joint (4) Saddle joint
(3) Vas deferens Answer (3)
(4) Female Reproductive tract Sol. Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow
Answer (4) considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of
synovial joint which provide rotational movement as
Sol. Capacitation is increase in fertilising capacity of
in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral
sperms which occurs in female reproductive tract.
column.
127. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?
132. A gene whose expression helps to identify
(1) Forest ecosystem (2) Grassland ecosystem transformed cell is known as
(3) Pond ecosystem (4) Lake ecosystem (1) Selectable marker (2) Vector
(3) Plasmid (4) Structural gene
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Sol. High productive ecosystem are
Sol. In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers
Tropical rain forest helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants
Coral reef and selectively permitting the growth of the
transformants.
Estuaries
133. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical
Sugarcane fields layers depending on their height can be seen best
128. A disease caused by an autosomal primary in :
non-disjunction is (1) Tropical Savannah (2) Tropical Rain Forest
(1) Down's syndrome (2) Klinefelter's syndrome (3) Grassland (4) Temperate Forest
(3) Turner's syndrome (4) Sickle cell anemia Answer (2)
Answer (1) Sol. The tropical rain forest have five vertical strata on the
basis of height of plants. i.e., ground vegetation,
Sol. Downs syndrome is caused by non-disjunction of
shrubs, short canopy trees, tall canopy trees and
21st chromosome.
tall emergent trees.
129. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are 134. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi.
(1) Haplontic, Diplontic
Among the blood types of their children, how many
(2) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(3) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic (1) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(4) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic (2) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
Answer (3) (3) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
Sol. Ectocarpus has haplodiplontic life cycle and Fucus (4) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
has diplontic life cycle.
Answer (3)
25
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
Sol. Husband Wife 138. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle?
AB A
I I I i
(1) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+
is reduced to NADH + H+
+ IA IB
(2) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is
IA IAIA IAIB reduced to FADH2
i IAi IBi
(3) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic
Number of genotypes = 4 acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
Number of phenotypes = 3 (4) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield
IAIA and IAi = A
citric acid
IAIB = AB
Answer (4)
IBi = B
Sol. Krebs cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA
135. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of (2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C) to form citric acid
(1) Marchantia (2) Fucus (6C).
(3) Funaria (4) Chlamydomonas 139. In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with
flagellated cells called :
Answer (4)
(1) Ostia
Sol. Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle hence
showing zygotic meiosis or initial meiosis. (2) Oscula
136. Which of the following is correctly matched for the (3) Choanocytes
product produced by them? (4) Mesenchymal cells
(1) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
Answer (3)
(2) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
Sol. Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel
(3) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol circulation to water in water canal system.
Answer (4) 140. Which of the following RNAs should be most
abundant in animal cell?
Sol. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly called
Brewers yeast. It causes fermentation of (1) r-RNA
carbohydrates producing ethanol. (2) t-RNA
137. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues (3) m-RNA
to beat for some time
(4) mi-RNA
Select the best option from the following statements
Answer (1)
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm Sol. rRNA is most abundant in animal cell. It constitutes
(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation 80% of total RNA of the cell.
(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature 141. Which among these is the correct combination of
aquatic mammals?
(d) Heart is autoexcitable
(1) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
Options
(2) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(1) Only (c) (2) Only (d)
(3) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
(3) (a) & (b) (4) (c) & (d)
(4) Trygon, Whales, Seals
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
Sol. Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having Sol. Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the members of
self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish) while whale,
of this condition, it will keep on working outside the Dolphin and Seals are aquatic mammals belong to
body for some time. class mammalia.
26
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
142. With reference to factors affecting the rate of (3) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is attached to vertebral
not correct? column but are free on
(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% ventral side
of full sunlight (4) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally
(2) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto attached to vertebral
0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate column but are free on
(3) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with ventral side
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have Answer (1)
much lower temperature optimum
Sol. In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which 7
(4) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally to
grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere for higher vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.
yield
145. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
Answer (3)
can be visualised after staining with
Sol. In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher
(1) Bromophenol blue
temperature due to increased photorespiration.
C4 plants have higher temperature optimum because (2) Acetocarmine
of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase (3) Aniline blue
enzyme, which is sensitive to low temperature.
(4) Ethidium bromide
143. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
Answer (4)
when
Sol. Ethidium bromide is used to stain the DNA
(1) The value of 'r' approaches zero
fragments and will appear as orange coloured bands
(2) K = N under UV light.
(3) K > N 146. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
(4) K < N into
Answer (2) (1) Ovule
Sol. A population growing in a habitat with limited (2) Endosperm
resources shows logistic growth curve.
(3) Embryo sac
For logistic growth
(4) Embryo
dN K N
rN Answer (3)
dt K
Sol. Megaspore is the first cell of female gametophytic
KN
If K = N then =0 generation in angiosperm. It undergoes three
K
successive generations of free nuclear mitosis to
dN form 8-nucleated and 7-celled embryo sac.
the = 0,
dt 147. Among the following characters, which one was not
the population reaches asymptote. considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?
144. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are (1) Stem Tall or Dwarf
true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents
(2) Trichomes Glandular or non-glandular
values of X and Y and provides their explanation :
(3) Seed Green or Yellow
(1) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached
dorsally to vertebral (4) Pod Inflated or Constricted
column and ventrally to the Answer (2)
sternum
Sol. During his experiments Mendel studied seven
(2) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached
characters.
dorsally to vertebral
column and sternum on Nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or non-glandular
the two ends was not considered by Mendel.
27
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
148. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
because of : (d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual
photopigments
(1) Residual Volume
(1) (a) & (b)
(2) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(3) Tidal Volume (2) (a), (c) & (d)
(4) Expiratory Reserve Volume (3) (a) & (c)
Answer (1) (d) (b), (c) & (d)
Sol. Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration Answer (2)
as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of
alveoli even after forceful expiration. Sol. Carotene is the source of retinal which is involved in
formation of rhodopsin of rod cells. Retinal, a derivative
149. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
reproduction, acts on of vitamin A, is the light-absorbing part of all visual
photopigments.
(1) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of LH and oxytocin 153. Which one of the following statements is not valid for
aerosols?
(2) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of LH and FSH (1) They are harmful to human health
(3) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion (2) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
of oxytocin and FSH (3) They cause increased agricultural productivity
(4) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion (4) They have negative impact on agricultural land
of LH and relaxin
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. Aerosols can cause various problems to agriculture
Sol. Hypothalamus secretes GnRH which stimulates through its direct or indirect effects on plants.
anterior pituitary gland for the secretion of However continually increasing air pollution may
gonadotropins (FSH and LH). represent a persistent and largely irreversible threat
150. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of to agriculture in the future.
(1) Stipules (2) Adventitious root 154. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause
(3) Stem (4) Leaf the release of
Answer (3) (1) Renin
Sol. Thorns are hard, pointed straight structures for (2) Atrial Natriuretic Factor
protection. These are modified stem (3) Aldosterone
151. Which one from those given below is the period for (4) ADH
Mendel's hybridization experiments? Answer (2)
(1) 1856 - 1863 (2) 1840 - 1850 Sol. A decrease in blood pressure / volume stimulates the
(3) 1857 - 1869 (4) 1870 - 1877 release of renin, aldosterone, and ADH while
increase in blood pressure / volume stimulates the
Answer (1)
release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) which
Sol. Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on Pea cause vasodilation and also inhibits RAAS (Renin
plant for 7 years between 1856 to 1863 and his data Angiotensin Aldosterone System) mechanism that
was published in 1865 (according to NCERT). decreases the blood volume/pressure.
152. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene 155. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by
rich food (1) mating of related individuals of same breed
Select the best option from the following statements (2) mating of unrelated individuals of same breed
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene (3) mating of individuals of different breed
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the (4) mating of individuals of different species
membrane discs of the inner segment Answer (1)
28
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
(4) The descending limb of loop of Henle is Sol. Artificial selection to obtain cow yielding higher milk
permeable to electrolytes output will shift the peak to one direction, hence, will
Answer (1) be an example of Directional selection. In stabilizing
Sol. Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to selection, the organisms with the mean value of the
water but impermeable to electrolytes while trait are selected. In disruptive selection, both
ascending limb is impermeable to water but extremes get selected.
permeable to electrolytes. 162. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms
158. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented in male frogs :
by the application of (1) Testes Bidder's canal Kidney Vasa
(1) Cytokinins (2) Ethylene efferentia Urinogenital duct Cloaca
(3) Auxins (4) Gibberellic acid (2) Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Seminal
Answer (3) Vesicle Urinogenital duct Cloaca
Sol. Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall. (3) Testes Vasa efferentia Bidder's canal
NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit Ureter Cloaca
drop in Citrus. (4) Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Bidder's
159. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play canal Urinogenital duct Cloaca
school and passes through a dental check-up. The Answer (4)
dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth.
Sol. In male frog the sperms will move from
Which teeth were absent?
(1) Incisors (2) Canines Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Bidders
canal Urinogenital duct Cloaca.
(3) Pre-molars (4) Molars
Answer (3) 163. Which of the following options best represents the
enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?
Sol. Total number of teeth in human child = 20.
Premolars are absent in primary dentition. (1) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
160. An important characteristic that Hemichordates (2) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
share with Chordates is
(3) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
(1) Absence of notochord
(2) Ventral tubular nerve cord (4) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy-
(3) Pharynx with gill slits peptidase
29
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
Sol. Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the Answer (4)
gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal Sol. Pre-synaptic membrane is involved in the release of
juice. neurotransmitter in the chemical synapse. The
164. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 receptors sites for neurotransmitters are present on
acceptor in : post-synaptic membrane.
(1) C3 plants (2) C4 plants 169. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does
not cause further increase in height, because
(3) C2 plants (4) C3 and C4 plants
(1) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults
Answer (2)
(2) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
Sol. PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary CO2
acceptor in the mesophyll cell cytoplasm of C4 (3) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone
plants like maize, sugarcane, Sorghum etc. in adults
165. The morphological nature of the edible part of (4) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
coconut is
Answer (2)
(1) Perisperm (2) Cotyledon
Sol. Epiphyseal plate is responsible for the growth of
(3) Endosperm (4) Pericarp
bone which close after adolescence so
Answer (3) hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not
Sol. Coconut has double endosperm with liquid cause further increase in height.
endosperm and cellular endosperm. 170. Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time
166. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein (1) Ecological Biodiversity
degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis
of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, (2) Laws of limiting factor
which of the following is expected to occur? (3) Species area relationships
(1) Chromosomes will not condense (4) Population Growth equation
(2) Chromosomes will be fragmented Answer (3)
(3) Chromosomes will not segregate Sol. Alexander Von Humboldt observed that within a
(4) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur region species richness increases with the increases
in area.
Answer (3)
Sol. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein 171. Myelin sheath is produced by
necessary for separation of daughter chromosomes (1) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes
during anaphase. If APC is defective then the
chromosomes will fail to segregate during anaphase. (2) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
167. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the (3) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
lymphoid tissue in human body. (4) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(1) 50% (2) 20% Answer (1)
(3) 70% (4) 10% Sol. Oligodendrocytes are neuroglial cells which produce
myelin sheath in central nervous system while
Answer (1)
Schwann cell produces myelin sheath in peripheral
Sol. MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and nervous system.
it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue 172. In case of a couple where the male is having a very
in human body. low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for
168. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on fertilisation?
(1) Membranes of synaptic vesicles (1) Intrauterine transfer
(2) Pre-synaptic membrane (2) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(3) Tips of axons (3) Artificial Insemination
(4) Post-synaptic membrane (4) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
30
NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-A) APRA
31