Test - 5: (Science)

Test-5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Time : 3 Hrs. TEST - 5 MM : 600
[ SCIENCE]
Choose the correct answer :
1. Star appears to move from east to west because 6. The inner planets are
(1) Earth does not effect the motion of stars (1) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
(2) Star rotates with very high speed as compared (2) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
to earth (3) Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter
(3) Earth moves from west to east (4) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Jupiter
7. Mercury is closer to sun than venus but venus is
(4) Earth moves from east to west
hotter than mercury because
2. Which diagram correctly represent the location of (1) Mercury has no atmosphere and venus has a
earth and the pole star? thick atmosphere which can retain the heat
(2) Mercury is mostly made of sedimentary rocks
Pole star while venus contains igneous rocks
(3) Sun being closer to the mercury absorbs the
Earth
(1) (2) heat of mercury surface
(4) Mercury has high amount of ice which keep it
cooler than venus
Earth Pole star
8. The NASA stands for
(1) The National Astronaut and Space Authority
Earth Pole star (2) The National Aeronautics and Space Authority
(3) The National Astronaut and Space Administration
(3) (4)
(4) The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Pole star Earth
9. The live telecast of Modi speech is possible due
to
3. A component of universe having a huge group of
stars and other celestial bodies that are bound (1) Geostationary satellite
together by______ is called galaxy. (2) Polar satellite
(1) Magnetic force (2) Electrostatic force (3) Low earth orbiting satellite
(3) Gravitational force (4) Frictional force (4) Sun-synchronous satellite
10. The tail of a comet points away from the sun due the
4. Identify the constellation in the figure given below
(1) Gravitational force which is repulsive in nature
(2) Gravitational force which is attractive in nature
(3) Radiation pressure
(4) Its unchanged physical shape
11. The star emits light due to
(1) Cassiopeia (2) Orion (1) Heat released in fusion of hydrogen into helium
(2) Heat released in fusion of helium into hydrogen
(3) Scorpius (4) Leo major
(3) Heat released in breaking of hydrogen into
5. Sirius is the name of deuterium
(1) Star (2) Planet (4) Heat released in fusion of hydrogen into
(3) Galaxy (4) Constellation deuterium
1/12
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-5 (Code A)
12. Match the column 21. Consider the given box
(a) STAR nearest to (i) Meteor
Wax, LPG, Kerosene, Charcoal, Wood, Paper
solar system
(b) Shooting star (ii) Pole star The total number of substances which does not burn
with a flame is
(c) Star that points to (iii) Alpha centauri
(1) One (2) Two
the north pole of the
(3) Three (4) Four
earth 22. Read the following statements carefully
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iii) Statement-1: Fuels containing oxygen in them burn
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) readily.
13. Days and night are due to Statement-2: Fuels containing oxygen have low
calorific value
(1) Rotation of Sun (2) Rotation of Earth
Now, choose the correct option
(3) Revolution of Earth (4) Revolution of Sun
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
14. Which of the following constellation contains pole
stars?
(3) Both the statements are correct
(1) Ursa minor (2) Ursa major
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Orion (4) Scorpio
23. Which of the following is not considered as a
15. Which of the following is not true? characteristic of a good fuel?
(1) Planets rotates about their own axis (1) High calorific value
(2) Planets are the source of light (2) High ignition temperature
(3) Some planets are gaseous and some are rocky (3) Less residue production
(4) Most of the planets do not have rings around (4) Less evolution of harmful gases
them 24. Burning of fuel generally does not cause
16. The planet known as red planet is (1) Global warming
(1) Saturn (2) Venus (2) Acid rain
(3) Neptune (4) Mars (3) Environmental pollution
17. Small celestial bodies characterized by bright head (4) Forest fire
and a long tail is called 25. Relative contribution of different greenhouse gases to
(1) Comets (2) Planets global warming is shown as follows
(3) Meteorites (4) Meteors N2O

18. The distance of stars, are expressed in terms of CFC
(1) Megameter (2) Light year B
A
(3) Micrometer (4) Kilometer
19. Ozone layer around the earth prevents us from
(1) X-ray (2) Infrared rays Identify A and B and choose the correct option
(3) UV rays (4) Visible rays
A B
20. Revolution of earth around the sun causes
(1) CH4 CO
(1) Day and night
(2) CO CO2
(2) Change in size of moon
(3) CO2 CH4
(3) Light and dark
(4) CH4 CO2
(4) Summer and winter
2/12
26. Which of the following is generally not a cause of 32. Which of the following zones of candle flame has
forest fire? maximum oxygen supply?
(1) Extreme heat of summer (1) Zone of no combustion
(2) Dry weather (2) Luminous zone
(3) Industrial pollution (3) Dark zone
(4) Strong wind (4) Non-luminous zone
27. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 33. If the calorific values of two fuels A and B are 450000
kJ/kg and 150000 kJ/kg respectively then the total
(1) The material which can act as a source of
energy on burning are known as fuel amount of heat energy obtained on combustion of
15 g of A and 20 g of B is
(2) Majority of fuels are proteins
(1) 675000 kJ (2) 975000 kJ
(3) The food which we eat is also a fuel
(3) 6750 kJ (4) 9750 kJ
(4) Breaking down of food is an example of slow
combustion 34. Now a days, the safety match stick head has a
coating of
28. If the ignition temperature of four different fuels A, B,
C and D follows the given order: (1) Antimony trisulphide and white phosphorus
A<C<B<D (2) Antimony trisulphide and potassium chlorate
Then, which of them will catch fire first? (3) Potassium chlorate and white phosphorus
(4) Antimony sulphate and potassium chloride
(1) A (2) B
35. Which of the following is considered as the best fire
(3) C (4) D
extinguisher for the fire caused by electricity?
29. Consider the given table
(1) Water (2) Carbon monoxide
Zone of candle Comparative Colour (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Sulphur dioxide
flame temperature
(i) A Hottest B 36. Which of the following is not a consequence of
global warming?
(ii) C Moderately hot Yellow
(1) Melting of ice caps
(iii) Zone of no Least hot D
combustion (2) Increased frequency of floods and droughts
(3) Increasing sea level
A, B, C and D respectively are
(4) Deforestation
(1) Non-luminous, black, luminous, yellow
37. Uncontrolled destructive burning is called
(2) Luminous, black, non-luminous, blue
(1) Fire (2) Global warming
(3) Non-luminous zone, blue, luminous, black
(3) Flame (4) Combustion
(4) Luminous zone, blue, dark zone, black 38. Carbon dioxide is a suitable fire extinguisher for the
30. Which of the given fuels has the least calorific value? fire caused by petrol
(1) Hydrogen (2) Kerosene (1) Because it absorbs the petrol
(3) LPG (4) CNG (2) Being heavier than oxygen it covers the fire and
cut off the oxygen supply to fuel
31. Oxides of sulphur when released in atmosphere, trap
(3) Being colder than oxygen, it lowers the
water vapour from air and cause
temperature of fuel
(1) Acid rain (2) Global warming
(4) Because it lowers the ignition temperature of
(3) Greenhouse effect (4) Deforestation fuel
3/12
39. Which of the following zones of candle flame is/are 47. Identify the gas on the basis of the given information.
used by goldsmiths to melt gold? Poisonous gas.
(i) Outermost zone Produced during incomplete combustion of petrol.
(ii) Middle zone Reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of
haemoglobin in our blood.
(iii) Innermost zone
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Carbon monoxide
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (ii) & (iii)
(3) Nitrous oxide (4) Methane
(3) Both (i) & (iii) (4) Only (iii) 48. _______appears as a thick fog-like layer and
40. LPG contains reduces visibility in the atmosphere especially during
winters.
(1) Methane (2) Ethane
(1) Smog (2) SPM
(3) Butane (4) Pentane
(3) CFC (4) Nuclear radiation
41. The major gas produced during complete combustion
of coal constitutes ______of air. 49. Statement-1: Ozone depletion is caused due to
increased amount of chlorofluorocarbons.
(1) 78% (2) 21%
Statement-2: UV radiations are beneficial for skin
(3) 0.93% (4) 0.03% and eyes.
42. How many of the following are natural sources of air (1) Only statement-1 is correct
pollution?
Automobile exhausts, Forest fires, Volcanic (3) Both the statements are correct
eruptions, Burning of dung cakes, Smoke from (4) Both the statements are incorrect
power plants.
50. Which one of the following is not responsible for
(1) One (2) Two controlling the air pollution?
(3) Three (4) Four (1) Afforestation
43. During vacations, Heena visited her village and saw (2) Use of unleaded petrol in automobiles
a green coloured layer deposited on the surface of (3) Global warming
the pond. The green colour is due to
(4) Reforestation
(1) Algae (2) Fungi 51. In biology class Gunjan's teacher taught her about
(3) Bacteria (4) Virus the substances which contaminate air, water and
44. Yamuna Action Plan was launched in land. These substances collectively are called
(1) Smog
(1) 1987 (2) 1985
(2) Suspended particulate matter
(3) 1977 (4) 1997
(3) Ozone-depleting substances
45. At many places Ganga river is said to be dead
because (4) Pollutants
(1) Aquatic life cannot survive there because of high 52. How many of the following statements is/are correct?
level of pollution (i) Deforestation is plantation of trees.
(2) People throw dead bodies in that area (ii) Waste water should be treated in sewage
(3) No microorganisms are found there treatment plants before discharging into rivers.
(4) A lot of green algae grow in that areas (iii) Industries and automobiles are the major
sources of air pollution.
46. Which of the following vehicle should be used by
Aman for going to office so as to minimise the level (iv) Leaching is upcoming of ground water.
of air pollution? (v) Ozone hole was first noticed over Antarctica.
(1) Car (2) Bus (1) One (2) Two
(3) Scooter (4) Rickshaw (3) Three (4) Four
4/12
53. Which one of the following do(es) not constitute(s) a 60. The Supreme Court has ordered the industries to
major water pollutant? switch to cleaner fuels to save the Taj Mahal.
Cleaner fuels include
(1) Untreated sewage
(1) Leaded petrol and CNG
(2) Automobiles
(2) CNG and LPG
(3) Industrial wastes
(3) Petrol and CNG
(4) Fertilisers
(4) Coal and petrol
54. A method of purification of water in which tablets are
61. Which of the following industrial catastrophe occurred
added is
due to leakage of gas?
(1) Filtration
(1) Minamata incident (2) Global warming
(2) Boiling
(3) Montreal protocol (4) Bhopal gas tragedy
(3) Filtration and boiling
62. Which of the following will not occur due to ozone
(4) Chlorination depletion?
55. Manan told his younger brother that the water used (1) Decrease in average temperature of earth's
for washing vegetables can be used for watering surface
plants. Which of the following Rs is explained by (2) Reaching increased amount of ultra-violet
Manan? radiation on earth's surface
(1) Reduce (2) Reuse (3) Skin cancer, cataract, ageing of skin and
(3) Recycle (4) Retain defects in immune system
56. A gardener made greenhouse in his nursery. The sun (4) Mutations in genetic material
rays that will enter into it 63. World's Environment Day is celebrated on
(1) Will escape immediately (1) 27 June (2) 5 July
(2) Will not escape (3) 5 June (4) 27 July
(3) Will decrease the temperature of greenhouse
64.
(4) Will not effect the temperature of greenhouse
Ra
57. Thermal power plants, oil refineries, etc. discharge

dia
tio
residual water directly into the water bodies, which

n
adversely affects the aquatic organisms living in the

water body. The water thrown by them is Ozone
layer
(1) Hot water (2) Ice cold water
(3) Potable water (4) Tap water
58. A layer present in the stratosphere which protects us
from harmful UV radiations is
CFCs
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Methane
Which of the following is caused due to these
(3) Chlorofluorocarbons (4) Ozone radiations?
59. Select the incorrect match amongst following gas (1) Tuberculosis (2) Malaria
composition of air.
(3) Typhoid (4) Eye defect
(1) Nitrogen 78%
65. Which of the following are responsible for yellowing
(2) Argon 0.93% of marble of Taj Mahal?
(3) Oxygen 12% (1) H2O and CO2 (2) H2SO4 and HNO3
(4) Carbon dioxide 0.03% (3) H2SO4 and CFCs (4) CH4 and HNO3
5/12
66. The primary greenhouse gas responsible for global 74. Select the correct statements amongst the following.
warming is (a) Industrial waste water generally contains heavy
(1) Nitrous oxide (2) Methane metals.
(b) Use of ethanol-blended petrol causes air
(3) Chlorofluorocarbons (4) Carbon dioxide
pollution.
67. The undesirable change in the physical, chemical or (c) Greenhouse effect refers to the reflection of UV
biological properties of air, water and land is called radiations by ozone.
(1) Pollutants (2) Smog (d) Before supplying water to households, municipal
corporation treat the water.
(3) Pollution (4) Ozone depletion
(e) Chemical fertilizers get washed away from the
68. STP w.r.t. control of water pollution stands for fields into water bodies is called surface run-off.
(1) Standard temperature and pressure (1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (a), (d) and (e)
(3) (b), (d) and (e) (4) (c), (d) and (e)
(2) Sewage treatment program
75. Match the columns and select the correct option.
(3) Standard treatment plant Column-I Column-II
(4) Sewage treatment plant (a) Acid rain (i) Contamination of air,
69. Largest sources of air pollution in cities like New water and soil
Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai are (b) Infrared radiations (ii) Eye defects
(c) UV radiations (iii) Global warming
(1) Automobiles (2) Industries
(d) Pollution (iv) Marble cancer
(3) Nuclear reactors (4) Combustion of fuels (1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
Incomplete combustion (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
70. (A) Coal Carbon dioxide
76. Minamata incident was related to
Complete combustion (1) The disease caused by eating fish inhabiting
(B) Coal Carbon monoxide
mercury contaminated water
Select the correct set of words to replace the (2) The disease caused by soil pollution
underlined words (wherever necessary) to correct the (3) The disease caused by air pollution
given reactions (A) and (B), respectively. (4) Hiroshima and Nagasaki disaster
(1) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide 77. Nuclear radiations and SPM are responsible for
(2) Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide (1) Water pollution and air pollution
(2) Water pollution
(3) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(3) Air pollution
(4) Sulphur dioxide and carbon dioxide (4) Soil pollution
71. Yamuna Action Plan was lunched to reduce 78. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of
(1) Soil pollution (2) Water pollution global warming?
(1) Rise in sea level
(3) Sound pollution (4) Air pollution
(2) Flooding of low lying coastal areas
72. To control water pollution, chemical fertilizers should (3) Decrease in the earth's temperature
be replaced by X. Identify X. (4) Change in rainfall pattern
(1) Biopesticides 79. Which of the following is not an anthropogenic
source of air pollution?
(2) Biopesticides and fertilizers
(1) Factories
(3) Fertilizers (2) Forest fire
(4) Biofertilizers (3) Smog
73. ________was signed to control emission of ozone (4) Suspended particulate matter
depleting substances. 80. An area with extreme depletion in the concentration
of ozone in the stratosphere is called
(1) Yamuna action plan (2) Montreal protocol
(1) Black hole (2) Stratopause
(3) Ganga action plan (4) Bhopal gas tragedy (3) Dark zone (4) Ozone hole
6/12
[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. Highest power of the variable in the polynomial 89. Quotient obtained on dividing x2 y2 z2 + 2yz +
(x2 + 3x + 4x3) x (x 0) is x y + z by (x y + z) is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) x y z (2) x y + z + 1
(3) 1 (4) 0 (3) x y z + 1 (4) x + y z + 1
82. The remainder when a number is divided by 4 is 90. 2293440 is not divisible by
equal to the remainder when the number formed by
(1) 3 (2) 15
its last two digits is divided by______.
(3) 12 (4) 18
(1) 8 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 6 91. The total number of divisors of 768 is equal to
83. One of the factors of x4 + 36y4 12x2y2 is (1) 16 (2) 9

(1) x2 6y (2) x + 6y (3) 18 (4) 12
92. If an integer of two digits is m times the sum of its
(3) x 2 6 y 2 (4) x 6 y digits, then the number formed by interchanging the
84. Which of the following points has x-coordinate half of digits is the sum of the digits multiplied by
its y-coordinate? (1) m 1 (2) 10 m
(1) (6, 3) (2) (8, 16) (3) m + 1 (4) 11 m
(3) (16, 8) (4) (4, 2) 93. The pie-chart given below shows the percentage of
85. If P = 6x2 12, Q = 12x4 6x2 27 and R = 2x2 + the population of seven villages in 2000. If in 2001,
3, then which of the following is incorrect? the population of villages A and C increase by 20%
(1) P + Q = 3(4x4 13) each and the percentage of population remains
unchanged for all the other villages, then the
15 population of village C in 2001, given that the
(2) Q P = 12 x 2 x 2 1 population of village A in 2000 was 20000, is
12x 2
(3) R(P 3) + 9 = 12(x4 x2 3) G
F 10%
(4) P R = Q + 30x2 16%
E
86. The quotient obtained when (587 + 875 + 758) is 10% 20% A
divided by 20 is
18%
(1) 121 (2) 151 D 16%
(3) 111 (4) 101 10% B
C
2
87. x 2 2a 1 x 2 can be factorised as (1) 10000 (2) 12,000
a
(3) 15000 (4) 16000
x 1 1 94. Which of the following is not true?
(1) ( x a) (2) x ( x 2a )
a a (1) If 3651x is divisible by 9, where x is a digit, then
the value of x is 3.
1
(3) (x + a)(x a) (4) x ( x 2a )
a (2) The difference of a 2-digit number ab (a > b)
and the number obtained by reversing the digits
88. If 7 4 3 , where A and B are digits, then the
B6 is always divisible by 9.
A3B9B (3) When a number is divided by 10, the remainder
value of A + B is is equal to its unit's digit.
(1) 12 (2) 18 (4) ab ba is always a multiple of 11 while

(3) 14 (4) 16 ab ba is not a multiple of 3.
7/12
101. Which of the following is correct?
95. If 523ab is divisible by 72, where a and b are digits,
then the value of 3a + 5b is (1) 15(2x 5) = 15x 75
(1) 26 (2) 30 (2) (a 2b)(a + b) = a2 2b2
(3) 32 (4) 24 (3) 6x + 15x = 21x2
96. The distance between the points (0, 4) and (0, 9) is
(4) (5x + 2)(5x + 2) = 25x2 + 20x + 4
(1) 13 units (2) 5 units
(3) 9 units (4) 4 units 102. The coordinates of a point lying on the yaxis except
origin are
97. If (AM) (PM) = TTT, where each of the letters
represent uniquely a different digit, then the value of (1) (x, y), where x, y 0
T (A + P) is
(2) (x, y), where x = 0, y 0
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 9 (3) (x, y), where x 0, y = 0
20z3 5 2 (4) (x, y), where x < 0 and y > 0

98. The value of z 4 z 5z (z 0) is
3 4 103. The generalized form of a four digit number abcd is

z 2 20z 1 (1) 1000a + 1000b + 1000c + 1000d
z 3 20z z
(1) (2) (2) 1000a + 100b + 10c + d
5 3 4 5 3 4
z3 4 2 z z2 4 (3) 1000b + 100a + 10c + d
z
(3) z (4) z (4) 1000c + 100a + 10b + d
5 3 4 5 3 5
104. If the sum of (x + 5) observations is x4 625, then
99. If 5 1 3 4 , where A and B are digits, then the
+A B 5 2 the mean of the observations is
119BA (1) (x + 5)(x2 + 25) (2) (x + 5)(x 5)(x + 5)
value of 3B 4A is (3) (x 5)(x2 + 25) (4) (x 5)(x 5)(x + 5)
(1) 1 (2) 4 105. The coordinates of the point at which the line joining
(3) 0 (4) 6 the points (3, 3) and (3, 6) meets the x-axis are
100. The line graph shown below gives the annual profit (1) (6, 3) (2) (3, 0)
percent earned by a company during the period
2010-2015. (3) (6, 0) (4) (3, 3)
(Income Expenditure) 100 106. If abc is a three digit number, where a, b and c are
Profit % distinct even numbers and a, b, c 0, then
Expenditure
If the expenditure in 2011 and 2014 are equal, then abc + bca + cab is not always divisible by
the ratio of incomes in 2011 and 2014 respectively, (1) a + b + c (2) 3
is
(3) 37 (4) 5
Y
1 2
90 107. x 4 2 2x 2 (x 0) can be written as
4
80 x x2
70 2 4
60 2 1 1
(1) x 2 (2) x
Profit %
50 x x
40 2
2 1 1 1 1
30 (3) x 2 x (4) x 2 x x
20
x x x 2

10 108. If a + b + c = 9 and c is an odd digit, then the
X
0 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 three digit number abc is always
Years
(1) 6 : 7 (2) 8 : 9 (1) An odd multiple of 6 (2) An odd multiple of 3
(3) 9 : 10 (4) 7 : 9 (3) An even multiple of 9 (4) An even multiple of 3
8/12
109. The greatest common factor in 15x3yz2, 18xy2z3 and 115. If the given graph shows the production of fertilizers
24x2yz 2 is by a company (in 10000 tonnes) over the years,
(1) 15x2yz (2) 6xyz2 then in how many years the production was more
than the average production of the given years?
(3) 3xyz2 (4) x2y2z2
Y
110. If 3x7y8 is divisible by 3, where x and y are distinct
odd digits, then the number of possible values of xy 120 115
110
is 110
100
Production in 10000 tonnes

100
(1) 6 (2) 4 90 85
80 75
(3) 18 (4) 3
70
111. The given double bar graph shows the income and 60 55
the production cost (in crores rupees) of four 50
40
production units in the year 2005. Which production 30
unit earned the maximum profit percentage in the 20
year 2005? 10
0
X
2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
Years
Y
(1) 1 (2) 2
Expenditure
(3) 3 (4) 4
50 116. If A = x 2 + 7x + 10, B = x 2 8x 20 and
45 A
Cost (in crores rupees)
C = 2x2 15x 50, then the value of C is

40 B
35
30
( x 10)( x 5)
(1) (2) (x + 5)(x 10)
25 ( x 2)
20 (2 x 5)( x 10)
(3) (x + 5)(2x + 5) (4)
15 ( x 2)
10 117. If the division of a two-digit natural number n by 5
5 leaves a remainder 2, then the ten's digit of the
P Q
X
0 R S square of sum of all the possible values of one's digit
Production units of n is
(1) P (2) Q (1) 1 (2) 6
(3) R (4) S (3) 8 (4) 5
112. If a, b, c and d are digits, then the value of 118. On factorizing 2ax2 + ax(y + z) + 2bx + b(y + z),
we get
3
abcd bcd cd d 2 50b 10c d is always (1) (ax + b)(2x + y + z) (2) (bx + y)(2a + b + z)
2 (3) (ax + y)(2x + b + z) (4) (ax + b)(x + 2y + z)
equal to 119. If from a point P(m, n), the perpendiculars are drawn
on the X-axis and the Y-axis respectively, then the
(1) abcd (2) adcb
lengths of the perpendiculars from P on the X-axis
(3) dabc (4) bdac and the Y-axis are respectively
(1) m units and n units
113. If ax2 + bx + c = (3x + 7)(x + 5), then the value of
(2) m units and m 2 n 2 units
a + b c is
(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) m 2 n 2 units and n units
(4) n units and m units
(3) 5 (4) 5
4.6225 4.3 3.85 14.8225
114. Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 44? 120. The value of is
16.81 8.2 1.9 3.61
(1) 2068 (2) 2332 (1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 2584 (4) 2596 (3) 1.9 (4) 3.85
9/12
[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
121. Sumit is ranked 18th from top as well as from last. 129. The sum of A, B and C is
The total number of students in his class is
(1) 9 (2) 14
(1) 37 (2) 34
(3) 10 (4) 13
(3) 35 (4) 39
130. Count the number of cubes in the given figure.
122. Rahim is ranked before Raju and Ramesh but after
Ram. If Raju is ranked third among these four, then
who are ranked first and last respectively among
these four?
(1) Ramesh, Ram (2) Ram, Ramesh
(3) Ram, Rahim (4) Rahim, Ram
123. If we arrange the following words according to the
dictionary, then third word from starting is
Wait, Wash, Wave, Water, Warn, Wallet (1) 19 (2) 17
(1) Warn (2) Wallet (3) 16 (4) 18
(3) Water (4) Wash 131. Three different position of a dice give below
Direction (124 to 126): Find the missing term in the
following patterns. 1 6 2
6 5 4 5 4 6
124. 625, 576, 529, 484,?
(1) 414 (2) 241 The number opposite to the 6 is
(3) 444 (4) 441 (1) 3 (2) 4
125. 27, 64, 125, 216, 343,? (3) 1 (4) 2
(1) 729 (2) 512 132. A cube of side 6 cm is cut into the small cubes of
(3) 225 (4) 256 side of 1 cm .If bigger cube was painted red on all
of its faces, then how many small cubes are painted
126. 12, 34, 56, 78, 910, 1112,?
red on three faces exactly?
(1) 1314 (2) 1113
(1) 8 (2) 28
(3) 1012 (4) 1011
(3) 18 (4) 27
Directions: (Q.127 to Q.129) In the following questions Direction (Q.133 to Q.135): In the following questions
find out the digits corresponding to the letters
choose correct option to complete the given figure.
representing those digits in the addition give below.
(assuming that each letter represent unique digit)
A B C
+ C A B 133.
4 D 6 ?
127. A can be stand for
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 3 (1) (2)
128. B is stand for
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) (4)
(3) 5 (4) 3
10/12
138. 31 33 ?
5 6 8 4 2 5
134.
(1) 13 (2) 11
(3) 14 (4) 12
139. Flower is to a Bouquet as Minister is to a
(1) (2) (1) Cabinet (2) Voter
(3) Constituency (4) Election
140. 52 : 6 : : 24 : 5 : : 35 : 7 : : 45 : 8 : : 62 : ?
(3) (4) (1) 4 (2) 9

(3) 7 (4) 5
141. GVIS: KPMM :: OJQG : ?
(1) SDSU (2) RUSD
?
(3) RSUD (4) SDUA
135. Direction (Q.142 to Q.144): In the given table words in
the column-I is coded in numbers which are given the
column-II .Read the information carefully and answer the
following questions.
Column-I Column-II
(1) (2)
BOOK 5744
BORN 6472
KNOT 5412
(3) (4)
RBOT 7614
Direction (Q.136 to Q138): Find the missing character 142. The code for O is
in the following number puzzles.
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 5
136. 5 16 3 10 19 9 12 ? 10 143. The code for T is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 24 (2) 44 (3) 1 (4) 5
(3) 19 (4) 21 144. The code for KBRN can be
(1) 2756 (2) 4125
7 6 16
(3) 1567 (4) 5217
3 16 1 13 36 7 7 ? 1
137. 145. After moving 56 m in eastwards Sukhveer takes left
5 10 35 turn and moves 42 m further. The position of final
point with respect to the initial point is
(1) 34 (2) 59 (1) 70 m, North-West (2) 60 m, North-West
(3) 49 (4) 52 (3) 60 m, North-East (4) 70 m, North-East
11/12
Direction (Q.146 & Q.147): Read the information carefully
149. ICE TEA
and answer the following questions.Ram starts moving
towards north from his home to reach his school. On (1) (2)
reaching at a crossing he found market on his right and
(3) (4)
health club on the his left.
146. The position of school with respect to the market is
(1) North-West (2) South-West
(3) South-East (4) North-East 150.
@
147. From the crossing health club is situated in
(1) North (2) West
@
(3) South (4) East
Directions (Q148 to 150): find the mirror image in (1) (2)
following questions. @
148. 589&746%2#3 @ @
(1) (2) (3) (4)

(3) (4)

12/12
Test-5 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
Test Date : 03-01-2016 TEST - 5
ANSWERS
1. (3) 31. (1) 61. (4) 91. (3) 121. (3)
2. (1) 32. (4) 62. (1) 92. (4) 122. (2)
3. (3) 33. (4) 63. (3) 93. (2) 123. (1)
4. (4) 34. (2) 64. (4) 94. (4) 124. (4)
5. (1) 35. (3) 65. (2) 95. (3) 125. (2)
6. (2) 36. (4) 66. (4) 96. (2) 126. (1)
7. (1) 37. (1) 67. (3) 97. (3) 127. (4)
8. (4) 38. (2) 68. (4) 98. (3) 128. (3)
9. (1) 39. (1) 69. (1) 99. (3) 129. (1)
10. (3) 40. (3) 70. (3) 100. (2) 130. (2)
11. (1) 41. (4) 71. (2) 101. (4) 131. (1)
12. (4) 42. (2) 72. (4) 102. (2) 132. (1)
13. (2) 43. (1) 73. (2) 103. (2) 133. (2)
14. (3) 44. (4) 74. (2) 104. (3) 134. (4)
15. (2) 45. (1) 75. (3) 105. (2) 135. (2)
16. (4) 46. (4) 76. (1) 106. (4) 136. (2)
17. (1) 47. (2) 77. (3) 107. (4) 137. (2)
18. (2) 48. (1) 78. (3) 108. (2) 138. (2)
19. (3) 49. (1) 79. (2) 109. (3) 139. (1)
20. (4) 50. (3) 80. (4) 110. (4) 140. (3)
21. (1) 51. (4) 81. (2) 111. (3) 141. (4)
22. (3) 52. (3) 82. (3) 112. (1) 142. (2)
23. (2) 53. (2) 83. (4) 113. (2) 143. (3)
24. (4) 54. (4) 84. (2) 114. (3) 144. (1)
25. (4) 55. (2) 85. (4) 115. (3) 145. (4)
26. (3) 56. (2) 86. (3) 116. (3) 146. (1)
27. (2) 57. (1) 87. (2) 117. (2) 147. (2)
28. (1) 58. (4) 88. (3) 118. (1) 148. (1)
29. (3) 59. (3) 89. (4) 119. (4) 149. (1)
30. (2) 60. (2) 90. (4) 120. (2) 150. (2)
1/7
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-5 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)
Hints to Selected Questions

[ SCIENCE]
1. Answer (3) 33. Answer (4)
2. Answer (1) Energy obtained on combustion of 15 g of A
3. Answer (3) 450000

= 15 6750 kJ
4. Answer (4) 1000
5. Answer (1) Energy obtained on combustion of 20 g of B
6. Answer (2) 150000

= 20 = 3000 kJ
7. Answer (1) 1000
8. Answer (4) Total energy = 6750 + 3000
9. Answer (1) = 9750 kJ

34. Answer (2)
10. Answer (3)
35. Answer (3)
11. Answer (1)
36. Answer (4)
12. Answer (4)
37. Answer (1)
13. Answer (2)
38. Answer (2)

44. Answer (4)
19. Answer (3)
45. Answer (1)
20. Answer (4)
46. Answer (4)
21. Answer (1)
47. Answer (2)
22. Answer (3)
48. Answer (1)
27. Answer (2) Afforestation is plantation of trees.

Leaching is the seepage of water from the fields into
28. Answer (1)
ground water.
30. Answer (2) Automobiles are the major sources of air pollution.
2/7
Hot water leads to a rise in the temperature of water. 69. Answer (1)
21% oxygen is present in the air. 72. Answer (4)
60. Answer (2)
73. Answer (2)
61. Answer (4)
74. Answer (2)
62. Answer (1)
75. Answer (3)
Due to ozone depletion, the average temperature of
earth's surface will increase gradually. 76. Answer (1)
World's Environment Day is celebrated on 5th June. 78. Answer (3)
64. Answer (4) Due to global warming temperature of earth rises.
UV radiations cause eye defects. 79. Answer (2)
65. Answer (2) Forest fire is a natural source of air pollution.
[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. Answer (2) Now, the increase in population of village C in 2001
82. Answer (3) = 20% of 10000
83. Answer (4) 20
= 10000
84. Answer (2) 100
85. Answer (4) = 2000
86. Answer (3) Hence, the population of C in 2001 = 12000
89. Answer (4) 523ab is divisible by 72,
x2 y2 z2 + 2yz + x y + z Sum of digits i.e.,
= x2 (y2 2yz + z2) + x y + z 5 + 2 + 3 + a + b = 10 + a + b is divisible by both
= x2 (y z)2 + x y + z 8 and 9.
a + b can have values 8, 17 to be divisible by 9.
= (x + y z)(x y + z) + x y + z
And 3ab must be divisible by 8.
= (x y + z)(x + y z + 1)
b cannot be an odd number.
90. Answer (4)
a + b = 8,
91. Answer (3) a = 0, b = 8
92. Answer (4) a = 2, b = 6
93. Answer (2) a = 4, b = 4
Population of village A in 2000 = 20000 [Given] a = 6, b = 2
Let the population of village C in 2000 be x. a = 8, b = 0
Then, 20 : 10 = 20000 : x For a + b = 17, a = 9, b = 8
a = 4 and b = 4 is the only value that satisfies the
20000 10
x 10000 problem.
20 3 a + 5 b = 12 + 20 = 32
3/7
(AM) (PM) = TTT After sketching the line joining the points (3, 3) and
(3, 6), the point at which this line meets the xaxis
So, TTT = 111 T
is (3, 0).
= 37 3 T
Y
37 is a prime number.
4
3 (3, 3)
So, either AM = 37 or PM = P 7
2
Let AM = 37 and PM = 3 T 1 (3,0)
X' 0 X
PM is a multiple of 3 and M is 7. 5 4 3 2 1
1 1 23 4 5
So, PM can be 27, 57 and 87. 2

3
Now, 37 27 = 999 4
5
57 and 87 are not possible as they would yield a 6 (3, 6)
4-digit number. 7
So, T (A + P) = 9 (3 + 2) Y'
=95 106. Answer (4)
=4
abc 100a 10b c
98. Answer (3)
99. Answer (3) abc bca cab 111(a b c )
100. Answer (2) = 3 37( a + b + c)

Let the expenditure in 2011 = Expenditure in 2014 = x a, b, c are distinct even numbers and not equal to
zero.
Also, let incomes in 2011 and 2014 be A1 and A2
respectively. a b c a+b+c
For year 2011, 2 4 6 12
A x 60 A 16 2 6 8 16
60 1 100 1 1 A1 x
x 100 x 10 2 4 8 14
(i)
4 6 8 18
For year 2014,
2 6 4 12
A x 80 A 18
80 2 100 2 1 A2 x a + b + c is not divisible by 5.
x 100 x 10
107. Answer (4)
(ii)
1 1
From (i) and (ii), we get x4 2 2 x2 2
x4 x
2
16 x 1 1
A1 10 16 8 x2 2 2 x2 2
x x
A2 18 x 18 9 [Using identity a2 + 2ab + b2 = (a + b)2]
10

1 1
x 2 2 x 2 2 2
A1 : A2 = 8 : 9 x x
101. Answer (4) 2
1 1
x 2 2 x
102. Answer (2) x x
103. Answer (2) [Using identity a2 2ab + b2 = (a b)2]
4/7
108. Answer (2) 112. Answer (1)
If a + b + c = 9 and c is an odd digit, then the sum
of the digits is divisible by 3 and c is an odd digit, abcd 1000a 100b 10c d
therefore it is an odd multiple of 3.
bcd 100b 10c d
109. Answer (3)
110. Answer (4) cd 10c d
3x7y8 is divisible by 3,
3 + x + 7 + y + 8 = 18 + x + y is also divisible d d
by 3.
abcd bcd cd d 1000a 200b 30c 4d
18 is divisible by 3.
x + y can take values 0, 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 3
2(50b 10c d ) 100b 20c 3d
But x and y are distinct odd digits, therefore the 2
possibilities are
(x = 1, y = 5), (x = 3, y = 9), (x = 5, y = 7), 3
abcd bcd cd d 2 50b 10c d
(x = 5, y = 1), (x = 9, y = 3) and (x = 7, y = 5) 2
Hence, the number of possible values of xy is three.
111. Answer (3) 1000a 100b 10c d abcd
113. Answer (2)
Y Expenditure ax2 + bx +c = (3x + 7)(x + 5)
50
ax2 + bx + c = 3x2 + 22x + 35
45 a = 3, b = 22 and c = 35
Cost (in crores rupees)
40
35
a + b c = 3 + 22 35
30 = 10
25
20
114. Answer (3)
15 115. Answer (3)
10 Y
5
P Q
X
0 R S 120 115
Production units 110
110
100
Production in 10000 tonnes
The income of production unit P is ` 45 Crores. 100

90 85
Production cost of production unit P is ` 35 Crores 80 75
70
Profit % of P 55
60
Difference between income and cost 50
= 100 40
Production cost 30
10 200 4 20
100 28 % 10
35 7 7 X
0 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
5 100 1
Similarly, profit % of Q = 100 11 % Years
45 9 9 Average production of the company over the years
10 100 1
Profit % of R = 100 33 %
30 3 3 55 75 100 85 115 110
90
The maximum profit percentage earned is by 6
1 The production of the company is more than the

R i.e., 33 % . average in the years 2003, 2005 and 2006 i.e., three.
3
5/7
116. Answer (3) Then, the square of the sum of all the possible
values of one's digit
A = x2 + 7x + 10
= (2 + 7 + 2 + 7 + ..... 9 times)2
= (x + 5)(x + 2)
= (81)2 = 6561
B = x2 8x 20
Now, ten's digit of the square of the sum of all the
= (x 10)(x + 2) possible values of one's digit = 6
C = 2x2 15x 50 118. Answer (1)
= (x 10)(2x + 5) 119. Answer (4)
120. Answer (2)
A ( x 5)( x 2) x 5
= 4.6225 4.3 3.85 14.8225
B ( x 10)( x 2) x 10
16.81 8.2 1.9 3.61
A (2.15)2 4.3 3.85 (3.85)2

C = (x + 5)(2x + 5)
B (4.1)2 8.2 1.9 (1.9)2
117. Answer (2) (2.15 3.85)2

[Using identity a2 + 2ab
n is divided by 5 and leaves the remainder 2. (4.1 1.9)2
+ b2 = (a + b)2]
n can be 12, 17, 22, .....,97.
(6.00)2
The unit digit will be 2 or 7. 1
(6.0)2
[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
121. Answer (3) 129. Answer (1)
th A = 3 or 1
18
th th
17 Sumit 17 B=5
C = 10 or 3
Total number of students = 35
A+B+C=3+5+1=9
122. Answer (2) 130. Answer (2)
Ram > Rahim > Raju > Ramesh 131. Answer (1)
123. Answer (1)
1
Order is wait, wallet, warn, wash, water, wave
124. Answer (4) 6
252, 242, 232, 222, 212 2 4 5
125. Answer (2)
3
33, 43, 53, 63, 73, 83
132. Answer (1)
126. Answer (1)
133. Answer (2)
Natural number in pair of two 12, 34, 56, 78, 910,
1112 and so on. 134. Answer (4)
127. Answer (4) 135. Answer (2)

136. Answer (2)
A B C
3 5 1
1 3 5 a c b
4 8 6
128. Answer (3)
c = a2 b2
6/7
137. Answer (2) 143. Answer (3)
b 144. Answer (1)

a e c
145. Answer (4)
d
e=a+b+c+d
42 m
138. Answer (2)
70
c
56 m
a b c=ab+1
146. Answer (1)
139. Answer (1)
140. Answer (3) School
ab : (a + b) 1
141. Answer (4)
Health
+2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 +2 Market
Club
G V I S : K PM M : : O J Q G : S D UA
3 3 3 3 3 3 3
142. Answer (2) Home
Column-I Column-II
147. Answer (2)
B O O K 5 7 4 4
148. Answer (1)
B O R N 6 4 7 2
K N O T 5 4 1 2 149. Answer (1)
R B O T 7 6 1 4 150. Answer (2)

7/7

Test - 5: (Science)

Diunggah oleh

Informasi Dokumen

Judul Asli

Hak Cipta

Format Tersedia

Bagikan dokumen Ini

Bagikan atau Tanam Dokumen

Opsi Berbagi

Apakah menurut Anda dokumen ini bermanfaat?

Apakah konten ini tidak pantas?

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

Test - 5: (Science)

Diunggah oleh

Hak Cipta:

Format Tersedia

Test-5 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Time : 3 Hrs. TEST - 5 MM : 600

(3) Meteorites (4) Meteors N2O

A<C<B<D (2) Antimony trisulphide and potassium chlorate

(1) Hydrogen (2) Kerosene (1) Because it absorbs the petrol

57. Thermal power plants, oil refineries, etc. discharge

residual water directly into the water bodies, which

adversely affects the aquatic organisms living in the

83. One of the factors of x4 + 36y4 12x2y2 is (1) 16 (2) 9

(1) 12 (2) 18 (4) ab ba is always a multiple of 11 while

20z3 5 2 (4) (x, y), where x < 0 and y > 0

Production in 10000 tonnes

C = 2x2 15x 50, then the value of C is

(3) (4) (1) 4 (2) 9

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Test Date : 03-01-2016 TEST - 5

Hints to Selected Questions

3. Answer (3) 450000

5. Answer (1) Energy obtained on combustion of 20 g of B

6. Answer (2) 150000

8. Answer (4) Total energy = 6750 + 3000

9. Answer (1) = 9750 kJ

18. Answer (2) 43. Answer (1)

27. Answer (2) Afforestation is plantation of trees.

So, PM can be 27, 57 and 87. 2

100. Answer (2) = 3 37( a + b + c)

113. Answer (2)

Y Expenditure ax2 + bx +c = (3x + 7)(x + 5)

The income of production unit P is ` 45 Crores. 100

1 The production of the company is more than the

A (2.15)2 4.3 3.85 (3.85)2

117. Answer (2) (2.15 3.85)2

127. Answer (4) 135. Answer (2)

b 144. Answer (1)

K N O T 5 4 1 2 149. Answer (1)

R B O T 7 6 1 4 150. Answer (2)

Anda mungkin juga menyukai